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âIf the area of a square is 25 square meters, what is the measurement of one side?
25 meters
100 meters
50 meters
5 meters
âIf the perimeter equals 18 inches and the width equals 5 inches, what is the measurement of one side length, in inches?
4 inches
90 inches
46 inches
If the area of a square is 25 square meters, what is the measurement of one side?
If the perimeter equals 18 inches and the width equals 5 inches, what is the measurement of one side length, in inches?
If the area of a rectangle is 18 square centimeters and the height is 3 centimeters, what is the measurement of one base?
If the perimeter of a rectangles is 40 cm and the length is 5 cm, what is the measurement of one side width, in cm?
The perimeter of the rectangle is 32 yards and the two missing sides have the same length. What is the length of one of the missing sides?
The perimeter of the rectangle is 42 centimeters and the two missing sides have the same length. What is the length of one of the missing sides?
The length of the rectangle is 10 centimeters. The area is 70 square centimeters.
What is the width of the rectangle?
The width of the rectangle is 7yards. The area is 42 square yards.
What is the length of the rectangle?
Patterns
Generate all of these 25 questions Part A: Each correct answer is worth 5. 1. The regular pentagon shown has a side length of 2 cm. The perimeter of the pentagon is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm (E) 10 cm 2 cm 2. The faces of a cube are labelled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots. Three of the faces are shown. What is the total number of dots on the other three faces? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 15 3. The equation that best represents \a number increased by _ve equals 15" is (A) n ô 5 = 15 (B) n _ 5 = 15 (C) n + 5 = 15 (D) n + 15 = 5 (E) n _ 5 = 15 4. The line graph shows the number of bobbleheads sold at a store each year. The sale of bobbleheads increased the most between (A) 2016 and 2017 (B) 2017 and 2018 (C) 2018 and 2019 (D) 2019 and 2020 (E) 2020 and 2021 Number of 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 Year Sale of Bobbleheads 2021 Bobbleheads 20 40 60 80 5. Starting at 72, Aryana counts down by 11s: 72; 61; 50; : : : . What is the last number greater than 0 that Aryana will count? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 6. In the diagram, \ABC = 90_. The value of x is (A) 68 (B) 23 (C) 56 (D) 28 (E) 26 Day of the Week 44° x° A B C x° 7. Which of the following values is closest to zero? (A) ô1 (B) 5 4 (C) 12 (D) ô4 5 (E) 0:9 Grade 8 8. A jar contains 267 quarters. One quarter is worth $0.25. How many quarters must be added to the jar so that the total value of the quarters is $100.00? (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 103 (D) 133 (E) 153 9. A package of 8 greeting cards comes with 10 envelopes. Kirra has 7 cards but no envelopes. What is the smallest number of packages that Kirra needs to buy to have more envelopes than cards? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7 10. For the points in the diagram, which statement is true? (A) e > c (B) b < d (C) f > b (D) a < e (E) a > c y x (e, f ) (a, b) (c, d ) Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. The 26 letters of the English alphabet are listed in an in_nite, repeating loop: ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY ZABC : : : What is the 258th letter in this sequence? (A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z 12. A public holiday is always celebrated on the third Wednesday of a certain month. In that month, the holiday cannot occur on which of the following days? (A) 16th (B) 22nd (C) 18th (D) 19th (E) 21st 13. A circular spinner is divided into three sections. An arrow is attached to the centre of the spinner. The arrow is spun once. The probability that the arrow stops on the largest section is 50%. The probability it stops on the next largest section is 1 in 3. The probability it stops on the smallest section is (A) 1 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 1 6 (D) 2 7 (E) 3 10 14. A positive number is divisible by both 3 and 4. The tens digit is greater than the ones digit. How many positive two-digit numbers have this property? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 15. A rectangular pool measures 20 m by 8 m. There is a 1 m wide walkway around the outside of the pool, as shown by the shaded region. The area of the walkway is (A) 56 m2 (B) 60 m2 (C) 29 m2 (D) 52 m2 (E) 50 m2 20 m 8 m 1 m Grade 8 16. The results of asking 50 students if they participate in music or sports are shown in the Venn diagram. What percentage of the 50 students do not participate in music and do not participate in sports? (A) 0% (B) 80% (C) 20% (D) 70% (E) 40% Music Sports 15 5 20 17. There are 2 3 as many golf balls in Bin F as in Bin G. If there are a total of 150 golf balls, how many fewer golf balls are in Bin F than in Bin G? (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 90 18. In the sequence shown, Figure 1 is formed using 7 squares. Each _gure after Figure 1 has 5 more squares than the previous _gure. What _gure has 2022 squares? (A) Figure 400 (B) Figure 402 (C) Figure 404 (D) Figure 406 (E) Figure 408 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 19. Mateo's 300 km trip from Edmonton to Calgary passed through Red Deer. Mateo started in Edmonton at 7 a.m. and drove until stopping for a 40 minute break in Red Deer. Mateo arrived in Calgary at 11 a.m. Not including the break, what was his average speed for the trip? (A) 83 km/h (B) 94 km/h (C) 90 km/h (D) 95 km/h (E) 64 km/h 20. Equilateral triangle ABC has sides of length 4. The midpoint of BC is D, and the midpoint of AD is E. The value of EC2 is (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 6:25 (D) 8 (E) 10 Part C: Each correct answer is worth 8. 21. The positive factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6. There are two perfect squares less than 100 that have exactly _ve positive factors. What is the sum of these two perfect squares? (A) 177 (B) 80 (C) 145 (D) 52 (E) 97 22. In the list p; q; r; s; t; u; v, each letter represents a positive integer. The sum of the values of each group of three consecutive letters in the list is 35. If q + u = 15, then p + q + r + s + t + u + v is (A) 85 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 75 Grade 8 23. The net shown is folded to form a cube. An ant walks from face to face on the cube, visiting each face exactly once. For example, ABCFED and ABCEFD are two possible orders of faces the ant visits. If the ant starts at A, how many possible orders are there? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 32 (D) 30 (E) 40 A D B C E F 24. The number 385 is an example of a three-digit number for which one of the digits is the sum of the other two digits. How many numbers between 100 and 999 have this property? (A) 144 (B) 126 (C) 108 (D) 234 (E) 64 25. Student A, Student B, and Student C have been hired to help scientists develop a new avour of juice. There are 4200 samples to test. Each sample either contains blueberry or does not. Each student is asked to taste each sample and report whether or not they think it contains blueberry. Student A reports correctly on exactly 90% of the samples containing blueberry and reports correctly on exactly 88% of the samples that do not contain blueberry. The results for all three students are shown below. Student A Student B Student C Percentage correct on samples 90% 98% (2m)% containing blueberry Percentage correct on samples 88% 86% (4m)% not containing blueberry Student B reports 315 more samples as containing blueberry than Student A. For some positive integers m, the total number of samples that the three students report as containing blueberry is equal to a multiple of 5 between 8000 and 9000. The sum of all such values of m is (A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D) 27 (E) 29
Q1. A teacher designs a lesson where students compute real-life percentages such as discounts and savings. đ A student calculates 15% of 200 to determine savings in a purchase. What is the correct result? A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 35 Q2. In a classroom activity, learners compare numbers to find the highest common factor for grouping materials evenly. đ What is the GCF of 24 and 36? A. 6 B. 8 C. 12 D. 18 đ FRACTIONS, DECIMALS, AND POWERS Q3. A learner converts fractions into percentages for data interpretation. đ What is 3/4 expressed as a percentage? A. 50% B. 60% C. 75% D. 80% Q4. A student models exponential growth using repeated multiplication. đ What is the value of 252^525? A. 25 B. 30 C. 32 D. 64 đ ALGEBRA (EQUATIONS AND EXPRESSIONS) Q5. A teacher guides students to solve equations that represent real-life situations. đ Solve: 2x+8=202x + 8 = 202x+8=20 A. x = 4 B. x = 6 C. x = 8 D. x = 10 Q6. Students simplify expressions to understand relationships between quantities. đ Simplify: 3(x+4)â2x3(x + 4) - 2x3(x+4)â2x A. x + 12 B. x + 4 C. 5x + 4 D. 5x + 12 đ FUNCTIONS AND GRAPHING Q7. A student analyzes a linear equation to determine its rate of change. đ What is the slope of y=3xâ5y = 3x - 5y=3xâ5? A. -5 B. -3 C. 3 D. 5 Q8. A learner evaluates functions to predict outcomes. đ If f(x)=2x+3f(x) = 2x + 3f(x)=2x+3, what is f(4)f(4)f(4)? A. 7 B. 9 C. 11 D. 14 đ GEOMETRY Q9. Students explore geometric shapes and their properties through visual models. đ What is the sum of interior angles of a triangle? A. 90° B. 180° C. 270° D. 360° Q10. A student calculates the area of a classroom table with dimensions 8 cm by 5 cm. đ What is the area? A. 26 sq cm B. 30 sq cm C. 40 sq cm D. 48 sq cm đ MEASUREMENT AND FIGURES Q11. A learner determines the volume of a cube used in a science experiment. đ What is the volume of a cube with side 4 cm? A. 16 cubic cm B. 32 cubic cm C. 48 cubic cm D. 64 cubic cm Q12. Students identify shapes used in design projects. đ How many sides does a hexagon have? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 đ STATISTICS AND PROBABILITY Q13. A teacher helps students interpret data sets using measures of central tendency. đ What is the mean of 4, 6, 8, 10, 12? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 Q14. A class experiment involves flipping a fair coin. đ What is the probability of getting heads? A. 1/4 B. 1/3 C. 1/2 D. 2/3 đ WORD PROBLEMS (APPLICATION) Q15. A car travels 180 km in 3 hours during a learning task on speed. đ What is its average speed? A. 45 km/h B. 60 km/h C. 75 km/h D. 90 km/h Q16. Students analyze work efficiency in a project. đ If 5 workers complete a task in 12 days, how long will 10 workers take? A. 3 days B. 6 days C. 8 days D. 12 days Q17. A student solves a problem involving ratios in a classroom population. đ If the ratio of boys to girls is 3:2 and there are 30 students, how many boys are there? A. 12 B. 15 C. 18 D. 20 Q18. A learner determines the duration of a scheduled trip. đ A journey starts at 8:30 AM and ends at 11:15 AM. How long is the trip? A. 2 hrs 15 mins B. 2 hrs 30 mins C. 2 hrs 45 mins D. 3 hrs 15 mins Q19. A student computes simple interest for financial literacy. đ What is the simple interest on â±1000 at 5% for 2 years? A. â±50 B. â±75 C. â±100 D. â±150 Q20. A learner solves a perimeter problem involving a rectangle. đ A rectangle has a length of 12 cm and perimeter of 34 cm. What is the width? A. 5 cm B. 7 cm C. 10 cm D. 11 cm â
ANSWER KEY (BASED ON YOUR REVIEWER) (All verified from your uploaded file) [ilide.info...002acd4e5a | PDF] QAnswer1C2C3C4C5B6A7C8C9B10C11D12B13B14C15B16B17C18C19C20A
Most of the functions of a eukaryotic cell are controlled by the nucleus, shown in Figure 4-12. The nucleus is filled with a jellylike liquid called the nucleoplasm, which holds the contents of the nucleus and is similar in function to a cellâs cytoplasm. The nucleus houses and protects the cellâs genetic information. The hereditary information that contains the instructions for the structure and function of the organism is coded in the organismâs DNA, which is contained in the nucleus. When a cell is not dividing, the DNA is in the form of a threadlike material called chromatin. When a cell is about to divide, the chromatin condenses to form chromosomes. Chromosomes are structures in the nucleus made of DNA and protein. The nucleus is the site where DNA is transcribed into ribonucleic acid (RNA). RNA moves through nuclear pores to the cytoplasm, where, depending on the type of RNA, it carries out its function. Nuclear Envelope The nucleus is surrounded by a double membrane called the nuclear envelope. The nuclear envelope is made up of two phos- pholipid bilayers. Covering the surface of the nuclear envelope are tiny, protein-lined holes, which are called nuclear pores. The nuclear pores provide passageways for RNA and other materials to enter and leave the nucleus. Nucleolus Most nuclei contain at least one denser area, called the nucleolus (noo-KLEE-uh-luhs). The nucleolus (plural, nucleoli) is the site where DNA is concentrated when it is in the process of making ribosomal RNA. Ribosomes (RIE-buh-SOHMZ) are organelles made of protein and RNA that direct protein synthesis in the cytoplasm. The nucleus of a cell is surrounded by a double membrane called the nuclear envelope. The nucleus stores the cellâs DNA. FIGURE 4-12 Nuclear envelope Nucleolus Nuclear pores DNA (chromatin) Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 80 CHAPTER 4 MITOCHONDRIA Mitochondria (MIET-oh-KAHN-dree-uh) (singular, mitochondrion) are tiny organelles that transfer energy from organic molecules to adenosine triphosphate (ATP). ATP ultimately powers most of the cellâs chemical reactions. Highly active cells, such as muscle cells, can have hundreds of mitochondria. Cells that are not very active, such as fat-storage cells, have few mitochondria. Like a nucleus, a mitochondrion has an inner and an outer phos- pholipid membrane, as shown in Figure 4-13. The outer membrane separates the mitochondrion from the cytosol. The inner membrane has many folds, called cristae (KRIS-tee). Cristae contain proteins that carry out energy-harvesting chemical reactions. Mitochondrial DNA Mitochondria have their own DNA and can reproduce only by the division of preexisting mitochondria. Scientists think that mito- chondria originated from prokaryotic cells that were incorporated into ancient eukaryotic cells. This symbiotic relationship provided the prokaryotic invaders with a protected place to live and pro- vided the eukaryotic cell with an increased supply of ATP. RIBOSOMES Ribosomes are small, roughly spherical organelles that are respon- sible for building protein. Ribosomes do not have a membrane. They are made of protein and RNA molecules. Ribosome assembly begins in the nucleolus and is completed in the cytoplasm. One large and one small subunit come together to make a functioning ribosome, shown in Figure 4-14. Some ribosomes are free within the cytosol. Others are attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
. Sports center manager / Leisure manager They conduct daily activities at sports complexes and recreational facilities with gyms, pools, and activity rooms. Individuals need a bachelor's degree in leisure and recreation, facility management, or hospitality. 3. Food truck manager They oversee the daily operations of food trucks at tourist attractions and unique event venues. They may be responsible for coordinating work schedules, obtaining food service licenses in different areas, and ordering food inventory as needed. Food truck managers need a minimum of a high school diploma but can also benefit from previous work experience. 4. Pastry chef They specialize in making various pastries and other desserts for bakeries, restaurants, and patisseries. They work closely with other kitchen staff and chefs to create dough mixtures, develop new recipes, decorate dessert items, and monitor the baking process to ensure a finished product. To become a pastry chef, individuals can either earn a high school diploma and develop their skills or attend a pastry arts program and earn an associate degree or bachelorâs degree. 5. Airport manager / Aviation manager They ensure efficient operations at an airport while ensuring that all airlines follow FAA (Federal Aviation Administration) guidelines. They hire and train airport personnel and monitor activities relating to They usually have a few years of work experience in a role at an airport, along with a bachelor's degree in airport management 6 security, customer service, and customer amenities, including onsite restaurants. and operations or aviation management. A professional certification can also be beneficial. 6. Spa manager They lead daily operations at spa facilities. Their duties include hiring and training spa employees and maintaining an up-to-date inventory of cosmetic products, sheets, towels, robes, and other items for skin treatments. Spa managers may also promote their spa by hiring freelance marketers or organizing advertisements for digital or print platforms. They also administer advanced therapies like facials and massages to customers. The education requirements include earning an associate's or bachelor's degree in hospitality or business management. Prospective spa managers also need a few years of work experience at a spa business. 7. Hotel assistant general manager They support the job duties of the hotel's general manager. They help the available manager interview job candidates, make hiring decisions, and coordinate training efforts for staff. Hotel assistant general managers may also cover shifts for general managers and act as temporary general managers when the manager is sick or on vacation. Individuals need a high school diploma and a few years of hotel experience. They may also benefit from earning an associate's degree or bachelor's degree in hospitality and tourism. 8. Tour manager They oversee tour bookers, tour guides, tour bus drivers, and marketing staff for a tour company. They schedule work shifts for tour guides, develop marketing Individuals can become tour managers by earning a high school diploma and working for a tour 7 strategies to increase tour bookings, and read tourist reviews to determine how they can improve their overall experience. They may also accompany clients when they travel and attend to their needs. company for a few years. They can also earn a bachelor's degree or master's degree in an area like hospitality and tourism management. 9. Cafe manager They oversee the daily operations of cafes in shopping centers, hotels, and other areas. They hire and train cafe staff, adjust coffee and bakery selections, handle complex customer questions, and ensure the cleanliness of their facilities. Cafe managers also create work schedules to provide enough staff during peak business hours. To become a cafe manager, individuals need a minimum of a high school diploma and previous experience working in a cafe as a barista or supervisor. 10. Activity manager They work for hotels and resorts, travel companies, and cruise liners to oversee guest activities and ensure guests have a pleasant experience. This may include planning guests' itineraries, offering guests tours of the local area, and developing fun activities within their facilities. Activity managers typically have bachelor's degrees in hospitality and tourism, event planning, or recreation. 11. Hotel sales coordinator They work for hotels and help create and manage their marketing and customer service strategies. They also work with a team of sales coordinators and hotel managers to research ways to increase bookings and retain customers. They may To become a hotel sales coordinator, individuals need a bachelor's degree in sales, marketing, hospitality, and tourism. 8 design special offers, create branding and promotional strategies, and follow up with guests after they check out. 12. Resort manager They oversee the daily activities at resort facilities. They typically monitor the resort's housekeeping activities, finances, and marketing materials. They manage different departments to assist with general maintenance and ensure a high guest satisfaction rate. To become a resort manager, individuals need experience working in the resort industry, either a bachelor's degree or master's degree in hotel management or hospitality and tourism. 13. Travel agent They work for travel agencies or as self-employed individuals to help clients book transport and hotel accommodations. Their duties may also involve creating a trip itinerary for their clients and helping them reschedule canceled flights or transfer accommodations. Prospective travel agents need a high school diploma and an interest in travel. They may also benefit from earning an associate's or bachelor's degree in hospitality and tourism management or applying for a professional travel agent certification. Travel agents often start as employees and become managers as their careers progress. 9 14. Catering manager They oversee a kitchen and server staff team for a catering company or event venue. They hire and train catering staff and work with one or more chefs to create an effective catering menu. They also design schedules for staff members, depending on the time required to set up and prepare food before an event. To become a catering manager, individuals can benefit from earning either an associate degree or a bachelor's degree in an area like hospitality or food service. 15. Entertainment manager They collaborate with resorts, cruise liners, hotels, and other accommodations to book singers, musicians, dance groups, comedians, and other entertainers to perform for guests. Their duties include holding auditions for potential talent, scheduling bookings, and negotiating with clients to determine price points. They oversee many aspects of events, including their production and financing. To become an entertainment manager, individuals can attend a four-year bachelor's degree program in hospitality, tourism management, event planning, or events and entertainment. 16. Guest services manager They assist hotel guests with their needs from when they check in to when they check out. They provide guests with room keys, organize baggage assistance, and delegate tasks to other staff like housekeepers, front desk employees, or room service personnel. They're also responsible for hiring and training the guest services staff. This position typically requires a minimum of a high school diploma and a few years of guest service experience. 10 17. Director of Housekeeping They work for a hotel, cruise line, or resort and manage its housekeeping staff. They maintain clean facilities for all guests by hiring and training housekeeping staff and monitoring inventory, including cleaning supplies, towels, bedsheets, and guest amenities. Housekeeping directors can benefit from earning a bachelor's degree in hospitality management and gaining several years of experience in the cleaning service industry. 18. Park manager They work at public and amusement parks and help develop marketing and promotional strategies to increase visitors. They may work with facilities managers to ensure the park remains clean and well-maintained. They also manage the park's budget, train managers in individual departments, and develop inclement weather or emergency policies. Prospective park managers need a bachelor's degree in leisure and recreation, management, or landscape design. 19. Food service director They work for hotels, cruises, and other accommodations to oversee food service operations for guests. Their job duties include developing a budget for food inventory and supplies, relaying information to food and beverage managers and kitchen staff, approving menu and drink ideas, and ensuring the quality of the food and dining operations. Directors at large hotels or other organizations may also To become a food service director, a bachelor's or master's degree in hospitality management, food service management, or culinary arts is necessary. 11 oversee the room service and catering from multiple restaurants. 20. Travel consultant They assist individuals, educational institutions, and corporations with their travel needs. They meet with clients to discuss their travel options to a destination and determine whether they need a passport, vaccinations, or weatherappropriate attire; they also help them find discounted hotels and airlines and arrange accommodations for clients with medical conditions and special needs. A high school diploma and a voluntary certification are typically necessary to become a travel consultant. An associate or bachelor's degree in tourism, international studies, or hospitality can also be beneficial.
1. What calm area near the Equator is characterized by minimal wind movement? Answer: Doldrums 2. What are visible accumulations of tiny water droplets or ice crystals in the air called? Answer: Clouds 3. Which cloud type is high, thin, and made of ice crystals? Answer: Cirrus 4. What do we call the apparent deflection of winds and currents due to Earthâs rotation? Answer: Coriolis effect 5. In which hemisphere do storms rotate clockwise? Answer: Southern Hemisphere 6. What are winds that blow consistently from one direction over a specific area called? Answer: Prevailing winds 7. What is the area where prevailing winds meet called? Answer: Convergence zone 8. Which wind zone blows from the polar regions toward the mid-latitudes? Answer: Polar easterlies 9. In which hemisphere do storms rotate counterclockwise? Answer: Northern Hemisphere 10. Which wind zone blows from west to east across the mid-latitudes? Answer: Westerlies 11. What are the calm areas around 30° north and south latitude with little precipitation called? Answer: Horse latitudes 12. What winds blow toward the Equator from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and from the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere? Answer: Trade winds 13. Which cloud type is mid-level and blankets the sky, often bringing overcast weather? Answer: Stratus 14. Which cloud type is puffy and can bring heavy rain or snow depending on height? Answer: Cumulus 15. What prefixes indicate the height of clouds in the atmosphere? Answer: Cirro-, alto-, nimbo-
GUIDELINES ON THE ESTABLISHMENT AND IMPLEMENTATION OF THE RESULTS-BASED PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM IN THE DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION I. Rationale 1. The Civil Service Commission (CSC), through the issuance of Memorandum Circular (MC) No. 06, series of 2012, sets the guidelines on the establishment and implementation of the Strategic Performance Management System (SPMS) in all government agencies. The SPMS gives emphasis to the strategic alignment of the agencyâs thrusts with the day-to-day operation of the units and individual personnel within the organization. It focuses on measures of performance vis-a-vis the targeted milestones, and provides a credible and verifiable basis for assessing the organizational outcomes and the collective performance of the government employees. 2. As a learner-centered institution, the Department of Education (DepEd) is committed to continuously improve itself to better serve the Filipino learners and the community. The adoption of the SPMS in DepEd strengthens the culture of performance and accountability in the agency, with the DepEdâs mandate, vision and mission at its core. 3. There is a need to concretize the linkage between the organizational thrusts and the performance management system. It is important to ensure organizational effectiveness and track individual improvement and efficiency by cascading the institutional accountabilities to the various levels, units and individual personnel, as anchored on the establishment of a rational and factual basis for performance targets and measures. Finally, it is necessary to link the SPMS with other systems relating to human resources and to ensure adherence to the principle of performance-based tenure and incentives. 4. In view of the above, this Order aims to adopt the SPMS as the Results-based Performance Management System (RPMS). II. Scope of Policy 5. This DepEd Order provides for the establishment and implementation of the RPMS in all DepEd schools and offices, covering all officials and employees, school-based and non school-based, in the Department holding regular plantilla positions. It stipulates the specific mechanisms, criteria and processes for the performance target setting, monitoring, evaluation and development planning. IV. Policy Statement 9. The DepEd hereby sets the guidelines on the establishment and implementation of the Results-based Performance Management System (RPMS) in the Department, stipulating the strategies, methods, tools and rewards for assessing the accomplishments vis-a-vis the commitments. This will be used for measuring and rewarding higher levels of performance of the various units and development planning of all personnel in all levels. 10. For non school-based personnel, the RPMS shall provide for an objective and verifiable basis for rating and ranking the performance of units and individual personnel in view of the granting of the Performance-Based Bonus (PBB) starting 2015. 11. For school-based personnel, the RPMS shall be used only as an appraisal tool, which shall be the basis for training and development. The granting of PBB shall be governed by the existing PBB guidelines. 12. The Department shall adopt the RPMS framework shown in Annex B. 13. The DepEd RPMS shall follow the four-stage performance management system cycle as prescribed by the CSC: i. Performance planning and commitment (Phase I); ii. Performance monitoring and coaching (Phase II); iii. Performance review and evaluation (Phase III); and iv. Performance rewarding and development planning (Phase IV). V. Performance Cycle/Process 14. The RPMS shall align the performance targets and accomplishments with the Departmentâs mandate, vision, mission and strategic goals. It shall ensure 100% results orientation vis-a-vis the planned targets. On the other hand, the rateeâs demonstration of the required competencies shall be monitored for developmental purposes only. 15. The RPMS cycle shall cover performance for one whole year. All school-based personnel shall follow a performance cycle starting in April of the current year and ending in March of the following year; while non school-based personnel shall follow a performance cycle starting in January and ending in December. Annexes C and D illustrate the performance cycles which shall apply to school-based and non school-based personnel, respectively. 16. The performance planning and commitment shall be done prior to the beginning of the performance cycle; while the performance monitoring and coaching shall take place immediately after Phase I, and continue throughout the performance cycle. The performance review and evaluation, as well as the performance rewarding and development planning shall be done at the end of the performance cycle. A. Phase I: Performance Planning and Commitment 17. The performance planning and commitment shall be done prior to the start of the performance cycle where the rater meets with the ratee to discuss and agree on the following: i. Office KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators as anchored to the overall organizational outcomes; and ii. Individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators as anchored to the Office KRAs and Objectives. 18. The Office Performance Commitment and Review Form (OPCRF) shall be accomplished by the head of office to reflect the Office KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall ensure alignment of the office plans and commitments to the overall organizational outcomes. The OPCRF shall be equivalent to the IPCRF of the head of office. A sample of the filled out OPCRF, including the instructions for accomplishing the form, is shown in Annex E. 19. The Individual Performance Commitment and Review Form (IPCRF) shall be accomplished by the individual personnel to reflect the agreed Individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators. A sample of the filled out IPCRF, including the instructions for accomplishing the form, is shown in Annex F. 20. Defining the Key Result Areas. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall define the office KRAs as anchored on the overall organizational outcomes. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the break down of the office KRAs into individual KRAs. Three (3) to five (5) KRAs shall be defined for each office and individual employee. KRAs are broad categories of general outputs or outcomes. It is the mandate or function of the office and/or individual employee. The KRA is the reason why an office and/or job exist. It is an area where the office and/or individual employee are expected to focus on. 21. Setting the Objectives. The head of office shall set three (3) objectives per office KRA. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on three (3) objectives per individual KRA. Objectives are specific tasks, which an office and/or employee need to do to achieve their specific KRAs. In objective setting, the SMART criteria, which stands for Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time Bound, shall be applied. The SMART criteria are illustrated in Annex G. 22. Setting the Timeline. The timeline shall define the target date for accomplishing each of the Objectives. The timeline for the office Objectives shall be set by the head of office in coordination with the Planning Office and School Planning Team; while the timeline for the individual Objectives shall be discussed and agreed by the rater and the ratee. 23. Assigning the Weight. Assigning of weights shall be done per KRA. Weights for each office KRA shall be assigned by the head of office in coordination with the Planning Office; while the weights for each of the individual KRAs shall be discussed and agreed upon by the rater and the ratee. 24. Identifying the Performance Indicators. Using a five (5)-point rating scale, the head of office shall identify a performance indicator for each of the office objectives, while the rater and the ratee shall identify and agree on the performance indicator for each of the individual objectives. Performance indicators are exact quantification of objectives expressed through rubrics. They are assessment tools, which gauge whether a performance is positive or negative. In identifying the performance indicator, the operational definition or meaning of each numerical rating shall be indicated under each relevant dimension (i.e., quality, efficiency, or timeliness) per performance target or success indicator. This shall ensure that the rating is objective, impartial and verifiable. Table 1 below discusses the performance measures by which the indicator must satisfy. Table 1. Performance Measures CATEGORY DEFINITION Effectiveness/Quality The extent to which actual performance compares with targeted performance. The degree to which objectives are achieved and the extent to which targeted problems are solved. In management, effectiveness relates to getting the right things done. Efficiency The extent to which time or resources is used for the intended task or purpose. Measures whether targets are accomplished with a minimum amount or quantity of waste, expense, or unnecessary effort. Timeliness Measures whether the deliverable was done on time based on the requirements of the rules and regulations, and/or clients/stakeholders. Time-related performance indicators evaluate such things as project completion deadlines, time management skills and other time-sensitive expectations. Some Performances are only rated on quality and efficiency, some on quality and timeliness, and others on efficiency only. You need not use all three (3) categories. 25. Demonstration of Competencies. During Phase I, the rater shall discuss with the ratee the competencies required of the individual personnel. Competencies are defined as the knowledge, skills and behavior that individuals demonstrate in achieving oneâs results. Competencies shall uphold the DepEdâs core values. They represent the way individuals define and live the values. 26. DepEd shall adopt four classes of competencies as follows: i. Core behavioral competencies are competencies, which cut across the organization; ii. Leadership competencies are competencies intended for managerial positions; a. Third level officials b. Chiefs and Assistant Chiefs c. School Heads and Department Heads iii. Staff Core Skills are competencies intended for staff and teaching-related personnel; and iv. Teaching competencies are competencies intended for teachers. The DepEd-required competencies are illustrated in Annex I. 27. The rateeâs demonstration of the required competencies shall be monitored to effectively plan the interventions needed for behavioral and professional development. The assessment in the demonstration of competencies shall not be reflected in the final rating. 28. Reaching Agreement. Once the office and individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators are clearly defined, the rater and the ratee shall commit and reach an agreement by signing the OPCRF and IPCRF. The signed/approved OPCRF and IPCRF shall be the basis for monitoring and assessment, which shall take place in Phases II and III, respectively. B. Phase II: Performance Monitoring and Coaching 29. The performance monitoring and coaching shall commence after the rater and the ratee commit on the KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators, and sign the OPCRF and IPCRF. This shall be done throughout the year. 30. The two (2) main components of Phase II are the following: i. Performance monitoring; and ii. Coaching and feedback. 31. Performance monitoring shall provide key inputs and objective basis for rating. It shall facilitate feedback and provide evidence of performance. Performance monitoring shall be the responsibility of both the rater and the ratee who agree to track and record significant incidents through the use of the Performance Monitoring and Coaching Form (PMCF) shown in Annex J. Significant incidents are actual events and behaviors in which both positive and negative performances are observed and documented. 32. Coaching and feedback shall be a continuous process. Coaching and feedback shall be provided by the rater and/or shall be sought by the ratee to improve work performance and behavior. The rater, as the coach or mentor of the ratee, playing a critical role in the performance monitoring and coaching, shall provide an enabling environment and intervention to improve the office performance and to manage and develop individual potentials. 33. The PMCF shall capture the significant incidents. It shall provide a record of demonstrated behaviors, competencies and performance, and shall be an effective substitute in the absence of quantifiable data. The rater and the ratee shall sign each significant incident recorded in the PMCF to ensure that agreement has been reached. C. Phase III: Performance Review and Evaluation 34. The performance review and evaluation shall be done at the end of the performance cycle to assess the office and individual employeeâs performance level based on the commitments and measures as contained in the signed OPCRF and IPCRF. 35. A mid-year review is prescribed to determine the progress in achieving the Objectives. In exceptional cases, and only if the situation warrants, a one-time recalibration of office and individual Objectives shall be allowed during the mid-year review. Exceptional cases shall include instances when high level decisions are taken into effect such as changes in strategic directions, and circumstances beyond the control of the ratee such as natural and/or man-made calamities, including typhoon, earthquake and other fortuitous events. During the mid-year review, the rater shall inform in writing the ratee of the status of performance, in case of an Unsatisfactory or Poor performance. Coaching, feedback and appropriate interventions shall be provided where necessary. 36. The RPMS shall put premium on KRAs towards the realization of organizational vision, mission, strategic priorities and the OPIF logframe. Hence, rating for planned and/or intervening tasks shall always be supported by reports, documents or any output as proofs of actual performance. In the absence of said bases or proofs, a particular task shall not be rated and shall be disregarded. 37. Office and Individual Performance Assessment. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall assess the performance of the office vis-a-vis the committed targets at the beginning of the performance cycle. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the individual assessment based on the actual accomplishments of each of the KRAs and Objectives. The final rating shall be based solely on the accomplishment of the specific objectives as measured by the Performance Indicators. The OPCRF and IPCRF shall be accomplished and completed by the rater and the ratee to: i. Reflect actual accomplishments and results; ii. Rate each of the objectives; iii. Compute for the score per objective; iv. Determine the overall rating for accomplishments; v. Reach an agreement; and vi. Assess the competencies. 38. Initial self-rating shall be encouraged prior to the rater-ratee discussion. 39. Third Level Officials, as heads of offices, shall accomplish the OPCRF for submission to the Planning Office. The individual assessment of Third Level Officials shall be contained in the CESPES Forms for submission to the Career Executive Service Board (CESB). The BHROD and Personnel Division shall be furnished a copy of both forms. 40. Actual Results. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the actual accomplishments and results based on the performance commitments and measures made at the beginning of the rating period. They shall evaluate each objective whether it has been achieved or not. The significant incidents as reflected in the PMCF shall be considered for the actual results. 41. Rating the Objectives. Based on the actual accomplishments and results, each of the Objectives shall be rated using the rating scale specified below: Table 2. The RPMS Rating Scale NUMERICAL RATING ADJECTIVAL RATING DESCRIPTION OF MEANING OF RATING 5 Outstanding Performance represents an extraordinary level of achievement and commitment in terms of quality and time, technical skills and knowledge, ingenuity, creativity and initiative. Employees at this performance level should have demonstrated exceptional job mastery in all major areas of responsibility. Employee achievement and contributions to the organization are of marked excellence. 4 Very Satisfactory Performance exceeded expectations. All goals, objectives and targets were achieved above the established standards. 3 Satisfactory Performance met expectations in terms of quality of work, efficiency and timeliness. The most critical annual goals were met. 2 Unsatisfactory Performance failed to meet expectations, and/or one or more of the most critical goals were not met. 1 Poor Performance was consistently below expectations, and/or reasonable progress toward critical goals was not made. Significant improvement is needed in one or more important areas. The final assessment shall correspond to the adjectival description of Outstanding, Very Satisfactory, Satisfactory, Unsatisfactory or Poor. The range of adjectival rating is as per attached in Forms A, B, and C. 42. Process for Computing the Score per KRA. i. The rater and ratee shall ensure that each KRA has been assigned weight according to priority. ii. As an option, the rater and ratee may assign weights to objectives which shall be equal to the total weight assigned to a particular KRA. KRA 1 â Weight assigned is 40% Objective 1 is 20% Objective 2 is 10% Objective 3 is 10% iii. The score per KRA shall be computed using the following formula: 43. Plus Factor. The plus factor shall be considered as another KRA. These are value adding accomplishments, which are not covered within the regular duties and responsibilities. The weight on the plus factor shall not exceed the weight of the highest mandated KRA. For teachers, the plus factor shall be limited to work/activities, which contribute to the teaching-learning process. 44. Determining the Overall Rating for Accomplishments. The overall rating/assessment for the accomplishments shall fall within the following adjectival ratings and shall be in three (3) decimal points: Table 3. Adjectival Ratings RANGE ADJECTIVAL RATING 4.500-5.000 Outstanding 3.500-4.499 Very Satisfactory 2.500-3.499 Satisfactory 1.500-2.499 Unsatisfactory below 1.499 Poor 45. Reaching Agreement. Upon determining the overall rating for the actual accomplishments and results, the rater and the ratee shall reach an agreement by signing the OPCRF and IPCRF. The average rating of individual staff members should not go higher than the collective performance assessment of the office. 46. Assessing the Competencies. The rater shall discuss with the ratee the set of competencies observed during the performance cycle. The competencies shall not be reflected in the final rating. Competencies shall be monitored for developmental purposes. In evaluating the individualâs demonstration of competencies, the rating scale in Table 4 shall apply: Table 4. The DepEd Competencies Scale SCALE DEFINITION 5 Role model 4 Consistently demonstrates 3 Most of the time demonstrates 2 Sometimes demonstrates 1 Rarely demonstrates 5 (role model) â all competency indicators 4 (consistently demonstrates) â four competency indicators 3 (most of the time demonstrates) â three competency indicators 2 (sometimes demonstrates) â two competency indicators 1 (rarely demonstrates) â one competency indicator D. Phase IV: Performance Rewarding and Development Planning 47. The results of the performance review and evaluation shall be used in performance rewarding and development planning. This phase shall be done after Phase III. 48. The rater shall discuss and provide qualitative comments, observations and recommendations in the individual employeeâs performance commitment, competency assessment and significant incidents which shall be used for training and professional development. These can be written under the strengths and development needs column of the Part IV-Development Plans of the IPCRF. 49. The rater and the ratee shall identify and discuss the individualâs strengths and development needs, and reflect them in the Part IV-Development Plans of the IPCRF. The competencies which the ratee demonstrated consistently and the areas, where the ratee meet or exceed expectations shall be referred to as the rateeâs strengths. The competencies, which the ratee rarely demonstrates and the areas where the ratee has room for improvement and has not met the expectations, shall be identified as the rateeâs development needs. Make a situational SOLO-based questions in the context of school leadership
MYTH The British helped the Jews displace the native Arab population of Palestine. FACT Herbert Samuel, a British Jew who served as the first High Commissioner of Palestine, placed restrictions on Jewish immigration âin the âinterests of the present populationâ and the âabsorptive capacityâ of the country.â1 The influx of Jewish settlers was said to force the Arab fellahin (native peasants) from their land. This was when less than a million people lived in an area that now supports more than nine million. The British limited the absorptive capacity of Palestine when, in 1921, Colonial Secretary Winston Churchill severed nearly four-fifths of Palestineâsome thirty-five thousand square milesâto create a new Arab entity, Transjordan. As a consolation prize for the Hejaz and Arabia (which are both now Saudi Arabia) going to the Saud family, Churchill rewarded Sharif Husseinâs son Abdullah for his contribution to the war against Turkey by installing him as Transjordanâs emir. The British went further and placed restrictions on Jewish land purchases in what remained of Palestine. By 1949, the British had allotted 87,500 acres of the 187,500 acres of cultivable land to Arabs and only 4,250 acres to Jews. This contradicted Article 6 of the Mandate which stated that âthe Administration of PalestineâŠshall encourage, in cooperation with the Jewish AgencyâŠclose settlement by Jews on the land, including State lands and waste lands not acquired for public purposes.â2 Ultimately, the British admitted that the argument about the countryâs absorptive capacity was specious. The Peel Commission said, âThe heavy immigration in the years 1933â36 would seem to show that the Jews have been able to enlarge the absorptive capacity of the country for Jews.â3 MYTH The British allowed Jews to flood Palestine while Arab immigration was tightly controlled. FACT The British response to Jewish immigration set a precedent of appeasing the Arabs, which was followed for the duration of the Mandate. The British restricted Jewish immigration while allowing Arabs to enter the country freely. Apparently, London did not feel that a flood of Arab immigrants would affect the countryâs âabsorptive capacity.â During World War I, the Jewish population in Palestine declined because of the war, famine, disease, and expulsion by the Turks. In 1915, approximately 83,000 Jews lived in Palestine among 590,000 Muslim and Christian Arabs. According to the 1922 census, the Jewish population was 83,000, while the Arabs numbered 643,000.4 Thus, the Arab population grew exponentially while that of the Jews stagnated. In the mid-1920s, Jewish immigration to Palestine increased primarily because of anti-Jewish economic legislation in Poland and Washingtonâs imposition of restrictive quotas.5 The record number of immigrants in 1935 (see table) was a response to the growing persecution of Jews in Nazi Germany. The British administration considered this number too large, however, so the Jewish Agency was informed that less than one-third of the quota it asked for would be approved in 1936.6 The British gave in further to Arab demands by announcing in the 1939 White Paper that an independent Arab state would be created within ten years and that Jewish immigration was to be limited to 75,000 for the next five years, after which it was to cease altogether. It also forbade land sales to Jews in 95% of the territory of Palestine. The Arabs, nevertheless, rejected the proposal. Jewish Immigration to Palestine7 1919 1,806 1931 4,075 1920 8,223 1932 12,533 1921 8,294 1933 37,337 1922 8,685 1934 45,267 1923 8,175 1935 66,472 1924 13,892 1936 29,595 1925 34,386 1937 10,629 1926 13,855 1938 14,675 1927 3,034 1939 31,195 1928 2,178 1940 10,643 1929 5,249 1941 4,592 1930 4,944 By contrast, throughout the Mandatory period, Arab immigration was unrestricted. In 1930, the Hope Simpson Commission, sent from London to investigate the 1929 Arab riots, said the British practice of ignoring the uncontrolled illegal Arab immigration from Egypt, Transjordan, and Syria had the effect of displacing the prospective Jewish immigrants.8 The British governor of the Sinai from 1922 to 1936 observed, âThis illegal immigration was not only going on from the Sinai, but also from Transjordan and Syria, and it is very difficult to make a case out for the misery of the Arabs if at the same time their compatriots from adjoining states could not be kept from going in to share that misery.â9 The Peel Commission reported in 1937 that the âshortfall of land isâŠdue less to the amount of land acquired by Jews than to the increase in the Arab population.â10 MYTH The British changed their policy to allow Holocaust survivors to settle in Palestine. FACT The gates of Palestine remained closed for the duration of the war, stranding hundreds of thousands of Jews in Europe, many of whom became victims of Hitlerâs âFinal Solution.â After the war, the British refused to allow the survivors of the Nazi nightmare to find sanctuary in Palestine. On June 6, 1946, President Truman urged the British government to relieve the suffering of the Jews confined to displaced persons camps in Europe by immediately accepting 100,000 Jewish immigrants. Britainâs foreign minister Ernest Bevin replied sarcastically that the United States wanted displaced Jews to immigrate to Palestine âbecause they did not want too many of them in New York.â11 Some Jews reached Palestine, many smuggled in on dilapidated ships organized by the Haganah. Between August 1945 and the establishment of the State of Israel in May 1948, sixty-five âillegalâ immigrant ships, carrying 69,878 people, arrived from European shores. In August 1946, however, the British began to intern those they caught in camps on Cyprus. Approximately 50,000 people were detained in the camps, and 28,000 remained imprisoned when Israel declared independence.12 MYTH As the Jewish population grew, the plight of the Palestinian Arabs worsened. FACT In July 1921, Hasan Shukri, the mayor of Haifa and president of the Muslim National Associations, sent a telegram to the British government in reaction to a delegation of Palestinians that went to London to try to stop the implementation of the Balfour Declaration. Shukri wrote: We are certain that without Jewish immigration and financial assistance there will be no future development of our country as may be judged from the fact that the towns inhabited in part by Jews such as Jerusalem, Jaffa, Haifa, and Tiberias are making steady progress while Nablus, Acre, and Nazareth where no Jews reside are steadily declining.13 The Jewish population increased by 470,000 between World War I and World War II, while the non-Jewish population rose by 588,000.14 The permanent Arab population increased by 120% between 1922 and 1947.15 This rapid growth of the Arab population was a result of several factors. One was immigration from neighboring statesâconstituting 37% of the total immigration to pre-state Israelâby Arabs who wanted to take advantage of the higher standard of living the Jews had made possible.16 The Arab population also grew because of the improved living conditions created by the Jews as they drained malarial swamps and brought improved sanitation and health care to the region. Thus, for example, the Muslim infant mortality rate fell from 201 per thousand in 1925 to 94 per thousand in 1945, and life expectancy rose from 37 years in 1926 to 49 in 1943.17 The Arab population increased the most in cities where large Jewish populations had created new economic opportunities. From 1922â1947, the non-Jewish population increased by 290% in Haifa, 131% in Jerusalem, and 158% in Jaffa. The growth in Arab towns was more modest: 42% in Nablus, 78% in Jenin, and 37% in Bethlehem.18 MYTH Jews stole Arab land. FACT Despite the growth in their population, the Arabs continued to assert they were being displaced. From the beginning of World War I, however, part of Palestineâs land was owned by absentee landlords who lived in Cairo, Damascus, and Beirut. About 80% of the Palestinian Arabs were debt-ridden peasants, semi-nomads, and Bedouins.19 Jews went out of their way to avoid purchasing land in areas where Arabs might be displaced. They sought land that was largely uncultivated, swampy, cheap, andâmost importantâwithout tenants. In 1920, Labor Zionist leader David Ben-Gurion expressed his concern about the Arab fellahin, whom he viewed as âthe most important asset of the native population.â He insisted that âunder no circumstances must we touch land belonging to fellahs or worked by them.â Instead, he advocated helping liberate them from their oppressors. âOnly if a fellah leaves his place of settlement,â Ben-Gurion added, âshould we offer to buy his land, at an appropriate price.â20 Jews only began to purchase cultivated land after buying all the uncultivated territory. Many Arabs were willing to sell because of the migration to coastal towns and because they needed money to invest in the citrus industry.21 When John Hope Simpson arrived in Palestine in May 1930, he observed, âThey [the Jews] paid high prices for the land and, in addition, they paid to certain of the occupants of those lands a considerable amount of money which they were not legally bound to pay.â22 In 1931, Lewis French conducted a survey of landlessness for the British government and offered new plots to any Arabs who had been âdispossessed.â British officials received more than 3,000 applications, of which 80% were ruled invalid by the governmentâs legal adviser because the applicants were not landless Arabs. This left only about 600 landless Arabs, 100 of whom accepted the government land offer.23 In April 1936, a new outbreak of Arab attacks on Jews was instigated by local Palestinian leaders who were later joined by Arab volunteers led by a Syrian guerrilla named Fawzi al-Qawuqji, the commander of the Arab Liberation Army. By November, when the British finally sent a new commission headed by Lord Peel to investigate, 89 Jews had been killed and more than 300 wounded.24 The Peel Commissionâs report found that Arab complaints about Jewish land acquisition were baseless. It pointed out that âmuch of the land now carrying orange groves was sand dunes or swamp and uncultivated when it was purchasedâŠThere was at the time of the earlier sales little evidence that the owners possessed either the resources or training needed to develop the land.â25 Moreover, the Commission found the shortage was âdue less to the amount of land acquired by Jews than to the increase in the Arab population.â The report concluded that the presence of Jews in Palestine, along with the work of the British administration, had resulted in higher wages, an improved standard of living, and ample employment opportunities.26 It is made quite clear to all, both by the map drawn up by the Simpson Commission and by another compiled by the Peel Commission, that the Arabs are as prodigal in selling their land as they are in useless wailing and weeping (emphasis in the original). âTransjordanâs king Abdullah27 Even at the height of the Arab revolt in 1938 (which began in April 1936 with the murder of two Jews by Arabs and the subsequent murder of two Arab workers by members of the Jewish underground28), the British high commissioner to Palestine believed the Arab landowners were complaining about sales to Jews to drive up prices for lands they wished to sell. Many Arab landowners had been so terrorized by Arab rebels they decided to leave Palestine and sell their property to the Jews.29 The Jews paid exorbitant prices to wealthy landowners for small tracts of arid land. âIn 1944, Jews paid between $1,000 and $1,100 per acre in Palestine, mostly for arid or semiarid land; in the same year, rich black soil in Iowa was selling for about $110 per acre.â30 By 1947, Jewish holdings in Palestine amounted to about 463,000 acres. Approximately 45,000 were acquired from the mandatory government, 30,000 were bought from various churches, and 387,500 were purchased from Arabs. Analyses of land purchases from 1880 to 1948 show that 73% of Jewish plots were purchased from large landowners, not poor fellahin.31 Many leaders of the Arab nationalist movement, including members of the Muslim Supreme Council, and the mayors of Gaza, Jerusalem, and s sold land to the Jews. Asâad el-Shuqeiri, a Muslim religious scholar and father of Palestine Liberation Organization chairman Ahmed Shuqeiri, took Jewish money for his land. Even King Abdullah leased land to the Jews.32 MYTH The British helped the Palestinians to live peacefully with the Jews. FACT In 1921, Haj Amin el-Husseini first began to organize fedayeen (âone who sacrifices himselfâ) to terrorize Jews. El-Husseini hoped to duplicate the success of Kemal AtatĂŒrk in Turkey by driving the Jews out of Palestine just as Kemal had driven the invading Greeks from his country.33 Arab radicals gained influence because the British administration was unwilling to take effective action against them until they began a revolt against British rule. Colonel Richard Meinertzhagen, former head of British military intelligence in Cairo, and later chief political officer for Palestine and Syria, wrote in his diary that British officials âincline towards the exclusion of Zionism in Palestine.â The British encouraged the Palestinians to attack the Jews. According to Meinertzhagen, Col. Bertie Harry Waters-Taylor (financial adviser to the military administration in Palestine 1919â23) met with el-Husseini in 1920, a few days before Easter, and told him that âhe had a great opportunity at Easter to show the worldâŠthat Zionism was unpopular not only with the Palestine administration but in Whitehall.â He added that âif disturbances of sufficient violence occurred in Jerusalem at Easter, both General [Louis] Bols [chief administrator in Palestine, 1919â20] and General [Edmund] Allenby [commander of the Egyptian force, 1917â19, then high commissioner of Egypt] would advocate the abandonment of the Jewish Home. Waters-Taylor explained that freedom could only be attained through violence.â34 El-Husseini took the colonelâs advice and instigated a riot. The British withdrew their troops and the Jewish police from Jerusalem, allowing the Arab mob to attack Jews and loot their shops. Because of el-Husseiniâs overt role in instigating the pogrom, the British decided to arrest him. He escaped, however, and was sentenced to ten years in absentia. A year later, some British Arabists convinced High Commissioner Herbert Samuel to pardon el-Husseini and to appoint him Mufti (a cleric in charge of Jerusalemâs Islamic holy places). By contrast, Vladimir Jabotinsky and several followers, who had formed a Jewish defense organization during the unrest, were sentenced to 15 years. They were released a few months later.35 Samuel met with el-Husseini on April 11, 1921, and was assured âthat the influences of his family and himself would be devoted to tranquility.â Three weeks later, riots in Jaffa and elsewhere left forty-three Jews dead.36 El-Husseini consolidated his power and took control of all Muslim religious funds in Palestine. He used his authority to gain control over the mosques, the schools, and the courts. No Arab could reach an influential position without being loyal to the Mufti. His power was so absolute that âno Muslim in Palestine could be born or die without being beholden to Haj Amin.â37 The Muftiâs henchmen also ensured he would have no opposition by systematically killing Palestinians who discussed cooperation with the Jews from rival clans. As the spokesman for Palestinian Arabs, el-Husseini did not ask that Britain grant them independence. On the contrary, in a letter to Churchill in 1921, he demanded that Palestine be reunited with Syria and Transjordan.38 The Arabs found rioting an effective political tool because of the lax British response toward violence against Jews. In handling each riot, the British prevented Jews from protecting themselves but made little effort to prevent the Arabs from attacking them. After each outbreak, a British commission of inquiry would try to establish the cause of the violence. The conclusion was always the same: The Arabs feared being displaced by the Jews. To stop the rioting, the commissions would recommend that restrictions be placed on Jewish immigration. Thus, the Arabs learned they could always stop the influx of Jews by staging riots. This cycle began after a series of riots in May 1921. After failing to protect the Jewish community from Arab mobs, the British appointed the Haycraft Commission to investigate the cause of the violence. Although the panel concluded the Arabs had been the aggressors, it rationalized the cause of the attack: âThe fundamental cause of the riots was a feeling among the Arabs of discontent with, and hostility to, the Jews, due to political and economic causes, and connected with Jewish immigration, and with their conception of Zionist policy.â39 One consequence of the violence was the institution of a temporary ban on Jewish immigration. The Arab fear of being âdisplacedâ or âdominatedâ was an excuse for their attacks on Jewish settlers. Note, too, that these riots were not inspired by nationalistic fervorânationalists would have rebelled against their British overlordsâthey were motivated by economics, the radical Islamic views of the Mufti, and misunderstanding. In 1929, Arab provocateurs convinced the masses that the Jews had designs on the Temple Mount (a tactic still used today to incite violence). A Jewish religious observance at the Western Wall, which forms a part of the Temple Mount, served as a pretext for rioting by Arabs against Jews, which spilled out of Jerusalem into other villages and towns, including Safed and Hebron. Again, the British administration made no effort to prevent the violence, and, after it began, the British did nothing to protect the Jewish population. After six days of mayhem, the British finally brought troops in to quell the disturbance. By this time, most of Hebronâs Jews had fled or been killed. In all, 133 Jews were killed and 399 wounded in the pogroms.40 After the riots, the British ordered an investigation, resulting in the Passfield White Paper. It said the âimmigration, land purchase and settlement policies of the Zionist Organization were already or were likely to become, prejudicial to Arab interests. It understood the mandatory governmentâs obligation to the non-Jewish community to mean that Palestineâs resources must be primarily reserved for the growing Arab economy.â41 This meant it was necessary to restrict Jewish immigration and land purchases. MYTH The Mufti was not a Nazi collaborator. FACT In 1941, Haj Amin al-Husseini, the Mufti of Jerusalem, fled to Germany and met with Adolf Hitler, Heinrich Himmler, Joachim Von Ribbentrop, and other Nazi leaders. He wanted to persuade them to extend the Nazisâ anti-Jewish program to the Arab world. The Mufti sent Hitler fifteen drafts of declarations he wanted Germany and Italy to make concerning the Middle East. One called on the two countries to declare the illegality of the Jewish home in Palestine. He also asked the Axis powers to âaccord to Palestine and to other Arab countries the right to solve the problem of the Jewish elements in Palestine and other Arab countries in accordance with the interest of the Arabs, and by the same method that the question is now being settled in the Axis countries.â42 In November 1941, the Mufti met with Hitler, who told him the Jews were his foremost enemy. The Nazi dictator rebuffed the Muftiâs requests for a declaration in support of the Arabs, however, telling him the time was not right. The Mufti offered Hitler his âthanks for the sympathy which he had always shown for the Arab and especially Palestinian cause, and to which he had given clear expression in his public speeches.â He added, âThe Arabs were Germanyâs natural friends because they had the same enemies as had Germany, namelyâŠthe Jews.â Hitler told the Mufti he opposed the creation of a Jewish state and that Germanyâs objective was destroying the Jewish element in the Arab sphere.43 In 1945, Yugoslavia sought to indict the Mufti as a war criminal for his role in recruiting twenty thousand Muslim volunteers for the SS, who participated in the killing of Jews in Croatia and Hungary. He escaped French detention in 1946, however, and continued his fight against the Jews from Cairo and later Beirut where he died in 1974. MYTH The bombing of the King David Hotel was part of a deliberate terror campaign against civilians. FACT British troops seized the Jewish Agency compound on June 29, 1946, and confiscated large quantities of documents. At about the same time, more than 2,500 Jews from all over Palestine were arrested. A week later, news of a massacre of 40 Jews in a pogrom in Poland reminded the Jews of Palestine how Britainâs restrictive immigration policy had condemned thousands to death. In response to the British provocations, and a desire to demonstrate that the Jewsâ spirit could not be broken, the United Resistance Movement planned to bomb the King David Hotel, which housed the British military command and the Criminal Investigation Division in addition to hotel guests. The Haganah pulled out of the plot and left it up to the Irgun. Irgun leader Menachem Begin stressed his desire to avoid civilian casualties and the plan was to warn the British so they would evacuate the building before it was blown up. Three telephone calls were placed on July 22, 1946, one to the hotel, another to the French Consulate, and a third to the Palestine Post warning that explosives in the King David Hotel would soon be detonated. The call to the hotel was received and ignored. Begin quotes one British official who supposedly refused to evacuate the building, saying, âWe donât take orders from the Jews.â44 As a result, when the bombs exploded, the casualty toll was high: 91 killed and 45 injured. Among the casualties were 15 Jews. Few people in the main part of the hotel were injured.45 For decades, the British denied they had been warned. In 1979, however, a member of the British Parliament provided the testimony of a British officer who heard other officers in the King David Hotel bar joking about a Zionist threat to the headquarters. The officer who overheard the conversation immediately left the hotel and survived.46 In contrast to Arab attacks against Jews, which Arab leaders hailed as heroic actions, the Jewish National Council denounced the bombing of the King David.47 1 Aharon Cohen, Israel and the Arab World, (NY: Funk and Wagnalls, 1970), p. 172