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Received: 26 November 2019 Revised: 10 January 2020 Accepted: 19 January 2020 DOI: 10.1111/obr.13005 PEDIATRICS/PHYSIOLOGY Adipokines: A gear shift in puberty DesirĂŠe Nieuwenhuis | NatĂ lia Pujol-Gualdo Amanda J. Kiliaan Department of Anatomy, Radboud university medical center, Donders Institute for Brain, Cognition and Behaviour, Preclinical Imaging Center PRIME, Nijmegen, The Netherlands Correspondence Amanda J. Kiliaan, PhD, Associate Professor, Department of Anatomy, Donders Institute for Brain, Cognition, and Behaviour, Preclinical Imaging Center PRIME, Radboud university medical center, 6500 HB Nijmegen, Geert Grooteplein 21N 6525 EZ Nijmegen, The Netherlands. Email: amanda.kiliaan@radboudumc.nl Funding information Europees Fonds voor Regionale Ontwikkeling (EFRO), Grant/Award Number: BriteN 2016 1 | INTRODUCTION The prevalence of obesity in adolescents and children is increasing in | Ilse A.C. Arnoldussen | Summary In this review, we discuss the role of adipokines in the onset of puberty in children with obesity during adrenarche and gonadarche and provide a clear and detailed overview of the biological processes of two major players, leptin and adiponectin. Adipokines, especially leptin and adiponectin, seem to induce an early onset of puberty in girls and boys with obesity by affecting the hypothalamic-pituitary- gonadal (HPG) axis. Moreover, adipokines and their receptors are expressed in the gonads, suggesting a role in sexual maturation and reproduction. All in all, adipokines may be a clue in understanding mechanisms underlying the onset of puberty in child- hood obesity and puberty onset variability. KEYWORDS adipokines, obesity, puberty 1,2 the age of 5 years were overweight or were with obesity in 2016, and 3 Obesity is defined by an excessive accumulation of white adipose tissue (WAT), and it is often indicated by a body mass index (BMI) 4 above 30. Two main types of adipose tissue were described: WAT and brown adipose tissue (BAT), which differ in morphology and func- 5-7 Ilse A.C. Arnoldussen and Amanda J. Kiliaan contributed equally to this work. This is an open access article under the terms of the Creative Commons Attribution License, which permits use, distribution and reproduction in any medium, provided the original work is properly cited. Š 2020 The Authors. Obesity Reviews published by John Wiley & Sons Ltd on behalf of World Obesity Federation Obesity Reviews. 2020;21:e13005. wileyonlinelibrary.com/journal/obr 1 of 10 https://doi.org/10.1111/obr.13005 alarming rates. Specifically, worldwide, 41 million children below this number is expected to increase to 70 million in 2025. obesity is associated with various severe health complications, includ- ing increased risk of diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, heart dis- eases, and disturbances in sex hormone levels. 5,6 and mitochondria and plays a role in thermogenesis. Adipocytes in tion. BAT consists of adipocytes containing multiple lipid droplets WAT contain only a few mitochondria and a single lipid droplet. Adipose tissue has several functions including the storage of energy, thermogenesis, and the production and secretion of adipokines Generally, two physiological processes, adrenarche and gonadarche, 11,24 Childhood 5,7,8 a key role in puberty onset. Puberty is known as a period through which the body changes physically, being a physiological process resulting in the maturation of children, i.e. they develop sexual characteristics and obtain reproduc- 9,11 Adipokines are involved in a number of physiological processes including blood pressure, metabo- lism, glucose, and vascular homeostasis and may play amongst others 8-10 (hormones, cytokines, and peptides). tive functions. between obesity and puberty,2,12-23 the biological mechanisms under- lying obesity and puberty onset remain unclear. Hereafter, we review in detail the role of adipokines in the onset of puberty in childhood obesity. Although many studies have shown associations 2 | INITIATION OF PUBERTY PHYSIOLOGICAL PROCESSES IN THE interact to regulate the onset of puberty. During adrenarche, the adrenal cortex secretes steroid hormones (including 2 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. androstenedione, dehydroepiandrosterone, dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS), androstenedione, and cortisol), insulin-like growth factor, and growth hormone, which contribute to the pubertal insights on new genetic loci (e.g. melanocortin-4 receptor, mitochon- drial carrier 2, and mitogen-activated protein kinase 13) and on sev- eral pathways that regulate the timing of puberty; however, it partly 34 9,24,25 Both adrenarche and gonadarche are involved in the development growth spurt, body odor, skin oiliness, and skeletal maturation. explains puberty timing variation. Thereby, defining the role of 25 adipokines is of importance in elucidating the variability in puberty as the expression of adipokines is sex-specific and is altered with body composition, adiposity, and during growth spurts. Moreover, adipokines and their receptors are expressed in gonads and several brain regions suggesting involvement in the onset of puberty and sex- ual maturation. Lastly, adipokines interfere in processes regulating timing and duration of puberty, for instance in the HPA and HPG axes which are both key players during adrenarche and gonadarche. Involvement of adipokines in the onset of puberty and specifically in individuals with obesity will be further reviewed in the next 2,24 3 | Puberty onset in girls is assessed using different markers, such as thelarche (breast development), menarche (the start of of pubic hair. pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is activated,2,26 and several hormones have been identified to participate in the activation of the HPG axis During gonadarche (Figure 1), the hypothalamic- 2,27 Kisspeptin, neurokinin B, and dynorphin are released by specialized including kisspeptin, neurokinin B, dynorphin, leptin, and ghrelin. 28 key regulator of the pulsatile secretion of gonadotropin releasing neurons, the KNDy neurons in the hypothalamus. Kisspeptin is a 29,30 B stimulates, and dynorphin inhibits the release of kisspeptin, which hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. In addition, neurokinin implies that both coordinate a pulsatile release of kisspeptin. 31 Sub- sections. sequently, the activated HPG axis induces the pituitary gland to secrete luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). As a result, gametogenesis occurs, and the gonads will release sex hormones. Consequently, secondary sex characteristics develop including breast development in girls and an increased testicular vol- 2,26,32 is possibly due to differences in levels of body fat, hypothalamic-pitui- THE ONSET OF PUBERTY IN GIRLS ume in boys. The age at puberty onset varies greatly among individuals, which 19 35 menstruation), and pubic hair development. 33 genome-wide association studies have provided important new tary-adrenal (HPA) axis activity, and genetic background. Recent The average age of However, this age differs between cultures and ethnicities, and since 1980, age at menarche is girls at start of menarche is 12.4 years. 36 significantly decreasing. 36-39 F I G U R E 1 Hormonal regulation in the initiation of puberty in boys and girls. The secretion of kisspeptin, neurokinin B, and dynorphin from KNDy neurons initiate the release of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. This activates the pituitary gland to produce and secrete luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), which in turn stimulate the gonads to produce estrogen and testosterone in girls and boys, respectively 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 3 of 10 T A B L E 1 Summary of included studies Authors Year Country Study Design Primary Outcome Sex Sample Size (n) Age (y) Data Collection Lian et al21 2019 China Cross-sectional Puberty starts earlier in Chinese Han girls with obesity compared with Chinese Han girls with normal weight. Girls 2996 9-19 2012 and 2013 Biro et al12 Lazzeri et al20 2018 USA 2018 Italy Longitudinal Cross-sectional Body mass index had a greater effect on age at menarche than did race and ethnicity. Girls 946 6-16 2004-2014 Li et al23 2018 China Longitudinal For both, boys and girls, a higher BMI (ie, overweight and obese) is associated with earlier onset of puberty Girls Girls Boys Girls 542 Deng et al22 Flom et al15 2017 China Cross-sectional Increased BMI is associated with early timing spermarche and menarche. Boys Girls Girls 1278258 9-15 2005-2012 He et al24 Holmgren et al17 2017 China 2017 Sweden Cross-sectional Longitudinal Onset of puberty is not related to obesity in boys. Boys Boys Girls Girls 782 7-17 972 929 5839 Kelly et al19 2017 UK 2016 Brazil 2016 USA Longitudinal prospective cohort Higher BMI in girls is associated with the onset of menstruation at an earlier age. 11 10-18 11-17 Barcellos Gemelli et al25 Cross-sectional Longitudinal Excess weight is associated with early age of menarche. Girls 727 2014 2003-2009 Glass et al16 Lee et al26 In girls, but not in boys, greater adiposity is associated with the earlier onset of puberty. Boys Girls 135 Cabrera et al27 Leonibus et al14 2014 USA 2013 Italy Cross-sectional Longitudinal Thelarche occurred earlier than recently reported, while age of menarche remained unchanged. Girls 610 3-17.9 2007 2005-2012 Currie et al13 2012 Europe, USA, Canada Cross-sectional Overweight/obesity during childhood predicts the early onset of puberty in girls. Girls 20410 11, 13, 15 2005-2006 2017 USA Prospective birth cohort Overweight/obese status at the age of 7 ye was associated with increased risk of early menarche 788 From birth to menarche occurred Pregnancies 1959-1966 2016 USA Cross-sectional Boys with overweight enter puberty earlier compared with boys with normal weight or obesity, while puberty starts later in boys with obesity compared with boys with normal weight and overweight. Boys 3872 6-16 2005-2010 Overweight during childhood shows a relation with the early onset of puberty in girls. 6535 4259 695 11 15 5.8-12.2 2009/2010 2013/2014 2014-2017 Higher BMI during childhood is associated with early puberty. 2008 and 2009 2000-2002 Obesity during childhood is related to the earlier onset of puberty. Boys Girls 84 123 71 (Continues) 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License 4 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 3.1 | Fat storage For the initiation of puberty, the timing of stimulation and/or inhibi- tion of different hormones is important, and additionally, a certain amount and distribution of body fat is needed in order to start menar- che, which emphasizes the importance of body fat. From an evolution- ary point of view, body fat increases in mammalian females during puberty onset, and it highlights the need to guarantee a healthy preg- 40 women with anorexia nervosa. particularly body fat localized predominantly on the gluteofemoral fat depots, is profoundly associated with start of menarche, more than nancy, offspring, and maternal survival. fat, sex-hormones, and neuroendocrine alterations can evolve in men- strual dysfunction, for instance, in women with severe obesity or in 41-43 44-46 to gluteofemoral fat depots suggesting that leptin may convey infor- amount of total body fat. mation on body fat distribution to the hypothalamus during puberty. An improper level of body Importantly, body fat distribution, Blood leptin levels are strongly related 45 3.2 | HPG axis The HPG axis is activated by the release of kisspeptin resulting in the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, and LH and FSH from the pituitary gland. In girls, FSH is involved in the development of the folli- cles in the ovaries, and it promotes the secretion of estrogen. LH stim- ulates the production of androgen hormones and induces ovulation 48 9,47 the release of kisspeptin and neurokinin B, and kisspeptin thereby (Figure 1). The secretion of estrogen has an inhibitory effect on inhibits the GnRH release from the hypothalamus. pattern of GnRH is important for the regulation of the menstrual cycle. This roughly 28-day-cycle comprises several phases, including the follicular phase and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, increasing levels of FSH stimulate the maturation of follicles and the production of estrogen from the ovaries. This in turn inhibits the release of FSH from the pituitary gland. A high level of estrogen will induce the production of LH by the pituitary gland, resulting in ovula- tion. The matured follicle secretes progesterone thereby inhibiting the release of GnRH. When the corpus luteum is demolished, there is less 48 3.3 | Adipokines According to results from studies reported in Table 1, girls with obe- sity enter puberty earlier compared with girls with normal higher leptin concentrations inhibit the intake of food and increases inhibition of GnRH. As a consequence, the cycle will start again. whole process, starting from the activated HPG axis, results in the development of the secondary sex characteristics in girls including 9,47 thelarche and menarche. 13,14,16-23,49-51 weight. these girls might be found in the secretion of adipokines. For instance, leptin is positively associated with the amount of body fat. Generally, energy expenditure. 9,52-54 An explanation for the early onset of puberty in The expression This TABLE 1 (Continued) Authors Year Country Study Design Primary Outcome Sample Sex Size (n) Age (y) Data Collection Herman-Giddens et al28 2012 USA Cross-sectional Observed mean ages of beginning genital and pubic hair growth and early testicular volumes were earlier than in past studies, depending on the characteristic and race/ethnicity. Boys 4131 6-16 2005-2010 Sorensen et al29 Aksglaede et al30 2010 2009 Denmark Denmark Cross-sectional/longitudinal Longitudinal Puberty onset at earlier ages was associated with an increased BMI in boys. Boys 1528 5.8-19.9 1991-1993/2006-2008 1930-1969 Juul et al31 Ribeiro et al32 2007 2006 Denmark Portugal Retrospective cohort Cross-sectional Higher BMI is associated with early voice break. 11-15 10-15 1990-1999 Kaplowitz et al18 Abbreviation: BMI, body mass USA Cross-sectional The early onset of puberty in Caucasian girls is likely related to an increased BMI. 5-12 1992-1993 2001 index. The higher BMI in boys and girls at 7 y of age, the earlier they enter puberty. Boys 21 612 Girls 135 223 Boys 463 Boys 382 Girls 437 Girls 10 750 Early sexual maturation in boys and girls is associated with overweight. 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 5 of 10 Leptin may possibly play a role in adrenarche as its plasma level increases with higher levels of body fat and as it can modulate both girls. 33 ing adrenarche. In coherence, in children with obesity, the androgen These findings suggested that lower reproductive status was associated with higher total adiponectin concentrations and that a higher reproductive status was related to higher HMW adiponectin the HPA and HPG axes. These axes are functionally integrated dur- DHEAS was positively associated with leptin levels. Nevertheless, concentrations in girls. In addition, individuals with obesity often another study showed that enhanced adrenal androgen secretion in girls with premature adrenarche was not explained by leptin or BMI 55 ated with androgen levels in girls ; however, it was not related to levels. and IL-6. TNF-Îą alters, and IL-6 inhibits the expression of 56 8 In addition, the adipokine adiponectin was negatively associ- 57 differences of adiponectin seem to develop during the progression of 56 adiponectin (Figure 2). Thereby, a low level of total adiponectin and/or high levels of inflammatory cytokines in individuals with obe- sity can promote the onset of puberty. Many more adipokines are secreted by WAT including omentin, 52,65-67 9,36,62,68 adrenarche in girls with Prader-Willi syndrome. Interestingly, sex puberty. adrenarche; however, both are not required factors. Thus, leptin and adiponectin might be able to influence In gonadarche, leptin can stimulate the secretion of kisspeptin, and subsequently activation of the HPG axis, which eventually increases the expression of estrogen and androstenedione in the ova- 58 2,60 65-67 The expression of these ries (Figure 2). Ob gene in WAT, resulting in the synthesis and secretion of leptin. Thus, high levels of leptin promote onset of puberty in girls via secre- tion of kisspeptin, and estrogen stimulates leptin secretion addition- ally. Moreover, adiponectin can affect the HPG axis due to the expression of adiponectin receptors in the hypothalamus, pituitary In return, estrogen stimulates the expression of the 59 gland, and gonads. onset as it inhibits the secretion of kisspeptin and GnRH in the hypo- thalamus and the release of GH and LH in the pituitary gland, and 2,60-62 52,60 63 girls with central precocious puberty (CPP). Moreover, total adiponectin had negative correlations with progression of puberty in girls (defined by Tanner stages), whereas HMW adiponectin had FIGURE 2 Adipokinesaffectingthe initiation of puberty in girls. Leptin stimulates the release of kisspeptin in KNDy neurons, which activates the hypothalamus to produce gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH). In response to the release of GnRH, the pituitary gland secretes follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), which stimulates the ovaries to release estrogen resulting in the formation of secondary sex characteristics in girls. Estrogen stimulates the production of leptin. Adiponectin inhibits GnRH release resulting in reduced levels of GnRH and thereby a delayed onset of puberty. TNF- Îą and IL-6 inhibit the production of adiponectin and therefore stimulate the onset of puberty In detail, adiponectin is a regulator of puberty thereby inhibiting the onset of puberty (Figure 2). with obesity often have low levels of adiponectin. et al. showed that total adiponectin was significantly lower, whereas high molecular weight (HMW) adiponectin was significantly higher in ment. 55 63 develop a chronic low-grade inflammatory state, which can be indi- cated by a high level of circulating inflammatory cytokines like TNF-Îą 64 Individuals Sitticharoon positive associations with LH levels and the progression of puberty in 63 visfatin, resistin, and chemerin. and visfatin are expressed in the ovaries. adipokines in the ovaries suggests a role within the reproductive sys- tem; however, the exact biological processes have to be examined. Thus, specifically leptin, adiponectin, and inflammatory cytokines pro- duced by WAT could be permissive key players during an early onset of puberty in girls with obesity. As an exception, HMW adiponectin seems to have a stimulatory effect on peripheral repro- ductive function as HMW is not able to cross the blood brain 63 barrier. 4 | Markers that are used to assess puberty onset in boys are THE ONSET OF PUBERTY IN BOYS spermarche, voice break, testicular volume, and pubic hair develop- 35 spermarche develop in the early stages of puberty onset, voice In women, omentin, chemerin, While pubic hair development, larger testicular volume, and 69 testicular volume increases, which occurs at an average age of break usually appears in later stages of puberty. Generally, first 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License 6 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 11.9 years, followed by the development of pubic hair at 12.2 years of average, and lastly, boys experience spermarche around an aver- 55 related with leptin levels. Thereby, leptin plausibly has a minor impact in adrenarche in boys. Since leptin receptors are found in the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and testes, they might be involved in the onset of puberty by affecting the HPG axis during gonadarche. Leptin stimulates the release of kisspeptin and GnRH, and as a consequence, it accelerates the onset of puberty (Table 1, Figure 3). In contrast, adiponectin inhibits the secretion of GnRH, GH, LH, and FSH therewith delaying the onset of puberty. However, adiponectin levels are generally lower in men compared with women and even lower in men with obe- age age of 13.4 years. 70 4.1 | Fat storage Many aspects of the reproductive physiology are energetically demanding,71 and therefore, an adequate energy level is necessary. In boys, a dynamic change in body composition occurs around the age of 10 to 13 years, in which they gain approximately 40% of sity. culating inflammatory cytokines. levels can stimulate the HPG axis and therewith an early onset of puberty in boys. Nevertheless, leptin can inhibit the production of tes- 72 mostly consisting of lean mass, which causes exhaustion of most of fat. Subsequently, a growth spurt follows in which they gain tissue 72 in boys, an adequate amount of body fat is important in the onset of their body fat. These alterations in amount of body fat indicate that 4.2 | Puberty in boys is initiated by the release of kisspeptin. As mentioned before, this activates the HPG axis, resulting in the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, and consequently the release of LH and FSH 9,74 puberty. tosterone from the testes, to estrogen (Figure 3). of the development of secondary sex characteristics in boys. Additionally, leptin can affect fertility in men as it can modulate the nutritional support of spermatogenesis, and moreover, dysfunction of spermatogenesis is associated with an increased leptin level and 73 58 2,60-62 HPG axis from the pituitary gland (Figure 1). and LH stimulates the secretion of testosterone from the testes, which inhibits the release of kisspeptin from the KNDy neurons and 9,48 in men, the release of kisspeptin is more consistent, causing a con- 29,48 subsequently GnRH from the hypothalamus. receptors expressed on KNDy neurons. In humans, KNDy neurons Contrarily to women, LH-induced testosterone levels lead to the stant release of LH. development of secondary sex characteristics in boys. differences between sexes in kisspeptin release are related to a sex- specific and sex steroid-dependent kisspeptin system as estrogen and progesterone modulate kisspeptin activity through the sex-steroid 48 in the infundibular nucleus are involved in negative and positive sex- 48 tal exposure to sex steroids and result in sex-specific differences in steroid feedbacks. kisspeptin release. These sexual dimorphisms are induced by perina- 75,76 4.3 | Adipokines The association between obesity and puberty onset in boys is rather controversial compared with findings in girls. Most studies reported an early onset of puberty in boys associated with increased ate adipose tissue from actual breast tissue. stages are more difficult to assess than female stages as boys lack a more determined marker such as menarche. Thirdly, puberty onset can be indicated by the activation of the HPG axis, and the presence of these secondary sex characteristics is the result of hormonal 2 14,17,22,23,50,51,77,78 BMI, 20,49 all while others reported no associations at Current markers used 79 16,80 or a delayed onset of puberty (Table 1). The presence of excessive adipose tissue can be involved in puberty onset in boys as the secretion of adipokines can modulate both adrenarche and gonadarche. Leptin can affect adrenarche by modulating both the HPG and HPA axes,33 and moreover, androgen levels were positively 55 nal androgen secretion in boys with premature adrenarche was not associated with plasma leptin levels. Nevertheless, enhanced adre- 9 In more detail, 61,62 adiponectin, and individuals with obesity often have high levels of cir- Moreover, inflammatory cytokines, TNF-Îą, and IL-6, inhibit expression of the leptin receptor in the testis. FSH induces spermatogenesis, too. function and role still have to be examined. 64 High leptin and low adiponectin and fat tissue can convert testosterone Both processes might result in the delay 29,61,79 81,82 In men, other adipokines like chemerin are found in the gonads 65 Thus, particularly high leptin and low adiponectin levels stimulate the HPG axis and thereby accelerate the onset of puberty in boys. Additionally, leptin can dysregulate the development of secondary sex characteristics and spermatogenesis by affecting testosterone levels and nutritional sup- port of spermatogenesis. 5 | LIMITATIONS AND FUTURE RESEARCH DIRECTIONS Even though multiple epidemiological studies have shown the link between puberty onset and obesity, there are some important limita- tions. Firstly, determining both the onset and stage of puberty is rather difficult. For instance, assessing the stage of breast develop- ment in girls with obesity is complicated as clinicians should differenti- 2 changes in response to the activated HPG axis. to determine the onset of puberty refer to secondary sex characteris- tics, such as testicular volume in boys and breast development in girls. A more accurate measurement of puberty onset would be to combine secondary sex characteristics with plasma or serum hormone level measurements such as LH, FSH, adipokines, e.g. leptin. Thereby, differences in puberty measurements could explain variations in the age of puberty onset between boys and girls within different Thereby, resistin is expressed in the testes of rats, but its exact 83 Secondly, male pubertal 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 7 of 10 FIGURE 3 Adipokines affecting the initiation of puberty in boys. Leptin activates kisspeptin secretion in KNDy neurons, this activates the production of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. GnRH stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), activating the production of testosterone from the testes allowing the development of secondary sex characteristics. Leptin also inhibits the production of testosterone, which may cause a delayed onset of puberty. Adiponectin inhibits GnRH release. Low levels of adiponectin, as a result of TNF-Îą and IL-6 expression, lead to a reduced inhibition of GnRH. In response to GnRH release, the pituitary gland will secrete FSH and LH, and the testes will produce testosterone resulting in the development of secondary sex characteristics in boys countries, and In addition, the inclusion of a of puberty. ferent time points is complicated, as subjects examined several decades ago presented pronounced differences concerning lifestyle patterns such as nutrition and exercise habits. Lastly, obesity or over- weight is often determined by BMI, a classification based on weight and height measurements. Additionally, it is important that all studies studies or across continents, ethnicities proper age range (8-16 years) is important when assessing the onset (Figure 4). 12-15,17,20-23,49,77-79,84,85 30,47 Furthermore, comparison between studies from dif- 86 Specifically in children, BMI is often dependent on age and growth use the same anthropometric standards and sex-specific cut-offs. 13,14,16-23,49-51,77-80 fat and would represent a more accurate measurement in its regard. Based on this review, several suggestions can be made for further research. Firstly, the roles of adipokines like resistin, chemerin, visfatin, and omentin in puberty onset, fertility, and sexual maturation should be examined in detail. Secondly, future research examining the onset of puberty should combine indicators of puberty onset (e.g. breast development or testicular volume) with plasma or serum hor- mone measurements such as LH, FSH, sex-steroids, adipokines (e.g. spurts. ment in case of growth spurts. distribution of body fat should be taken into account in determining puberty and obesity in children. For instance, the body adiposity index (BAI), which was introduced in 2011 by Bergman et al.,87 uses hip cir- cumference and height in order to estimate the percentage of body 87 Thereby, BMI is a less accurate measure- F I G U R E 4 87,88 Therefore, both percentage and Average age of puberty onset in Europe, China, and the United States according to several studies from Table 1. Age of puberty onset ranges from 8.47 to 13.33 years in girls and from 8.63 leptin), and body fat distribution (e.g. BAI,87 waist-hip ratio's and/or dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA)2). Additionally, defining con- sistent and general measurements of puberty in both boys and girls, combined with a proper age range (8-16 years), would facilitate the comparisons between different studies and their results. 12-15, 17, 20-23, 25-29, 31 to 13.7 years in boys. included if average age of markers used to assess puberty was not reported. Pink: girls. Blue: boys Studies (Table 1) were not 39, 56 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License 8 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 6 | CONCLUSION In conclusion, epidemiological data regarding obesity and puberty onset in girls show similar outcomes as adiposity results in the early onset of puberty in girls. 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Ann Epidemiol. 2017;27(3):187-93.e2. 16. Glass NA, Torner JC, Letuchy EM, et al. The relationship between greater prepubertal adiposity, subsequent age of maturation, and bone strength during adolescence. Journal of bone and mineral research: the official journal of the American Society for Bone and Min- eral Research. 2016;31(7):1455-1465. 17. Holmgren A, Niklasson A, Nierop AF, et al. Pubertal height gain is inversely related to peak BMI in childhood. Pediatr Res. 2017;81(3): 448-454. 18. Kaplowitz PB, Slora EJ, Wasserman RC, Pedlow SE, Herman- Giddens ME. Earlier onset of puberty in girls: relation to increased body mass index and race. Pediatrics. 2001;108(2):347-353. 19. Kelly Y, Zilanawala A, Sacker A, Hiatt R, Viner R. Early puberty in 11-year-old girls: Millennium Cohort Study findings. Arch Dis Child. 2017;102(3):232-237. 20. Lazzeri G, Tosti C, Pammolli A, et al. Overweight and lower age at menarche: evidence from the Italian HBSC cross-sectional survey. BMC Womens Health. 2018;18(1):168-174. thereby an early onset of obesity. leptin can inhibit the production of testosterone in boys and subse- quently inhibit the development of secondary sex characteristics affecting spermatogenesis. for other adipokines, like resistin and omentin, are present in the testes and ovaries suggesting a role in puberty or reproduction; 58, 71 however, their plausible function is still unknown. that adipokines may be key regulators in an early onset of puberty in both girls and boys with obesity, specifically by affecting the HPG axis during gonadarche. Future research should focus on assessing puberty onset by measuring consistent puberty markers and determine the percentage of body fat and its distribution and adipokines and hormone serum levels particularly involved in the HPG axis. CONFLICTS OF INTEREST The authors declare no conflict of interest. FUNDING INFORMATION This research was funded by Europees Fonds voor Regionale Ontwikkeling (EFRO), project BriteN 2016. ORCID Ilse A.C. Arnoldussen Amanda J. Kiliaan https://orcid.org/0000-0002-7395-5284 https://orcid.org/0000-0002-2158-6210 13, 14, 16-26, 29-32 Furthermore, several receptors Nevertheless, We conclude Search strategy We searched PubMed for articles published before Novem- ber 15th, 2019 using relevant keywords, including âonset of puberty and adiposity/obesityâ, âonset of pubertyâ, âchildren with obesityâ, âadipose tissueâ, âchildhood obesityâ, âadiposityâ, âobesityâ, âadipokine(s)â, âHPG axisâ, âadipokines ovary/ova- riesâ, or âadipokines testesâ, either alone or in combination. Selection criteria used were English language, longitudinal or cross-sectional studies assessing the onset of puberty, including menarche, thelarche, spermarche, or voice break, combined with high BMI or obesity/adiposity, and articles assessing or reviewing adipokines and its effects on the reproductive system. 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 9 of 10 21. Lian Q, Mao Y, Luo S, et al. Puberty timing associated with obesity and central obesity in Chinese Han girls. BMC Pediatr. 2019; 19(1):1-7. 22. Deng Y, Liang J, Zong Y, et al. Timing of spermarche and menarche among urban students in Guangzhou, China: trends from 2005 to 2012 and association with Obesity. Sci Rep. 2018;8(1):263-270. 23. Li W, Liu Q. Association of prepubertal obesity with pubertal devel- opment in Chinese girls and boys: a longitudinal study. 2018;30: e23195. 24. Mendle J, Beltz AM, Carter R, Dorn LD. Understanding puberty and its measurement: ideas for research in a new generation. Journal of research on adolescence: the official journal of the Society for Research on Adolescence. 2019;29(1):82-95. 25. Pagani S, Meazza C, Gertosio C, Bozzola E, Bozzola M. Growth hor- mone receptor gene expression in puberty. Hormone and metabolic research = Hormon- und Stoffwechselforschung = Hormones et metabolisme. 2015;47:581-584. 26. Abreu AP, Kaiser UB. Pubertal development and regulation. Lancet Diabetes Endocrinol. 2016;4(3):254-264. 27. Aguirre RS, Eugster EA. Central precocious puberty: from genetics to treatment. Best Pract Res Clin Endocrinol Metab. 2018;32(4): 343-354. 28. Sultan C, Gaspari L, Maimoun L, Kalfa N, Paris F. Disorders of puberty. Best Pract Res Clin Obstet Gynaecol. 2018;48:62-89. 29. Skorupskaite K, George JT, Anderson RA. The kisspeptin-GnRH path- way in human reproductive health and disease. Hum Reprod Update. 2014;20(4):485-500. 30. Dahl SK, Amstalden M, Coolen L, Fitzgerald M, Lehman M. Dynorphin immunoreactive fibers contact GnRH neurons in the human hypothal- amus. Reprod Sci. 2009;16(8):781-787. 31. Navarro VM, Gottsch ML, Chavkin C, Okamura H, Clifton DK, Steiner RA. Regulation of gonadotropin-releasing hormone secretion by kisspeptin/dynorphin/neurokinin B neurons in the arcuate nucleus of the mouse. J Neurosci. 2009;29(38):11859-11866. 32. Zhai L, Liu J, Zhao J, et al. Association of obesity with onset of puberty and sex hormones in chinese girls: a 4-year longitudinal study. PLoS ONE. 2015;10(8):1-12, e0134656. 33. Cizza G, Dorn LD, Lotsikas A, Sereika S, Rotenstein D, Chrousos GP. 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Trends in menarcheal age between 1955 and 2009 in the Netherlands. PLoS ONE. 2013;8:e60056-e60056. 40. Kaplan HS, Lancaster JB. An evolutionary and ecological analysis of human fertility, mating patterns, and parental investment. Off- spring: Human fertility behavior in biodemographic perspective. 2003;1: 170-223. 41. Mitan LA. Menstrual dysfunction in anorexia nervosa. J Pediatr Adolesc Gynecol. 2004;17(2):81-85. 42. Xu H, Li P-H, Barrow TM, et al. Obesity as an effect modifier of the association between menstrual abnormalities and hypertension in young adult women: Results from Project ELEFANT. PLoS ONE. 2018; 13(11):e0207929-e0207929. 43. Tauqeer Z, Gomez G, Stanford FC. Obesity in women: insights for the clinician. J Womens Health (Larchmt). 2018;27(4):444-457. 44. de Ridder CM, Thijssen JH, Bruning PF, Van den Brande JL, Zonderland ML, Erich WB. Body fat mass, body fat distribution, and pubertal development: a longitudinal study of physical and hormonal sexual maturation of girls. J Clin Endocrinol Metab. 1992;75(2): 442-446. 45. Lassek W, Gaulin S. Brief communication: menarche is related to fat distribution. Am J Phys Anthropol. 2007;133(4):1147-1151. 46. Loomba-Albrecht LA, Styne DM. Effect of puberty on body composi- tion. Curr Opin Endocrinol Diabetes Obes. 2009;16:10-15. 47. Simonneaux V, Bahougne T. A multi-oscillatory circadian system times female reproduction. Front Endocrinol. 2015;6:1-15. 48. Marques P, Skorupskaite K, George JT, Anderson RA. Physiology of GNRH and gonadotropin secretion. In: Feingold KR, Anawalt B, Boyce A, et al., eds. Endotext. Endotext.org: South Dartmouth (MA); 2000. 49. Barcellos Gemelli IF, Farias EDS, Souza OF. Age at menarche and its association with excess weight and body fat percentage in girls in the Southwestern Region of the Brazilian Amazon. J Pediatr Adolesc Gynecol. 2016;29(5):482-488. 50. Aksglaede L, Juul A, Olsen LW, Sorensen TI. Age at puberty and the emerging obesity epidemic. PLoS ONE. 2009;4:1-6, e8450. 51. Ribeiro J, Santos P, Duarte J, Mota J. Association between over- weight and early sexual maturation in Portuguese boys and girls. Ann Hum Biol. 2006;33(1):55-63. 52. Budak E, Fernandez Sanchez M, Bellver J, Cervero A, Simon C, Pellicer A. Interactions of the hormones leptin, ghrelin, adiponectin, resistin, and PYY3-36 with the reproductive system. Fertil Steril. 2006;85(6):1563-1581. 53. Castellano JM, Tena-Sempere M. Metabolic control of female puberty: potential therapeutic targets. Expert Opin Ther Targets. 2016; 20(10):1181-1193. 54. Venancio JC, Margatho LO, Rorato R, et al. Short-term high-fat diet increases leptin activation of CART neurons and advances puberty in female mice. Endocrinology. 2017;158(11):3929-3942. 55. l'Allemand D, Schmidt S, Rousson V, Brabant G, Gasser T, Gruters A. Associations between body mass, leptin, IGF-I and circulating adrenal androgens in children with obesity and premature adrenarche. Eur J Endocrinol. 2002;146(4):537-543. 56. BĂśttner A, Jr K, MĂźller G, et al. Gender Differences of adiponectin levels develop during the progression of puberty and are related to serum androgen levels. J Clin Endocrinol Metabol. 2004;89(8):4053- 4061. 57. Unanue N, Bazaes R, IĂąiguez G, Cortes F, Avila A, Mericq V. Adre- narche in Prader-Willi syndrome appears not related to insulin sensi- tivity and serum adiponectin. Horm Res. 2007;67(3):152-158. 58. Michalakis K, Mintziori G, Kaprara A, Tarlatzis BC, Goulis DG. The complex interaction between obesity, metabolic syndrome and repro- ductive axis: a narrative review. Metabolism: clinical and experimental. 2013;62(4):457-478. 59. Machinal-Quelin F, Dieudonne MN, Pecquery R, Leneveu MC, Giudicelli Y. 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Obesity Reviews. 2020;21:e13005. https://doi.org/ 10.1111/obr.13005 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are goverGUIDELINES ON THE ESTABLISHMENT AND IMPLEMENTATION OF THE RESULTS-BASED PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM IN THE DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION I. Rationale 1. The Civil Service Commission (CSC), through the issuance of Memorandum Circular (MC) No. 06, series of 2012, sets the guidelines on the establishment and implementation of the Strategic Performance Management System (SPMS) in all government agencies. The SPMS gives emphasis to the strategic alignment of the agencyâs thrusts with the day-to-day operation of the units and individual personnel within the organization. It focuses on measures of performance vis-a-vis the targeted milestones, and provides a credible and verifiable basis for assessing the organizational outcomes and the collective performance of the government employees. 2. As a learner-centered institution, the Department of Education (DepEd) is committed to continuously improve itself to better serve the Filipino learners and the community. The adoption of the SPMS in DepEd strengthens the culture of performance and accountability in the agency, with the DepEdâs mandate, vision and mission at its core. 3. There is a need to concretize the linkage between the organizational thrusts and the performance management system. It is important to ensure organizational effectiveness and track individual improvement and efficiency by cascading the institutional accountabilities to the various levels, units and individual personnel, as anchored on the establishment of a rational and factual basis for performance targets and measures. Finally, it is necessary to link the SPMS with other systems relating to human resources and to ensure adherence to the principle of performance-based tenure and incentives. 4. In view of the above, this Order aims to adopt the SPMS as the Results-based Performance Management System (RPMS). II. Scope of Policy 5. This DepEd Order provides for the establishment and implementation of the RPMS in all DepEd schools and offices, covering all officials and employees, school-based and non school-based, in the Department holding regular plantilla positions. It stipulates the specific mechanisms, criteria and processes for the performance target setting, monitoring, evaluation and development planning. IV. Policy Statement 9. The DepEd hereby sets the guidelines on the establishment and implementation of the Results-based Performance Management System (RPMS) in the Department, stipulating the strategies, methods, tools and rewards for assessing the accomplishments vis-a-vis the commitments. This will be used for measuring and rewarding higher levels of performance of the various units and development planning of all personnel in all levels. 10. For non school-based personnel, the RPMS shall provide for an objective and verifiable basis for rating and ranking the performance of units and individual personnel in view of the granting of the Performance-Based Bonus (PBB) starting 2015. 11. For school-based personnel, the RPMS shall be used only as an appraisal tool, which shall be the basis for training and development. The granting of PBB shall be governed by the existing PBB guidelines. 12. The Department shall adopt the RPMS framework shown in Annex B. 13. The DepEd RPMS shall follow the four-stage performance management system cycle as prescribed by the CSC: i. Performance planning and commitment (Phase I); ii. Performance monitoring and coaching (Phase II); iii. Performance review and evaluation (Phase III); and iv. Performance rewarding and development planning (Phase IV). V. Performance Cycle/Process 14. The RPMS shall align the performance targets and accomplishments with the Departmentâs mandate, vision, mission and strategic goals. It shall ensure 100% results orientation vis-a-vis the planned targets. On the other hand, the rateeâs demonstration of the required competencies shall be monitored for developmental purposes only. 15. The RPMS cycle shall cover performance for one whole year. All school-based personnel shall follow a performance cycle starting in April of the current year and ending in March of the following year; while non school-based personnel shall follow a performance cycle starting in January and ending in December. Annexes C and D illustrate the performance cycles which shall apply to school-based and non school-based personnel, respectively. 16. The performance planning and commitment shall be done prior to the beginning of the performance cycle; while the performance monitoring and coaching shall take place immediately after Phase I, and continue throughout the performance cycle. The performance review and evaluation, as well as the performance rewarding and development planning shall be done at the end of the performance cycle. A. Phase I: Performance Planning and Commitment 17. The performance planning and commitment shall be done prior to the start of the performance cycle where the rater meets with the ratee to discuss and agree on the following: i. Office KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators as anchored to the overall organizational outcomes; and ii. Individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators as anchored to the Office KRAs and Objectives. 18. The Office Performance Commitment and Review Form (OPCRF) shall be accomplished by the head of office to reflect the Office KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall ensure alignment of the office plans and commitments to the overall organizational outcomes. The OPCRF shall be equivalent to the IPCRF of the head of office. A sample of the filled out OPCRF, including the instructions for accomplishing the form, is shown in Annex E. 19. The Individual Performance Commitment and Review Form (IPCRF) shall be accomplished by the individual personnel to reflect the agreed Individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators. A sample of the filled out IPCRF, including the instructions for accomplishing the form, is shown in Annex F. 20. Defining the Key Result Areas. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall define the office KRAs as anchored on the overall organizational outcomes. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the break down of the office KRAs into individual KRAs. Three (3) to five (5) KRAs shall be defined for each office and individual employee. KRAs are broad categories of general outputs or outcomes. It is the mandate or function of the office and/or individual employee. The KRA is the reason why an office and/or job exist. It is an area where the office and/or individual employee are expected to focus on. 21. Setting the Objectives. The head of office shall set three (3) objectives per office KRA. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on three (3) objectives per individual KRA. Objectives are specific tasks, which an office and/or employee need to do to achieve their specific KRAs. In objective setting, the SMART criteria, which stands for Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time Bound, shall be applied. The SMART criteria are illustrated in Annex G. 22. Setting the Timeline. The timeline shall define the target date for accomplishing each of the Objectives. The timeline for the office Objectives shall be set by the head of office in coordination with the Planning Office and School Planning Team; while the timeline for the individual Objectives shall be discussed and agreed by the rater and the ratee. 23. Assigning the Weight. Assigning of weights shall be done per KRA. Weights for each office KRA shall be assigned by the head of office in coordination with the Planning Office; while the weights for each of the individual KRAs shall be discussed and agreed upon by the rater and the ratee. 24. Identifying the Performance Indicators. Using a five (5)-point rating scale, the head of office shall identify a performance indicator for each of the office objectives, while the rater and the ratee shall identify and agree on the performance indicator for each of the individual objectives. Performance indicators are exact quantification of objectives expressed through rubrics. They are assessment tools, which gauge whether a performance is positive or negative. In identifying the performance indicator, the operational definition or meaning of each numerical rating shall be indicated under each relevant dimension (i.e., quality, efficiency, or timeliness) per performance target or success indicator. This shall ensure that the rating is objective, impartial and verifiable. Table 1 below discusses the performance measures by which the indicator must satisfy. Table 1. Performance Measures CATEGORY DEFINITION Effectiveness/Quality The extent to which actual performance compares with targeted performance. The degree to which objectives are achieved and the extent to which targeted problems are solved. In management, effectiveness relates to getting the right things done. Efficiency The extent to which time or resources is used for the intended task or purpose. Measures whether targets are accomplished with a minimum amount or quantity of waste, expense, or unnecessary effort. Timeliness Measures whether the deliverable was done on time based on the requirements of the rules and regulations, and/or clients/stakeholders. Time-related performance indicators evaluate such things as project completion deadlines, time management skills and other time-sensitive expectations. Some Performances are only rated on quality and efficiency, some on quality and timeliness, and others on efficiency only. You need not use all three (3) categories. 25. Demonstration of Competencies. During Phase I, the rater shall discuss with the ratee the competencies required of the individual personnel. Competencies are defined as the knowledge, skills and behavior that individuals demonstrate in achieving oneâs results. Competencies shall uphold the DepEdâs core values. They represent the way individuals define and live the values. 26. DepEd shall adopt four classes of competencies as follows: i. Core behavioral competencies are competencies, which cut across the organization; ii. Leadership competencies are competencies intended for managerial positions; a. Third level officials b. Chiefs and Assistant Chiefs c. School Heads and Department Heads iii. Staff Core Skills are competencies intended for staff and teaching-related personnel; and iv. Teaching competencies are competencies intended for teachers. The DepEd-required competencies are illustrated in Annex I. 27. The rateeâs demonstration of the required competencies shall be monitored to effectively plan the interventions needed for behavioral and professional development. The assessment in the demonstration of competencies shall not be reflected in the final rating. 28. Reaching Agreement. Once the office and individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators are clearly defined, the rater and the ratee shall commit and reach an agreement by signing the OPCRF and IPCRF. The signed/approved OPCRF and IPCRF shall be the basis for monitoring and assessment, which shall take place in Phases II and III, respectively. B. Phase II: Performance Monitoring and Coaching 29. The performance monitoring and coaching shall commence after the rater and the ratee commit on the KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators, and sign the OPCRF and IPCRF. This shall be done throughout the year. 30. The two (2) main components of Phase II are the following: i. Performance monitoring; and ii. Coaching and feedback. 31. Performance monitoring shall provide key inputs and objective basis for rating. It shall facilitate feedback and provide evidence of performance. Performance monitoring shall be the responsibility of both the rater and the ratee who agree to track and record significant incidents through the use of the Performance Monitoring and Coaching Form (PMCF) shown in Annex J. Significant incidents are actual events and behaviors in which both positive and negative performances are observed and documented. 32. Coaching and feedback shall be a continuous process. Coaching and feedback shall be provided by the rater and/or shall be sought by the ratee to improve work performance and behavior. The rater, as the coach or mentor of the ratee, playing a critical role in the performance monitoring and coaching, shall provide an enabling environment and intervention to improve the office performance and to manage and develop individual potentials. 33. The PMCF shall capture the significant incidents. It shall provide a record of demonstrated behaviors, competencies and performance, and shall be an effective substitute in the absence of quantifiable data. The rater and the ratee shall sign each significant incident recorded in the PMCF to ensure that agreement has been reached. C. Phase III: Performance Review and Evaluation 34. The performance review and evaluation shall be done at the end of the performance cycle to assess the office and individual employeeâs performance level based on the commitments and measures as contained in the signed OPCRF and IPCRF. 35. A mid-year review is prescribed to determine the progress in achieving the Objectives. In exceptional cases, and only if the situation warrants, a one-time recalibration of office and individual Objectives shall be allowed during the mid-year review. Exceptional cases shall include instances when high level decisions are taken into effect such as changes in strategic directions, and circumstances beyond the control of the ratee such as natural and/or man-made calamities, including typhoon, earthquake and other fortuitous events. During the mid-year review, the rater shall inform in writing the ratee of the status of performance, in case of an Unsatisfactory or Poor performance. Coaching, feedback and appropriate interventions shall be provided where necessary. 36. The RPMS shall put premium on KRAs towards the realization of organizational vision, mission, strategic priorities and the OPIF logframe. Hence, rating for planned and/or intervening tasks shall always be supported by reports, documents or any output as proofs of actual performance. In the absence of said bases or proofs, a particular task shall not be rated and shall be disregarded. 37. Office and Individual Performance Assessment. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall assess the performance of the office vis-a-vis the committed targets at the beginning of the performance cycle. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the individual assessment based on the actual accomplishments of each of the KRAs and Objectives. The final rating shall be based solely on the accomplishment of the specific objectives as measured by the Performance Indicators. The OPCRF and IPCRF shall be accomplished and completed by the rater and the ratee to: i. Reflect actual accomplishments and results; ii. Rate each of the objectives; iii. Compute for the score per objective; iv. Determine the overall rating for accomplishments; v. Reach an agreement; and vi. Assess the competencies. 38. Initial self-rating shall be encouraged prior to the rater-ratee discussion. 39. Third Level Officials, as heads of offices, shall accomplish the OPCRF for submission to the Planning Office. The individual assessment of Third Level Officials shall be contained in the CESPES Forms for submission to the Career Executive Service Board (CESB). The BHROD and Personnel Division shall be furnished a copy of both forms. 40. Actual Results. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the actual accomplishments and results based on the performance commitments and measures made at the beginning of the rating period. They shall evaluate each objective whether it has been achieved or not. The significant incidents as reflected in the PMCF shall be considered for the actual results. 41. Rating the Objectives. Based on the actual accomplishments and results, each of the Objectives shall be rated using the rating scale specified below: Table 2. The RPMS Rating Scale NUMERICAL RATING ADJECTIVAL RATING DESCRIPTION OF MEANING OF RATING 5 Outstanding Performance represents an extraordinary level of achievement and commitment in terms of quality and time, technical skills and knowledge, ingenuity, creativity and initiative. Employees at this performance level should have demonstrated exceptional job mastery in all major areas of responsibility. Employee achievement and contributions to the organization are of marked excellence. 4 Very Satisfactory Performance exceeded expectations. All goals, objectives and targets were achieved above the established standards. 3 Satisfactory Performance met expectations in terms of quality of work, efficiency and timeliness. The most critical annual goals were met. 2 Unsatisfactory Performance failed to meet expectations, and/or one or more of the most critical goals were not met. 1 Poor Performance was consistently below expectations, and/or reasonable progress toward critical goals was not made. Significant improvement is needed in one or more important areas. The final assessment shall correspond to the adjectival description of Outstanding, Very Satisfactory, Satisfactory, Unsatisfactory or Poor. The range of adjectival rating is as per attached in Forms A, B, and C. 42. Process for Computing the Score per KRA. i. The rater and ratee shall ensure that each KRA has been assigned weight according to priority. ii. As an option, the rater and ratee may assign weights to objectives which shall be equal to the total weight assigned to a particular KRA. KRA 1 â Weight assigned is 40% Objective 1 is 20% Objective 2 is 10% Objective 3 is 10% iii. The score per KRA shall be computed using the following formula: 43. Plus Factor. The plus factor shall be considered as another KRA. These are value adding accomplishments, which are not covered within the regular duties and responsibilities. The weight on the plus factor shall not exceed the weight of the highest mandated KRA. For teachers, the plus factor shall be limited to work/activities, which contribute to the teaching-learning process. 44. Determining the Overall Rating for Accomplishments. The overall rating/assessment for the accomplishments shall fall within the following adjectival ratings and shall be in three (3) decimal points: Table 3. Adjectival Ratings RANGE ADJECTIVAL RATING 4.500-5.000 Outstanding 3.500-4.499 Very Satisfactory 2.500-3.499 Satisfactory 1.500-2.499 Unsatisfactory below 1.499 Poor 45. Reaching Agreement. Upon determining the overall rating for the actual accomplishments and results, the rater and the ratee shall reach an agreement by signing the OPCRF and IPCRF. The average rating of individual staff members should not go higher than the collective performance assessment of the office. 46. Assessing the Competencies. The rater shall discuss with the ratee the set of competencies observed during the performance cycle. The competencies shall not be reflected in the final rating. Competencies shall be monitored for developmental purposes. In evaluating the individualâs demonstration of competencies, the rating scale in Table 4 shall apply: Table 4. The DepEd Competencies Scale SCALE DEFINITION 5 Role model 4 Consistently demonstrates 3 Most of the time demonstrates 2 Sometimes demonstrates 1 Rarely demonstrates 5 (role model) â all competency indicators 4 (consistently demonstrates) â four competency indicators 3 (most of the time demonstrates) â three competency indicators 2 (sometimes demonstrates) â two competency indicators 1 (rarely demonstrates) â one competency indicator D. Phase IV: Performance Rewarding and Development Planning 47. The results of the performance review and evaluation shall be used in performance rewarding and development planning. This phase shall be done after Phase III. 48. The rater shall discuss and provide qualitative comments, observations and recommendations in the individual employeeâs performance commitment, competency assessment and significant incidents which shall be used for training and professional development. These can be written under the strengths and development needs column of the Part IV-Development Plans of the IPCRF. 49. The rater and the ratee shall identify and discuss the individualâs strengths and development needs, and reflect them in the Part IV-Development Plans of the IPCRF. The competencies which the ratee demonstrated consistently and the areas, where the ratee meet or exceed expectations shall be referred to as the rateeâs strengths. The competencies, which the ratee rarely demonstrates and the areas where the ratee has room for improvement and has not met the expectations, shall be identified as the rateeâs development needs. Make a situational SOLO-based questions in the context of school leadershipHttps://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! CGEIT: Certified in the Governance of Enterprise IT Volume A Question #1 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario? ďˇ A. Avoidance ďˇ B. Mitigation ďˇ C. Parkinson's Law ďˇ D. Lag Time Answer: A Question #2 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is? ďˇ A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. ďˇ B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event. ďˇ C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives. ďˇ D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #3 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use? ďˇ A. Delphi technique ďˇ B. Isolated pilot groups ďˇ C. SWOT analysis ďˇ D. Root cause analysis Answer: A Question #4 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities. Answer: Life cycle Question #5 Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration. Answer: Conformance Question #6 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management? ďˇ A. Service Portfolio Update ďˇ B. Business Planning Data ďˇ C. Strategic Planning ďˇ D. Strategic Service Assessment ďˇ E. Service Strategy Definition Answer: B Question #7 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve. ďˇ B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need. ďˇ C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve. ďˇ D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources. Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations ďˇ B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance ďˇ C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding ďˇ D. Capitalization on knowledge & information Answer: ABD Question #9 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model Answer: Sensitivity analysis Question #10 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs? ďˇ A. Voluntary exit ďˇ B. Plant closing ďˇ C. Involuntary exit ďˇ D. Outplacement Answer: C Question #11 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected. Answer: asset https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #12 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this? ďˇ A. Estimate activity duration ďˇ B. Quantitative analysis ďˇ C. Qualitative analysis ďˇ D. Risk identification Answer: C Question #13 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio? ďˇ A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization. ďˇ B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations. ďˇ C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area. ďˇ D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations. Answer: D Question #14 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor? ďˇ A. Corporate restructure ďˇ B. Divestiture ďˇ C. Rightsizing ďˇ D. Outsourcing Answer: B Question #15 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task? ďˇ A. Organizational process assets ďˇ B. Enterprise architecture ďˇ C. Business need https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Enterprise environmental factors Answer: D Question #16 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality? ďˇ A. Agreement ďˇ B. COBIT ďˇ C. Service Improvement Plan ďˇ D. Benchmarking Answer: D Question #17 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project oriented analysis for identified risks? ďˇ A. Modeling and simulation ďˇ B. Expected monetary value ďˇ C. Sensitivity analysis ďˇ D. Jo-Hari Window Answer: D Question #18 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? "This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives." ďˇ A. Identify Risks ďˇ B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis ďˇ C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis ďˇ D. Monitor and Control Risks Answer: C Question #19 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process? ďˇ A. Research ďˇ B. Adapt ďˇ C. Plan ďˇ D. Improve Answer: C Question #20 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events? ďˇ A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to. ďˇ B. The events should be entered into the risk register. ďˇ C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis. ďˇ D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis. Answer: B Question #21 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what? ďˇ A. Corrective action ďˇ B. Preventive action ďˇ C. Scope creep ďˇ D. Defect repair Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market? ďˇ A. Project gap ďˇ B. Competitive gap ďˇ C. Usage gap https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Product gap Answer: C Question #23 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact? ďˇ A. Risk response plan ďˇ B. Look-up table ďˇ C. Project sponsor ďˇ D. Risk management plan Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes? ďˇ A. Incident Management ďˇ B. IT Facilities Management ďˇ C. Release Management ďˇ D. Request Fulfillment Answer: D Question #25 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis? ďˇ A. Bandwidth ďˇ B. Pricing ďˇ C. Product ďˇ D. Promotion Answer: A Question #26 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Quantitative analysis ďˇ B. Qualitative risk analysis ďˇ C. Historical information ďˇ D. Rolling wave planning Answer: B Question #27 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas? ďˇ A. Risk coordinator ďˇ B. Risk expeditor ďˇ C. Risk owner ďˇ D. Risk team leader Answer: C Question #28 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts? ďˇ A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization ďˇ B. Portfolio Management ďˇ C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards ďˇ D. Portfolio What-If Planning Answer: C Question #29 DRAG DROP - Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes defined by Val IT. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #30 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group? ďˇ A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring ďˇ B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing ďˇ C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring ďˇ D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Service Portfolio Update ďˇ B. Strategic Service Assessment ďˇ C. Service Strategy Definition ďˇ D. Strategic Planning Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following are the main goals of Broadcasting Board of Governors (BBG)'s strategic plan 2008- 2013?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. It employs modern communication techniques and technologies. ďˇ B. It builds on our reach and impact within the muslim world. ďˇ C. It engages the world in conversation about England. ďˇ D. It enhances program delivery across all platforms. Answer: ABD Question #33 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT decision making and the IT budget are in one place, much easier to manage, and require much less effort to organize? ďˇ A. Decentralized ďˇ B. Federated ďˇ C. Project-based ďˇ D. Centralized Answer: D Question #34 A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this? ďˇ A. LA ďˇ B. VPN ďˇ C. NDA ďˇ D. SLA Answer: D Question #35 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers areas such as the execution of the applications within the IT system and its results as well as the support processes that enable the effective and efficient execution of these IT systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Deliver and Support ďˇ B. Acquire and Implement ďˇ C. Monitor and Evaluate ďˇ D. Plan and Organize Answer: A Question #36 Gary has identified a project risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. This workaround to the risk event is known as what type of risk response? ďˇ A. Avoidance ďˇ B. Mitigation ďˇ C. Acceptance ďˇ D. Transference Answer: D Question #37 Management has asked you to perform a risk audit and report back on the results. Bonny, a project team member asks you what a risk audit is. What do you tell Bonny? ďˇ A. A risk audit is a review of the effectiveness of the risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process. ďˇ B. A risk audit is a review of all the risks that have yet to occur and what their probability of happening are. ďˇ C. A risk audit is an audit of all the risks that have occurred in the project and what their true impact on cost and time has been. ďˇ D. A risk audit is a review of all the risk probability and impact for the risks, which are still present in the project but which have not yet occurred. Answer: A Question #38 Wendy is the project manager of the FBL project for your company. She has identified several risks within her project and has created a risk contingency reserve of $45,000 total. Her project is nearly complete and many of the risks have not happened in the project. What should Wendy do with the funds in the contingency reserve? ďˇ A. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are transferred to the project budget. ďˇ B. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until all of the risks have passed. ďˇ C. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until the project is closed. ďˇ D. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are released. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as a process, effected by an entity's board of directors, management, and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise? ďˇ A. COBIT ďˇ B. COSO ERM framework ďˇ C. Casualty Actuarial Society framework ďˇ D. Val IT Answer: B Question #40 The IT strategy formulation process consists of four steps to provide guidance to all who are involved. Which of the following steps are performed in the IT strategy formulation process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Decide how to get from here to there. ďˇ B. Evaluate changes. ďˇ C. Assess process maturity. ďˇ D. Map out the big picture. Answer: ABD Question #41 Which of the following concepts is a semi-standard structured report supported by proven design methods and automation tools that can be used by managers to keep track of the execution of activities by staff within their control and monitor the consequences arising from these actions? ďˇ A. Total Security Management ďˇ B. Balanced Scorecard (BSC) ďˇ C. Total Quality Management ďˇ D. Six Sigma Answer: B Question #42 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various architecture domains for TOGAF at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #43 DRAG DROP - The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and policies for managing information technology (IT) infrastructure, development, and operations. Drag and drop the ITIL processes that focus on service operation, i.e. operational processes in Service Support, in the correct places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #44 You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example of what risk response? ďˇ A. Mitigation ďˇ B. Sharing ďˇ C. Transference ďˇ D. Acceptance Answer: B Question #45 Which of the following is the main objective of business process outsourcing? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Realigning business process with business strategy ďˇ B. Permitting the enterprise to focus on core main competences ďˇ C. Optimizing business processes ďˇ D. Increasing the automation of business processes Answer: B Question #46 In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training? ďˇ A. Design ďˇ B. Initiation ďˇ C. Programming and training ďˇ D. Evaluation and acceptance Answer: C Question #47 You are the project manager of a newly formed project to create a new manufacturing facility. You are working with a business analyst to identify, document, and prioritize stakeholders' needs for the facility. You'll also need to quantify any subjective terms and needs to define the project scope. What is this process called? ďˇ A. Requirements analysis ďˇ B. Project scope statement creation ďˇ C. Requirements gathering ďˇ D. Stakeholder analysis Answer: D Question #48 IT Governance is used by the management to regulate the Information Systems, to accomplish its objectives. IT governance forms an integral part of corporate governance. Which of the following elements are required to implement a good IT governance framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Communication ďˇ B. Structure ďˇ C. Project ďˇ D. Process Answer: ABD Question #49 Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. The Service Catalogue Manager ďˇ B. The Supplier Manager ďˇ C. The Configuration Manager ďˇ D. The IT Service Continuity Manager Answer: B Question #50 All projects that are presented in your organization must go through a board to review the return on investment, risk, and worthiness of a project. All projects are considered but not all projects are initiated. What is the name of the process that this board is completing in your organization? ďˇ A. Project selection committee ďˇ B. Change governance ďˇ C. Project portfolio management ďˇ D. Project portfolio management board Answer: C Question #51 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management enables portfolio managers to include or exclude investments, change start and end dates, adjust budgets and reevaluate priorities? ďˇ A. Integrated Capability ďˇ B. Portfolio Planning Analysis ďˇ C. Portfolio What-If Planning ďˇ D. Portfolio Management Answer: C Question #52 Fred is the project manager of the PKL project. He is working with his project team to complete the quantitative risk analysis process as a part of risk management planning. Fred understands that once the quantitative risk analysis process is complete, the process will need to be completed again in at least two other times in the project. When will the quantitative risk analysis process need to be repeated? ďˇ A. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the risk response planning and as a part of monitoring and controlling. ďˇ B. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the plan risk response planning and as part of procurement. ďˇ C. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after new risks are identified and as pa of monitoring and controlling. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the cost management planning an as a part of monitoring and controlling. Answer: A Question #53 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decided, with your stakeholders' approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project which of the following are likely to increase? ďˇ A. Costs ďˇ B. Risks ďˇ C. Human resource needs ďˇ D. Quality control concerns Answer: B Question #54 Which of the following processes ensures that all vital assets and resources of the organization are safeguarded? ďˇ A. Defining Resource Requirements process ďˇ B. Cost estimating process ďˇ C. Vendor contract administration process ďˇ D. Risk management process Answer: D Question #55 In software development, which of the following analysis is used to document the services and functions that have been accidentally left out, deliberately eliminated or still need to be developed? ďˇ A. Vulnerability analysis ďˇ B. Cost-benefit analysis ďˇ C. Requirement analysis ďˇ D. Gap analysis Answer: D Question #56 The entry points to Service Strategy are referred to as "the Four Ps". They identify the different forms a service strategy may take. Which of the following is a correct list of the 'Four Ps'? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. People, Products, Partners, and Profit ďˇ B. People, Potential, Products, and Performance ďˇ C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, and Profit ďˇ D. Perspective, Position, Plan, and Pattern Answer: D Question #57 Melody is the project manager for her organization. She has created a risk response to conduct more tests on the software her project is creating. The identified risk that prompted this response was that the software is missionďżžcritical and must be flawless before it can be put into product. What type of a risk response has Melody used in this scenario? ďˇ A. Transference ďˇ B. Enhance ďˇ C. Avoidance ďˇ D. Mitigation Answer: D Question #58 Which of the following are the roles of a CIO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Standardizes architecture & technology. ďˇ B. Defines value creation roles within IT. ďˇ C. Provides IT infrastructure to facilitate knowledge & information creation/sharing. ďˇ D. Establishes business priorities & allocates resources for IT performance. Answer: ABC Question #59 Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required? ďˇ A. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced. ďˇ B. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed. ďˇ C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier. ďˇ D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #60 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes are applied across the enterprise where all business units/entities conform to the same set of IT governance processes, and IT investment decisions are based on the enterprise view? ďˇ A. Stage 3-Consistent ďˇ B. Stage 4-Best practices ďˇ C. Stage 1-Ad hoc ďˇ D. Stage 2-Fragmented Answer: A Question #61 You are the project manager of the AMD project for your organization. In this project, you are currently performing quantitative risk analysis. The tool and technique you are using is simulation where the project model is computed many times with the input values chosen at random for each iteration. The goal is to create a probability distribution from the iterations for the project schedule. What technique will you use with this simulation? ďˇ A. Pareto modeling ďˇ B. Expected Monetary Value ďˇ C. Monte Carlo Technique ďˇ D. Analogous modeling Answer: C Question #62 Robert is the business analyst for his organization and he's working with several stakeholders to identify the business need for an opportunity. Robert needs to identify the stakeholder that will be responsible for authorizing the actions needed in order to meet the identified business need. Which stakeholder does Robert need to identify? ďˇ A. Regulator ďˇ B. Implementation Subject Matter Expert ďˇ C. Sponsor ďˇ D. Customer Answer: C Question #63 Which of the following levels of Gartner's cost optimization framework describes the right kind of partnership with IT vendors, which can benefit each party in times of economic upturns? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Cost Savings within IT ďˇ B. Joint Business and IT Cost Savings ďˇ C. IT Procurement ďˇ D. Enabling Innovation and Business Restructuring Answer: C Question #64 Which conduct stakeholder analysis technique is useful for identifying shared characteristics of a stakeholder group? ďˇ A. Brainstorming ďˇ B. Scope modeling ďˇ C. Interviews ďˇ D. Surveys Answer: D Question #65 Which of the following are parts of SWOT Analysis? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Optimism ďˇ B. Threats ďˇ C. Weaknesses ďˇ D. Opportunities ďˇ E. Tools ďˇ F. Strengths Answer: BCDF Question #66 You are the project manager of the NNN project for your company. You and the project team are working together to plan the risk responses for the project. You feel that the team has successfully completed the risk response planning and now you must initiate what risk process it is. Which of the following risk processes is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased? ďˇ A. Risk response implementation ďˇ B. Quantitative risk analysis ďˇ C. Risk identification ďˇ D. Qualitative risk analysis Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #67 You are the project manager for your company and a new change request has been approved for your project. This change request, however, has introduced several new risks to the project. You have communicated these risk events and the project stakeholders understand the possible effects these risks could have on your project. You elect to create a mitigation response for the identified risk events. Where will you record the mitigation response? ďˇ A. Risk log ďˇ B. Risk management plan ďˇ C. Risk register ďˇ D. Project management plan Answer: C Question #68 Which positive risk response best describes a teaming agreement? ďˇ A. Enhance ďˇ B. Exploit ďˇ C. Share ďˇ D. Venture Answer: C Question #69 Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit youre your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response? ďˇ A. Exploiting ďˇ B. Positive ďˇ C. Opportunistic ďˇ D. Enhancing Answer: A Question #70 Which document refers to the steps that must be taken if there is a major gap in the projected delivery quality of a service and the actual delivery? ďˇ A. Service Improvement Plan ďˇ B. Service Quality Plan ďˇ C. Business Service Catalogue ďˇ D. Service Level Agreement https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following responsibilities are performed by the core team of IT governance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Provide service feedback to providers. ďˇ B. Undertake core tasks. ďˇ C. Define plan and deliverables. ďˇ D. Report on process. Answer: BCD Question #72 Which of the following IT governance frameworks provides governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI), and is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management? ďˇ A. VMM ďˇ B. Val IT ďˇ C. Risk IT ďˇ D. COBIT Answer: B Question #73 Which of the following roles in Service Design is responsible for delivering a particular service within the agreed service levels and also acts as the counterpart of the Service Level Manager when negotiating OLAs? ďˇ A. The Service Design Manager ďˇ B. The Service Level Manager ďˇ C. The Service Owner ďˇ D. The Service Catalogue Manager Answer: C Question #74 Harold is the project manager of a large project in his organization. He has been actively communicating and working with the project stakeholders. One of the outputs of the manage stakeholder expectations process can actually create new risk events for Harold's project. Which output of the manage stakeholder expectations process can create risks? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Project management plan updates ďˇ B. Project document updates ďˇ C. Change requests ďˇ D. Organizational process assets updates Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following concepts is the business practice of developing and implementing comprehensive risk management and security practices for a firm's entire value chain? ďˇ A. TOGAF ďˇ B. TQM ďˇ C. BSC ďˇ D. TSM Answer: D Question #76 Sensitivity analysis is a technique for systematically changing parameters in a model to determine the effects of such changes and is useful for computer modelers for a range of purposes. Which of the following purposes does the sensitivity analysis include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Decision making or the development of recommendations for decision makers ďˇ B. Model development ďˇ C. Estimating the average outcome ďˇ D. Increased understanding or quantification of the system Answer: ABD Question #77 Beth is an HR Professional for her organization and she's been alerted by management that the company will be outsourcing a large portion of operations. This outsourcing will likely cause several employees to lose employment with the organization. Which of the following is the best course of action that Beth can take in regard to communicating with the employees about the outsourcing change? ďˇ A. Be honest and truthful and do not hide the facts. ďˇ B. Refer all ďˇ C. Document all ďˇ D. Don't share the details of the outsourcing decision. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #78 Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Managing the IT workforce. ďˇ B. Correcting all risk issues. ďˇ C. Conducting IT risk assessments. ďˇ D. Developing a strategic plan. Answer: ACD Question #79 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT resources are centralized under a single reporting structure with centralized resource allocation (staffing), and the organizational structure is built around the resource pools? ďˇ A. Federated ďˇ B. Centralized ďˇ C. Project-based ďˇ D. Decentralized Answer: C Question #80 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk responses she has created? ďˇ A. The level of detail is set by historical information. ďˇ B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking. ďˇ C. The level of detail is set of project risk governance. ďˇ D. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk. Answer: B Question #81 strategic plans with business strategic plans and the alignment of IT services with enterprise operations? ďˇ A. Risk Management ďˇ B. IT Governance Framework ďˇ C. Strategic Alignment ďˇ D. Value Delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #82 You are the project manager for the ABC organization. Your current project has 75 internal stakeholders and 245 external stakeholders. Many of the risks within your project will only affect the internal stakeholders, but several of the identified risk events will affect the external stakeholders. Management would like to know the total number of communication channels in the project. How many communication channels exist in this project? ďˇ A. 245 ďˇ B. 102,080 ďˇ C. 51,040 ďˇ D. 320 Answer: C Question #83 Which of the following is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement and guides process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization? ďˇ A. Capability Maturity Model Integration ďˇ B. Service Portfolio ďˇ C. COBIT ďˇ D. Six Sigma Answer: A Question #84 Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project? ďˇ A. She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives. ďˇ B. She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule ďˇ C. She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much a possible. ďˇ D. She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule. Answer: D Question #85 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Della works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. She is working with the project stakeholders to begin the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following inputs will be needed for the quantitative risk analysis process in her project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Project scope statement ďˇ B. Risk management plan ďˇ C. Cost management plan ďˇ D. Risk register Answer: BCD Question #86 Which types of project tends to have more well-understood risks? ďˇ A. First-of-its kind technology projects ďˇ B. State-of-art technology projects ďˇ C. Recurrent projects ďˇ D. Operational work projects Answer: C Question #87 Marsha is the project manager of the NHQ Project. There's a risk that her project team has identified, which could cause the project to be late by more than a month. Marsha does not want this risk event to happen so she devises extra project activities to ensure that the risk event will not happen. The extra steps, however, will cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response is this approach? ďˇ A. Exploiting ďˇ B. Transference ďˇ C. Mitigation ďˇ D. Enhancing Answer: C Question #88 Which of the following frameworks describes a standard for processes within business information management at the strategy, management and operations level? ďˇ A. Val IT ďˇ B. BISL ďˇ C. COBIT ďˇ D. TOGAF https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #89 You are the project manager of a large construction project. You are evaluating the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats involved in a project. In which of the following processes are you on? ďˇ A. Define Scope ďˇ B. Identify Risks ďˇ C. Plan Risk Responses ďˇ D. Plan Risk Management Answer: B Question #90 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)? ďˇ A. Repeatable level ďˇ B. Managed level ďˇ C. Defined level ďˇ D. Fundamental level Answer: D Question #91 A project manager must have certain interpersonal skills to communicate with stakeholders and manage their expectations of the project work. Which of the following interpersonal skills has been identified as one of the biggest reasons for project success or failure? ďˇ A. Motivation ďˇ B. Influencing ďˇ C. Political and cultural awareness ďˇ D. Communication Answer: D Question #92 TOGAF is based on four pillars, called architecture domains. Which of the following architecture domains provides a blueprint for the individual application systems to be deployed, the interactions between the application systems, and their relationships to the core business processes of the organization with the frameworks for services to be exposed as business functions for integration? ďˇ A. Business architecture ďˇ B. Applications architecture ďˇ C. Technical architecture https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Data architecture Answer: B Question #93 Which of the following external factors complicate the notion of business-IT for achieving strategic alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Resource limitations ďˇ B. Economic and regulatory changes ďˇ C. World region changes and events ďˇ D. Market changes Answer: BCD Question #94 You are hosting a collection of stakeholders from across the organization to identify the ideas and attitudes about your company's help desk. You want the stakeholders to honestly share their opinions about the help desk service so you can identify problems, solutions, and take actions to improve the service. What type of requirements elicitation activity is this? ďˇ A. Root cause analysis ďˇ B. Stakeholder analysis ďˇ C. Focus groups ďˇ D. Workshop Answer: C Question #95 Which of the following are the main objectives of the Performance measurement domain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. It satisfies the customer's need. ďˇ B. It defines value creation roles within IT. ďˇ C. It meets out the goals. ďˇ D. It statistically controls the process sequences. Answer: ACD Question #96 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! You work as a project manager for TechSoft Inc. You are working with the project stakeholders on the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. You have used all the tools to the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. Which of the following techniques is NOT used as a tool in qualitative risk analysis process? ďˇ A. Risk Data Quality Assessment ďˇ B. Risk Categorization ďˇ C. Risk Reassessment ďˇ D. Risk Urgency Assessment Answer: C Question #97 Paul has been asked to complete SWOT analysis for his solution scope. What does SWOT analysis mean? ďˇ A. Stakeholder Weaknesses, Organizational Threats ďˇ B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats ďˇ C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Time ďˇ D. Stakeholders Weaknesses, Organization, Threats Answer: B Volume B Question #1 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are about to complete the quantitative risk analysis process for your project. You can use three available tools and techniques to complete this process. Which one of the following is NOT a tool or technique that is appropriate for the quantitative risk analysis process? ďˇ A. Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques ďˇ B. Organizational process assets ďˇ C. Expert judgment ďˇ D. Data gathering and representation techniques Answer: B Question #2 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be known as what term? ďˇ A. Cost-benefits analysis ďˇ B. Benchmarking https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. Cost of conformance to quality ďˇ D. Team development Answer: C Question #3 Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling? ďˇ A. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA) ďˇ B. Service-oriented architecture (SOA) ďˇ C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA) ďˇ D. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) Answer: D Question #4 Which of the following processes involves choosing the alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan? ďˇ A. Scope Change control ďˇ B. Monitor and Control risk ďˇ C. Integrated Change control ďˇ D. Configuration Management Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following architecture domains for TOGAF describes the structure of an organization's logical and physical data assets and the associated data management resources? ďˇ A. Applications architecture ďˇ B. Technical architecture ďˇ C. Data architecture ďˇ D. Business architecture Answer: C Question #6 Which volume provides guidance on clarification and prioritization of service-provider investments in services? ďˇ A. Service Operation ďˇ B. Service Strategy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. Service Design ďˇ D. Service Management Answer: B Question #7 Which of the following problems occur with performance measurement systems that limit their usefulness? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. It is dependent on gross aggregates, which tend to understate or ignore distributional contributions and consequences. ďˇ B. It is dependent on the timely occurrence of corrective action which is required for effective management control. ďˇ C. It is dependent on historical patterns and reluctant to accept new structural changes that are capable of generating different outcomes ďˇ D. It is dependent on summary data, which emphasizes averages and discounts outliers. Answer: ACD Question #8 You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project? ďˇ A. Risk utility function ďˇ B. Mitigation-ready project management ďˇ C. Risk-reward mentality ďˇ D. Risk avoidance Answer: A Question #9 Which of the following techniques is used for understanding the "environment" in which a business operates? ďˇ A. Critical success factor analysis ďˇ B. PEST analysis ďˇ C. SWOT analysis ďˇ D. Market segmentation Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #10 Which of the following process groups is the most efficient at providing resources to the development of the procurement process? ďˇ A. Acquisition process ďˇ B. Contract management ďˇ C. Process management ďˇ D. Resource management Answer: A Question #11 You are working with your project stakeholders to identify risks within the JKP Project. You want to use an approach to engage the stakeholders to increase the breadth of the identified risks by including internally generated risk. Which risk identification approach is most suited for this goal? ďˇ A. Brainstorming ďˇ B. Assumptions analysis ďˇ C. SWOT analysis ďˇ D. Delphi Technique Answer: C Question #12 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders, some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders? ďˇ A. Communications Management Plan ďˇ B. Risk Response Plan ďˇ C. Project Management Plan ďˇ D. Risk Management Plan Answer: A Question #13 As seen from the perspective of how the enterprise defines and executes business strategies to achieve its goals and objectives, which of the following elements does the ERM comprise of? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Enhancing risk response decisions ďˇ B. Providing integrated responses to few risks ďˇ C. Reducing operational surprises and losses https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Aligning risk appetite and strategy Answer: ACD Question #14 You work as the project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are monitoring the project performance. You want to make a decision to change the project plan to eliminate a risk in order to protect the project objectives. Which of the following strategies will you use to tackle the risk? ďˇ A. Risk mitigation ďˇ B. Risk avoidance ďˇ C. Risk acceptance ďˇ D. Risk transference Answer: B Question #15 Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create? ďˇ A. RACI chart ďˇ B. Roles and responsibility matrix ďˇ C. Work breakdown structure ďˇ D. Resource breakdown structure Answer: D Question #16 You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis? ďˇ A. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis. ďˇ B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances. ďˇ C. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances. ďˇ D. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible. Answer: D Question #17 Lisa is the project manager of the FKN project for her organization. She is working with Sam, the CIO, to discuss a discount the vendor has offered the project based on the amount of materials that is ordered. Lisa and Sam review the offer and agree that while their project may qualify for the discounted materials the savings is nominal and they https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! would not necessarily pursue the savings. Lisa documents this positive risk response in the risk register. What risk response is this? ďˇ A. Share ďˇ B. Acceptance ďˇ C. Enhance ďˇ D. Transference Answer: B Question #18 You are the project manager of the GHY Project and would like to perform a review of your project from several different characteristics. You would like to review what worked in the project and what needed improvement. What type of analysis would be most appropriate for the end of project review? ďˇ A. Feasibility study ďˇ B. Product breakdown ďˇ C. Business case study ďˇ D. SWOT analysis Answer: D Question #19 Which of the following best describes the identification, analysis, and ranking of risks? ďˇ A. Plan Risk management ďˇ B. Design of experiments ďˇ C. Fixed-price contracts ďˇ D. Fast tracking Answer: A Question #20 There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process? ďˇ A. Risk management plan ďˇ B. Risk register ďˇ C. Enterprise environmental factors ďˇ D. Cost management plan Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #21 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes is fully developed and optimized across the enterprise, and a well-built IT portfolio management process is put to ensure that all IT investment decisions are themselves optimized? ďˇ A. Stage 2-Fragmented ďˇ B. Stage 4-Best practices ďˇ C. Stage 3-Consistent ďˇ D. Stage 1-Ad hoc Answer: B Question #22 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would best help you? ďˇ A. Plan risk responses ďˇ B. Create a risk governance approach ďˇ C. Create the project risk register ďˇ D. Monitor and control project risks Answer: A Question #23 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project. Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project? ďˇ A. Acceptance ďˇ B. Enhance ďˇ C. Sharing ďˇ D. Exploiting Answer: A Question #24 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to perform at an agreed level over a period of time? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Reliability ďˇ B. Security ďˇ C. Recoverability ďˇ D. Serviceability ďˇ E. Resilience ďˇ F. Maintainability ďˇ G. Error control Answer: ABCDEF Question #25 Your project team has identified a project risk that must be responded to. The risk has been recorded in the risk register and the project team has been discussing potential risk responses for the risk event. The event is not likely to happen for several months but the probability of the event is high. Which one of the following is a valid response to the identified risk event? ďˇ A. Risk audit ďˇ B. Earned value management ďˇ C. Corrective action ďˇ D. Technical performance measurement Answer: C Question #26 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _________ provides investment management services to the firm and directs on how to take decisions on fund. Answer: fund manager Question #27 You are the business analyst for the YGT Organization. You have just completed a capabilities gap assessment and have determined that your organization does not have the necessary resources and technology to seize a business opportunity. What is the most likely course of action for the organization? ďˇ A. Hire contractors to complete the project work. ďˇ B. Move onto the next opportunity. ďˇ C. Launch a new project. ďˇ D. Hire additional resources. Answer: C Question #28 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Stephen is the project manager of the GBB project. He has worked with two subject matter experts and his project team to complete the risk assessment technique. There are approximately 47 risks that have a low probability and a low impact on the project. Which of the following answers best describes what Stephen should do with these risk events? ďˇ A. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to the risk register. ďˇ B. Because they are low probability and low impact, the risks can be dismissed. ďˇ C. Because they are low probability and low impact, Stephen should accept the risks. ďˇ D. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watch list for future monitoring. Answer: D Question #29 Which of the following is a continuous process of comparing performance with desired objectives to identify opportunities for improvement, and is conducted by individuals, groups, or organizations relating to their own work? ďˇ A. Management Assessment ďˇ B. Continuous improvement ďˇ C. Self Assessment ďˇ D. Control Answer: C Question #30 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _______ portion of the issue log records the previous pending issues that have been taken care of. Answer: resolved issues Question #31 In which of the following methods of risk mitigation does the senior management approve the implementation of the controls that are recommended by the risk management team, and that will lower the risk to an acceptable level? ďˇ A. Risk Avoidance ďˇ B. Risk Alleviation ďˇ C. Risk Limitation ďˇ D. Risk Transference Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #32 A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it'll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event? ďˇ A. Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart. ďˇ B. Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist. ďˇ C. Add the identified risk to the risk register. ďˇ D. Add the identified risk to the issues log. Answer: C Question #33 Which of the following are the tasks performed by the Management committee in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. To work on architectural design ďˇ B. To define value creation roles within IT ďˇ C. To balance sustain/growth proposals ďˇ D. To manage complex projects Answer: ACD Question #34 Which of the following steps are performed in the Planning phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Plan the risk-based assurance initiatives. ďˇ B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives. ďˇ C. Perform a quick risk assessment. ďˇ D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ACD Question #35 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management describes the ability to model the IT Portfolio with metrics most appropriate to the business such as ROI, Break- Even, Cost Avoidance, and Revenue Return? ďˇ A. Integrated Capability ďˇ B. Portfolio What-If Planning https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards ďˇ D. Highly Configurable Answer: D Question #36 ďˇ A. Strategic Alignment ďˇ B. Risk Management ďˇ C. Value Delivery ďˇ D. IT Governance Framework Answer: D Question #37 Which of the following frameworks is for enterprise architecture, and provides a comprehensive approach to the design, planning, implementation, and governance of an enterprise information architecture? ďˇ A. TOGAF ďˇ B. Val IT ďˇ C. BISL ďˇ D. COBIT Answer: A Question #38 Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which of the following processes? ďˇ A. Change Management, Capacity Management, Event Management, and Service Request Management ďˇ B. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management ďˇ C. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release Management, and Request Fulfillment ďˇ D. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following processes is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships relating to components of the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure? ďˇ A. Service Catalogue Management ďˇ B. Service Level Management ďˇ C. ICT Operations Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Service Asset and Configuration Management Answer: D Question #40 You are the project manager of the GHG project for your company. You have identified the project risks, completed qualitative and quantitative analysis, and created risk responses. You also need to document how and when risk audits will be performed in the project. Where will you define the frequency of risk audits? ďˇ A. Schedule management plan ďˇ B. Risk management plan ďˇ C. Quality management plan ďˇ D. Risk response plan Answer: B Question #41 What stakeholder(s) must participate in the document elicitation result? ďˇ A. Business analyst and the key stakeholders ďˇ B. Business analyst and the business owner ďˇ C. Business analyst, business analysis team, and the key stakeholders ďˇ D. Business analyst Answer: D Question #42 You are the HR Professional for your organization and you're working with the management to define the role of contractors versus employees in your organization. According to the Internal Revenue Service, there are three categories of control that help determine whether a person is a contractor or an employee. Which one of the following is not one of the three levels of control as defined by the IRS for employee versus contractor? ďˇ A. Type of relationship ďˇ B. Locale of work performed ďˇ C. Behavioral control ďˇ D. Financial control Answer: B Question #43 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Holly and Gary are HR Professionals in their organization and they're working to develop the strategic plan for their organization. Holly and Gary are using SWOT analysis to help understand the needs of human, financial, technological, capital, and other aspects of their organization. What is SWOT? ďˇ A. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats an organization may face. ďˇ B. SWOT is an analysis to define the schedule, weaknesses, opportunities, and timetable of a project endeavor. ďˇ C. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, openness, and timeliness of an organization. ďˇ D. SWOT is an analysis to define the seriousness, weaknesses, openness, and timetable of organization development. Answer: A Question #44 DRAG DROP - COBIT stands for Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology. COBIT is a set of best practices (framework) for information technology (IT) management created by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI) in 1996. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Monitor and Evaluate') next to the IT processes defined by COBIT to support CSI. Select and Place: Answer: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #45 What is the key output handed over to Service Transition within Service Design? ďˇ A. Business Perspective ďˇ B. Service Portfolio Management ďˇ C. ITIL Small-Scale Implementation ďˇ D. Service Design Package Answer: D Question #46 Which of the following processes are covered by Service Strategy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Service Portfolio Management ďˇ B. IT Financial Management ďˇ C. Demand Management ďˇ D. IT Architecture Management ďˇ E. Supplier Management Answer: ABCE Question #47 Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur? ďˇ A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) ďˇ B. Exposure Factor (EF) ďˇ C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) ďˇ D. Safeguard Answer: C Question #48 Which of the following concepts is used to reduce the errors produced during the manufacturing or service process, increase customer satisfaction, streamline supply chain management, aims for modernization of equipment and ensures workers have the highest level of training? ďˇ A. Balanced Scorecard (BSC) ďˇ B. Six Sigma ďˇ C. Total Quality Management ďˇ D. Total Security Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #49 Enterprise analysis provides many things for an organization. All of the following are tasks included in enterprise analysis except for which one? ďˇ A. Solution performance assessment ďˇ B. Define business need ďˇ C. Determine solution approach ďˇ D. Assess capability gaps Answer: A Question #50 Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management? ďˇ A. Project risk management happens at every milestone. ďˇ B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning. ďˇ C. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item. ďˇ D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project. Answer: C Question #51 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities? ďˇ A. Decision analysis ďˇ B. Alternative generation ďˇ C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints ďˇ D. Ranking of approaches Answer: B Question #52 Service Level Management provides for continual identification, monitoring and review of the levels of IT services specified in the service level agreements (SLAs). What are the responsibilities of Service Level Management? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Producing and maintaining a Service Catalog. ďˇ B. Liaising with Availability Management. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. Ensuring that the agreed IT services are delivered. ďˇ D. Ensuring the primary functions of the Service Desk. ďˇ E. Ensuring that appropriate IT Service Continuity plans have been made. Answer: ABCE Question #53 You are the project manager of a computer upgrade project. You and the vendor are in dispute over the deliverables the vendor was to provide and configure. What document can best describe how you and the vendor are to proceed if there is a claim against the vendor? ďˇ A. Procurement management plan ďˇ B. Project cost management plan ďˇ C. Enterprise environmental factors ďˇ D. Contract Answer: D Question #54 Which of the following is a way of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcome that customers wish to get without the control of specific costs and risks? ďˇ A. Processes ďˇ B. Service Desk ďˇ C. Functions ďˇ D. Service Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following objectives can be the best coordinated with the Human resource management? ďˇ A. Increasing the automation of the business processes ďˇ B. Satisfying the business needs ďˇ C. Rewarding employee fairly ďˇ D. Focusing on the business improvements Answer: B Question #56 Which of the following steps are performed in the Scoping phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Customize control objectives. ďˇ B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives. ďˇ C. Select the control objectives for critical processes. ďˇ D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ABC Question #57 Which of the following frameworks describes an enterprise view of all project management activities and how these activities contribute to the success of the organization? ďˇ A. Casualty Actuarial Society framework ďˇ B. COSO ERM ďˇ C. Enterprise project management (EPM) ďˇ D. COBIT Answer: C Question #58 Which of the following planned and purposeful management processes are required by Strategic Alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Clarifying the role that IT should play ďˇ B. Aligning IT strategy with the business strategy ďˇ C. Evaluating, post implementation, benefits delivered by IT ďˇ D. Creating and sustaining awareness of the strategic role of IT at a top management level Answer: ACD Question #59 Which of the following terms includes performance objectives and criteria (POCs), performance indicators, and any other means that evaluate the success in achieving a specified goal? ďˇ A. Precision ďˇ B. Performance Measurement System ďˇ C. Performance Measure ďˇ D. Performance Measurement Category Answer: C Question #60 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! For the entire IT organizations to be agile, all members of the IT organizations need to understand the need for agility and be committed to this process. Which of the following working principles or activity loops are involved for the IT organizations to be agile? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Loop 2 ďˇ B. Loop 4 ďˇ C. Loop3 ďˇ D. Loop 1 Answer: ACD Question #61 You are interviewing members of a project team to test their understanding of the assigned risk responses as risk owners. You and the project manager are working together to evaluate the risk responses to determine their effectiveness in the project. What project management technique are you performing with the project manager in this scenario? ďˇ A. Risk identification with the project team ďˇ B. Risk audits ďˇ C. Risk analysis ďˇ D. Stakeholder analysis as the project team is a stakeholder Answer: B Question #62 Which of the following domains of COBIT addresses the development of a maintenance plan that a company should adopt in order to prolong the life of an IT system and its components? ďˇ A. Plan and Organize ďˇ B. Acquire and Implement ďˇ C. Deliver and Support ďˇ D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: B Question #63 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as the discipline by which an organization in any industry assesses, controls, exploits, finances, and monitors risks from all sources for the purpose of increasing the organization's short- and long-term value to its stakeholders? ďˇ A. COSO ERM framework ďˇ B. COBIT ďˇ C. Val IT https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Casualty Actuarial Society framework Answer: D Question #64 Ned is the project manager of the HNN project for your company. Ned has asked you to help him complete some probability distributions for his project. What portion of the project will you most likely use for probability distributions? ďˇ A. Uncertainty in values such as duration of schedule activities ďˇ B. Risk probability and impact matrixes ďˇ C. Bias towards risk in new resources ďˇ D. Risk identification Answer: A Question #65 Walter is the project manager of a large construction project. He'll be working with several vendors on the project. Vendors will be providing materials and labor for several parts of the project. Some of the works in the project are very dangerous so Walter has implemented safety requirements for all of the vendors and his own project team. Stakeholders for the project have added new requirements, which have caused new risks in the project. A vendor has identified a new risk that could affect the project if it comes into fruition. Walter agrees with the vendor and has updated the risk register and created potential risk responses to mitigate the risk. What should Walter also update in this scenario considering the risk event? ďˇ A. Project contractual relationship with the vendor ďˇ B. Project communications plan ďˇ C. Project scope statement ďˇ D. Project management plan Answer: D Question #66 You are the project manager of the NGQQ Project for your company. To help you communicate project status to your stakeholders, you are going to create a stakeholder register. All of the following information should be included in the stakeholder register except for which one? ďˇ A. Stakeholder management strategy ďˇ B. Assessment information of the stakeholders' major requirements, expectations, and potential influence ďˇ C. Stakeholder classification of their role in the project ďˇ D. Identification information for each stakeholder https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #67 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model states that there are no proper IT governance processes, and it is not documented by management as a requirement? ďˇ A. Stage 3-Consistent ďˇ B. Stage 2-Fragmented ďˇ C. Stage 1-Ad hoc ďˇ D. Stage 4-Best practices Answer: C Question #68 Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management, and Request Fulfillment are part of which of the following stages of the Service Lifecycle? ďˇ A. Service Strategy ďˇ B. Service Transition ďˇ C. Continual Service Improvement ďˇ D. Service Operation Answer: D Question #69 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have to communicate the causes of risk events to the stakeholders. Which risk diagramming technique you will use to communicate the causes of risk events to project stakeholders? ďˇ A. Project network diagrams ďˇ B. Ishikawa diagrams ďˇ C. Process flow charts ďˇ D. Influence diagrams Answer: B Question #70 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _______are activities that are dangerous to complete and manage such as construction, electrical work, or manufacturing. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: Pure risks Question #71 What project management plan is most likely to direct the quantitative risk analysis process for a project in a matrix environment? ďˇ A. Risk management plan ďˇ B. Staffing management plan ďˇ C. Risk analysis plan ďˇ D. Human resource management plan Answer: A Question #72 The water sanitation project manager has determined that risks associated with handling certain chemicals are too high. He has therefore decided to allow someone else to complete this portion of the project by outsourcing the handling and installation of the chemicals and filter equipment to an experienced contractor. This is an example of which of the following? ďˇ A. Transference ďˇ B. Acceptance ďˇ C. Mitigation ďˇ D. Avoidance Answer: A Question #73 Which of the following outsourcing defines the performance objectives reached by negotiation between the user and the provider of a service, or between an outsourcer and an organization? ďˇ A. Service level Agreement (SLA) ďˇ B. Proposal ďˇ C. Contract ďˇ D. Outsource Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management seamlessly initiates the projects, and incorporates the asset and software development costs to improve the accuracy of ongoing portfolio assessment and project prioritization? ďˇ A. Portfolio Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. Portfolio What-If Planning ďˇ C. Integrated Capability ďˇ D. Portfolio Planning Analysis Answer: C Question #75 Shawn is the project manager of the WHT Project for his company. In this project Shawn's team reports that they have found a way to complete the project work for less cost than what was originally planned. The project team presents a new software that will help to automate the project work. While the software and the associated training costs $25,000 it will save the project nearly $65,000 in total costs. Shawn agrees to the software and changes to the project management plan accordingly. What type of risk response has been used in this instance? ďˇ A. Enhancing ďˇ B. Accepting ďˇ C. Avoidance ďˇ D. Exploiting Answer: D Question #76 Which of the following sub-processes of Capacity Management is concerned with the management of the individual components of the IT Infrastructure? ďˇ A. Capacity Management Reporting ďˇ B. Business Capacity Management ďˇ C. Service Capacity Management ďˇ D. Resource Capacity Management Answer: D Question #77 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. You are working on NGQQ Project for your company. You have completed the risk analysis processes for the risk events. You and the project team have created risk responses for most of the identified project risks. Which of the following risk response planning techniques will you use to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the responses? ďˇ A. Risk transference ďˇ B. Risk avoidance ďˇ C. Risk acceptance ďˇ D. Risk mitigation https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #78 Which of the following are the advantages of IT Resource Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. It develops the IT service quality and effectiveness. ďˇ B. It reduces the IT project complexity. ďˇ C. It reduces the enterprise risks. ďˇ D. It provides customer organization to construct the Request for Proposal (RFP). Answer: ABC Question #79 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers the use of information & technology, and how best it can be used in a company to help achieve the company's goals and objectives? ďˇ A. Deliver and Support ďˇ B. Acquire and Implement ďˇ C. Plan and Organize ďˇ D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: C Question #80 Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management? ďˇ A. Planning meetings and analysis ďˇ B. Variance and trend analysis ďˇ C. Data gathering and representation techniques ďˇ D. Information gathering techniques Answer: A Question #81 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #82 You are the project manager of a large construction project. Part of the project involves the wiring of the electricity in the building your project is creating. You and the project team determine the electrical work is too dangerous to perform yourself so you hire an electrician to perform the work for the project. This is an example of what type of risk response? ďˇ A. Avoidance ďˇ B. Mitigation ďˇ C. Transference ďˇ D. Acceptance Answer: C Question #83 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Gary is the project manager of the MMQ project for his company. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for his project. Sarah, a project team member, does not understand the process that Gary is using to plan the risk responses. Which approach is the preferred method to address project risks and the risk responses? ďˇ A. Risks in the project should be addressed by their probability for creating risk responses. ďˇ B. Risks in the project should be addressed by the organization's risk tolerance for creating risk responses. ďˇ C. Risks in the project should be addressed by their priority for creating risk responses. ďˇ D. Risks in the project should be addressed by their impact for creating risk responses. Answer: C Question #84 Which of the following are the main benefits of using Information Services Procurement Library (ISPL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. The contract can be used as a control instrument. ďˇ B. The customer can take advantage of the competitive market. ďˇ C. The proposals of consumers become comparable. ďˇ D. The use of a strategy that really fits the situation. Answer: ABD Question #85 During qualitative risk analysis you want to define the risk urgency assessment. All of the following are indicators of risk priority except for which one? ďˇ A. Risk rating ďˇ B. Warning signs ďˇ C. Cost of the project ďˇ D. Symptoms Answer: C Question #86 What does the T in SWOT analysis mean? ďˇ A. Time ďˇ B. Trial ďˇ C. Threats ďˇ D. Test https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #87 Which of the following components work to support achievements of the enterprise's mission, strategies, and related business objectives in an internal control system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Control activities ďˇ B. Control environment ďˇ C. Strategic alignment ďˇ D. Risk assessment Answer: ABD Question #88 Which of the following are the objectives of Service Level Management (SLM)? 1. To negotiate SLAs with the customers and to design services in accordance with the agreed service level targets. 2. Defining, documenting, and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided. 3. Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in. 4. Monitoring, measuring, and reporting the actual level of services provided. 5. Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction. ďˇ A. 1, 2, and 3 only ďˇ B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only ďˇ C. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 ďˇ D. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only ďˇ E. 1 and 2 only Answer: B Question #89 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules? ďˇ A. Risk management plan ďˇ B. Enterprise environmental factors ďˇ C. Risk probability and impact matrix ďˇ D. Organizational process assets Answer: D Question #90 Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below? System and data are validated. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements. ďˇ A. Evaluation and acceptance ďˇ B. Programming and training ďˇ C. Initiation ďˇ D. Definition Answer: A Question #91 Ben is the project manager of the CMH Project for his organization. He has identified a risk that has a low probability of happening, but the impact of the risk event could save the project and the organization with a significant amount of capital. Ben assigns Laura to the risk event and instructs her to research the time, cost, and method to improve the probability of the positive risk event. Ben then communicates the risk event and response to management. What risk response has been used here? ďˇ A. Enhance ďˇ B. Transference ďˇ C. Sharing ďˇ D. Exploit Answer: A Question #92 You are the project manager for ABC project. You are planning for when and how human resource requirements will be met. You are working on ____. ďˇ A. Scope management plan ďˇ B. Project organization chart ďˇ C. Staffing management plan ďˇ D. Resource calendar Answer: C Question #93 Jeff works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project. Which of the following are the inputs to the identify risks process that Jeff will use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Risk management plan ďˇ B. Activity cost estimates ďˇ C. Scope baseline https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Risk register Answer: ABC Question #94 Which of the following types of agreement creates a confidential relationship between the parties to protect any type of confidential and proprietary information or a trade secret? ďˇ A. CNC ďˇ B. NDA ďˇ C. SLA ďˇ D. Non-price competition Answer: B Question #95 Gary is the project manager for his organization. He is working with the project stakeholders on the project requirements and how risks may affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes risks in the project. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a project risk? ďˇ A. It is an unknown event that can affect the project scope. ďˇ B. It is an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective. ďˇ C. It is an uncertain event that can affect the project costs. ďˇ D. It is an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. Answer: B Question #96 Which of the following roles is used to ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)? ďˇ A. The Service Level Manager ďˇ B. The Configuration Manager ďˇ C. The IT Security Manager ďˇ D. The Change Manager Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #97 Which of the following are commonly used terms when discussing service improvement outcomes? 1) Improvements 2) Benefits 3) Return On Investment (ROI) 4) Value On Investment(VOI) 5) Resources ďˇ A. 2, 3, and 5 only ďˇ B. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only ďˇ C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only ďˇ D. 1, 2, and 4 only ďˇ E. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: C Question #98 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT identifies resource requirements? ďˇ A. PM5 ďˇ B. PM3 ďˇ C. PM2 ďˇ D. PM4 Answer: C Volume C Question #1 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT establishes an investment threshold? ďˇ A. PM4 ďˇ B. PM7 ďˇ C. PM6 ďˇ D. PM5 Answer: C Question #2 Which of the following ISO standards defines the corporate governance of IT? ďˇ A. ISO 9000 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. ISO 27001 ďˇ C. ISO 20000 ďˇ D. ISO 38500 Answer: D Question #3 Which of the following concepts aims to limit errors to 1 per million units produced? ďˇ A. TQM ďˇ B. BSC ďˇ C. Six Sigma ďˇ D. TSM Answer: A Question #4 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT establishes the organizational structures? ďˇ A. VG7 ďˇ B. VG9 ďˇ C. VG6 ďˇ D. VG8 Answer: A Question #5 Which of the following activity loops describes improvement of the existing processes? ďˇ A. Loop 3 ďˇ B. Loop 4 ďˇ C. Loop 1 ďˇ D. Loop 2 Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following strategies includes marketing strategies, new product development strategies, HR strategies and, financial strategies? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Operational strategy ďˇ B. Corporate strategy ďˇ C. Business strategy ďˇ D. Functional strategy Answer: D Question #7 Which of the following phases in SDLC transforms the detailed requirements into complete, detailed system design document? ďˇ A. Planning ďˇ B. Design ďˇ C. Development ďˇ D. Initiation Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following phases in SDLC provides the basis for acquiring the resources needed to achieve a solution? ďˇ A. Design ďˇ B. Planning ďˇ C. Development ďˇ D. Initiation Answer: B Question #9 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle occurs during the concept and idea stages of basic research? ďˇ A. IT asset phase ďˇ B. IT discovery phase ďˇ C. IT process phase ďˇ D. IT project phase Answer: B Question #10 Which of the following steps of development of business case describes the financial benefits analysis? ďˇ A. Step 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. Step 3 ďˇ C. Step 2 ďˇ D. Step 4 Answer: B Question #11 Which of the following is a practice of forecasting possible risks to the organization and taking steps to mitigate their impact on operations? ďˇ A. Timekeeping ďˇ B. Enterprise risk management ďˇ C. Applicant tracking systems ďˇ D. HR audit Answer: B Question #12 Which of the following risk functions directs the Sarbanes-Oxley Section 302 and 404 assessments? ďˇ A. Operations management ďˇ B. Accounting / Financial compliance ďˇ C. Operational Quality Assurance ďˇ D. Compliance & Ethics Answer: B Question #13 Which of the following project management plans defines the risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring strategies? ďˇ A. Communications Management Plan ďˇ B. Resource Management Plan ďˇ C. Risk Management Plan ďˇ D. Stakeholder management strategy Answer: C Question #14 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for policy creation, policy communication, record creation, and HR information systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Compensation and benefit ďˇ B. Personnel policy ďˇ C. Analysis and design for work ďˇ D. Support for strategy Answer: B Question #15 Which of the following resource categories includes costs, productivity, availability, and change and configuration management? ďˇ A. Products ďˇ B. Processes ďˇ C. People ďˇ D. Partners Answer: B Question #16 What is the formula for measuring the "usage gap"? ďˇ A. Usage gap = market potential - existing usage ďˇ B. Usage gap = market potential * existing usage ďˇ C. Usage gap = market potential / existing usage ďˇ D. Usage gap = market potential + existing usage Answer: A Question #17 Which of the following individuals/team advises on infrastructure needs and architectural design? ďˇ A. Management committee ďˇ B. CEO ďˇ C. CIO ďˇ D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #18 In which of the following types of biases does the data collection itself interfere with the process it is measuring? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Interaction ďˇ B. Nonresponse ďˇ C. Perception ďˇ D. Operational Answer: A Question #19 Which of the following categories describes the value added by the process divided by the value of the labor and capital consumed? ďˇ A. Quality ďˇ B. Timeliness ďˇ C. Quantity ďˇ D. Productivity Answer: D Question #20 Which of the following processes uses statistical evidences to determine progress toward specific defined organizational objectives? ďˇ A. Resource management ďˇ B. Risk management ďˇ C. Value delivery ďˇ D. Performance measurement Answer: D Question #21 Which of the following has the tendency or inclination of outlook that is a troublesome source of error in human sensing? ďˇ A. Defect ďˇ B. Bias (of measurement) ďˇ C. Vulnerability ďˇ D. Risk Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following areas tracks the project delivery, and monitors the IT services? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Risk management ďˇ B. Performance measurement ďˇ C. Strategic alignment ďˇ D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #23 Which of the following individuals ensures that IT complies with policy, laws and regulations? ďˇ A. Project sponsor ďˇ B. Compliance officer ďˇ C. Supplier ďˇ D. Business partner Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following IT processes contained in the Deliver and Support domain of COBIT manages the operations? ďˇ A. DS10 ďˇ B. DS13 ďˇ C. DS9 ďˇ D. DS8 Answer: B Question #25 Which of the following individuals supports and contributes to customer's governance approach? ďˇ A. User representatives ďˇ B. Supplier/Business partners ďˇ C. Compliance officers ďˇ D. Project sponsors Answer: B Question #26 Which of the following techniques builds various plausible views of possible futures for a business? ďˇ A. PEST analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. Scenario Planning ďˇ C. SWOT Analysis ďˇ D. Market Segmentation Answer: B Question #27 Which of the following areas focuses on aligning with the business and collaborative solutions? ďˇ A. Risk management ďˇ B. Strategic alignment ďˇ C. Resource management ďˇ D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #28 Which of the following techniques seeks to identify the similarities and differences between the groups of customers or users? ďˇ A. Market Segmentation ďˇ B. PEST Analysis ďˇ C. SWOT Analysis ďˇ D. Scenario Planning Answer: A Question #29 Which of the following areas concentrates on optimizing expenses, and providing the value of IT? ďˇ A. Value delivery ďˇ B. Risk management ďˇ C. Resource management ďˇ D. Strategic alignment Answer: A Question #30 Which of the following is used as a tool that assists in risk identification? ďˇ A. Performance report ďˇ B. Status report https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. Variance analysis ďˇ D. Issue log Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following is the amount of risk an enterprise is willing to except in pursuit of its mission? ďˇ A. Threats ďˇ B. Vulnerability ďˇ C. Risk Appetite ďˇ D. Inherent Risk Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following risks refers to the risk associated with an event in the absence of specific controls? ďˇ A. Financial reporting risk ďˇ B. Inherent risk ďˇ C. Operational risk ďˇ D. Compliance risk Answer: B Question #33 Which of the following types of risks includes liability torts, property damage, natural catastrophe and financial risk? ďˇ A. Asset risk ďˇ B. Hazard risk ďˇ C. Operational risk ďˇ D. Strategic risk Answer: B Question #34 Which of the following areas addresses the safeguarding of IT assets, disaster recovery and continuity of operations? ďˇ A. Performance measurement ďˇ B. Risk management ďˇ C. Value delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Strategic alignment Answer: B Question #35 Which of the following individuals/team allocates business resources for effective IT governance? ďˇ A. Business Executive ďˇ B. CEO ďˇ C. CIO ďˇ D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #36 Which of the following resource categories includes skill sets, certifications, productivity, and morale? ďˇ A. Partners ďˇ B. Processes ďˇ C. People ďˇ D. Products Answer: C Question #37 Which of the following attributes are the COBIT's generic maturity model attributes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Policies, plans and procedures ďˇ B. Tools and automation ďˇ C. Awareness and communication ďˇ D. Availability and accessibility Answer: ABC Question #38 Which of the following systems come under the category of linking systems to connect an enterprise with its customers and supplier? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Website and portal ďˇ B. Electronic data interchange (EDI)/extensible markup language (XML) data transfer systems https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. Office productivity ďˇ D. E-mail, smartphone, instant messaging Answer: ABD Question #39 Which of the following steps of IT governance program establishes a balanced scorecard mechanism for measuring current performance that are related to the IT governance focus areas? ďˇ A. Define target areas ďˇ B. Develop improvement strategies ďˇ C. Understand and define the risks ďˇ D. Measure results Answer: D Question #40 objectives? ďˇ A. Strategic Alignment ďˇ B. Performance management ďˇ C. Value Delivery ďˇ D. Risk Management Answer: A Question #41 Which of the following steps of IT governance program decides on the highest priority projects that will help to improve the management and governance of the significant gap areas? ďˇ A. Define target areas ďˇ B. Develop improvement strategies ďˇ C. Measure results ďˇ D. Understand and define the risks Answer: B Question #42 In which of the following components of the COSO ERM are the policies and procedures established and implemented to help ensure that the risk responses are effectively carried out? ďˇ A. Control activity https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. Risk assessment ďˇ C. Risk response ďˇ D. Event identification Answer: A Question #43 Which of the following factors influence the operating environment of an enterprise? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Mission, vision and values of an enterprise ďˇ B. Outcome measures ďˇ C. Stakeholders values ďˇ D. Industry practices Answer: ACD Question #44 You are using the IT BSC management tool to apply the practices of IT BSC to the IT function. You want to perform the following functions: ⥠Deliver value ⥠Manage cost âĄManage risks âĄAchieve intercompany synergies Which process of the IT BSC Measurement tool will you use? ďˇ A. Future Orientation ďˇ B. Operational excellence ďˇ C. Corporate contribution ďˇ D. Customer Orientation Answer: C Question #45 Which of the following types of benefits are provided by the new IT-driven initiative for IT investment program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Cost avoidance benefit ďˇ B. Direct benefit ďˇ C. Indirect benefit ďˇ D. Incremental benefit https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: ABD Question #46 Which of the following components of COSO ERM framework encompasses the nature of an enterprise, and sets the basis for how risk is viewed and addressed by an organization people, including risk management philosophy and risk appetite, integrity and ethical values, and the environment in which it operates? ďˇ A. Risk response ďˇ B. Risk assessment ďˇ C. Control activity ďˇ D. Internal environment Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following are the categories of IT-related spending or investments defined by the META group? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Grow the business ďˇ B. Strategic investment ďˇ C. Transform the business ďˇ D. Run the business Answer: ACD Question #48 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of cost containment, predictability or reliability, continual unit cost improvement, and benchmarking for justification? ďˇ A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) ďˇ B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) ďˇ C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) ďˇ D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) Answer: C Question #49 Which of the following functions are performed by the Future Orientation measure of the IT BSC management tool? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. It focuses on professional learning and development. ďˇ B. It attracts and retains people with key competencies. ďˇ C. It manages operational service performance. ďˇ D. It measures and rewards individual and team performance. Answer: ABD Question #50 Which of the following are the process control objectives for the process controls embedment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Process ownership ďˇ B. Process goals and objectives ďˇ C. Process repeatability ďˇ D. Process availability Answer: ABC Question #51 Which of the following guides provides risk and value statements to help identify and validate the need to execute each control objective? ďˇ A. IT assurance guide ďˇ B. IT control objectives for Basel II guide ďˇ C. COBIT control practices guide ďˇ D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: C Question #52 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of anticipation of business needs, service levels over cost, and business enablement and facilitation (removal of obstacles)? ďˇ A. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) ďˇ B. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) ďˇ C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) ďˇ D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) Answer: B Question #53 Which of the following components of the COSO ERM identifies the required information, captures it, and communicates it in a form and time frame that enable people to carry out their responsibilities? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Information and communication ďˇ B. Internal environment ďˇ C. Monitoring ďˇ D. Objectives setting Answer: A Question #54 Which of the following statements explains the difference between the IT strategy committee and the IT steering committee? ďˇ A. The IT strategy committee assists the executive in the delivery of the IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee advises the board and management on IT strategy. ďˇ B. The IT strategy committee focuses on implementation, whereas the IT steering committee focuses on the current and future strategic IT issues. ďˇ C. The IT strategy committee aligns and approves the IT architecture, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority conflicts. ďˇ D. The IT strategy committee provides direction to management relative to IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following guides provides guidance on how COBIT is useful in supporting a variety of assurance tasks, along with the recommended testing steps that are aligned with the control practices? ďˇ A. COBIT control practices guide ďˇ B. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide ďˇ C. IT assurance guide ďˇ D. IT control objectives for Basel II guide Answer: C Question #56 Which of the following examples are included in the general controls embedded in IT processes and services? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Completeness ďˇ B. Change management ďˇ C. Systems development ďˇ D. Accuracy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: BC Question #57 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The ________ creates and delivers momentum in gaining executive support, and provides help to set up messaging that is constantly conveyed to motivate the team, and gives information to the stakeholders. Answer: communication plan Question #58 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to decrease costs or revenues? ďˇ A. Increasing production rates ďˇ B. Decreasing production and operating costs ďˇ C. Improving product quality ďˇ D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: ABC Question #59 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to increase costs or revenues? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Erecting barriers to entry by competitors ďˇ B. Increasing production rates ďˇ C. Improving product quality ďˇ D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: AD Question #60 The testing methods help in shaping opinion against assurance objectives by combining one or more of the test types. Which of the following are the test types used in this process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Observe ďˇ B. Inspect ďˇ C. Plan ďˇ D. Inquire Answer: ABD https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #61 Which of the following strategic issues in the IFAC report highlight the underlying success and failure of enterprises? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Ability to provide service feedback to providers ďˇ B. Strategy execution ďˇ C. Ability to undertake successful mergers and acquisitions ďˇ D. Clarity of strategy Answer: BCD Question #62 Which of the following guides emphasizes on the fundamental steps for implementing information security within the enterprise, and provides easy to follow guidance for addressing security aspects of IT governance? ďˇ A. COBIT security baseline guide ďˇ B. COBIT control practices guide ďˇ C. IT assurance guide ďˇ D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: A Question #63 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of working well with other functions, IT value realization over time rather than-just cost, and being business process- focused but solution driven? ďˇ A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) ďˇ B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) ďˇ C. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) ďˇ D. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) Answer: C Question #64 Which of the following examples are included in the application controls embedded in business process applications? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. ďˇ A. Segregation of duties ďˇ B. Validity ďˇ C. Security ďˇ D. Computer operations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: AB Question #65 Which of the following individuals provides the funding, and want to see the return on their investment and strategic alignment with their strategic objectives? ďˇ A. Compliance officers ďˇ B. Internal auditors ďˇ C. Business partners ďˇ D. Product suppliers Answer: C Question #66 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT defines information requirements? ďˇ A. VG6 ďˇ B. VG4 ďˇ C. VG5 ďˇ D. VG3 Answer: C Question #67 Which of the following is a family of ISO standards for Total Quality Management (TQM)? ďˇ A. ISO 20000 ďˇ B. ISO 9000 ďˇ C. ISO 38500 ďˇ D. ISO 27001 Answer: B Question #68 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT creates an overall portfolio view? ďˇ A. PM8 ďˇ B. PM7 ďˇ C. PM9 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. PM10 Answer: C Question #69 Which of the following individuals provides service feedback to the providers? ďˇ A. Compliance officers ďˇ B. User representatives ďˇ C. Project sponsors ďˇ D. Suppliers Answer: B Question #70 Which of the following is a non repetitive set of tasks that lead to the achievement of a new objective? ďˇ A. Plan ďˇ B. Strategy ďˇ C. Techniques ďˇ D. Tactics Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following activity loops emphasizes on monitoring and deciding processes? ďˇ A. Loop 2 ďˇ B. Loop 4 ďˇ C. Loop 3 ďˇ D. Loop 1 Answer: D Question #72 Which of the following activity loops describes creation of new processes? ďˇ A. Loop 3 ďˇ B. Loop 2 ďˇ C. Loop 4 ďˇ D. Loop 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #73 In which of the following editions of COBIT was "Management Guidelines" added? ďˇ A. The third edition ďˇ B. The first edition ďˇ C. The fourth edition ďˇ D. The second edition Answer: D Question #74 Which of the following service delivery processes includes controls, document and record, as its sub processes? ďˇ A. Service level management ďˇ B. Service reporting ďˇ C. Information security management ďˇ D. Capacity management Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle is governed by a series of stages and gates for managing the lifecycle of projects? ďˇ A. IT project phase ďˇ B. IT process phase ďˇ C. IT asset phase ďˇ D. IT discovery phase Answer: A Question #76 Which of the following service delivery processes has the goal to produce, agreed on, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the effective communication? ďˇ A. Service level management ďˇ B. Service reporting ďˇ C. Information security management ďˇ D. Capacity management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #77 What is the major goal of risk management in the decision-making process? ďˇ A. To manage the clients ďˇ B. To manage the time ďˇ C. To manage the resources ďˇ D. To manage the uncertainty Answer: D Question #78 Which of the following types of risks includes currency risk, liquidity risk, and technology obsolescence? ďˇ A. Asset risk ďˇ B. Operational risk ďˇ C. Hazard risk ďˇ D. Strategic risk Answer: A Question #79 Which of the following risk functions ensures the product/service alignment with the customer requirements? ďˇ A. Accounting ďˇ B. Marketing ďˇ C. Strategic planning ďˇ D. Credit Answer: B Question #80 Which of the following is the process of identifying and assessing factors that may jeopardize the success of a project or the achievement of a goal? ďˇ A. Risk retention ďˇ B. Risk identification ďˇ C. Risk communication ďˇ D. Risk analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #81 Which of the following is the process of defining the way work is performed and the tasks that a given job requires? ďˇ A. Selection ďˇ B. Recruitment ďˇ C. Job design ďˇ D. Job analysis Answer: C Question #82 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for attitude surveys, labor relation, employee handbook, and labor law compliance? ďˇ A. Personnel policy ďˇ B. Employee relation ďˇ C. Compensation and benefit ďˇ D. Analysis and design for work Answer: B Question #83 Which of the following categories measures the health of the organization and the working environment of its employees? ďˇ A. Quantity ďˇ B. Safety ďˇ C. Effectiveness ďˇ D. Efficiency Answer: B Question #84 Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? ďˇ A. Continual Service Improvement ďˇ B. Service Support ďˇ C. Service Strategy ďˇ D. Governance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D More Questions. Question #1 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for an enterprise when prioritizing IT projects? ďˇ A. Results of IT performance benchmarks against competitors ďˇ B. Impact on the business due to expected project outcomes ďˇ C. Technical capability of the enterprise to execute the projects ďˇ D. Process owner expectations based on operational benefits Answer: B Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/3294993/prioritizing-projects.html Question #2 Senior management finds that too many projects are currently in-progress and all are experiencing expensive project overruns due to lack of resources. Many of the projects also appear to overlap in their objectives and expected outcomes. Which of the following would BEST streamline the process of evaluating and selecting funding priorities? ďˇ A. Portfolio management ďˇ B. Value governance ďˇ C. Project management ďˇ D. Business case development Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2016/ensuring-value-from-it-enabledďżžinvestments Question #3 The CEO of a large enterprise has announced the commencement of a major business expansion that will double the size of the organization. IT will need to support the expected demand expansion. The CIO should FIRST: ďˇ A. update the IT strategic plan to align with the decision. ďˇ B. recruit IT resources based on the expansion decision. ďˇ C. review the resource utilization matrix. ďˇ D. embed IT personnel in the business units. Answer: C Question #4 Portfolio management in a large enterprise BEST enables which of the following? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Performance management ďˇ B. Risk reduction ďˇ C. Value creation ďˇ D. Human resource optimization Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following BEST defines the IT investment activities an enterprise will undertake when aligning to business goals? ďˇ A. Portfolio management ďˇ B. Procurement management ďˇ C. Project management ďˇ D. Risk management Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing IT governance in a small, newly established organization? ďˇ A. Approving enterprise architecture and standards ďˇ B. Defining IT project management methodology ďˇ C. Assigning a budget for IT governance applications ďˇ D. Assigning IT roles and responsibilities Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2017/using-cobit-in-governmentďżždepartments Question #7 Which of the following is the BEST method to monitor IT governance effectiveness? ďˇ A. Service level management ďˇ B. Balanced scorecard ďˇ C. Risk control self-assessment ďˇ D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis Answer: B Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-6/performance-measurement-metrics-for-itďżžgovernance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #8 An internal auditor conducts an assessment of a two-year-old IT risk management program. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the CIO? ďˇ A. Organizational responsibility for IT risk management is not clearly defined. ďˇ B. IT risk training records are not properly retained in accordance with established schedules. ďˇ C. None of the members of the IT risk management team have risk management-related certifications. ďˇ D. Only a few key risk indicators identified by the IT risk management team are being monitored and the rest will be on a phased schedule. Answer: D Question #9 An enterprise has discovered that there is significant duplication of IT investments. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in addressing this issue? ďˇ A. Establishing an IT steering committee ďˇ B. Delegating IT investment decisions to centralized IT ďˇ C. Maintaining an inventory of IT investments ďˇ D. Increasing the frequency of IT investment audits Answer: A Question #10 A regulatory audit assessed an enterprise's main transactional application as noncompliant. In addition to fines and required corrections, an agreement was reached to implement a set of governance controls over IT. Accountability for these controls is BEST assigned to which of the following? ďˇ A. Internal audit director ďˇ B. CIO ďˇ C. The board of directors ďˇ D. Application users Answer: A Question #11 An enterprise is planning a change in business direction. As a result, IT risk will significantly increase. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST course of action? ďˇ A. Plan for the corresponding IT reorganization. ďˇ B. Recommend delaying the business change. ďˇ C. Report the risk to executive management. ďˇ D. Implement IT changes to align with the plan. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #12 Which of the following is the GREATEST expected strategic organizational benefit from the standardization of technical platforms? ďˇ A. Reduces IT operational training costs ďˇ B. Reduces response time ďˇ C. Meets regulatory compliance requirements ďˇ D. Optimizes infrastructure investments Answer: D Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=odC_AQAAQBAJ&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=enterprise+IT+expected+strat egic+organizational+benefit+from +the+standardization+of+technical +platforms&source=bl&ots=KnpTgkPPsb&sig=ACfU3U3fIFhOpMt81n2_xEoKhLtDFBmv8g&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKE wjegNiP6PfpAhWOh1wKHQB4AX8Q6AE wCXoECAcQAQ#v=onepage&q=enterprise%20IT%20expected%20strategic%20organizational%20benefit%20from% 20the%20standardization%20of% 20technical%20platforms&f=false Question #13 Which of the following would be the BEST way for an enterprise to address new legal and regulatory requirements applicable to IT? ďˇ A. Benchmark how other IT organizations are treating the new requirements. ďˇ B. Adopt a zero-tolerance approach for noncompliance with regulatory matters. ďˇ C. Treat as a risk to be assessed before developing a response. ďˇ D. Use a cost-benefit analysis to determine if compliance is warranted. Answer: D Question #14 Which of the following is MOST critical for sustaining a newly implemented IT governance program? ďˇ A. Launch an enterprise-wide IT governance awareness program. ďˇ B. Designate a board representative to sponsor the IT governance program. ďˇ C. Ensure that there are IT policies, procedures, and standards in place. ďˇ D. Benchmark the program periodically against industry peers. Answer: C Question #15 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise decides to accept the IT risk of a subsidiary located in another country even though it exceeds the enterprise's risk appetite. Which of the following would be the BEST justification for this decision? ďˇ A. Local market common practices ďˇ B. Risk framework alignment ďˇ C. Technical gaps among subsidiaries ďˇ D. Compliance with local regulations Answer: C Question #16 The board of directors of an enterprise has questioned whether the business is focused on optimizing value. The IT strategy committee's BEST action to address the board's concern is to: ďˇ A. initiate reporting and review of key IT performance metrics. ďˇ B. form a technology council to monitor the efficiency of project implementation. ďˇ C. conduct a portfolio review to assess the benefits realization of IT investments. ďˇ D. conduct a benchmark to assess IT value relative to competitors. Answer: A Question #17 Ă ĂÂĄĂâ˘ĂĹž determines the enterprise is lagging behind its competitors in consumer mobile offerings, and mandates an aggressive rollout of several new mobile services within the next 12 months. To ensure the IT organization is capable of supporting this business objective, the enterprise's CIO should FIRST: ďˇ A. procure contractors with experience in mobile application development. ďˇ B. task direct reports with creating training plans for their teams. ďˇ C. create a sense of urgency with the IT team that mobile knowledge is mandatory. ďˇ D. request an assessment of current in-house mobile technology skills. Answer: D Question #18 Following a merger of two major corporations, the new strategic goal is "One business function. One IT system." Which of the following should be the FIRST step to achieve this goal? ďˇ A. Form a combined IT steering committee. ďˇ B. Document requirements for each business function. ďˇ C. Create a standard enterprise architecture. ďˇ D. Define service level agreements with each business function. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #19 Which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure IT technical competencies support the enterprise? ďˇ A. Ensure there is adequate budget for IT technical training. ďˇ B. Determine training requirements from customer service satisfaction surveys. ďˇ C. Align training requirements to the capabilities needed to support the business strategy. ďˇ D. Hold annual job fairs targeting new graduates in IT technical fields. Answer: C Reference: https://www.mckinsey.com/~/media/McKinsey/Industries/Financial%20Services/Our%20Insights/Nextďżžgen%20technology%20transformation%20in% 20financial%20services/Next-gen-technology-transformation-in-financial-services.ashx Question #20 A data governance strategy has been defined by the IT strategy committee which includes privacy objectives related to access controls, authorized use, and data collection. Which of the following should the committee do NEXT? ďˇ A. Mandate the creation of a data privacy policy. ďˇ B. Establish a data privacy budget. ďˇ C. Perform a data privacy impact assessment. ďˇ D. Mandate data privacy training for employees. Answer: A Question #21 Once an IT governance framework has been defined, which of the following is the MOST effective approach to align IT to business objectives? ďˇ A. Auditing the alignment of IT to business objectives regularly ďˇ B. Reviewing the return on investment of IT initiatives on a regular basis ďˇ C. Establishing a cross business unit committee to prioritize IT investment ďˇ D. Reporting IT investment and performance to senior management regularly Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=r2e7NmwoFGoC&pg=PA137&lpg=PA137&dq=Once+an+IT+governance+fra mework+has+been+defined, +which+of+the+following+is+the+MOST+effective+approach+to+align+IT+to+business +objectives&source=bl&ots=tz7jATmLvQ&sig=ACfU3U1dkpiL5L1JJLfyOORIf9gBtlFSDQ&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj Cqv7_- ffpAhXGN8AKHSOpDoAQ6AEwCnoECAkQAQ#v=onepage&q=Once%20an%20IT%20governance%20framework%20h as%20been%20defined%2C%20which% https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! 20of%20the%20following%20is%20the%20MOST%20effective%20approach%20to%20align%20IT%20to%20busines s%20objectives&f=false Question #22 An IT governance committee is defining a risk management policy for a portfolio of IT-enabled investments. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing the policy? ďˇ A. Risk appetite of the enterprise ďˇ B. Risk management framework ďˇ C. Value obtained with minimum risk ďˇ D. Possible investment failures Answer: B Question #23 A contracted company employs key IT systems operational personnel to oversee technology used to manage a critical line of business. Management is concerned that a mass resignation by many disgruntled personnel may lead to a shutdown of these key systems. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY responsibility of IT governance to address this risk? ďˇ A. Renegotiate employment agreements to lessen the likelihood of a mass resignation. ďˇ B. Cross train management to assume support of the technology. ďˇ C. Develop a resourcing strategy that quickly replaces staff. ďˇ D. Survey key support staff to determine what is causing them to be disgruntled. Answer: D Question #24 A CIO determines IT investment management processes are not fully realizing the benefits identified in business cases. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent this issue? ďˇ A. Document lessons learned throughout the investment life cycle. ďˇ B. Perform stage-gate reviews throughout the life cycle of each project. ďˇ C. Evaluate the delegation of investment approval authorities. ďˇ D. Establish a requirement for CIO review and approval of each business case. Answer: A Question #25 How does an enterprise benefit from implementing a set of key risk indicators (KRIs)? ďˇ A. The set of KRIs remains relevant over time. ďˇ B. Risk exposures are monitored to ensure they remain within risk appetite. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. The need for a formal risk and control assessment program is eliminated. ďˇ D. The frequency of risk data gathering and reporting is minimized. Answer: B Reference: https://www.metricstream.com/insights/Key-Risk-indicators-ERM.htm Question #26 A large retail chain realizes that while there has not been any loss of data, IT security has not been a priority and should become a key goal for the enterprise. What should be the FIRST high-level initiative for a newly created IT strategy committee in order to support this business goal? ďˇ A. Modernizing internal IT security practices ďˇ B. Identifying gaps in information asset protection ďˇ C. Recruiting and training qualified IT security staff ďˇ D. Defining data archiving and retrieval policies Answer: B Question #27 A multinational enterprise recently purchased a large company located in a different country. When introducing the concept of governance to the new acquisition, it is MOST important that executive management recognize: ďˇ A. the use of international standards. ďˇ B. language differences. ďˇ C. globally recognized good practices. ďˇ D. the impact of cultural changes. Answer: C Question #28 The MOST effective way to ensure that IT supports the agile needs of an enterprise is to: ďˇ A. implement open source systems. ďˇ B. outsource infrastructure management. ďˇ C. develop a robust enterprise architecture. ďˇ D. perform process modeling. Answer: D Question #29 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! From an IT governance perspective, which of the following would be the MOST significant impact of moving all IT applications to an external Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud provider? ďˇ A. The necessity to update key risk indicators (KRIs) ďˇ B. The integration of the IT department with business lines ďˇ C. The improvement of IT service alignment with business ďˇ D. The shift from service delivery to service management Answer: C Question #30 Which of the following is the MOST important driver of IT governance? ďˇ A. Management transparency ďˇ B. Technical excellence ďˇ C. Effective internal controls ďˇ D. Quality measurement Answer: A Question #31 When developing an IT strategic plan that supports an enterprise's business goals, which of the following should be done FIRST? ďˇ A. Understand the current vision. ďˇ B. Perform a business impact analysis. ďˇ C. Ensure that IT drives business goals. ďˇ D. Analyze benchmarking data. Answer: B Reference: https://www.infoentrepreneurs.org/en/guides/strategic-planning/ Question #32 Prior to decommissioning an IT system, it is MOST important to: ďˇ A. assess compliance with environmental regulations. ďˇ B. review the media disposal records. ďˇ C. assess compliance with the retention policy. ďˇ D. review the data sanitization records. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #33 An enterprise is trying to increase the maturity of its IT process from being ad hoc to being repeatable. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this change? ďˇ A. Required outcomes are more frequently achieved. ďˇ B. Process performance is measured in business terms. ďˇ C. Required outcomes are mapped to business objectives. ďˇ D. Process optimization is embedded across the organization. Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=1iZ3qWnLU0oC&pg=PA218&lpg=PA218&dq=increase+the+maturity+of+its+ IT+process+from+being+ad+hoc +to+being+repeatable&source=bl&ots=u6T_F9VL-V&sig=ACfU3U0bLAxWfJhgn10- z1Qk0syhD_HCFw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjhn43L2fnpAhVC_qQKHRagBNcQ6AEwD3oECAQQAQ#v=onepage&q =increase%20the%20maturity%20of% 20its%20IT%20process%20from%20being%20ad%20hoc%20to%20being%20repeatable&f=false Question #34 Which of the following entities is structured PRIMARILY to ensure goals and objectives are aligned between IT and the business? ďˇ A. Board of directors ďˇ B. Portfolio management committee ďˇ C. Change advisory board ďˇ D. IT strategy committee Answer: A Reference: https://courses.lumenlearning.com/boundless-management/chapter/principles-of-management/ Question #35 A recent audit of IT investments has found that while initial returns meet expectations, benefits realization declines more than expected over time. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this situation? ďˇ A. Standardize resource monitoring approaches. ďˇ B. Institute project quality and performance metrics. ďˇ C. Establish key risk indicators (KRIs). ďˇ D. Institute regular business case updates and reviews. Answer: D Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/guidelines-successful-benefits-realization-9909 Question #36 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise's IT department has been operating independently without regard to business concerns, leading to misalignment between business and IT. The BEST way to establish alignment would be to require: ďˇ A. business to help define IT goals. ďˇ B. IT to define business objectives. ďˇ C. business to fund IT services. ďˇ D. IT and business to define risks. Answer: A Question #37 Which of the following are the MOST critical enablers for implementing IT governance in an enterprise? ďˇ A. Involvement of IT strategy and steering committees ďˇ B. Assigning roles and responsibilities for IT governance ďˇ C. Commitment and promotion by senior management ďˇ D. Prioritizing IT projects and funding for IT governance Answer: C Reference: https://www3.pinkelephant.com/articles/The7EnablersandConstraintsofITSMv1.PDF Question #38 A business unit is planning to replace an existing IT legacy solution with a hosted Software as a Service (SaaS) solution. However, business management is concerned that stored data will be at risk. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to reduce the risk associated with the SaaS solution? ďˇ A. Include risk-related requirements in the SaaS contract. ďˇ B. Create key risk indicators for the SaaS solution. ďˇ C. Redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance. ďˇ D. Research the technology and identify potential security threats. Answer: A Question #39 Which of the following would be MOST helpful in gaining executive support for an IT-enabled business initiative? ďˇ A. Framing the in terms of impact to business value ďˇ B. Presenting a comprehensive risk management plan ďˇ C. Providing examples of risks realized by competitors for similar initiatives ďˇ D. Presenting key findings of a business impact analysis conducted by IT managers https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #40 An enterprise is planning to implement several strategic initiatives that will require the acquisition of new IT systems. Which of the following would BEST enable the IT steering committee to prioritize proposed initiatives based on business objectives? ďˇ A. IT strategic management ďˇ B. Project management ďˇ C. Enterprise architecture management ďˇ D. Project portfolio management Answer: C Question #41 An IT governance committee recently received a report indicating a scarcity of key IT skills in the marketplace to meet the core needs of the business. Reviewing which of the following would BEST help the committee respond to this situation? ďˇ A. IT balanced scorecard ďˇ B. Outsourcing strategy ďˇ C. IT strategic plan ďˇ D. Human resource strategy Answer: D Question #42 An enterprise has decided to create its first mobile application. The IT director is concerned about the potential impact of this initiative. Which of the following is the MOST important input for managing the risk associated with this initiative? ďˇ A. Business requirements ďˇ B. IT risk scorecard ďˇ C. Enterprise risk appetite ďˇ D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #43 Senior management has made a decision to automate a number of key controls due to concerns that current IT risk controls are overly cumbersome and adversely impacting IT agility. Which of the following should be required FIRST to facilitate this process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Control gap analysis ďˇ B. Control self-assessments ďˇ C. Controls optimization ďˇ D. Cost-benefit analysis Answer: D Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/itac-planning/#gref Question #44 The IT function received only 50% of the requested funding to support the IT strategy for new business initiatives. Which of the following is the CIO's MOST important course of action before considering alternative resource options? ďˇ A. Prioritize the portfolio. ďˇ B. Terminate less visible maintenance projects. ďˇ C. Develop a new balanced scorecard. ďˇ D. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. Answer: A Reference: https://hbr.org/1980/07/strategic-management-for-competitive-advantage Question #45 A business case indicates an enterprise would reduce costs by implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program allowing employees to use personal devices for e-mail. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance action? ďˇ A. Assess the enterprise architecture. ďˇ B. Update the BYOD policy. ďˇ C. Update the network infrastructure. ďˇ D. Assess the BYOD risk. Answer: A Question #46 An enterprise has decided to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system to achieve operating and cost efficiencies through global IT standardization. The business units are resistant because they are used to operating autonomously. The CEO has instructed the CIO to move quickly with the implementation to force acceptance with business unit leaders. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step? ďˇ A. Request funding from the CEO to hire ERP consultants. ďˇ B. Ask the CEO to be the sponsor of the program. ďˇ C. Engage a reluctant business unit to conduct a proof-of-concept pilot. ďˇ D. Build a governance framework for identifying non-standard processes. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following is MOST critical to have in place before management can establish an IT risk assessment and response approach? ďˇ A. A portfolio of IT investments ďˇ B. Defined roles and responsibilities ďˇ C. Historic data on risk events ďˇ D. A balanced scorecard Answer: B Question #48 An IT audit report indicates that a lack of IT employee risk awareness is creating serious security issues in application design and configuration. Which of the following would be the BEST key risk indicator (KRI) to show progress in IT employee behavior? ďˇ A. Results of application security testing ďˇ B. Results of application security awareness training quizzes ďˇ C. Number of reported security incidents ďˇ D. Number of IT employees attending security training sessions Answer: C Question #49 An enterprise can BEST assess the benefits of a new IT project through its life cycle by: ďˇ A. calculation of the total cost of ownership. ďˇ B. calculation of the net present value. ďˇ C. periodic review of the business case. ďˇ D. periodic measurement of the project slip rate. Answer: C Question #50 Which of the following is the MOST important objective of IT program portfolio management? ďˇ A. Reduced technology costs ďˇ B. Reduced project management costs ďˇ C. Improved IT service delivery ďˇ D. Appropriate investment mix https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Reference: https://www.northeastern.edu/graduate/blog/project-management-vs-portfolio-management-vs-programďżžmanagement/ Question #51 Which of the following is the BEST way for the CIO to ensure senior business management understands the current IT risk profile? ďˇ A. Present an aggregated view of risk. ďˇ B. Present the updated risk register. ďˇ C. Present a detailed list of risk findings. ďˇ D. Present a list of scheduled risk mitigation actions. Answer: A Question #52 Besides the mitigation of IT risk, which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of IT governance? ďˇ A. Control of IT processes ďˇ B. Meeting of IT financial goals ďˇ C. Resolution of IT audit findings ďˇ D. Value delivery of IT to the business Answer: D Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/co/Documents/risk/InteligenciaFrentealRiesgo/No.6- RiskIntelligenceCIO.pdf Question #53 Despite an adequate training budget, IT staff are not keeping skills current with emerging technologies critical to the enterprise. The BEST way for the enterprise to address this situation would be to: ďˇ A. establish an agreed-upon skills development plan with each employee. ďˇ B. allow staff to attend technology conferences. ďˇ C. create a standard-setting center of excellence. ďˇ D. assign human resources (HR) to develop an IT skills matrix. Answer: D Question #54 The PRIMARY reason a CIO and IT senior management should stay aware of the business environment is to: ďˇ A. measure efficiency of IT resources. ďˇ B. revisit prioritization of IT projects. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. re-assess the IT investment portfolio. ďˇ D. adjust IT strategy as needed. Answer: A Question #55 Which of the following aspects of the transition from X-rays to digital images would be BEST addressed by implementing information security policy and procedures? ďˇ A. Establishing data retention procedures ďˇ B. Training technicians on acceptable use policy ďˇ C. Minimizing the impact of hospital operation disruptions on patient care ďˇ D. Protecting personal health information Answer: D Question #56 To enable consistent assessment of candidate program investments for inclusion into the IT portfolio, it is MOST important to identify: ďˇ A. an IT balanced scorecard. ďˇ B. the impact on enterprise architecture. ďˇ C. common selection criteria. ďˇ D. currently available resources. Answer: A Reference: http://businessit.biz/bit_share/VAL%20IT/VAL%20IT.pdf Question #57 What information is MOST important to include when reporting key risk indicators to the board of directors? ďˇ A. The effect of emerging risk trends on current risk exposure ďˇ B. Risk appetite, risk threshold and risk tolerance ďˇ C. Classification of current business risk ďˇ D. Costs and resource needs related to risk mitigation measures Answer: A Question #58 The board of directors of a major retail chain wants to know what capabilities are in place to prevent customer credit card data from being hacked. Which of the following should be established to provide useful information about a potential future event? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Risk tolerance ďˇ B. Lead indicators ďˇ C. Lag indicators ďˇ D. Performance indicators Answer: B Question #59 Several experienced IT resources have been hired away by a competitor. These individuals created and managed a business critical system that gave the enterprise a market advantage. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern of the system's business owner? ďˇ A. The impact on morale of the remaining IT employees ďˇ B. The competitor hiring additional IT employees from the enterprise ďˇ C. Whether access to the system and data has been adequately revoked ďˇ D. Whether remaining staff are able to maintain the quality of the system Answer: D Question #60 An enterprise has a large backlog of IT projects. The current strategy is to execute projects as they are submitted, but executive management does not believe this method is optimal. Which of the following is the MOST important action to address this concern? ďˇ A. Establish a performance dashboard that determines business value. ďˇ B. Create a combined business/IT committee to determine project prioritization. ďˇ C. Implement a methodology to prioritize projects based on resource availability. ďˇ D. Implement stage-gating to determine the value of each project. Answer: D Question #61 An enterprise's board of directors can BEST manage enterprise risk by: ďˇ A. mandating board-approved enterprise risk management (ERM) modifications. ďˇ B. requiring the establishment of an enterprise-wide program management office. ďˇ C. ensuring the cost-effectiveness of the internal control system. ďˇ D. requiring the establishment of an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework. Answer: D Reference: https://www.coso.org/documents/COSOBoardsERM4pager-FINALRELEASEVERSION82409_001.pdf https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #62 An IT investment review board wants to ensure that IT will be able to support business initiatives. Each initiative is comprised of several interrelated IT projects. Which of the following would help ensure that the initiatives meet their goals? ďˇ A. Verification of initiatives against the architecture ďˇ B. Review of the business case for each initiative ďˇ C. Establishment of portfolio management ďˇ D. Review of project management methodology Answer: C Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/proven-project-portfolio-management-process-8503 Question #63 Which of the following is MOST critical to support IT governance cultural changes within an organization? ďˇ A. IT governance process manuals ďˇ B. Regularly scheduled governance training ďˇ C. Demonstrated management commitment ďˇ D. Established IT monitoring and measuring Answer: D Question #64 An enterprise has decided to use third-party software for a business process which is hosted and supported by the same third party. The BEST way to provide quality of service oversight would be to establish a process: ďˇ A. to qualify service providers. ďˇ B. for enterprise architecture updates. ďˇ C. for robust change management. ďˇ D. for periodic service provider audits. Answer: A Question #65 In a successful enterprise that is profitable in its marketplace and consistently growing in size, the non-IT workforce has grown by 50% in the last two years. The demand for IT staff in the marketplace is more than the supply, and the enterprise is losing staff to rival organizations. Due to the rapid growth, IT has struggled to keep up with the enterprise, and IT procedures and associated job roles are not well-defined. The MOST critical activity for reducing the impact caused by IT staff turnover is to: ďˇ A. outsource the IT operation. ďˇ B. increase compensation for IT staff. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. hire temporary staff. ďˇ D. document processes and procedures. Answer: D Question #66 A business has outsourced IT operations to several third-party providers, but service level agreements (SLAs) are not clearly defined in all cases. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the business? ďˇ A. Third parties could provide overlapping services. ďˇ B. Quality of services is not enforceable. ďˇ C. The scope of work is not clearly defined. ďˇ D. Costs are not measurable. Answer: B Question #67 A large enterprise has been experiencing high turnover of skilled IT personnel, resulting in a significant loss of knowledge within the IT department. Which of the following should be done FIRST to address this problem? ďˇ A. Conduct a survey of current IT staff. ďˇ B. Revise the IT resource management plan. ďˇ C. Update human resources policies and practices. ďˇ D. Develop an incentive scheme for IT employees. Answer: A Question #68 A newly established IT steering committee is concerned whether or not a system is meeting availability objectives. Which of the following will provide the BEST information to make an assessment? ďˇ A. Critical success factors ďˇ B. Balanced scorecard ďˇ C. Performance indicators ďˇ D. Capability maturity levels Answer: D Question #69 Following a major IT incident that resulted in a loss to the enterprise, a CIO is preparing for a meeting with the board of directors to discuss what may have failed internally. Which of the following should the CIO do FIRST to provide assurance to the board? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Review the IT control environment. ďˇ B. Ensure IT and enterprise risk management alignment. ďˇ C. Review the incident response policy. ďˇ D. Verify continuous monitoring is being performed. Answer: B Question #70 A newly appointed CIO has issued a new IT strategic plan. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the CIO to ensure the IT management team is held accountable for the delivery of the plan? ďˇ A. Provide management training on IT strategic objectives. ďˇ B. Revise the managers' performance goals to include key objectives. ďˇ C. Enforce disciplinary action for managers if the plan is not delivered. ďˇ D. Update the IT balanced scorecard with key objectives. Answer: B Question #71 Which of the following is the PRIMARY ongoing responsibility of the IT governance function related to risk? ďˇ A. Responding to and controlling all IT risk events ďˇ B. Verifying that all business units have staff skilled at assessing risk ďˇ C. Communicating the enterprise risk management plan ďˇ D. Ensuring IT risk management is aligned with business risk appetite Answer: C Question #72 Which of the following is the BEST outcome measure to determine the effectiveness of IT risk management processes? ďˇ A. Time lag between when IT risk is identified and the enterprise's response ďˇ B. Percentage of business users satisfied with the quality of risk training ďˇ C. Frequency of updates to the IT risk register ďˇ D. Number of events impacting business processes due to delays in responding to risks Answer: A Question #73 The BEST way for a CIO to monitor the alignment between the business and IT strategy is to regularly review: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. IT services supporting business processes. ďˇ B. the balanced scorecard. ďˇ C. key risk indicators (KRIs). ďˇ D. the risk register. Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following is PRIMARILY achieved through performance measurement? ďˇ A. Process improvement ďˇ B. Benefit realization ďˇ C. Cost efficiency ďˇ D. Transparency Answer: A Question #75 While assessing the feasibility of introducing new IT practices and standards into the IT governance framework, it is CRITICAL to understand an organization's: ďˇ A. maturity of IT processes. ďˇ B. culture. ďˇ C. enterprise architecture. ďˇ D. level of outsourcing. Answer: C Question #76 A new IT initiative is delivered successfully. Which of the following should be updated to reflect the new technology? ďˇ A. Balanced scorecard ďˇ B. IT strategy ďˇ C. IT tactical plan ďˇ D. Enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #77 The MOST beneficial aspect of utilizing an IT risk management framework is that it: ďˇ A. addresses a lack of data in risk reporting. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. facilitates the identification of technologies posing the greatest risk to IT. ďˇ C. enables a consistent approach to risk management. ďˇ D. drives inclusion of the technology function in enterprise risk management. Answer: B Question #78 When defining an enterprise governance framework, the PRIMARY determination of the degree to which the framework is principle-based or policy-based is: ďˇ A. enterprise architecture framework. ďˇ B. organizational decision-making style. ďˇ C. IT process maturity. ďˇ D. organizational structure. Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/past-issues/2013/it-policy-framework-based-on-cobit-5 Question #79 A company is considering selling products online, and the CIO has been asked to advise the board of directors of potential problems with this strategy. Which of the following would be the CIO's BEST course of action? ďˇ A. Perform a risk assessment. ďˇ B. Review the security framework. ďˇ C. Conduct a return on investment analysis. ďˇ D. Review the enterprise architecture. Answer: B Question #80 After shifting from lease to purchase of IT infrastructure and software licenses, an enterprise has to pay for unexpected lease extensions causing significant cost overruns. The BEST direction for the IT steering committee would be to establish: ďˇ A. a program to annually review financial policy on overruns. ďˇ B. an end-of-life program to remove aging infrastructure from the environment. ďˇ C. budget cuts to compensate for the cost overruns. ďˇ D. a policy to consider total cost of ownership in investment decisions. Answer: D Question #81 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is evaluating a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) solution to support a core business process. There is no outsourcing governance or vendor management in place. The CEO's FIRST course of action should be to: ďˇ A. establish a contract with the SaaS solution provider. ďˇ B. instruct management to use the standard procurement process. ďˇ C. ensure the service level agreements for service providers are defined. ďˇ D. ensure the roles and responsibilities to manage service providers are defined. Answer: B Question #82 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure timely reporting on risk events and responses to appropriate levels of management? ďˇ A. Corporate directory ďˇ B. Key personnel interviews ďˇ C. Emergency response team ďˇ D. Escalation procedures Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=k_hgAwAAQBAJ&pg=PA43&lpg=PA43&dq=cobit+help+to+ensure+timely+re porting+on+risk+events+and +responses+to+appropriate+levels+of +management&source=bl&ots=f2MF7tvMQB&sig=ACfU3U1F_qwMA3wQlZ2tpcb8bvzR3eUTyw&hl=en&sa=X&ved= 2ahUKEwj4kajJq_zpAhUrDWMBHQu2BWoQ 6AEwB3oECAoQAQ#v=onepage&q=cobit%20help%20to%20ensure%20timely%20reporting%20on%20risk%20event s%20and%20responses%20to% 20appropriate%20levels%20of%20management&f=false Question #83 When developing an IT governance framework, it is MOST important for an enterprise to consider: ďˇ A. stakeholders' support. ďˇ B. information technology risk. ďˇ C. framework development cost. ďˇ D. information technology strategy. Answer: A Question #84 Which of the following would be MOST useful for prioritizing IT improvement initiatives to achieve desired business outcomes? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Portfolio management ďˇ B. Budget variance analysis ďˇ C. IT skills matrix ďˇ D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #85 Which of the following BEST supports an IT strategy committee's objective to align employee competencies with planned initiatives? ďˇ A. Set management goals to hire co-operative work experience students. ďˇ B. Specify minimum training hours required for continuing professional education. ďˇ C. Add achievement of competencies to employee performance goals. ďˇ D. Require balanced scorecard concepts training of all employees. Answer: C Question #86 The IT director of a large project-driven enterprise is concerned that all recently completed IT projects have exceeded their budgets. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this concern? ďˇ A. Implement portfolio management. ďˇ B. Require monitoring of budget utilization. ďˇ C. Assign business sponsors to active projects. ďˇ D. Implement agile project methodology. Answer: B Question #87 An enterprise is experiencing a pattern of sensitive data breaches. While each breach has been successfully remediated, leadership is concerned about recurrence. What should the leadership team do FIRST? ďˇ A. Require a root cause analysis be performed. ďˇ B. Contact the appropriate regulatory authorities. ďˇ C. Increase the amount of data breach insurance coverage. ďˇ D. Direct IT to research vulnerability management software solutions. Answer: A Question #88 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A government agency plans to use predictive analytics to improve the quality of its services. The IT director is confident they have selected the right tool and can acquire appropriate resources to support the business need. Which of the following should be the director's NEXT course of action? ďˇ A. Ensure job descriptions are available for newly-hired IT resources. ďˇ B. Ensure IT has the appropriate processes in place. ďˇ C. Implement a balanced scorecard to measure service quality. ďˇ D. Establish a data governance council that includes IT senior management. Answer: C Question #89 During a period of financial crisis, an enterprise is evaluating its IT service strategy. The board of directors recognizes the need to save money without sacrificing the quality of IT services provided. To achieve this objective, the IT strategy committee should FIRST: ďˇ A. re-design IT service management processes. ďˇ B. cancel discretionary IT projects. ďˇ C. reduce the total cost of ownership of IT services. ďˇ D. re-prioritize the IT investment portfolio. Answer: D Question #90 To successfully implement enterprise IT governance, which of the following should be the MAIN focus of IT policies? ďˇ A. Optimizing operational benefits ďˇ B. Enhancing organizational capability ďˇ C. Limiting IT costs ďˇ D. Providing business value Answer: A Question #91 A recent benchmarking analysis has indicated an IT organization is retaining more data and spending significantly more on data retention than its competitors. Which of the following would BEST ensure the optimization of retention costs? ďˇ A. Requiring that all business cases contain data deletion and retention plans ďˇ B. Revalidating the organization's risk tolerance and re-aligning the retention policy ďˇ C. Redefining the retention policy to align with industry best practices ďˇ D. Moving all high-risk and medium-risk data backups to cloud storage https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #92 An enterprise is undertaking a multi-year portfolio of IT initiatives to replace core accounting systems. The program management team has developed a business case and is defining a roadmap for the initiatives. Of the following, who should be responsible for defining the optimization criteria for the portfolio? ďˇ A. Project management office ďˇ B. Board of directors ďˇ C. Program management team ďˇ D. IT steering committee Answer: C Question #93 An enterprise has entered into a new market which brings additional regulatory compliance requirements. To address these new requirements, the enterprise should FIRST: ďˇ A. update the organization's risk profile. ďˇ B. have executive management monitor compliance. ďˇ C. outsource the compliance process. ďˇ D. appoint a compliance officer. Answer: B Question #94 An IT steering committee is preparing to review proposals for projects that implement emerging technologies. In anticipation of the review, the committee should FIRST: ďˇ A. require a review of the enterprise risk management framework. ďˇ B. understand how the emerging technologies will influence risk across the enterprise. ďˇ C. determine if the IT staff can support the emerging technologies. ďˇ D. require a capacity plan and framework review for the emerging technologies. Answer: A Question #95 The CIO of a large enterprise has taken the necessary steps to align IT objectives with business objectives. The BEST way for the CIO to ensure these objectives are delivered effectively by IT staff is to: ďˇ A. enhance the budget for training based on the IT objectives. ďˇ B. include the IT objectives in staff performance plans. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. include CIO sign-off of the objectives as part of the IT strategic plan. ďˇ D. map the IT objectives to an industry-accepted framework. Answer: D Question #96 An analysis of an organization's security breach is complete. The results indicate that the quality of the code used for updates to its primary customer-facing software has been declining and security flaws were introduced. The FIRST IT governance action to correct this problem should be to review: ďˇ A. the incident response plan. ďˇ B. the change management control framework. ďˇ C. compliance with the user testing process. ďˇ D. the qualifications of developers to write secure code. Answer: A Question #97 Senior leadership is concerned about a recent trend of excessive exceptions to existing controls. Which of the following should be implemented to address this concern? ďˇ A. Continuous monitoring ďˇ B. Independent audits ďˇ C. A control library ďˇ D. Risk awareness training Answer: A Question #98 It has been discovered that multiple business units across an enterprise are using duplicate IT applications and services to fulfill their individual needs. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to address this concern? ďˇ A. IT project roadmap ďˇ B. IT service management ďˇ C. Enterprise architecture ďˇ D. Enterprise risk framework Answer: C Question #99 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! When developing a business case for an enterprise resource planning (ERP) implementation, which of the following, if overlooked, causes the GREATEST impact to the enterprise? ďˇ A. Salvage value of legacy hardware ďˇ B. IT best practices ďˇ C. Interdependent systems ďˇ D. Vendor selection Answer: D Question #100 A regional business unit of a major financial institution is considering the use of a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud vendor to implement a new system. Which of the following should be performed FIRST? ďˇ A. Update the outsourcing policy. ďˇ B. Investigate on-premise software solutions. ďˇ C. Develop a business case. ďˇ D. Determine if the cloud vendor has a secure data center. Answer: D Question #101 During the implementation phase of a central ERP system, a project manager identifies a significant lack of human capabilities to support the system. The issue is reported to the project sponsor, and the sponsor sends a request for an increase in the budget to the IT steering committee. What should be the IT steering committee's FIRST action? ďˇ A. Require a revised business case. ďˇ B. Approve the budget request. ďˇ C. Provide appropriate training. ďˇ D. Refer back to the project sponsor for resolution. Answer: B Question #102 For a large enterprise, which of the following is the BEST indicator that IT governance has a poor reputation? ďˇ A. Regulatory noncompliance ďˇ B. Low attendance at strategy committee meetings ďˇ C. High turnover of IT staff ďˇ D. Data leakage Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #103 An enterprise has committed to the implementation of a new IT governance model. The BEST way to begin this implementation is to: ďˇ A. prioritize how much and where to invest in IT. ďˇ B. identify the role of IT in supporting the business. ďˇ C. define policies for data, applications, and organization of infrastructure. ďˇ D. identify IT services that currently support the enterprise's capability. Answer: C Question #104 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the CEO in IT governance? ďˇ A. Evaluating return on investment ďˇ B. Managing the risk governance process ďˇ C. Establishing enterprise strategic goals ďˇ D. Nominating IT steering committee membership Answer: C Reference: https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/careers/jobs/what-is-a-ceo-chief-executive-officer/ Question #105 Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the CIO when an enterprise plans to replace its enterprise resource applications? ďˇ A. Ensuring IT architecture requirements are considered ďˇ B. Selecting and vetting application vendors ďˇ C. Determining critical success factors for related projects ďˇ D. Establishing software quality criteria Answer: A Question #106 Upcoming IT-related regulations carry costly penalties for an enterprise. The issuing regulatory agency has a history of weak enforcement. The IT steering committee should FIRST direct management to: ďˇ A. update the enterprise architecture. ďˇ B. perform benchmarking activities. ďˇ C. evaluate the impact of the emerging risk. ďˇ D. develop mitigation plans for noncompliance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #107 When establishing a methodology for business cases, it would be MOST beneficial for an enterprise to include procedures for: ďˇ A. addressing required changes outside the business case. ďˇ B. updating the business case throughout its life cycle. ďˇ C. identifying metrics post-implementation to measure project success. ďˇ D. entering the business case into the enterprise architecture. Answer: D Question #108 The PRIMARY focus of a committee tasked with evaluating an IT project portfolio should be to ensure: ďˇ A. a consistent estimation methodology is leveraged. ďˇ B. the enterprise strategy is updated. ďˇ C. consistent selection criteria are applied. ďˇ D. an industry standard capability maturity model is used. Answer: D Question #109 Which of the following issues identified during an IT review is MOST important to address to improve the alignment between the business and IT? ďˇ A. Services in the IT portfolio are not traceable to the IT strategy. ďˇ B. IT strategy reviews are conducted only after business strategy changes. ďˇ C. Business satisfaction surveys are not conducted regularly. ďˇ D. IT dashboards have not been established. Answer: A Question #110 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for IT management to report to executive management regarding the value of IT? ďˇ A. IT process maturity level ďˇ B. Resource assessment ďˇ C. Balanced scorecard ďˇ D. Cost-benefit analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #111 When determining the desired maturity levels for IT governance processes, it is MOST important to: ďˇ A. ensure that maturity can be achieved at the lowest cost. ďˇ B. ensure target levels are in line with external competitor benchmarks. ďˇ C. agree on target levels in response to need. ďˇ D. focus on existing strengths as key drivers for the target levels. Answer: D Question #112 Which of the following is the MOST important reason for selecting IT key risk indicators (KRIs)? ďˇ A. Enabling comparison against similar IT KRIs ďˇ B. Increasing the probability of achieving IT goals ďˇ C. Assessing the current IT controls model ďˇ D. Demonstrating the effectiveness of IT risk policies Answer: B Question #113 Which of the following would BEST help a CIO enhance the competencies of an IT business analytics team? ďˇ A. Understanding current staff skill sets and identifying gaps ďˇ B. Defining the IT architecture and identifying training areas ďˇ C. Creating operational processes and identifying resources ďˇ D. Establishing team goals and identifying the proper structure Answer: C Question #114 The BEST way to ensure an IT steering committee meets enterprise objectives is to: ďˇ A. have key business stakeholders represented on the committee. ďˇ B. establish key performance indicators (KPIs). ďˇ C. require a member of the committee to have IT governance expertise. ďˇ D. benchmark against industry best practices. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #115 Which of the following is the MOST important input for the development of a human resources strategy to address IT skill gaps? ďˇ A. Technology direction of the enterprise ďˇ B. Training budget allocated for IT staff ďˇ C. A recent IT skills matrix ďˇ D. Training effectiveness reports Answer: C Question #116 A hospital's executive steering committee is concerned about the increasing number of cyber attacks on patient data systems across the industry. The committee has asked the CIO to provide regular reporting with information that will help provide better oversight of cyber-related risk to the hospital. Including which of the following in the report would be MOST helpful to the committee? ďˇ A. Status of key risk indicators ďˇ B. Current business impact levels ďˇ C. IT operations gap assessment ďˇ D. Cybersecurity risk benchmarks Answer: B Question #117 Which of the following is the BEST way to provide effective IT risk management? ďˇ A. Implementing a cost-effective mitigation program ďˇ B. Appointing a chief risk officer ďˇ C. Embedding risk management in operations ďˇ D. Establishing an incident management program Answer: A Question #118 Maintaining a list of all potential IT initiatives for implementing the business strategy should be the responsibility of the: ďˇ A. portfolio management function. ďˇ B. individual business units. ďˇ C. chief executive officer (CEO). https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. chief operating officer (COO). Answer: D Question #119 A large enterprise has decided to use an emerging technology that needs to be integrated with the current IT infrastructure. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent adverse effects to the enterprise resulting from the new technology? ďˇ A. Develop key risk indicators (KRIs). ďˇ B. Develop key performance indicators (KPIs). ďˇ C. Implement service level agreements (SLAs). ďˇ D. Update the risk appetite statement. Answer: B Question #120 An enterprise recognizes that a large percentage of its IT employees are eligible for retirement in the next five years. A significant amount of institutional knowledge resides with retirement-eligible staff. From the board's perspective, which of the following is the GREATEST concern for the enterprise in this situation? ďˇ A. Service delivery to the business ďˇ B. Loss of key IT personnel ďˇ C. Lack of timeline for succession plan ďˇ D. Lack of process documentation Answer: D Question #121 Which of the following groups would be MOST appropriate to decide whether to proceed with an IT-enabled investment at the individual program level? ďˇ A. Business sponsors ďˇ B. Program management office ďˇ C. IT steering committee ďˇ D. Board of directors Answer: C Question #122 Which of the following will BEST enable an enterprise to convey IT governance direction and objectives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Corporate culture ďˇ B. Business processes ďˇ C. Principles and policies ďˇ D. Skills and competencies Answer: C Question #123 A large enterprise's IT department has identified a new risk management solution that would significantly enhance IT risk monitoring processes. However, there is a business perception that the new solution would not provide a visible benefit to the enterprise. Which of the following is the BEST way to gain business support? ďˇ A. Articulate the business value of the new solution. ďˇ B. Promote the IT benefits and the streamlining of processes. ďˇ C. Provide real time risk reporting to the business. ďˇ D. Obtain sign-off on a reduced headcount over the next five years. Answer: B Question #124 When assessing the impact of a new regulatory requirement, which of the following should be the FIRST course of action? ďˇ A. Update affected IT policies. ďˇ B. Implement new regulatory requirements. ďˇ C. Assess the budget impact of the new regulation. ďˇ D. Map the regulation to business processes. Answer: D Question #125 Before establishing IT key risk indicators, which of the following should be defined FIRST? ďˇ A. IT risk and security framework ďˇ B. IT key performance indicators ďˇ C. IT goals and objectives ďˇ D. IT resource strategy Answer: C Reference: https://bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1515 Question #126 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Which of the following should be the FIRST step for executive management to take in communicating what is considered acceptable use with regard to personally owned devices for company business? ďˇ A. Post awareness messages throughout the facility. ďˇ B. Develop and disseminate an applicable policy. ďˇ C. Provide training on how to protect data on personal devices. ďˇ D. Require employees to read and sign a disclaimer. Answer: C Question #127 An enterprise's strategic change requires an IT strategic initiative re-evaluation. Which of the following BEST indicates that an established IT governance framework could handle the re-evaluation? ďˇ A. Creation of an IT steering committee to align the IT strategic initiatives to the recent change ďˇ B. Inclusion of IT portfolio management procedures with strategic change review activities ďˇ C. Development of a business case to evaluate the impact of the strategic change ďˇ D. Holding IT investments until an analysis of the strategic change impact was complete Answer: C Question #128 Which of the following BEST indicates that a change management process has been implemented successfully? ďˇ A. Degree of control ďˇ B. Outcome measures ďˇ C. Process performance ďˇ D. Maturity levels Answer: B Question #129 To meet the growing demands of a newly established business unit, IT senior management has been tasked with changing the current IT organization model to service-oriented. With significant growth expected of the IT organization, which of the following is the MOST important consideration when planning for long-term IT service delivery? ďˇ A. The IT organization is able to sustain business requirements. ďˇ B. IT is able to provide a comprehensive service catalog to the business. ďˇ C. The IT service delivery model is approved by the business. ďˇ D. An IT risk management process is in place. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #130 Which of the following BEST enables the alignment of IT and enterprise strategy? ďˇ A. Project portfolio management ďˇ B. IT resource planning ďˇ C. IT performance monitoring and reporting ďˇ D. Enterprise compliance audits Answer: B Question #131 Which of the following would provide the BEST input for prioritizing strategic IT improvement initiatives? ďˇ A. Business case evaluation ďˇ B. Business process analysis ďˇ C. Business impact analysis ďˇ D. Business dependency assessment Answer: C Question #132 An enterprise has decided to utilize a cloud vendor for the first time to provide email as a service, eliminating inďżžhouse email capabilities. Which of the following IT strategic actions should be triggered by this decision? ďˇ A. Update and communicate data storage and transmission policies. ďˇ B. Develop a data protection awareness education training program. ďˇ C. Monitor outgoing email traffic for malware. ďˇ D. Implement a data classification and storage management tool. Answer: A Question #133 Which of the following is the BEST IT architecture concept to ensure consistency, interoperability, and agility for infrastructure capabilities? ďˇ A. Establishment of an IT steering committee ďˇ B. Standards-based reference architecture and design specifications ďˇ C. Design of policies and procedures ďˇ D. Establishment of standard vendor and technology designations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #134 An enterprise is implementing its FIRST mobile sales channel. Final approval for accepting the associated IT risk should be obtained from which of the following? ďˇ A. IT steering committee ďˇ B. Chief information officer ďˇ C. Business sponsor ďˇ D. Risk manager Answer: B Question #135 Who should be accountable for quantifying the business impact of a potential breach of a server containing retail transactions for the last year? ďˇ A. Information systems security officer ďˇ B. Head of retail ďˇ C. Chief risk officer ďˇ D. Chief information officer Answer: A Question #136 The use of an enterprise architecture framework BEST supports IT governance by providing: ďˇ A. key information for IT service level management. ďˇ B. IT standards for application development. ďˇ C. business information for IT capacity planning. ďˇ D. reference models to align IT with business. Answer: A Question #137 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate mechanism for measuring overall IT organizational performance? ďˇ A. IT balanced scorecard ďˇ B. Service level metrics ďˇ C. Maturity model ďˇ D. IT portfolio return on investment https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Reference: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/215879518_Measuring_the_Performance_of_IT_Service_Management Question #138 The PRIMARY reason for periodically evaluating IT resource staffing requirements is to: ďˇ A. ensure the enterprise has sufficient resources to address changing business and IT needs. ďˇ B. ascertain the IT function has sufficient skilled staff to maintain daily operations. ďˇ C. verify that human resource recruitment and retention processes meet enterprise IT objectives. ďˇ D. confirm IT-related responsibilities are defined for the enterprise's business and IT staff. Answer: A Question #139 Ă ĂÂĄĂâ˘ĂĹž wants to establish a governance framework to facilitate the alignment of IT and business strategies. Which of the following should be a KEY requirement of this framework? ďˇ A. A service delivery strategy ďˇ B. Defined resourcing levels ďˇ C. A defined enterprise architecture ďˇ D. An outsourcing strategy Answer: C Question #140 Reviewing which of the following should be the FIRST step when evaluating the possibility of outsourcing an IT system? ďˇ A. Outsourcing strategy ďˇ B. IT staff skill sets ďˇ C. Outsourced business processes ďˇ D. Service level agreements (SLAs) Answer: D Question #141 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of implementing service level agreements (SLAs) with an outsourcing vendor? ďˇ A. Establishing penalties for not meeting service levels ďˇ B. Complying with regulatory requirements ďˇ C. Achieving operational objectives https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Gaining a competitive advantage Answer: C Question #142 Of the following, the BEST response to the absence of a data security breach notification by a service provider is to contractually require that: ďˇ A. security incidents identified by the provider be reported. ďˇ B. security related key performance indicators be included in all service level agreements. ďˇ C. security incident information be shared only on a need-to-know basis. ďˇ D. a registry of all security breaches be maintained by the service provider. Answer: A Question #143 Which of the following should be the MOST essential consideration when outsourcing IT services? ďˇ A. Alignment with existing HR policies and practices ďˇ B. Adoption of a diverse vendor selection process ďˇ C. Identification of core and non-core business processes ďˇ D. Compliance with enterprise architecture Answer: C Question #144 A multinational enterprise is planning to migrate to cloud-based systems. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the risk management committee? ďˇ A. Resource alignment ďˇ B. Security breaches ďˇ C. Regulatory compliance ďˇ D. Cost considerations Answer: C Question #145 In a large enterprise, which of the following should be responsible for the implementation of an IT balanced scorecard? ďˇ A. IT steering committee https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. Chief risk officer ďˇ C. Project management office ďˇ D. Chief information officer Answer: C Question #146 The approval of an enterprise risk management framework is the role of the: ďˇ A. chief information officer. ďˇ B. chief risk officer. ďˇ C. IT steering committee ďˇ D. board of directors. Answer: C Reference: https://www.clearrisk.com/risk-management-blog/bid/56487/Establishing-an-Enterprise-Risk-Management-ERMďżžFramework-Enterprise Question #147 The BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an enterprise's IT governance framework is by assessing the: ďˇ A. value of IT contribution. ďˇ B. maturity of IT processes. ďˇ C. application of IT standards. ďˇ D. compliance to IT policy. Answer: B Question #148 A steering committee has been advised by the IT project management office that individual business units are building systems components that could be leveraged by other business units. Instead, identical components are being duplicated across the enterprise. Which of the following committee directives would be the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of this duplication? ďˇ A. Implement stage gate reviews to assess systems. ďˇ B. Establish an enterprise architecture. ďˇ C. Perform an assessment of change management processes. ďˇ D. Review IT system release management practices. Answer: C Question #149 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! To support the enterprise's digital transformation, the CIO has been asked to include an Internet of Things (IoT) component in the IT strategy. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration? ďˇ A. Ensuring IoT usage in the industry has been analyzed ďˇ B. Ensuring IoT can be used in current revenue streams ďˇ C. Ensuring solution providers and their IoT use cases have been researched ďˇ D. Ensuring initial approvals are limited to small IoT projects to gain experience Answer: A Question #150 A retail enterprise wants to leverage emerging technologies to create a new sales channel for its customers. However, IT has little experience with these technologies and is unsure if the proposed schedule can be met. Which of the following will BEST help to determine IT's ability to meet this need? ďˇ A. Conducting a resource gap assessment ďˇ B. Defining business benefits realization metrics ďˇ C. Reviewing the resource management policy ďˇ D. Developing a target state enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #151 Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when designing an implementation plan for IT governance? ďˇ A. Roles and responsibilities ďˇ B. Risk tolerance levels ďˇ C. Organization culture ďˇ D. Principle and policies Answer: A Question #152 Once the strategic vision has been established, which of the following would be the BEST activity for supporting the implementation of performance measures? ďˇ A. Document policy requirements. ďˇ B. Document strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. ďˇ C. Identify key performance indicators (KPIs). ďˇ D. Monitor service level performance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #153 Which of the following is MOST critical for the successful implementation of an IT process? ďˇ A. Objectives and metrics ďˇ B. IT process assessment ďˇ C. Process framework ďˇ D. Service delivery process model Answer: C Question #154 An enterprise has made a decision to move some business applications to the public cloud despite being very new to the cloud environment. What is MOST important for the CIO to do to help ensure the success of this initiative? ďˇ A. Review the vendor management framework. ďˇ B. Request a right-to-audit clause in the provider contract. ďˇ C. Require a vulnerability and threat assessment. ďˇ D. Ensure the cloud provider complies with international standards. Answer: D Question #155 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an enterprise architecture? ďˇ A. Improves transparency and compliance ďˇ B. Provides a visual perspective of information systems ďˇ C. Improves interoperability and scalability ďˇ D. Ensures continuous innovation Answer: A Question #156 When conducting a risk assessment in support of a new regulatory requirement, the IT risk committee should FIRST consider the: ďˇ A. cost burden to achieve compliance. ďˇ B. disruption to normal business operations. ďˇ C. readiness of IT systems to address the risk. ďˇ D. risk profile of the enterprise. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #157 An enterprise is planning to migrate its IT infrastructure to a cloud-based solution but does not have experience with this technology. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the risk of IT service disruptions when using this new technology? ďˇ A. Evaluate the sourcing options. ďˇ B. Reflect the change in the enterprise architecture (EA). ďˇ C. Implement key performance indicators (KPIs). ďˇ D. Engage an experienced IT consultant to perform the migration. Answer: C Question #158 Which of the following BEST reflects mature risk management in an enterprise? ďˇ A. A regularly updated risk register ďˇ B. Responsive risk awareness culture ďˇ C. Ongoing risk assessment ďˇ D. Ongoing investment in risk mitigation Answer: C Question #159 An IT strategy committee wants to evaluate how well the IT department supports the business strategy. Which of the following is the BEST method for making this determination? ďˇ A. Capability maturity assessment ďˇ B. IT balanced scorecard reporting ďˇ C. IT controls assurance program ďˇ D. Customer survey analysis Answer: A Question #160 From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to enhance in an enterprise undergoing rapid development of a cloud technology? ďˇ A. Change management processes to capture organizational and project changes. ďˇ B. Data restructuring plan to ensure the architecture supports future changes. ďˇ C. IT project dashboard reporting to capture new risk, threats, and scenarios. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Configuration management processes to ensure availability goals are maintained. Answer: D Question #161 A regulatory audit of an IT department has identified discrepancies between processes described in the procedures and what is actually done by system administrators. The discrepancies were caused by recent IT application changes. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent the recurrence of similar findings in the future? ďˇ A. Include the update of documentation within the change management framework. ďˇ B. Assign the responsibility for periodic revisions and changes to process owners. ďˇ C. Require each IT employee to confirm compliance with IT procedures on an annual basis. ďˇ D. Establish high-level procedures to minimize process changes. Answer: B Question #162 Which of the following is the MOST important input for designing a development program to help IT employees improve their ability to respond to business needs? ďˇ A. Skills competency assessment ďˇ B. Cost-benefit analysis ďˇ C. Annual performance evaluations ďˇ D. Capability maturity model Answer: A Question #163 The accountability for a business continuity program for business-critical systems is BEST assigned to the: ďˇ A. director of internal audit, ďˇ B. enterprise risk manager. ďˇ C. chief information officer. ďˇ D. chief executive officer. Answer: C Question #164 Which of the following should occur FIRST in the IT investment process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Analyze the risks and benefits of the investment for each IT project. ďˇ B. Assess each project's impact on the enterprise's investment plan. ďˇ C. Select IT projects that will best support the enterprise's mission. ďˇ D. Analyze IT investments based on past data. Answer: B Question #165 To ensure IT risk is managed in a consistent manner, it is MOST important for IT governance to establish a: ďˇ A. risk management reporting tool to ensure compliance. ďˇ B. balanced scorecard that includes IT risks. ďˇ C. risk management committee to identify IT-related risks. ďˇ D. risk management framework. Answer: C Question #166 An independent consultant has been hired to conduct an ad hoc audit of an enterprise's information security office with results reported to the IT governance committee and the board. Which of the following is MOST important to provide to the consultant before the audit begins? ďˇ A. The scope and stakeholders of the audit ďˇ B. The organizational structure of the security office ďˇ C. The polices and framework used by the security office ďˇ D. Acceptance of the audit risks and opportunities Answer: A Question #167 The PRIMARY reason for using quantitative criteria in developing business cases for IT projects is to: ďˇ A. benchmark project success with similar enterprises. ďˇ B. learn lessons from errors made in past projects. ďˇ C. improve the process of evaluating returns after implementation. ďˇ D. apply other corporate standards to the development project. Answer: C Question #168 A CIO is planning to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system at the request of the business. Of the following, who is accountable for providing sponsorship for the IT-enabled change across the enterprise? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. CIO ďˇ B. CEO ďˇ C. IT strategy committee ďˇ D. Human resource director Answer: C Question #169 Which of the following would a CIO use to present the overall view of IT performance to the board of directors? ďˇ A. Maturity model ďˇ B. Balanced scorecard ďˇ C. Key performance indicators (KPIs) ďˇ D. Key risk indicators (KRIS) Answer: A Question #170 An enterprise wants to implement an IT governance framework to ensure enterprise expectations of IT are met. Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial outcome of implementing the framework? ďˇ A. Optimization of IT performance ďˇ B. Development of IT policies ďˇ C. Creation of an IT balanced scorecard ďˇ D. Establishment of key IT risk indicators Answer: D Question #171 The PRIMARY reason for implementing an IT governance program in an enterprise is to: ďˇ A. comply with regulatory requirements. ďˇ B. balance the demand for information and the ability to deliver. ďˇ C. decrease the scale of investment in information systems due to budgetary controls. ďˇ D. reduce risks due to improved compensating controls. Answer: B Question #172 To help ensure that an IT dashboard effectively conveys the current state of IT to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to establish? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Key performance indicators (KPIs) ďˇ B. Emerging threat analysis reporting ďˇ C. An IT risk awareness program ďˇ D. IT spend against budget Answer: A Question #173 An enterprise has a zero-tolerance policy regarding security. This policy is causing a large number of email attachments to be blocked and is a disruption to the enterprise. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance step to address this email issue? ďˇ A. Obtain senior management input based on identified risk. ďˇ B. Direct the development of an email usage policy. ďˇ C. Recommend business sign-off on the zero-tolerance policy. ďˇ D. Introduce an exception process. Answer: B Question #174 Which of the following is a CIO's BEST approach to ensure IT executes against an approved strategy? ďˇ A. Request IT senior leaders to collectively plan tactics for execution. ďˇ B. Ask project management to define the IT activities for accomplishing the strategy. ďˇ C. Provide specific direction for execution of the tasks across IT. ďˇ D. Have IT leaders independently develop goals for their teams. Answer: B Question #175 Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a formal, documented IT policy? ďˇ A. Alignment with IT service management ďˇ B. Communication of IT management intent ďˇ C. Mapping of business objectives ďˇ D. Resource optimization for enterprise initiatives Answer: C Question #176 Senior management is concerned about an increase in cybersecurity risk to the enterprise. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in establishing an early warning system to determine which potential threats should be escalated to senior management? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Agreed-upon risk thresholds ďˇ B. A risk appetite statement ďˇ C. Key performance indicators (KPIs) ďˇ D. Patch management logs Answer: A Question #177 An enterprise learns that a new privacy regulation was recently published to protect customers in the event of a breach involving personally identifiable information (PII). The IT risk management team's FIRST course of action should be to: ďˇ A. evaluate the risk appetite for the new regulation. ďˇ B. determine if the new regulation introduces new risk. ďˇ C. assign a risk owner for the new regulation. ďˇ D. define the risk tolerance for the new regulation. Answer: C Question #178 When designing an IT governance framework, the PRIMARY consideration should be to: ďˇ A. comply with external monitoring standards. ďˇ B. ensure stakeholders receive value from IT. ďˇ C. require cost-benefit analysis before implementing controls. ďˇ D. benchmark controls against industry best practices. Answer: C Question #179 The PRIMARY objective of IT resource planning within an enterprise should be to: ďˇ A. maximize value received from IT. ďˇ B. determine risk associated with IT resources. ďˇ C. determine IT outsourcing options. ďˇ D. finalize service level agreements for IT. Answer: A Question #180 A global enterprise is experiencing an economic downturn and is rapidly losing market share. IT senior management is reassessing the core activities of the business, including IT, and the associated resource implications. Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! has decided to focus on its local market and to close international operations. A critical issue from a resource management perspective is to retain the most capable staff. This is BEST achieved by: ďˇ A. reviewing current goals-based performance appraisals across the enterprise. ďˇ B. retaining capable staff exclusively from the local market. ďˇ C. ranking employees across the enterprise based on length of service. ďˇ D. ranking employees across the enterprise based on their compensation. Answer: C Question #181 An enterprise developed a new e-business web application designed to broaden its sales base. Internal project management guidelines were followed, but indicators for key goals were not established. Which of the following should be the MAIN concern of the IT steering committee? ďˇ A. It may be difficult to align IT objectives with performance. ďˇ B. Benefits realization may not be properly assessed. ďˇ C. Resources may not be optimally utilized. ďˇ D. Return on investment may be difficult to evaluate. Answer: B Question #182 An IT security team identified a significant weakness in the enterprise's Internet-facing infrastructure. The exposure requires immediate corrective action that is both cost and resource intensive. Which of the following is the MAIN reason why accountability for this risk should be assigned to the board of directors? ďˇ A. The exploit can cause serious disruptions to the enterprise's reputation and profitability. ďˇ B. The board should be aware of risks concerning organizational operations. ďˇ C. Risk ownership at the highest level will ensure risk awareness throughout the enterprise. ďˇ D. The IT organization cannot take ownership for self-identified risks concerning infrastructure security. Answer: C Question #183 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to assess the consistency of IT processes against industry benchmarks to determine where to focus improvement initiatives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ A. Utilizing a capability maturity model ďˇ B. Reviewing key performance measures ďˇ C. Reviewing IT process audit results ďˇ D. Evaluating the current balanced scorecard Answer: C Question #184 An organization requires updates to their IT infrastructure to meet business needs. Which of the following will provide the MOST useful information when planning for the necessary IT investments? ďˇ A. Audit findings ďˇ B. Business user satisfaction metrics ďˇ C. Enterprise architecture ďˇ D. Risk assessment report Answer: A Question #185 As part of the implementation of IT governance, the board of an enterprise should establish an IT strategy committee to: ďˇ A. ensure IT risks inherent in the enterprise strategy implementation are managed. ďˇ B. drive IT strategy development and take responsibility for implementing the IT strategy. ďˇ C. assume governance accountability for the business strategy on behalf of the board. ďˇ D. provide input to and ensure alignment of the enterprise and IT strategies. Answer: C Question #186 A root-cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly-hired IT system administrators. Who should be accountable for resolving the situation? ďˇ A. HR training director ďˇ B. Chief information officer ďˇ C. HR recruitment manager ďˇ D. Business process owner Answer: C Question #187 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT team is having difficulty meeting new demands placed on the department as a result of a major and radical shift in enterprise business strategy. Which of the following the CIO's BEST course of action to address this situation? ďˇ A. Review the current IT strategy. ďˇ B. Utilize third parties for non-value-added processes. ďˇ C. Align the business strategy with the IT strategy. ďˇ D. Review the IT risk appetite. Answer: C Question #188 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure an IT steering committee is informed of newly emerging risks in critical IT projects? ďˇ A. Requiring regular updates of the risk register for each project ďˇ B. Requiring a summarized report of relevant risks ďˇ C. Reviewing the response for each risk in the log ďˇ D. Conducting periodic reviews of project performance Answer: A Question #189 Which of the following MOST effectively demonstrates operational readiness to address information security risk issues? ďˇ A. Executive management has announced an information security risk initiative. ďˇ B. Procedures have been established for assessing and mitigating information security risks. ďˇ C. IT management has communicated the need for information security risk management to the business. ďˇ D. A policy has been communicated stating enterprise commitment and readiness to address information security risk. Answer: B Question #190 Which of the following should be the CIO's GREATEST consideration when making changes to the IT strategy? ďˇ A. Have key stakeholders been consulted? ďˇ B. Have IT risk metrics been adjusted? ďˇ C. Has the investment portfolio been revised? ďˇ D. Has the impact to the enterprise architecture been assessed? Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #191 Senior management wants to promote investment in IT, but is uncertain that associated risks are being properly identified. The BEST way to address this concern is to: ďˇ A. ensure business cases are developed by IT. ďˇ B. engage an external consultant to develop risk scenarios. ďˇ C. assign an IT cost controller to the finance department. ďˇ D. appoint an IT representative to the business risk committee. Answer: D Question #192 An enterprise is contracting with an outsourcing partner for a long-term engagement. The BEST time for the enterprise to plan for the event of contract termination: ďˇ A. developing the initial contract. ďˇ B. either party decides to terminate the contract. ďˇ C. issues surface in the contractual relationship. ďˇ D. planning for the contract as part of business continuity. Answer: C Question #193 The MOST important aspect of an IT governance framework to ensure that IT supports repeatable business processes is: ďˇ A. resource management. ďˇ B. quality management. ďˇ C. risk management. ďˇ D. earned value management. Answer: B Question #194 Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to ensure IT capabilities are appropriately aligned with business requirements for specific business processes? ďˇ A. Issuing a management mandate that IT and business process stakeholders work together ďˇ B. Requiring architecture and design reviews with business process stakeholders ďˇ C. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) ďˇ D. Requiring internal IT architecture and design reviews https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #195 For the first time, the procurement department has requested that IT grant remote access to third-party suppliers. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for IT in responding to the request? ďˇ A. Analyze risks and propose a solution. ďˇ B. Implement a remote access architecture. ďˇ C. Develop a remote access policy. ďˇ D. Issue log-on credentials to third-party suppliers. Answer: A Question #196 Which of the following would BEST help to improve an enterprise's ability to manage large IT investment projects? ďˇ A. Reviewing and evaluating existing business cases ďˇ B. Creating a change management board ďˇ C. Publishing the IT approval process online for wider scrutiny ďˇ D. Implementing a review and approval process for each phase Answer: C Question #197 Which of the following is the BEST approach to assist an enterprise in planning for IT-enabled investments? ďˇ A. Enterprise architecture ďˇ B. Service level management ďˇ C. Task management ďˇ D. IT process mapping Answer: D Question #198 To measure the value of IT-enabled investments, an enterprise needs to identify its drivers as defined by its: ďˇ A. value statements. ďˇ B. service level agreements (SLAs). ďˇ C. business strategy. ďˇ D. technology strategy. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #199 Which of the following is the BEST way to address concerns associated with outsourcing an IT process? ďˇ A. Implement a business continuity plan. ďˇ B. Perform a risk assessment. ďˇ C. Review the IT governance framework. ďˇ D. Manage service levels. Answer: D Question #200 A CIO has recently been made aware of a new regulatory requirement which may affect IT-enabled business activities. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step in deciding the appropriate response to the new requirement? ďˇ A. Consult with legal and risk experts to understand the requirements. ďˇ B. Confirm there are adequate resources to mitigate compliance requirements. ďˇ C. Consult with the board for guidance on the new requirement. ďˇ D. Revise initiatives that are active to reflect the new requirements. Answer: B Question #201 The risk committee is overwhelmed by the number of false positives included in risk reports. What action would BEST address this situation? ďˇ A. Evaluate key risk indicators. ďˇ B. Adjust IT balanced scorecard. ďˇ C. Conduct a risk assessment. ďˇ D. Change the reporting format. Answer: C Question #202 An enterprise has recently experienced an excessive number of exceptions due to outdated control frameworks. What should the leadership team do FIRST? ďˇ A. Mandate a reassessment of the current control frameworks. ďˇ B. Review the IT control standards. ďˇ C. Mandate strict adherence to control frameworks. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ D. Update the exception review and approval process. Answer: B Question #203 In an effort to reduce operation costs, an enterprise is switching from all internally-hosted applications to a mixture of internally- and externally-hosted applications. Of the following, the risk appetite for this decision would BEST be defined by the: ďˇ A. vendor oversight committee. ďˇ B. board of directors. ďˇ C. chief information security officer. ďˇ D. chief information officer. Answer: C Question #204 IT senior management has just received a survey report indicating that more than one third of the organization's key IT staff plan to retire within the next 12 months. Which of the following is the MOST important governance action to prepare for this possibility? ďˇ A. Request the development of a succession plan. ďˇ B. Engage HR for recruitment of new staff. ďˇ C. Evaluate lower-level staff as succession candidates. ďˇ D. Review motivation drivers for key IT staff. Answer: C Question #205 A CEO of a large enterprise is concerned that risk events are not regularly addressed at the C-suite level unless related to emergency incidents. Which of the following is the BEST way for the CEO to ensure risk events are given sufficient time and attention? ďˇ A. Instruct managers to take ownership for their department's identified risks. ďˇ B. Issue performance objectives that target the elimination of enterprise risks. ďˇ C. Include the of key enterprise risk as an agenda item at board meetings. ďˇ D. Require the development of a risk procedure on how to capture risks. Answer: C Question #206 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is assessing whether to utilize wearable technology. The enterprise has no prior experience with this technology and has asked the chief technology officer (CTO) to assess the impact to the enterprise. The CTO should FIRST: ďˇ A. prioritize wearable technology risk. ďˇ B. understand the enterprise's risk tolerance. ďˇ C. map the business goals to IT risk processes. ďˇ D. create an IT risk scorecard. Answer: B Question #207 An enterprise has an overarching enterprise architecture document. The CIO is concerned that EA is not leveraged in recent IT-enabled investments. Which of the following would BEST help to address these concerns and enforce the leveraging of enterprise architecture? ďˇ A. Require enterprise architecture review at key milestones. ďˇ B. Publish and train on the enterprise architecture document. ďˇ C. Form a team to update enterprise architecture regularly. ďˇ D. Adopt a globally-recognized enterprise architecture framework. Answer: B Question #208 After performing a gap analysis of IT risks and controls capability, the MOST important consideration for the associated risk responses is that they are: ďˇ A. added to the IT balanced scorecard. ďˇ B. approved by executive management. ďˇ C. assessed for severity of impact. ďˇ D. submitted to the audit committee. Answer: C Question #209 A new CEO is made aware of a lack of cooperation between IT and business units and needs to take action to enable more efficient IT delivery of solutions to support the business. What should be the FIRST step to address this concern? ďˇ A. Introduce IT related key performance indicators (KPIs). ďˇ B. Establish business user group training for increased collaboration. ďˇ C. Clarify roles and assign accountabilities for results. ďˇ D. Implement a continuous auditing policy for IT initiatives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #210 An IT steering committee is presented with an audit finding that new software applications are delivered on time but consistently have unacceptable levels of defects. Which of the following would be the BEST direction from the committee? ďˇ A. Establish code peer reviews. ďˇ B. Evaluate the change management process. ďˇ C. Implement performance indicators. ďˇ D. Evaluate the quality assurance process. Answer: D Question #211 Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT governance in an enterprise? ďˇ A. Project delivery ďˇ B. Value delivery ďˇ C. Residual risk ďˇ D. Resource utilization Answer: B Question #212 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to enhance security risk management alignment between IT and business? ďˇ A. Facilitate joint workshops for IT and the business on risk assessment techniques. ďˇ B. Analyze benchmark reports to understand the organization's security investments against competitors. ďˇ C. Establish a process in which IT and the business collaborate on risk assessment and mitigation prioritization. ďˇ D. Perform a trend analysis based on security investment levels and business initiatives. Answer: C Question #213 An IT steering committee is concerned that enterprise technologies have grown stagnant and are outdated. Which of the following is the BEST strategy to invest in modem technology? ďˇ A. Redefine the target architecture to define new technologies that can be incorporated into the infrastructure. ďˇ B. Create a new investment category for innovation that becomes a new way for tracking investment decisions/ https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ C. Update the IT human resource management plan to requite training and development for emerging technologies. ďˇ D. Decrease spending on steady state and increase spending on modernization and enhancements. Answer: A Question #214 An enterprise makes an acquisition of a similar entity offering related services. A consequence of the acquisition is a reduction of IT workforce. When addressing human resource allocation, the MOST important IT governance consideration is to: ďˇ A. manage organizational change. ďˇ B. assess 7 skill sets. ďˇ C. monitor team expenditures. ďˇ D. cross-train IT resources. Answer: D Question #215 An enterprise's board of directors has asked the CIO to implement ways to make the IT function more environmentally responsible. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step to ensure continued alignment of IT needs with the requirements of the board? ďˇ A. Create a staff awareness education plan focused on IT environmental responsibility. ďˇ B. Incorporate new environmentally responsible objectives into existing IT goals. ďˇ C. Assess potential environmentally responsible IT initiatives. ďˇ D. Write a business case for an environmentally responsible initiative for IT. Answer: A Question #216 An enterprise has an ongoing issue of corporate applications not delivering the expected benefits due to missing key functionality. As a result, many groups are using spreadsheets and databases instead of approved enterprise applications to store and manipulate information. Which of the following will BEST improve the success rate of future IT initiatives? ďˇ A. Engage the business user community in acceptance testing of acquired applications. ďˇ B. Prohibit the use of non-approved alternate software solutions. ďˇ C. Establish a process for risk and value management. ďˇ D. Engage stakeholders to identify and validate business requirements. Answer: D Question #217 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT strategy committee has reviewed an audit report indicating sales employees are using personal smartphones to conduct corporate business. Although the committee appreciates the business benefits, it is also concerned with the security risk. To deliver the business benefit, the committee's FIRST recommendation should be to: ďˇ A. update the corporate security policy to include personal devices. ďˇ B. document procedures for securing personal devices. ďˇ C. improve training courses on securing corporate information. ďˇ D. perform a risk assessment on personal device data protection. Answer: D Question #218 Which of the following is the BEST way to implement effective IT risk management? ďˇ A. Minimize the number of IT risk management decision points. ďˇ B. Adopt risk management processes. ďˇ C. Establish a risk management function. ďˇ D. Align with business risk management processes. Answer: B Question #219 Which of the following characteristics would BEST indicate that an IT process is a good candidate for outsourcing? ďˇ A. Operational processes that are well-defined ďˇ B. Non-strategic processes that are not documented ďˇ C. Strategic processes that require expert professionals ďˇ D. Processes with higher risk to the enterprise Answer: B Question #220 Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an effective set of key risk indicators (KRIs)? ďˇ A. Identifying possible future adverse impacts on the enterprise ďˇ B. Evaluating existing technology for risk monitoring capabilities ďˇ C. Establishing executive level buy-in of the risk program ďˇ D. Quantifying the productivity of the risk management team Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #221 A large bank has completed several acquisitions in the last few years that have resulted in redundant IT applications. To align with the strategic initiative of providing integrated services to customers, the IT steering committee has decided to share data and integrate applications. Which of the following would be MOST important to review in this situation? ďˇ A. IT risk register ďˇ B. Balanced scorecard measures ďˇ C. Enterprise architecture ďˇ D. IT strategic plan Answer: C Question #222 To evaluate IT resource management, it is MOST important to define: ďˇ A. principles for the IT strategy. ďˇ B. responsibilities for executing resource management. ďˇ C. applicable key goals. ďˇ D. IT resource utilization reporting procedures. Answer: B Question #223 Which of the following is the MOST effective measure to assist in the evaluation of IT value delivery? ďˇ A. Actual benefits derived from the achievement of business objectives ďˇ B. Increase in user productivity ďˇ C. Trends in service capacity and availability metrics ďˇ D. Increase in customer satisfaction survey results Answer: A Question #224 Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that the governance of enterprise IT is consistently executed? ďˇ A. Regular review of IT policies and procedures ďˇ B. Defined key risk indicators ďˇ C. Established and monitored IT management processes ďˇ D. Experienced and skilled IT leadership https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #225 The BEST time to identify metrics to measure the performance of an IT-enabled investment is during: ďˇ A. investment feasibility analysis. ďˇ B. system implementation. ďˇ C. project initiation. ďˇ D. business case development. Answer: D Question #226 An enterprise is concerned that ongoing maintenance costs are not being considered when prioritizing IT-enabled business investments. Which of the following should be the enterprise's FIRST course of action? ďˇ A. Require business cases to have product life cycle information. ďˇ B. Establish a portfolio manager role to monitor and control the IT projects. ďˇ C. Mandate an enterprise architecture review with business stakeholders. ďˇ D. Implement a balanced scorecard for the IT project portfolio. Answer: C Question #227 The IT program manager does not see the value of conducting risk assessments for a new major IT project. The manager is reluctant to cooperate with internal auditors and the newly formed steering committee. Midway through the project, program requirements were changed because the CEO is a friend of a vendor and wants to implement this vendor's new technology. This decision will cause the current IT program budget to be insufficient and will be shown as overspending, After the requirement change request, the IT program manager should FIRST: ďˇ A. report the matter to internal audit as a program deviation to be reviewed. ďˇ B. obtain confirmation from the business and a decision by the steering committee. ďˇ C. align IT with the business and agree to the business request. ďˇ D. request additional funding from the business owner to cover the additional scope. Answer: B Question #228 A business unit within an enterprise has directly contracted with a cloud service provider to process sensitive customer information. The CIO later identifies a serious risk of potential data compromise due to the vendor's insufficient segregation of environments and lack of strong access controls. The FIRST course of action should be to: ďˇ A. immediately suspend sending of data to the cloud service provider. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! ďˇ B. notify internal audit of the risk. ďˇ C. discuss the risk with the vendor to determine mitigation actions. ďˇ D. inform the business process owner of the risk. Answer: B Question #229 Which of the following would BEST align an enterprise's IT investments with its strategic objectives? ďˇ A. High process maturity score ďˇ B. IT budget and financial statements ďˇ C. Control self-assessment ďˇ D. Portfolio management Answer: A Question #230 To ensure that the process of developing a business case for IT-enabled investments continually supports benefits realization, the benefits expected from investment programs must be actively managed through: ďˇ A. the system development life cycle. ďˇ B. the economic life cycle. ďˇ C. obsolescence planning. ďˇ D. project life cycle. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Make a multiple choice quiz for my year 8 science students based on the science in this transcript from a video: 3°C 0:04 It can be the difference between snow and sleet 0:08 Wearing a jacket or not 0:11 In your day-to-day life, it may not seem significant 0:15 But 3°C of global warming would be catastrophic 0:20 Heatwaves, droughts, extreme precipitation, even fire 0:25 3°C of warming is really disastrous 0:28 The scary thing is, the world is well on its way there 0:32 Since the industrial revolution, the Earth has warmed between 1.1°C and 1.3°C 0:40 This is a problem that babies you pass in the street will have to live with 0:46 Children born today... 0:47 ...are up to seven times more likely to face extreme weather than their grandparents 0:52 If global temperatures do rise by 3°C... 0:55 ...what would their world look like? Climate change is already having devastating effects 1:03 Rising sea levels 1:05 Desertification 1:07 Hollywood has always enjoyed imagining the end of the world 1:11 While blockbusters like this are clearly fiction... 1:14 ...this film will show the scenario we all face... 1:17 ...unless more drastic measures are taken to stop burning fossil fuels 1:30 In some parts of the world the effects of inaction are already clear 1:35 The slums of Bangladeshâs capital are filling up with climate migrants 1:41 Minara comes from Bhola District, an area in southern Bangladesh 1:46 There, like many other parts of the country... 1:49 ...rivers swollen by heavier rain and melting Himalayan glaciers... 1:53 ...are washing away peopleâs homes 1:56 Many, like her, have lost everything 2:00 Our home in Bhola had endless amounts of land 2:03 There was lots of space for farming, we had a spacious house 2:08 There were different types of fruits, vegetation and trees growing at home 2:12 We used to eat the fruit from our own trees 2:18 I canât eat them now because they don't exist anymore 2:21 Since the river flooded for the third time, I had to flee to Dhaka 2:26 Life was much better back home 2:29 It was unbearable to live through, truly intolerable 2:33 We didnât have the time to save anything at all 2:38 1.1°C to 1.3°C of global warming has already transformed Minaraâs life 2:45 Itâs one of the reasons why so many migrants like her... 2:47 ...are moving to the city each year... 2:50 ...nearly 400,000 according to the last estimate 2:53 And climate models show there could be much worse to come How climate modelling works 3:02 Climate scientist Joeri Rogelj... 3:04 ...has spent the last ten years modelling future climate scenarios... 3:08 ...for the United Nations 3:10 The models we use to carry out this exercise... 3:13 ...really represent the state of the art... 3:15 ...of our current knowledge of climate change and where we are heading 3:19 Joeriâs projections use data collected by hundreds of scientists around the world 3:26 Here this is the 3°C level... 3:28 ...and so there is at least a one-in-four chance that under current policies... 3:32 ...we would hit 3°C by the end of the century 3:36 This is just one of the scenarios Joeri looks at 3:40 Another one imagines that all policy promises are kept 3:44 The most optimistic assumes that all promises have been kept... 3:47 ...and net-zero targets are met 3:50 Where our best estimate ends up around 2°C at the end of the century... 3:54 ...there is still a one-in-20 chance that we end up with 3°C instead 3:59 One would not be entering a plane if there is a one-in-20 chance... 4:03 ...that the plane will crash Nowhere is safe from global warming 4:07 A rise of 3°C would affect everyone 4:10 Even wealthy cities in rich countries wouldnât be immune to the consequences 4:15 European capitals like Paris and Berlin... 4:18 ...would bake under more extreme heatwaves 4:22 Frequent storm-surges in New York could turn parts of the city desolate 4:27 In many ways, cities magnify, intensify climate events 4:33 Cities are hotter than the places around them... 4:36 ...they tend to be more vulnerable to flooding 4:39 And you can get a really bad event in a city in a way that you canât in the countryside 4:46 And because of their denser populations... 4:49 ...disasters in a city affect far more people 4:52 Some cities might be badly prepared for the changes coming 4:56 But they have the means to adapt 4:59 Cities tend to be wealthier than surrounding places 5:03 They have a lot of amenities 5:05 A city that has taken seriously the risks of a 3°C world... 5:08 âŚwouldnât necessarily be a worse place to be in a 3°C world 5:12 But a city that hasnât prepared for these sort of eventualities... 5:16 ...that might be a really nasty place The impact of prolonged droughts 5:20 So far, many developed cities have got off lightly... 5:24 ...but some rural parts of the world are suffering disproportionately 5:29 Smallholdersâsmall-scale farmersâare particularly vulnerable to climate change 5:35 And there are over 600 million around the world 5:38 Smallholders with farms under two hectares... 5:40 ...produce around a third of the global food supply 5:46 Central Americaâs âDry Corridorâ... 5:48 ...supports a mix of smallholdings and medium-sized farms 5:53 Sandwiched between the Pacific Ocean and the Caribbean Sea... 5:56 ...the area is prone to droughts 6:08 Israel RamĂrez Rivera is a smallholder in Guatemala 6:12 Here, climate change is making the dry seasons longer, and more severe 6:18 This is the biggest ear of maize that this plot could deliver 6:23 He depends on his crops of corn and beans 6:26 But theyâre getting harder to grow 6:30 The surrounding mountains... 6:32 ...used to provide us with native food... 6:38 ...and now that isnât an option anymore... 6:41 ...due to climate change and its effects 6:46 Nearly two-thirds of the smallholders in the Dry Corridor now live in poverty 6:52 The impact of all of this for us... 6:59 ...malnutrition among children 7:03 Weâve lost a few 7:07 For my crops especially, the midsummer heat is harder than before 7:16 The plant dries up and canât provide us... 7:19 ...with the necessary food provision 7:24 Severe droughts in Central America... 7:26 ...are now four times more likely than they were last century 7:30 Many families from here have gone to the States 7:37 The economic despair and debts... 7:44 ...have pushed many people from this community to do this journey 7:53 Migration from Guatemala to the United States has quadrupled since 1990 7:59 Not all of this has been due to climate change 8:02 But longer droughts would force even more to move 8:05 In a 3°C world, annual rainfall in this region... 8:09 ...could drop by up to 14% 8:12 At 3°C, over a quarter of the worldâs population... 8:16 ...could endure extreme droughts for at least a month of the year 8:19 Northern Africa could see droughts that last for years at a time Rising sea levels, storm surges and flooding 8:24 But for some, too much water will be the problem 8:29 10% of the worldâs population lives on a coastline... 8:32 ...thatâs less than 10 metres above sea level 8:35 For these coastal inhabitants, a 3°C world would spell disaster 8:40 By 2100, global sea levels could have climbed by half a metre from 2005 levels 8:46 Low-lying cities like Lagos would be especially vulnerable... 8:49 ...with up to up to a third of the population displaced 8:54 And in Fiji, rising waters are already upending lives 9:04 You can see the graveyard there, itâs all under water now... 9:08 ...due to this rising sea level and climate change 9:15 The village of Togoru in Fiji is being swallowed by the sea 9:19 Barney Dunn, the village headman, has seen over half the village disappear 9:24 Relativesâ houses have been abandoned, and family graves are now under water 9:29 We have been asked by the government to relocate... 9:32 ...but no one wants to relocate... 9:34 ...because we have our great-great-grandparents down there in the sea 9:39 This is the place weâve been brought up in 9:41 ...itâs not easy to leave 9:44 Past attempts to build a seawall havenât worked 9:48 But Barney sees building a new one as the villageâs only hope 9:52 If they do that, maybe we can save whatever is left 9:56 But if we donât have the seawall, then it will be keep eroding and time will come... 10:01 ...maybe in ten,15 years, Togoru will be all eroded 10:05 Rising seas also mean storms cause more floods 10:11 And many more countries could suffer 10:14 The Philippines and Myanmar are just two countries... 10:17 ...that will also see an increase in storm surges in a 3°C world 10:21 To escape, many will move⌠10:24 âŚoften, to urban areas Extreme heat and wet-bulb temperatures 10:27 Half the worldâs population already lives in cities... 10:31 ...almost a third in slums 10:36 For them, a 3°C world could be deadly 10:40 Minara has moved to Dhaka to escape the impact of climate change 10:44 But life could get even worse for her 10:47 Iâm struggling a lot nowadays 10:49 The heat during the day is unbearable 10:52 Even late at night it doesnât cool down 10:57 The heat is getting more intense every day 10:59 I mean, itâs going to get much worse 11:03 I can barely survive it now, how will I live through it in the future? 11:08 Dhaka is getting hotter 11:11 In the last 20 years the average daytime temperature... 11:13 ...has crept up by nearly half a degree 11:17 Days that approach 40°C are now being reported 11:20 And high so-called wet-bulb temperatures are on the rise 11:26 A wet-bulb temperature is a measure of heat and humidity 11:30 Humans cool themselves by sweating⌠11:32 But in these conditions, when relative humidity is near 100%... 11:36 ...sweat doesnât evaporate well 11:38 So people canât cool down⌠11:41 ...even if given unlimited shade and water 11:45 At a high wet-bulb temperature, the body canât lose heat... 11:49 ...and so it gets hotter and hotter... 11:51 ...and the body is designed to work at a given temperature 11:53 And if it gets too hot inside, you will die 11:58 The human limit for wet-bulb temperatures is 35°C... 12:02 ...around skin temperature 12:04 Dhaka will have a much higher chance... 12:05 ...of reaching dangerous wet-bulb temperatures... 12:07 ...if global warming reaches 3°C 12:12 You canât really adapt to that 12:14 You have to get out. If the temperature is so high that you canât work... 12:20 ...canât do hard manual labour outside for significant parts of the year... 12:25 ...then many places will become functionally no longer part of the economy 12:33 Jacobabad in Pakistan, and Ras al Khaimah, in the United Arab Emirates... 12:37 ...have already recorded deadly wet-bulb temperatures 12:40 More of the tropics and the Persian Gulf... 12:43 ...as well as parts of Mexico and the south-eastern United States... 12:47 ...could all get to this threshold by the end of the century 12:50 Climate modelling might show us the weather Increased migration and conflict 12:52 But it doesnât show us its other effects on society 12:56 Established migration patterns could change 12:59 Climate disasters may exacerbate reasons people cross borders 13:03 Within countries, more people will move to cities 13:07 In a 3°C world, tens of millions of people a year... 13:10 ...could be displaced by disasters made worse by climate change 13:15 When people are displaced by climate... 13:18 âŚthey may well go to cities... 13:19 ...because cities are the places that attract people from the countryside already 13:25 A lot of people who can get to the developed world... 13:28 ...not least because the developed world tends to be less hot, will give that a go 13:35 As migration around the world increases... 13:38 ...there could be more competition for fewer resources 13:42 Waterâalready a highly contested resourceâwill be a focal point 13:47 Turkeyâs new Ilisu dam has reduced the flow of water into Iraq 13:53 China lays claim to rivers vital to India and Pakistan 13:57 The prospect of a water-conflict makes people very uneasy 14:03 How national tensions would exacerbate those sorts of reactions... 14:08 ...in a 3°C world... 14:09 ...is the sort of thing that no one should really want to find out 14:14 I think youâd have to be incredibly sanguine... 14:16 ...not to think that the sort of climate extremes that we talk about... 14:19 ...in a 3°C world wouldnât lead some places... 14:22 ...to the brink of societal collapse 14:25 Those lucky enough to escape unrest... Adaptation and mitigation are crucial 14:28 ...would still have to adapt to a radically different world 14:32 People can adapt to climate change in all sorts of ways, one of the most obvious ones... 14:37 ...is air conditioning 14:39 But other ways to adapt at a local or regional level... 14:42 ...I mean, one of the most obvious is diversifying agriculture 14:47 There are physical things you can do, like seawalls 14:52 The fact that people can adapt and that adaptation will reduce suffering... 14:57 ...doesnât mean that it will eliminate suffering 15:00 Suffering is built into this whole process of heating up the planet 15:06 Adaptation will only get the world so far 15:09 The best way to deal with a 3°C world... 15:12 ...is not to go to a 3°C world 15:14 And thatâs why increasing efforts on mitigation are important 15:17 Itâs why working towards negative emissions... 15:20 ...that could bring down the temperature after it peaks are important 15:25 Once you get to a 3°C world, you are in real bad global trouble 15:33 The scale of change needed... 15:35 ...and the slow progress of governments so far... 15:38 ...means 3°C of warming is uncomfortably likely unless more is done 15:44 Despite existing pledges, greenhouse-gas emissions... 15:48 ...are still set to rise by 16% from 2010 levels by 2030 15:54 The need to act has never been clearer 15:57 Thereâs still time to reduce emissions, so that a 3°C world remains fiction... 16:02 ...rather than becoming factHi, I'm John Green, this is Crash Course U.S. History, and today, we're going to talk about slavery, which is not funny. 0:06 Yeah, so we put a lei on the eagle to try and cheer you up, but let's face it, this is going to be depressing. 0:10 With slavery, every time you think, like, "Aw, it couldn't have been that bad," it turns out to have been much worse. 0:14 Mr. Green, Mr. Green! But what about â 0:15 Yeah, Me from the Past, I'm going to stop you right there, because you're going to embarrass yourself. Slavery was hugely important to America. 0:20 I mean, it led to a civil war and it also lasted what, at least in U.S. history, counts as a long-ass time, from 1619 to 1865. 0:29 And yes, I know there's a 1200-year-old church in your neighborhood in Denmark, but we're not talking about Denmark! 0:35 But slavery is most important because we still struggle with its legacy. 0:38 So, yes, today's episode will probably not be funny, but it will be important. 0:42 [Theme Music] North & South economic ties 0:51 So the slave-based economy in the South is sometimes characterized as having been separate from the Market Revolution, but that's not really the case. 0:57 Without southern cotton, the North wouldn't have been able to industrialize, at least not as quickly, because cotton textiles were one of the first industrially products. 1:04 And the most important commodity in world trade by the nineteenth century, and 3/4 of the world's cotton came from the American South. 1:11 And speaking of cotton, why has no one mentioned to me that my collar has been half popped this entire episode, like I'm trying to recreate the Flying Nun's hat. 1:18 And although there were increasingly fewer slaves in the North as northern states outlawed slavery, cotton shipments overseas made northern merchants rich. 1:26 Northern bankers financed the purchase of land for plantations. 1:29 Northern insurance companies insured slaves who were, after all, considered property, and very valuable property. 1:35 And in addition to turning cotton into cloth for sale overseas, northern manufacturers sold cloth back to the South, where it was used to clothe the very slaves who had cultivated it. 1:45 But certainly the most prominent effects of the slave-based economy were seen in the South. Slave-based agriculture in the South 1:49 The profitability of slaved-based agriculture, especially King Cotton, meant that the South would remain largely agricultural and rural. 1:56 Slave states were home to a few cities, like St. Louis and Baltimore, but with the exception of New Orleans, 2:00 almost all southern urbanization took place in the upper South, further away from the large cotton plantations. 2:06 And slave-based agriculture was so profitable that it siphoned money away from other economic endeavors. 2:11 Like, there was very little industry in the South. 2:13 It produced only 10% of the nation's manufactured goods. 2:16 And, as most of the capital was being plowed into the purchase of slaves, there was very little room for technological innovation, like, for instance, railroads. 2:23 This lack of industry and railroads would eventually make the South suck at the Civil War, thankfully. 2:27 In short, slavery dominated the South, shaping it both economically and culturally, and slavery wasn't a minor aspect of American society. Popular attitudes concerning slavery 2:35 By 1860, there were four million slaves in the U.S., and in the South, they made up one third of the total population. 2:42 Although in the popular imagination, most plantations were these sprawling affairs with hundreds of slaves, 2:47 in reality, the majority of slaveholders owned five or fewer slaves. 2:51 And, of course, most white people in the South owned no slaves at all, though, if they could afford to, they would sometimes rent slaves to help with their work. 2:57 These were the so-called yeoman farmers who lived self-sufficiently, raised their own food, and purchased very little in the Market Economy. 3:04 They worked the poorest land and, as a result, were mostly pretty poor themselves. 3:08 But even they largely supported slavery, partly, perhaps, for aspirational reasons, and partly because the racism inherent to the system gave even the poorest whites legal and social status. 3:18 And southern intellectuals worked hard to encourage these ideas of white solidarity and to make the case for slavery. 3:23 Many of the founders, a bunch of whom you'll remember, held slaves, saw slavery as a necessary evil. 3:29 Jefferson once wrote, quote, "As it is, we have the wolf by the ear, and we can neither hold him, nor safely let him go. 3:37 Justice is on one scale, and self-preservation in the other." 3:41 The belief that justice and self-preservation couldn't sit on the same side of the scale was really opposed to the American idea, 3:47 and, in the end, it would make the Civil War inevitable. 3:50 But as slavery became more entrenched in these ideas of liberty and political equality were embraced by more people, 3:55 some southerners began to make the case that slavery wasn't just a necessary evil. 3:59 They argued, for instance, that slaves benefited from slavery. 4:03 Because, you know, because their masters fed them and clothed them and took care of them in their old age. 4:07 You still hear this argument today, astonishingly. 4:09 In fact, you'll probably see asshats in the comments saying that in the comments. 4:12 I will remind you, it's not cursing if you are referring to an actual ass. 4:15 This paternalism allowed masters to see themselves as benevolent and to contrast their family-oriented slavery with the cold, mercenary Capitalism of the free-labor North. 4:26 So yeah, in the face of rising criticism of slavery, some southerners began to argue that the institution was actually good for the social order. 4:33 One of the best-known proponents of this view was John C. Calhoun, who, in 1837, said this in a speech on the Senate floor: 4:40 "I hold that, in the present state of civilization, 4:43 where two races of different origin and distinguished by color and other physical differences as well as intellectual, are brought together, 4:51 the relation now existing in the slave-holding states between the two is, instead of an evil, a good. A positive good." 4:59 Now, of course, John C. Calhoun was a fringe politician, and nobody took his views particularly seriously. 5:04 Stan: Well, he was Secretary of State from 1844 to 1845. 5:07 John: Well, I mean, who really cares about the Secretary of State, Stan? 5:10 Danica: Eh, he was also Secretary of War from 1817 to 1825. 5:13 John: All right, but we don't even have a Secretary of War anymore, so... 5:16 Meredith: And he was Vice President from 1825 to 1832. 5:19 John: Oh my god, were we insane?! 5:21 We were, of course, but we justified the insanity with Biblical passages and with the examples of the Greeks and Romans, 5:28 and with outright racism, arguing that black people were inherently inferior to whites. 5:33 And that not to keep them in slavery would upset the natural order of things. 5:37 A worldview popularized millennia ago by my nemesis, Aristotle. God, I hate Aristotle. 5:42 You know what defenders of Aristotle always say? 5:44 "He was the first person to identify dolphins." 5:47 Well, ok, dolphin identifier. 5:50 Yes, that is what he should be remembered for, but he's a terrible philosopher! Lives & experiences of enslaved people 5:53 Here's the truth about slavery: 5:55 It was coerced labor that relied upon intimidation and brutality and dehumanization. 6:00 And this wasn't just a cultural system, it was a legal one. 6:03 I mean, Louisiana law proclaimed that a slave "owes his master... a respect without bounds, and an absolute obedience." 6:09 The signal feature of slaves' lives was work. 6:12 I mean, conditions and tasks varied, but all slaves labored, usually from sunup to sundown, and almost always without any pay. 6:20 Most slaves worked in agriculture on plantations, and conditions were different, depending on which crops are grown. 6:25 Like, slaves on the rice plantations of South Carolina had terrible working conditions, 6:29 but they labored under the task system, which meant that once they had completed their allotted daily work, they would have time to do other things. 6:36 But lest you imagine this is like how we have work and leisure time, bear in mind that they were owned and treated as property. 6:42 On cotton plantations, most slaves worked in gangs, usually under the control of an overseer, or another slave who was called a "driver." 6:49 This was back-breaking work done in the southern sun and humidity, and so it's not surprising that whippings â or the threat of them â were often necessary to get slaves to work. 6:58 It's easy enough to talk about the brutality of slave discipline, but it can be difficult to internalize it. 7:03 Like, you look at these pictures, but because you've seen them over and over again, they don't have the power they once might have. 7:09 The pictures can tell a story about cruelty, but they don't necessarily communicate how arbitrary it all was. 7:14 As, for example, in this story, told by a woman who was a slave as a young girl: 7:18 "[The] overseer... went to my father one morning and said, "Bob, I'm gonna whip you this morning." 7:22 Daddy said, "I ain't done nothing," and he said, "I know it, I'm going to whip you to keep you from doing nothing," 7:28 and he hit him with that cowhide â you know it would cut the blood out of you with every lick if they hit you hard." 7:33 That brutality â the whippings, the brandings, the rape â was real, and it was intentional, because, in order for slavery to function, slaves had to be dehumanized. 7:43 This enabled slaveholders to rationalize what they were doing, and it was hoped to reduce slaves to the animal property that is implied by the term "chattel slavery." 7:51 So the idea was that slaveholders wouldn't think of their slaves as human, and slaves wouldn't think of themselves as human. 7:57 But it didn't work. Let's go to the Thought Bubble. 7:59 Slaves' resistance to their dehumanization took many forms, but the primary way was by forming families. Family, love, & religion of enslaved people 8:05 Family was a refuge for slaves and a source of dignity that masters recognized and sought to stifle. 8:10 A paternalistic slave owner named Bennet H. Barrow wrote in his rules for the Highland Plantation: 8:15 "No rule that I have stated is of more importance than that relating to Negroes marrying outside of the plantation... It creates a feeling of independence." 8:23 Most slaves did marry, usually for life, and, when possible, slaves grew up in two-parent households. 8:28 Single-parent households were common, though, as a result of one parent being sold. 8:32 In the upper South, where the economy was shifting from tobacco to different, less labor-intensive cash crops, the sale of slaves was common. 8:40 Perhaps one-third of slave marriages in states like Virginia were broken up by sale. 8:45 Religion was also an important part of life in slavery. 8:47 While masters wanted their slaves to learn the parts of the Bible that talked about being happy in bondage, 8:52 slave worship tended to focus on the stories of Exodus, where Moses brought the slaves out of bondage, 8:57 or Biblical heroes, who overcame great odds, like Daniel and David. 9:01 And, although most slaves were forbidden to learn to read and write, many did anyway. And some became preachers. 9:07 Slave preachers were often very charismatic leaders, and they roused the suspicion of slave owners, and not without reason. 9:13 Two of the most important slave uprisings in the South were led by preachers. 9:16 Thanks, Thought Bubble. 9:17 Oh, it's time for the Mystery Document? Mystery Document 9:19 We're doing two set pieces in a row? All right. [buzzing noise] [music] 9:24 The rules here are simple. 9:26 I wanted to re-shoot that, but Stan said no. 9:29 I guess the author of the Mystery Document. 9:30 If I am wrong, I get shocked with the shock pen. 9:33 "Since I have been in the Queen's dominions I have been well contented, yes well contented for sure, man is as God intended he should be. 9:40 That is, all are born free and equal. 9:43 This is a wholesome law, not like the southern laws which puts man made in the image of God on level with brutes. 9:49 O, what will become of the people, and where will they stand in the day of judgment. 9:53 Would that the 5th verse of the 3rd chapter of Malachi were written as with a bar of iron, 9:59 and the point of a diamond upon every oppressor's heart that they might repent of this evil, and let the oppressed go free..." 10:06 All right, it's definitely a preacher, because only preachers have read Malachi. 10:10 Probably African American, probably not someone from the South. 10:13 I'm going to guess that it is Richard Allen, the founder of the African Methodist Episcopal Church? 10:18 [buzzing noise] DAAAH, DANG IT! 10:19 It's Joseph Taper, and Stan just pointed out to me that I should have known it was Joseph Taper because it starts out, 10:24 "Since I have been in the Queen's dominions..." 10:27 He was in Canada. He escaped slavery to Canada. The Queen's dominions! 10:31 All right, Canadians, I blame you for this, although, thank you for abolishing slavery decades before we did. 10:36 [electric sounds] AHHH! How people resisted & escaped slavery 10:37 So, the Mystery Document shows one of the primary ways that slaves resisted their oppression: by running away. 10:42 Although some slaves like Joseph Taper escaped for good by running away to northern free states, 10:47 or even to Canada, where they wouldn't have to worry about fugitive slave laws, even more slaves ran away temporarily, hiding out in the woods or the swamps, and eventually returning. 10:55 No one knows exactly how many slaves escaped to freedom, but the best estimate is that a thousand or so a year made the journey northward. 11:01 Most fugitive slaves were young men, but the most famous runaway has been hanging out behind me all day long: Harriet Tubman. 11:07 Harriet Tubman escaped to Philadelphia at the age of 29, and over the course of her life, she made about 20 trips back to Maryland to help friends and relatives make the journey north on the Underground Railroad. 11:17 But a more dramatic form of resistance to slavery was actual, armed rebellion, which was attempted. 11:22 Now, individuals sometimes took matters into their own hands and beat or even killed their white overseers or masters. 11:27 Like Bob, the guy who received the arbitrary beating, responded to it by killing his overseer with a hoe. 11:33 But that said, large-scale slave uprisings were relatively rare. 11:36 The four most famous ones all took place in a 35-year period at the beginning of the 19th century. Slave rebellions 11:41 Gabriel's Rebellion in 1800 â which we've talked about before â was discovered before he was able to carry out his plot. 11:45 Then, in 1811, a group of slaves upriver from New Orleans seized cane, knives, and guns, and marched on the city before militia stopped them. 11:52 And in 1822, Denmark Vesey, a former slave who had purchased his freedom, may have organized a plot to destroy Charleston, South Carolina. 11:59 I say "may have" because the evidence against him is disputed and comes from a trial that was not fair. 12:05 But regardless, the end result of that trial was that he was executed, as were 34 slaves. Nat Turner's Rebellion 12:09 But the most successful slave rebellion, at least in the sense that they actually killed some people, was Nat Turner's in August 1831. 12:15 Turner was a preacher, and with a group of about 80 slaves, he marched from farm to farm in South Hampton County, Virginia, 12:21 killing the inhabitants, most of whom were women and children, because the men were attending a religious revival meeting in North Carolina. 12:27 Turner and 17 other rebels were captured and executed, but not before they struck terror into the hearts of whites all across the American South. 12:34 Virginia's response was to make slavery worse, passing even harsher laws that forbade slaves from preaching, and prohibited teaching them to read. 12:42 Other slave states followed Virginia's lead and, by the 1830s, slavery had grown, if anything, more harsh. 12:47 So, this shows that large-scaled armed resistance was â Django Unchained aside â not just suicidal, but also a threat to loved ones and, really, to all slaves. How enslaved people resisted their oppression & why it matters 12:55 But, it is hugely important to emphasize that slaves did resist their oppression. 12:59 Sometimes this meant taking up arms, but usually it meant more subtle forms of resistance, 13:03 like intentional work slowdowns or sabotaging equipment, or pretending not to understand instructions. 13:08 And, most importantly, in the face of systematic legal and cultural degradation, they re-affirmed their humanity through family and through faith. 13:16 Why is this so important? 13:17 Because too often in America, we still talk about slaves as if they failed to rise up, 13:21 when, in fact, rising up would not have made life better for them or for their families. 13:26 The truth is, sometimes carving out an identity as a human being in a social order that is constantly seeking to dehumanize you, is the most powerful form of resistance. 13:34 Refusing to become the chattel that their masters believed them to be is what made slavery untenable and the Civil War inevitable, so make no mistake, slaves fought back. 13:45 And in the end, they won. I'll see you next week. Credits 13:48 Crash Course is produced and directed by Stan Muller. 13:50 The script supervisor is Meredith Danko. 13:52 Our associate producer is Danica Johnson. 13:54 The show is written by my high school history teacher Raoul Meyer and myself. 13:57 And our graphics team is Thought Cafe. 13:58 Every week, there's a new caption to the Libertage, but today's episode was so sad that we couldn't fit a Libertage in... 14:04 UNTIL NOW! [Libertage Rock Music] 14:08 Suggest Libertage caption in comments, where you can also ask questions about today's video that will be answered by our team of historians. 14:13 Thanks for watching Crash Course, and as we say in my home town, don't forget to be abolitionist.1.Linguistics is the science that studies language. 2.Linguist:Someone who studies linguistics. 3.The Subfields of Linguistics Phonetics deals with the sounds of language. Phonology deals with how the sounds are organized. Morphology deals with how sounds are put together to form words. Syntax deals with how sentences are formed. Semantics deals with the meaning of words, sentences, and texts. Pragmatics deals with how sentences and texts are used in the world (i.e., in context) Text Linguistics deals with units larger than sentences, such as paragraphs and texts. 4.Prescriptive: This approach consists basically of stating what is considered right and wrong in language. 5.Descriptive: This approach, on the other hand, consists of describing the facts. Descriptive linguistics is dedicated to describing the rules of the language, and the language is seen as essentially rule governed. 6.Language is rule-governed, creative, universal, innate, and learned, all at the same time. 7.Linguists understand language as a system of arbitrary vocal signs. 8.Linguistic signs: involve sequences of sounds which represent concrete objects and events as well as abstractions.Signs may be related to the things they represent in a number of ways. 9.Iconic: which resemble the things they represent (as do, for example, photographs, diagrams, star charts, or chemical models). 10.Indexical: which point to or have a necessary connection with the things they represent (as do, for example, smoke to fire, a weathercock to the direction of the wind, a symptom to an illness, a smile to happiness, or a frown to anger). 11.Describe the characteristics of human language: Creative: (The structural elements of human language can be combined to produce new utterances, which neither the speaker nor his hearers may ever have made or heard before.) Rule-governed: (Language is made of rules.) Universal: (There are some aspects that are present in all languages of the world.) Innate:(all humans possess an innate capacity for language, activated in infancy by minimal environmental stimuli. Chomsky) Uniquely human: (Language is what sets us apart from other species. It is what makes us human.) Learned:(Children acquire language from their natural setting.) 12.Differentiate between iconic, indexical and symbolic signs. A. iconic, which resemble the things they represent (as do, for example, photographs, diagrams, star charts, or chemical models) B. indexical, which point to or have a necessary connection with the things they represent (as do, for example, smoke to fire, a weathercock to the direction of the wind, a symptom to an illness, a smile to happiness, or a frown to anger). c. symbolic, which are only conventionally related to the thing they represent (as do, for example, a flag to a nation, a rose to love, a wedding ring to marriage). 12. Distinguish between different senses of the grammar word. The prescriptivist´s grammar (Grammar is a set of rules that label the different utterances as either right or wrong.) The descriptivist´s grammar (Grammar is a set of rules that govern the langauge spoken by people. ) The linguist´s grammar (Grammar is the subconscious knowledge of the set of rules that enables speakers to use the language) The speaker´s grammar (Grammar is the intrinsic linguistic knowledge within a native speaker) 13.Describe common fallacies about language and grammar: âşOne type of grammar is simpler than another. âşChanges in grammar involve deterioration in a language âşGrammars should be logical and analogical (that is, regular) âşPeople must be taught the grammatical rules of their language. âşOnly some languages have grammar. âşGrammars differ from each other in unpredictable ways. 14.Generality: All Languages Have a Grammar 15. Equality: All Grammars Are Equal 16.Changeability: Grammars Change Over Time 17. Universality: Grammars Are Alike in Basic Ways 18.Tacitness: Grammatical Knowledge Is Subconscious 19.Linguistics is defined as the study of language systems. It is the scientific study of language. 20.Historical approach:It is the study of language change. 21.Linguistic Competence: is the unconscious knowledge speakers of a language have about the system that enables them to create and understand novel utterances. 22.Performance: is the use of it. Performance is âthe actual use of language in concrete situations.â 23.I-Language (internal language): which is the intrinsic linguistic knowledge within a native speaker. 24.E-Language (external language): which is the observable languageâthe output from a speaker. 25.Parole ('speech') refers to the concrete instances of the use of langue, including texts which provide the ordinary research material for linguistics. 26.Langue: 27.Language: is a system of communication that is non-stereotyped and non-finite; it is unlimited in its scope. 28.Grammar: to refer to a subconscious linguistic system of a particular type. Grammar makes possible the production and comprehension of a potentially unlimited number of utterances. 29.Communication and animals: Selecting a mode of communication (speech,writing, gesture). Delivering the symbols through a medium, a physical basis for communication, light, air, or ink. Decoding of the symbols to obtain the information. 30.SIGNS: Communication relies on using something to stand for something else. Words are an obvious example of this: You do not have to have a car, a sandwich, or your cousin present in order to talk about themâthe words car, sandwich, and cousin stand for them instead. This same phenomenon is found in animal communication as well. 31.The signifier: A signifier is that part of a sign that stimulates at least one sense organ of the receiver of a message.A signifier can also be a picture, a photograph, a sign language gesture, or one of the many other words for tree in different languages. 32.The signified: The signified component of the sign refers to both the real world object it represents and its conceptual content. The first of these is the real world content of the sign, its extension or referent within a system of signs such as English, avian communication, or sign language. 33.Iconic signs or icons: always bear some resemblance to their referent. A photograph is an iconic sign; so too is a stylized silhouette of a female or a male on a restroom door. 34.Some iconic tokens: a. open-mouth threat by a Japanese macaque; b. park recreation signs; c. onomatopoeic words in English. 35.An indexical sign, or index, fulfils its function by pointing out its referent, typically by being a partial or representative sample of it. Indexes are not arbitrary, since their presence has in some sense been caused by their referent. For this reason it is sometimes said that there is a causal link between an indexical sign and its referent.The track of an animal, for example, points to the existence of the animal by representing a part of it. The presence of smoke is an index of fire. 36.Symbolic signs: bear an arbitrary relationship to their referents and in this way are distinct from both icons and indexes. Human language is highly symbolic in that the vast majority of its signs bear no inherent resemblance or causal connection to their referents, as the following words show. 37.Mixed signs Signs: are not always exclusively of one type or another. Symptomatic signs, for example, may have iconic properties, as when a dog opens its mouth in a threat to bite. Symbolic signs such as traffic lights are symptomatic in that they reflect the internal state of the mechanism that causes them to change color. 38.Signals: All signs can act as signals when they trigger a specific action on the part of the receiver, as do traffic lights, words in human language such as the race starter's "Go!", or the warning calls of birds. 39.SIGN STRUCTURE: No matter what their type, signs show different kinds of structure. A basic distinction is made between graded and discrete sign structure. 40.Graded signs convey their meaning by changes in degree. A good example of a gradation in communication is voice volume. The more you want to be heard, the louder you speak along an increasing scale of loudness. There are no steps or jumps from one level to the next that can be associated with a specific change in meaning. 41.Discrete signs are distinguished from each other by categorical (stepwise) differences. There is no gradual transition from one sign to the next. The words of human language are good examples of discrete signs. 42.A VIEW OF ANIMAL COMMUNICATION âşLargely iconic âşLargely symptomatic âşLittle arbitrary âşNot deliberate âşNot conscious âşNot symbolic âşStimulus boundTHE FIDE LAWS OF CHESS. Introduction FIDE Laws of Chess cover over-the-board play. The Laws of Chess have two parts: 1. Basic Rules of Play and 2. Competitive Rules of Play. The English text is the authentic version of the Laws of Chess (which were adopted at the 93rd FIDE Congress at Chennai, India) coming into force on 1 January 2023. Preface. The Laws of Chess cannot cover all possible situations that may arise during a game, nor can they regulate all administrative questions. Where cases are not precisely regulated by an Article of the Laws, it should be possible to reach a correct decision by studying analogous situations which are regulated in the Laws. The Laws assume that arbiters have the necessary competence, sound judgement and absolute objectivity. Too detailed a rule might deprive the arbiter of his/her freedom of judgement and thus prevent him/her from finding a solution to a problem dictated by fairness, logic and special factors. FIDE appeals to all chess players and federations to accept this view. A necessary condition for a game to be rated by FIDE is that it shall be played according to the FIDE Laws of Chess. It is recommended that competitive games not rated by FIDE be played according to the FIDE Laws of Chess. Member federations may ask FIDE to give a ruling on matters relating to the Laws of Chess. BASIC RULES OF PLAY. Article 1: The Nature and Objectives of the Game of Chess 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4 The game of chess is played between two opponents who move their pieces on a square board called a âchessboardâ. The player with the light-coloured pieces (White) makes the first move, then the players move alternately, with the player with the dark-coloured pieces (Black) making the next move. A player is said to âhave the moveâ when his/her opponentâs move has been âmadeâ. The objective of each player is to place the opponentâs king âunder attackâ in such a way that the opponent has no legal move. 1.4.1 The player who achieves this goal is said to have âcheckmatedâ the opponentâs king and to have won the game. Leaving oneâs own king under attack, exposing oneâs own king to attack and also âcapturingâ the opponentâs king is not allowed. 1.4.2 The opponent whose king has been checkmated has lost the game. 1.5 If the position is such that neither player can possibly checkmate the opponentâs king, the game is drawn (see Article 5.2.2). Article 2: The Initial Position of the Pieces on the Chessboard 2.1 2.2 The chessboard is composed of an 8 x 8 grid of 64 equal squares alternately light (the âwhiteâ squares) and dark (the âblackâ squares). The chessboard is placed between the players in such a way that the near corner square to the right of the player is white. At the beginning of the game White has 16 light-coloured pieces (the âwhiteâ pieces); Black has 16 dark-coloured pieces (the âblackâ pieces). These pieces are as follows: A white king usually indicated by the symbol K A white queen Two white rooks Two white bishops Two white knights Eight white pawns A black king A black queen Two black rooks Two black bishops Two black knights Eight black pawns usually indicated by the symbol Q usually indicated by the symbol R usually indicated by the symbol B usually indicated by the symbol N usually indicated by the symbol usually indicated by the symbol K usually indicated by the symbol Q usually indicated by the symbol R usually indicated by the symbol B usually indicated by the symbol N usually indicated by the symbol Staunton Pieces p Q K B N R 9 2.3 The initial position of the pieces on the chessboard is as follows: 2.4 The eight vertical columns of squares are called âfilesâ. The eight horizontal rows of squares are called âranksâ. A straight line of squares of the same colour, running from one edge of the board to an adjacent edge, is called a âdiagonalâ. Article 3: The Moves of the Pieces 3.1 It is not permitted to move a piece to a square occupied by a piece of the same colour. 3.1.1 If a piece moves to a square occupied by an opponentâs piece the latter is captured and removed from the chessboard as part of the same move. 3.1.2 A piece is said to attack an opponentâs piece if the piece could make a capture on that square according to Articles 3.2 to 3.8. 3.1.3 A piece is considered to attack a square even if this piece is constrained from moving to that square because it would then leave or place the king of its own colour under attack. 3.2 The bishop may move to any square along a diagonal on which it stands. 3.3 The rook may move to any square along the file or the rank on which it stands. 3.4 The queen may move to any square along the file, the rank or a diagonal on which it stands. 3.5 3.6 3.7 When making these moves, the bishop, rook or queen may not move over any intervening pieces. The knight may move to one of the squares nearest to that on which it stands but not on the same rank, file or diagonal. 3.7 When making these moves, the bishop, rook or queen may not move over any intervening pieces. The knight may move to one of the squares nearest to that on which it stands but not on the same rank, file or diagonal. The pawn: 3.7.1 The pawn may move forward to the square immediately in front of it on the same file, provided that this square is unoccupied, or 3.7.2 on its first move the pawn may move as in 3.7.1 or alternatively it may advance two squares along the same file, provided that both squares are unoccupied, or 3.7.3 the pawn may move to a square occupied by an opponentâs piece diagonally in front of it on an adjacent file, capturing that piece. 3.7.3.1 A pawn occupying a square on the same rank as and on an adjacent file to an opponentâs pawn which has just advanced two squares in one move from its original square may capture this opponentâs pawn as though the latter had been moved only one square. 3.7.3.2 This capture is only legal on the move following this advance and is called an âen passantâ capture. 3.7.3.3 When a player, having the move, plays a pawn to the rank furthest from its starting position, he/she must exchange that pawn as part of the same move for a new queen, rook, bishop or knight of the same colour on the intended square of arrival. This is called the square of âpromotionâ. 3.7.3.4 The player's choice is not restricted to pieces that have been captured previously. 3.7.3.5 This exchange of a pawn for another piece is called promotion, and the effect of the new piece is immediate. 3.8 There are two different ways of moving the king: 3.8.1 by moving to an adjoining square. 3.8.2 by âcastlingâ. This is a move of the king and either rook of the same colour along the playerâs first rank, counting as a single move of the king and executed as follows: the king is transferred from its original square two squares towards the rook on its original square, then that rook is transferred to the square the king has just crossed. 3.8.2.1 The right to castle has been lost: 3.8.2.1.1 If the king has already moved, or 3.8.2.1.2 With a rook that has already moved. 3.8.2.2 Castling is prevented temporarily: 3.8.2.2.1 if the square on which the king stands, or the square which it must cross, or the square which it is to occupy, is attacked by one or more of the opponent's pieces, or 3.8.2.2.2 if there is any piece between the king and the rook with which castling is to be effected. 3.9 The king in check: 3.9.1 The king is said to be 'in check' if it is attacked by one or more of the opponent's pieces, even if such pieces are constrained from moving to the square occupied by the king because they would then leave or place their own king in check. 3.9.2 No piece can be moved that will either expose the king of the same colour to check or leave that king in check. 3.10 Legal and illegal moves; illegal positions: 3.10.1 A move is legal when all the relevant requirements of Articles 3.1 â 3.9 have been fulfilled. 3.10.2 A move is illegal when it fails to meet the relevant requirements of Articles 3.1 â3.9. 3.10.3 A position is illegal when it cannot have been reached by any series of legal moves. Article 4: The Act of Moving the Pieces 4.1 4.2 Each move must be played with one hand only. Adjusting the pieces or other physical contact with a piece: 4.2.1 Only the player having the move may adjust one or more pieces on their squares, provided that he/she first expresses his/her intention (for example by saying âjâadoubeâ or âI adjustâ). 4.2.2 Any other physical contact with a piece, except for clearly accidental contact, shall be considered to be intent. 4.3 Except as provided in Article 4.2.1, if the player having the move touches on the chessboard, with the intention of moving or capturing: 4.3.1 one or more of his/her own pieces, he/she must move the first piece touched that can be moved. 4.3.2 one or more of his/her opponentâs pieces, he/she must capture the first piece touched that can be captured. 4.3.3 one or more pieces of each colour, he/she must capture the first touched opponentâs piece with his/her first touched piece or, if this is illegal, move or capture the first piece touched that can be moved or captured. If it is unclear whether the playerâs own piece or his/her opponentâs was touched first, the playerâs own piece shall be considered to have been touched before his/her opponentâs. 4.4 If a player having the move: 4.4.1 touches his/her king and a rook he/she must castle on that side if it is legal to do so 4.4.2 deliberately touches a rook and then his/her king he/she is not allowed to castle on that side on that move and the situation shall be governed by Article 4.3.1. 4.4.3 intending to castle, touches the king and then a rook, but castling with this rook is illegal, the player must make another legal move with his/her king (which may include castling with the other rook). If the king has no legal move, the player is free to make any legal move. 4.4.4 promotes a pawn, the choice of the piece is finalised when the piece has touched the square of promotion. 4.5 4.6 If none of the pieces touched in accordance with Article 4.3 or Article 4.4 can be moved or captured, the player may make any legal move. The act of promotion may be performed in various ways: 4.6.1 the pawn does not have to be placed on the square of arrival. 4.6.2 removing the pawn and putting the new piece on the square of promotion may occur in any order. 4.6.3 If an opponentâs piece stands on the square of promotion, it must be captured. 4.7 When, as a legal move or part of a legal move, a piece has been released on a square, it cannot be moved to another square on this move. The move is considered to have been made in the case of: 4.7.1 A capture, when the captured piece has been removed from the chessboard and the player, having placed his/her own piece on its new square, has released this capturing piece from his/her hand. 4.7.2 Castling, when the player's hand has released the rook on the square previously crossed by the king. When the player has released the king from his/her hand, the move is not yet made, but the player no longer has the right to make any move other than castling on that side, if this is legal. If castling on this side is illegal, the player must make another legal move with his/her king (which may include castling with the other rook). If the king has no legal move, the player is free to make any legal move. 4.7.3 Promotion, when the player's hand has released the new piece on the square of promotion and the pawn has been removed from the board. 4.8 4.9 A player forfeits his/her right to claim against his/her opponentâs violation of Articles 4.1 â 4.7 once the player touches a piece with the intention of moving or capturing it. 4.8. A player forfeits his/her right to claim against his/her opponentâs violation of Articles 4.1 â 4.7 .4.9. If a player is unable to move the pieces, an assistant, who shall be acceptable to the arbiter, may be provided by the player to perform this operation. Article 5: The Completion of the Game 5.1.1 The game is won by the player who has checkmated his/her opponentâs king. This immediately ends the game, provided that the move producing the checkmate position was in accordance with Article 3 and Articles 4.2 â 4.7. 5.1.2 The game is lost by the player who declares he/she resigns (this immediately ends the game), unless the position is such that the opponent cannot checkmate the playerâs king by any possible series of legal moves. In this case the result of the game is a draw. 5.2.1 The game is drawn when the player to move has no legal move and his/her king is not in check. The game is said to end in âstalemateâ. This immediately ends the game, provided that the move producing the stalemate position was in accordance with Article 3 and Articles 4.2 â 4.7. 5.2.2 The game is drawn when a position has arisen in which neither player can checkmate the opponentâs king with any series of legal moves. The game is said to end in a âdead positionâ. This immediately ends the game, provided that the move producing the position was in accordance with Article 3 and Articles 4.2 â 4.7. 5.2.3 The game is drawn upon agreement between the two players during the game, provided both players have made at least one move. This immediately ends the game. COMPETITIVE RULES OF PLAY Article 6: The Chessclock 6.1 âChessclockâ means a clock with two time displays, connected to each other in such a way that only one of them can run at a time. âClockâ in the Laws of Chess means one of the two time displays. Each time display has a âflagâ. âFlag-fallâ means the expiration of the allotted time for a player. 6.2 Handling the chessclock: 6.2.1 During the game each player, having made his/her move on the chessboard, shall pause his/her own clock and start his/her opponentâs clock (that is to say, he/she shall press his/her clock). This âcompletesâ the move. A move is also completed if: 6.2.1.1 6.2.1.2 the move ends the game (see Articles 5.1.1, 5.2.1, 5.2.2, 9.2.1, 9.6.1 and 9.6.2), or the player has made his/her next move, when his/her previous move was not completed. 6.2.2 A player must be allowed to pause his/her clock after making his/her move, even after the opponent has made his/her next move. The time between making the move on the chessboard and pressing the clock is regarded as part of the time allotted to the player. 6.2.3 A player must press his/her clock with the same hand with which he/she made his/her move. It is forbidden for a player to keep his/her finger on the clock or to âhoverâ over it. 6.2.4 The players must handle the chessclock properly. It is forbidden to press it forcibly, to pick it up, to press the clock before moving or to knock it over. Improper clock handling shall be penalised in accordance with Article 12.9. 6.2.5 6.2.6 Only the player whose clock is running is allowed to adjust the pieces. If a player is unable to use the clock, an assistant, who must be acceptable to the arbiter, may be provided by the player to perform this operation. His/Her clock shall be adjusted by the arbiter in an equitable way. This adjustment of the clock shall not apply to the clock of a player with a disability. 6.3 Allotted time: 6.3.1 When using a chessclock, each player must complete a minimum number of moves or all moves in an allotted period of time including any additional amount of time added with each move. All these must be specified in advance. 6.3.2 The time saved by a player during one period is added to his/her time available for the next period, where applicable. In the time-delay mode both players receive an allotted âmain thinking timeâ. Each player also receives a âfixed extra timeâ with every move. The countdown of the main thinking time only commences after the fixed extra time has expired. Provided the player presses his/her clock before the expiration of the fixed extra time, the main thinking time does not change, irrespective of the proportion of the fixed extra time used. 6.4 Immediately after a flag falls, the requirements of Article 6.3.1 must be checked. 6.5 Before the start of the game the arbiter shall decide where the chessclock is placed. 6.6 At the time determined for the start of the game Whiteâs clock is started.6.7. Default time: 6.7.1 The regulations of an event shall specify a default time in advance. If the default time is not specified, then it is zero. Any player who arrives at the chessboard after the default time shall lose the game unless the arbiter decides otherwise. 6.7.2 If the regulations of an event specify that the default time is not zero and if neither player is present initially, White shall lose all the time that elapses until he/she arrives, unless the regulations of an event specify, or the arbiter decides otherwise. 6.8 A flag is considered to have fallen when the arbiter observes the fact or when either player has made a valid claim to that effect. 6.9 Except where one of Articles 5.1.1, 5.1.2, 5.2.1, 5.2.2, 5.2.3 applies, if a player does not complete the prescribed number of moves in the allotted time, the game is lost by that player. However, the game is drawn if the position is such that the opponent cannot checkmate the playerâs king by any possible series of legal moves. 6.10 Chessclock setting: 6.10.1 Every indication given by the chessclock is considered to be conclusive in the absence of any evident defect. A chessclock with an evident defect shall be replaced by the arbiter, who shall use his/her best judgement when determining the times to be shown on the replacement chessclock. 6.10.2 If during a game it is found that the setting of either or both clocks is incorrect, either player or the arbiter shall pause the chessclock immediately. The arbiter shall install the correct setting and adjust the times and move-counter, if necessary he/she shall use his/her best judgement when determining the clock settings. 6.11.1 If the game needs to be interrupted, the arbiter shall pause the chessclock. 6.11.2 A player may pause the chessclock only in order to seek the arbiterâs assistance, for example when promotion has taken place and the piece required is not available. 6.11.3 The arbiter shall decide when the game restarts. 6.11.4 If a player pauses the chessclock in order to seek the arbiterâs assistance, the arbiter shall determine whether the player had any valid reason for doing so. If the player has no valid reason for pausing the chessclock, the player shall be penalised in accordance with Article 12.9. 6.12.1 Screens, monitors, or demonstration boards showing the current position on the chessboard, the moves and the number of moves made/completed, and clocks which also show the number of moves, are allowed in the playing hall. 6.12.2 The player may not make a claim relying only on information shown in this manner.0:01 i pasticciotti presentano Federico II di 0:05 Sveia 0:07 Nel 0:09 1186 Costanza D'Alta Villa figlia del re 0:12 normno di Sicilia Ruggero II sposò ormai 0:16 trentenne Enrico VI di Svevia figlio 0:20 dell'imperatore Federico Barbarossa che 0:23 si servĂŹ di questo matrimonio per 0:26 stringere un'alleanza politica con la 0:28 monarchia siciliana 0:31 Purtroppo non fu un'unione felice sia 0:34 perchĂŠ il marito aveva 10 anni in meno 0:37 della moglie sia perchĂŠ lui non aveva un 0:40 bel carattere e pare che rinfacciasse 0:44 continuamente a costanza la sua etĂ 0:47 avanzata temendo che ciò fosse causa di 0:50 sterilitĂ 0:52 Alla morte di Federico Barbarossa nel 0:56 1190 Enrico VI ereditò dal padre il 1:00 titolo di imperatore del Sacro Romano 1:02 Impero ma era incapace di esercitare un 1:06 buon governo nei confronti dei sudditi 1:09 normanni che vivevano nel regno di 1:11 Sicilia portatogli in dote dalla moglie 1:14 Costanza 1:16 CosĂŹ nel 1:18 1994 Enrico partĂŹ per una spedizione in 1:22 Sicilia senza la moglie al seguito e 1:25 fece in modo di essere incoronato re di 1:28 Sicilia il giorno di Natale nella 1:31 cattedrale di 1:33 Palermo Lo stesso giorno Costanza che 1:36 era in avanzato stato di gravidanza e 1:39 stava viaggiando in direzione di Palermo 1:42 per raggiungere il marito si rese conto 1:44 di essere prossima al 1:47 parto Se oggi nessuno piĂš si meraviglia 1:50 della gravidanza di una quarantenne nel 1:52 Medioevo una gestazione a quell'etĂ 1:55 sembrava una cosa praticamente 1:57 impossibile Pertanto si erano alimentate 2:01 voci malevoli sulla vera condizione di 2:04 costanza e neppure il marito pareva 2:07 realmente convinto della gravidanza 2:09 della moglie E dato che Costanza prima 2:12 di sposarsi era stata per un periodo in 2:16 monastero circolava addirittura la voce 2:19 che nel suo grembo ci fosse 2:21 l'anticristo che secondo una leggenda 2:24 medievale sarebbe nato dall'unione di 2:26 una vecchia monaca con un 2:29 frate CosĂŹ Costanza decise di fermarsi 2:33 nella cittadina di Iesi e per fugare 2:36 ogni dubbio sulla sua gravidanza fece 2:39 allestire una tenda nella piazza 2:42 centrale della cittadina 2:44 marchigiana in modo da partorire al 2:47 cospetto di tutte le donne sposate del 2:50 paese Alcuni riferirono che il giorno 2:53 successivo al parto la regina lattò 2:56 pubblicamente il piccolo che poi fu 2:59 battezzato nella cattedrale di San 3:01 Ruffino di Assisi con il nome di 3:04 Federico 3:06 Ruggero Federico per indicare la 3:09 discendenza sveva quale nipote di 3:12 Federico 3:13 Barbarossa e Ruggero per sottolineare la 3:17 discendenza normanna dal primo re di 3:20 Sicilia Ruggero 3:23 d'Altavilla A soli 3 anni il piccolo 3:26 Federico rimase orfano e fu posto sotto 3:30 la tutela di Papa Innocenzo II da cui si 3:33 affrancò a 14 anni quando divenne prima 3:37 re di Sicilia e poi re di 3:41 Germania acquisendo il nome di Federico 3:44 II congiuntamente al titolo di 3:47 imperatore nel 1220 3:50 Ma Federico era piĂš interessato 3:53 all'Italia che alla 3:54 Germania CosĂŹ stabilĂŹ la sua corte in 3:57 Sicilia a 4:00 Palermo Federico II organizzò un regno 4:04 forte e 4:05 accentrato costruendo in tutta l'Italia 4:08 meridionale vari castelli dove collocò 4:11 le sue truppe che dovevano controllare 4:14 il territorio e sedare eventuali rivolte 4:18 Vanno menzionati in particolare il 4:21 castello di Melfi in Basilicata dove 4:25 furono promulgate le famose costituzioni 4:29 melfitane una raccolta di leggi scritte 4:32 rivolte a tutti gli abitanti del regno 4:35 con cui si limitavano i poteri dei 4:38 baroni locali e si vietava il ricorso 4:41 alla vendetta personale per affidarsi 4:44 invece alla giustizia stabilita dalle 4:47 leggi 4:48 C'era poi il castello di Trani che aveva 4:51 la funzione di sorvegliare l'ingresso 4:54 alla cittĂ e al porto E infine il 4:58 celeberrimo castel del Monte 5:01 caratterizzato da un'originale pianta 5:03 ottagonale attorniata da torri anch'esse 5:07 ottagonali che fungeva da dimora come 5:10 testimoniato dalla presenza di grandi 5:13 camini Uomo colto fine giurista 5:17 Amante dell'arte della letteratura 5:20 Federico II ospitò alla sua corte 5:22 studiosi e artisti provenienti da tutta 5:25 Europa Dialogò con intellettuali arabi e 5:29 fondò l'UniversitĂ di Napoli che ancora 5:32 oggi porta il suo 5:35 nome Con l'editto di Salerno regolamentò 5:38 per la prima volta la professione del 5:41 farmacista separandola di fatto da 5:44 quella del medico scrisse anche un libro 5:48 un manuale sulla falconeria e sull'arte 5:52 venatoria chiamato de Arte venandi cum 5:57 avibus ossia l'arte di cacciare con gli 6:01 uccelli che fu uno dei primi manoscritti 6:04 con disegni a tema 6:08 naturalistico In una nota alla sua morte 6:11 il monaco Matteo Paris lo chiamerĂ 6:14 stupor Mundi cioè stupore del mondo Un 6:19 appellativo che racchiude l'essenza 6:21 della sua inestinguibile curiositĂ 6:25 intellettuale che lo portò ad 6:27 approfondire la filosofia l'astrologia 6:30 la matematica l'algebra la medicina e le 6:34 scienze naturali ha al punto da 6:37 impiantare a Palermo persino uno zoo 6:40 famoso ai suoi tempi per il gran numero 6:43 di animali esotici che conteneva anche 6:46 un 6:47 elefante I rapporti col papo però non 6:51 furono idiaci 6:53 Sia Papa Onorio II che Gregorio Io detto 6:57 anche il Papa Guerriero lo costrinsero a 7:00 intraprendere una nuova crociata in 7:02 Terra Santa minacciando di scomunicarlo 7:06 qualora non l'avesse 7:08 fatto CosĂŹ dopo tanta insistenza da 7:11 parte del papato Federico si mise in 7:13 viaggio per la Terra Santa 7:16 Giunto in Oriente però non mosse guerra 7:19 ai musulmani ma preferĂŹ stringere 7:22 accordi con il sultano d'Egitto 7:25 ottenendo il controllo della cittĂ di 7:27 Gerusalemme e una tregua di 10 anni 7:32 Si trattava di conquiste importanti dal 7:34 punto di vista diplomatico ma al suo 7:37 ritorno Federico II fu accusato 7:40 duramente di essere sceso a patti con 7:42 gli 7:43 infedeli Nel suo programma di governo 7:47 Federico II era intenzionato a 7:49 riaffermare la sua autoritĂ sui comuni 7:52 del Nord Italia fatto che preoccupava il 7:56 Papa il quale temeva il rafforzamento 7:59 del potere imperiale anche a nord dello 8:02 Stato Pontificio giĂ confinante a sud 8:05 con il Regno di Sicilia 8:08 In pratica il Papa si sentiva 8:11 schiacciato sia a nord che a sud 8:14 dall'imperatore CosĂŹ Papa Gregorio Io 8:18 appoggiò alcuni comuni che si riunirono 8:20 nella Lega Lombarda e che furono detti 8:24 guelfi A questi si contrapposero i 8:27 comuni ghibellini che decisero di 8:30 schierarsi a sostegno 8:33 dell'imperatore Iniziò cosĂŹ una 8:35 lunghissima contesa che avrebbe 8:38 dilaniato le cittĂ 8:41 italiane Tutto 8:43 chiaro ciao e al prossimo 8:49 video Se questo video ti è piaciuto ti 8:52 chiedo di fare mi piace cliccando 8:53 sull'icona qui sotto Per me è molto 8:55 importante quindi grazie in anticipo se 8:57 lo farai Per essere informato ogni volta 8:59 che pubblico un nuovo video ricorda di 9:01 cliccare anche sul grande pulsante rosso 9:02 Iscriviti e sulla campanella di fianco 9:05 [Musica]