Loading...
6D-3/1-4-PPKn
Quiz by adisha muharam
Customize this quiz to suit your class
Instantly translate to 100+ languages
Tag the questions with any skills you have. Your dashboard will track each student's mastery of each skill.
Give this quiz to my class
Salah satu cara menghargai keberagaman agama yang ada di Indonesia adalah ….
A. bermain dengan teman yang seagama saja
D. bermain dengan teman tanpa membeda-bedakan agama
C. bermain dengan teman yang berbeda agama saja
B. bermain dengan teman yang berasal dari suku yang sama
Contoh sikap toleransi dalam menghadapi perbedaan yaitu ….
Bersikap tinggi hati terhadap budaya lain
Hanya mempelajari budaya sendiri
mendengarkan dengan dengan suku yang sama
Menghargai pendapat tanpa memandang perbedaan suku
Salah satu cara menghargai keberagaman agama yang ada di Indonesia adalah ….
Contoh sikap toleransi dalam menghadapi perbedaan yaitu ….
Kebudayaan yang dimiliki suatu masyarakat di suatu tempat berbeda dengan kebudayaan yang dimiliki oleh masyarakat ditempat lain. hal ini menyebabkan timbulnya ….
Walau memiliki banyak keberagaman dan perbedaan, namun bangsa Indonesia tetap bersatu seperti dalam semboyan ….
Sifat saling menghargai antarumat beragama dapat ditunjukkan dengan ....
Yang bukan keberagaman budaya di Indonesia adalah ....
Sifat yang tidak menunjukkan saling menghargai antarumat beragama yaitu ....
Sejahtera merupakan keadaan masyarakat yang aman, sentosa, dan makmur merupakan ciri-ciri dari keberagaman dari tingkat ....
Di masyarakat banyak macam tingkat intelektual seseoran seperti lulusan SD, SMP, dan SMA. Hal tersebut merupakan keberagaman tingkat ...
Salah satu hikmah dari adanya keberagaman budaya di Indonesia adalah ....
ILLINOIS PROFESSIONAL TEACHING STANDARDS (2013) Standard 1 - Teaching Diverse Students – The competent teacher understands the diverse characteristics and abilities of each student and how individuals develop and learn within the context of their social, economic, cultural, linguistic, and academic experiences. The teacher uses these experiences to create instructional opportunities that maximize student learning. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 1A) understands the spectrum of student diversity (e.g., race and ethnicity, socioeconomic status, special education, gifted, English language learners (ELL), sexual orientation, gender, gender identity) and the assets that each student brings to learning across the curriculum; 1B) understands how each student constructs knowledge, acquires skills, and develops effective and efficient critical thinking and problem-solving capabilities; 1C) understands how teaching and student learning are influenced by development (physical, social and emotional, cognitive, linguistic), past experiences, talents, prior knowledge, economic circumstances and diversity within the community; 1D) understands the impact of cognitive, emotional, physical, and sensory disabilities on learning and communication pursuant to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (also referred to as “IDEA”) (20 USC 1400 et seq.), its implementing regulations (34 CFR 300; 2006), Article 14 of the School Code [105 ILCS 5/Art.14] and 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 (Special Education); 1E) understands the impact of linguistic and cultural diversity on learning and communication; 1F) understands his or her personal perspectives and biases and their effects on one’s teaching; and 1G) understands how to identify individual needs and how to locate and access technology, services, and resources to address those needs. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 1H) analyzes and uses student information to design instruction that meets the diverse needs of students and leads to ongoing growth and achievement; 1I) stimulates prior knowledge and links new ideas to already familiar ideas and experiences; 1J) differentiates strategies, materials, pace, levels of complexity, and language to introduce concepts and principles so that they are meaningful to students at varying levels of development and to students with diverse learning needs; 1K) facilitates a learning community in which individual differences are respected; and 1L) uses information about students’ individual experiences, families, cultures, and communities to create meaningful learning opportunities and enrich instruction for all students. Standard 2 - Content Area and Pedagogical Knowledge – The competent teacher has in-depth understanding of content area knowledge that includes central concepts, methods of inquiry, structures of the disciplines, and content area literacy. The teacher creates meaningful learning experiences for each student based upon interactions among content area and pedagogical knowledge, and evidence-based practice. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 2A) understands theories and philosophies of learning and human development as they relate to the range of students in the classroom; 2B) understands major concepts, assumptions, debates, and principles; processes of inquiry; and theories that are central to the disciplines; 2C) understands the cognitive processes associated with various kinds of learning (e.g., critical and creative thinking, problem-structuring and problem-solving, invention, memorization, and recall) 2 and ensures attention to these learning processes so that students can master content standards; 2D) understands the relationship of knowledge within the disciplines to other content areas and to life applications; 2E) understands how diverse student characteristics and abilities affect processes of inquiry and influence patterns of learning; 2F) knows how to access the tools and knowledge related to latest findings (e.g., research, practice, methodologies) and technologies in the disciplines; 2G) understands the theory behind and the process for providing support to promote learning when concepts and skills are first being introduced; and 2H) understands the relationship among language acquisition (first and second), literacy development, and acquisition of academic content and skills. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 2I) evaluates teaching resources and materials for appropriateness as related to curricular content and each student’s needs; 2J) uses differing viewpoints, theories, and methods of inquiry in teaching subject matter concepts; 2K) engages students in the processes of critical thinking and inquiry and addresses standards of evidence of the disciplines; 2L) demonstrates fluency in technology systems, uses technology to support instruction and enhance student learning, and designs learning experiences to develop student skills in the application of technology appropriate to the disciplines; 2M) uses a variety of explanations and multiple representations of concepts that capture key ideas to help each student develop conceptual understanding and address common misunderstandings; 2N) facilitates learning experiences that make connections to other content areas and to life experiences; 2O) designs learning experiences and utilizes assistive technology and digital tools to provide access to general curricular content to individuals with disabilities; 2P) adjusts practice to meet the needs of each student in the content areas; and 2Q) applies and adapts an array of content area literacy strategies to make all subject matter accessible to each student. Standard 3 - Planning for Differentiated Instruction – The competent teacher plans and designs instruction based on content area knowledge, diverse student characteristics, student performance data, curriculum goals, and the community context. The teacher plans for ongoing student growth and achievement. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 3A) understands the Illinois Learning Standards (23 Ill. Adm. Code 1.Appendix D), curriculum development process, content, learning theory, assessment, and student development and knows how to incorporate this knowledge in planning differentiated instruction; 3B) understands how to develop short- and long-range plans, including transition plans, consistent with curriculum goals, student diversity, and learning theory; 3C) understands cultural, linguistic, cognitive, physical, and social and emotional differences, and considers the needs of each student when planning instruction; 3D) understands when and how to adjust plans based on outcome data, as well as student needs, goals, and responses; 3E) understands the appropriate role of technology, including assistive technology, to address student needs, as well as how to incorporate contemporary tools and resources to maximize student learning; 3 3F) understands how to co-plan with other classroom teachers, parents or guardians, paraprofessionals, school specialists, and community representatives to design learning experiences; and 3G) understands how research and data guide instructional planning, delivery, and adaptation. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 3H) establishes high expectations for each student’s learning and behavior; 3I) creates short-term and long-term plans to achieve the expectations for student learning; 3J) uses data to plan for differentiated instruction to allow for variations in individual learning needs; 3K) incorporates experiences into instructional practices that relate to a student’s current life experiences and to future life experiences; 3L) creates approaches to learning that are interdisciplinary and that integrate multiple content areas; 3M) develops plans based on student responses and provides for different pathways based on student needs; 3N) accesses and uses a wide range of information and instructional technologies to enhance a student’s ongoing growth and achievement; 3O) when planning instruction, addresses goals and objectives contained in plans developed under Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 USC 794), individualized education programs (IEP) (see 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 (Special Education)) or individual family service plans (IFSP) (see 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 and 34 CFR 300.24; 2006); 3P) works with others to adapt and modify instruction to meet individual student needs; and 3Q) develops or selects relevant instructional content, materials, resources, and strategies (e.g., project-based learning) for differentiating instruction. Standard 4 - Learning Environment – The competent teacher structures a safe and healthy learning environment that facilitates cultural and linguistic responsiveness, emotional well-being, self-efficacy, positive social interaction, mutual respect, active engagement, academic risk-taking, self-motivation, and personal goal-setting. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 4A) understands principles of and strategies for effective classroom and behavior management; 4B) understands how individuals influence groups and how groups function in society; 4C) understands how to help students work cooperatively and productively in groups; 4D) understands factors (e.g., self-efficacy, positive social interaction) that influence motivation and engagement; 4E) knows how to assess the instructional environment to determine how best to meet a student’s individual needs; 4F) understands laws, rules, and ethical considerations regarding behavior intervention planning and behavior management (e.g., bullying, crisis intervention, physical restraint); 4G) knows strategies to implement behavior management and behavior intervention planning to ensure a safe and productive learning environment; and 4H) understands the use of student data (formative and summative) to design and implement behavior management strategies. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 4I) creates a safe and healthy environment that maximizes student learning; 4J) creates clear expectations and procedures for communication and behavior and a physical setting conducive to achieving classroom goals; 4K) uses strategies to create a smoothly functioning learning community in which students assume responsibility for themselves and one another, participate in decision-making, work collaboratively and independently, use appropriate technology, and engage in purposeful learning activities; 4 4L) analyzes the classroom environment and makes decisions to enhance cultural and linguistic responsiveness, mutual respect, positive social relationships, student motivation, and classroom engagement; 4M) organizes, allocates, and manages time, materials, technology, and physical space to provide active and equitable engagement of students in productive learning activities; 4N) engages students in and monitors individual and group-learning activities that help them develop the motivation to learn; 4O) uses a variety of effective behavioral management techniques appropriate to the needs of all students that include positive behavior interventions and supports; 4P) modifies the learning environment (including the schedule and physical arrangement) to facilitate appropriate behaviors and learning for students with diverse learning characteristics; and 4Q) analyzes student behavior data to develop and support positive behavior. Standard 5 - Instructional Delivery – The competent teacher differentiates instruction by using a variety of strategies that support critical and creative thinking, problem-solving, and continuous growth and learning. This teacher understands that the classroom is a dynamic environment requiring ongoing modification of instruction to enhance learning for each student. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 5A) understands the cognitive processes associated with various kinds of learning; 5B) understands principles and techniques, along with advantages and limitations, associated with a wide range of evidence-based instructional practices; 5C) knows how to implement effective differentiated instruction through the use of a wide variety of materials, technologies, and resources; 5D) understands disciplinary and interdisciplinary instructional approaches and how they relate to life and career experiences; 5E) knows techniques for modifying instructional methods, materials, and the environment to facilitate learning for students with diverse learning characteristics; 5F) knows strategies to maximize student attentiveness and engagement; 5G) knows how to evaluate and use student performance data to adjust instruction while teaching; and 5H) understands when and how to adapt or modify instruction based on outcome data, as well as student needs, goals, and responses. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 5I) uses multiple teaching strategies, including adjusted pacing and flexible grouping, to engage students in active learning opportunities that promote the development of critical and creative thinking, problem-solving, and performance capabilities; 5J) monitors and adjusts strategies in response to feedback from the student; 5K) varies his or her role in the instructional process as instructor, facilitator, coach, or audience in relation to the content and purposes of instruction and the needs of students; 5L) develops a variety of clear, accurate presentations and representations of concepts, using alternative explanations to assist students’ understanding and presenting diverse perspectives to encourage critical and creative thinking; 5M) uses strategies and techniques for facilitating meaningful inclusion of individuals with a range of abilities and experiences; 5N) uses technology to accomplish differentiated instructional objectives that enhance learning for each student; 5O) models and facilitates effective use of current and emerging digital tools to locate, analyze, evaluate, and use information resources to support research and learning; 5P) uses student data to adapt the curriculum and implement instructional strategies and materials according to the characteristics of each student; 5 5Q) uses effective co-planning and co-teaching techniques to deliver instruction to all students; 5R) maximizes instructional time (e.g., minimizes transitional time); and 5S) implements appropriate evidence-based instructional strategies. Standard 6 - Reading, Writing, and Oral Communication – The competent teacher has foundational knowledge of reading, writing, and oral communication within the content area and recognizes and addresses student reading, writing, and oral communication needs to facilitate the acquisition of content knowledge. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 6A) understands appropriate and varied instructional approaches used before, during, and after reading, including those that develop word knowledge, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and strategy use in the content areas; 6B) understands that the reading process involves the construction of meaning through the interactions of the reader's background knowledge and experiences, the information in the text, and the purpose of the reading situation; 6C) understands communication theory, language development, and the role of language in learning; 6D) understands writing processes and their importance to content learning; 6E) knows and models standard conventions of written and oral communications; 6F) recognizes the relationships among reading, writing, and oral communication and understands how to integrate these components to increase content learning; 6G) understands how to design, select, modify, and evaluate a wide range of materials for the content areas and the reading needs of the student; 6H) understands how to use a variety of formal and informal assessments to recognize and address the reading, writing, and oral communication needs of each student; and 6I) knows appropriate and varied instructional approaches, including those that develop word knowledge, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and strategy use in the content areas. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 6J) selects, modifies, and uses a wide range of printed, visual, or auditory materials, and online resources appropriate to the content areas and the reading needs and levels of each student (including ELLs, and struggling and advanced readers); 6K) uses assessment data, student work samples, and observations from continuous monitoring of student progress to plan and evaluate effective content area reading, writing, and oral communication instruction; 6L) facilitates the use of appropriate word identification and vocabulary strategies to develop each student’s understanding of content; 6M) teaches fluency strategies to facilitate comprehension of content; 6N) uses modeling, explanation, practice, and feedback to teach students to monitor and apply comprehension strategies independently, appropriate to the content learning; 6O) teaches students to analyze, evaluate, synthesize, and summarize information in single texts and across multiple texts, including electronic resources; 6P) teaches students to develop written text appropriate to the content areas that utilizes organization (e.g., compare/contrast, problem/solution), focus, elaboration, word choice, and standard conventions (e.g., punctuation, grammar); 6Q) integrates reading, writing, and oral communication to engage students in content learning; 6R) works with other teachers and support personnel to design, adjust, and modify instruction to meet students’ reading, writing, and oral communication needs; and 6S) stimulates discussion in the content areas for varied instructional and conversational purposes. Standard 7 - Assessment – The competent teacher understands and uses appropriate formative and summative assessments for determining student needs, monitoring student progress, measuring student 6 growth, and evaluating student outcomes. The teacher makes decisions driven by data about curricular and instructional effectiveness and adjusts practices to meet the needs of each student. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 7A) understands the purposes, characteristics, and limitations of different types of assessments, including standardized assessments, universal screening, curriculum-based assessment, and progress monitoring tools; 7B) understands that assessment is a means of evaluating how students learn and what they know and are able to do in order to meet the Illinois Learning Standards; 7C) understands measurement theory and assessment-related issues, such as validity, reliability, bias, and appropriate and accurate scoring; 7D) understands current terminology and procedures necessary for the appropriate analysis and interpretation of assessment data; 7E) understands how to select, construct, and use assessment strategies and instruments for diagnosis and evaluation of learning and instruction; 7F) knows research-based assessment strategies appropriate for each student; 7G) understands how to make data-driven decisions using assessment results to adjust practices to meet the needs of each student; 7H) knows legal provisions, rules, and guidelines regarding assessment and assessment accommodations for all student populations; and 7I) knows assessment and progress monitoring techniques to assess the effectiveness of instruction for each student. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 7J) uses assessment results to determine student performance levels, identify learning targets, select appropriate research-based instructional strategies, and implement instruction to enhance learning outcomes; 7K) appropriately uses a variety of formal and informal assessments to evaluate the understanding, progress, and performance of an individual student and the class as a whole; 7L) involves students in self-assessment activities to help them become aware of their strengths and needs and encourages them to establish goals for learning; 7M) maintains useful and accurate records of student work and performance; 7N) accurately interprets and clearly communicates aggregate student performance data to students, parents or guardians, colleagues, and the community in a manner that complies with the requirements of the Illinois School Student Records Act [105 ILCS 10], 23 Ill. Adm. Code 375 (Student Records), the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) (20 USC 1232g) and its implementing regulations (34 CFR 99; December 9, 2008); 7O) effectively uses appropriate technologies to conduct assessments, monitor performance, and assess student progress; 7P) collaborates with families and other professionals involved in the assessment of each student; 7Q) uses various types of assessment procedures appropriately, including making accommodations for individual students in specific contexts; and 7R) uses assessment strategies and devices that are nondiscriminatory, and take into consideration the impact of disabilities, methods of communication, cultural background, and primary language on measuring knowledge and performance of students. Standard 8 - Collaborative Relationships – The competent teacher builds and maintains collaborative relationships to foster cognitive, linguistic, physical, and social and emotional development. This teacher works as a team member with professional colleagues, students, parents or guardians, and community members. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 8A) understands schools as organizations within the larger community context; 7 8B) understands the collaborative process and the skills necessary to initiate and carry out that process; 8C) collaborates with others in the use of data to design and implement effective school interventions that benefit all students; 8D) understands the benefits, barriers, and techniques involved in parent and family collaborations; 8E) understands school- and work-based learning environments and the need for collaboration with all organizations (e.g., businesses, community agencies, nonprofit organizations) to enhance student learning; 8F) understands the importance of participating on collaborative and problem-solving teams to create effective academic and behavioral interventions for all students; 8G) understands the various models of co-teaching and the procedures for implementing them across the curriculum; 8H) understands concerns of families of students with disabilities and knows appropriate strategies to collaborate with students and their families in addressing these concerns; and 8I) understands the roles and the importance of including students with disabilities, as appropriate, and all team members in planning individualized education programs (i.e, IEP, IFSP, Section 504 plan) for students with disabilities. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 8J) works with all school personnel (e.g., support staff, teachers, paraprofessionals) to develop learning climates for the school that encourage unity, support a sense of shared purpose, show trust in one another, and value individuals; 8K) participates in collaborative decision-making and problem-solving with colleagues and other professionals to achieve success for all students; 8L) initiates collaboration with others to create opportunities that enhance student learning; 8M) uses digital tools and resources to promote collaborative interactions; 8N) uses effective co-planning and co-teaching techniques to deliver instruction to each student; 8O) collaborates with school personnel in the implementation of appropriate assessment and instruction for designated students; 8P) develops professional relationships with parents and guardians that result in fair and equitable treatment of each student to support growth and learning; 8Q) establishes respectful and productive relationships with parents or guardians and seeks to develop cooperative partnerships to promote student learning and well-being; 8R) uses conflict resolution skills to enhance the effectiveness of collaboration and teamwork; 8S) participates in the design and implementation of individualized instruction for students with special needs (i.e., IEPs, IFSP, transition plans, Section 504 plans), ELLs, and students who are gifted; and 8T) identifies and utilizes community resources to enhance student learning and to provide opportunities for students to explore career opportunities. Standard 9 - Professionalism, Leadership, and Advocacy – The competent teacher is an ethical and reflective practitioner who exhibits professionalism; provides leadership in the learning community; and advocates for students, parents or guardians, and the profession. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 9A) evaluates best practices and research-based materials against benchmarks within the disciplines; 9B) knows laws and rules (e.g., mandatory reporting, sexual misconduct, corporal punishment) as a foundation for the fair and just treatment of all students and their families in the classroom and school; 9C) understands emergency response procedures as required under the School Safety Drill Act [105 ILCS 128/1], including school safety and crisis intervention protocol, initial response 8 actions (e.g., whether to stay in or evacuate a building), and first response to medical emergencies (e.g., first aid and life-saving techniques); 9D) identifies paths for continuous professional growth and improvement, including the design of a professional growth plan; 9E) is cognizant of his or her emerging and developed leadership skills and the applicability of those skills within a variety of learning communities; 9F) understands the roles of an advocate, the process of advocacy, and its place in combating or promoting certain school district practices affecting students; 9G) understands local and global societal issues and responsibilities in an evolving digital culture; and 9H) understands the importance of modeling appropriate dispositions in the classroom. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 9I) models professional behavior that reflects honesty, integrity, personal responsibility, confidentiality, altruism and respect; 9J) maintains accurate records, manages data effectively, and protects the confidentiality of information pertaining to each student and family; 9K) reflects on professional practice and resulting outcomes; engages in self-assessment; and adjusts practices to improve student performance, school goals, and professional growth; 9L) communicates with families, responds to concerns, and contributes to enhanced family participation in student education; 9M) communicates relevant information and ideas effectively to students, parents or guardians, and peers, using a variety of technology and digital-age media and formats; 9N) collaborates with other teachers, students, parents or guardians, specialists, administrators, and community partners to enhance students’ learning and school improvement; 9O) participates in professional development, professional organizations, and learning communities, and engages in peer coaching and mentoring activities to enhance personal growth and development; 9P) uses leadership skills that contribute to individual and collegial growth and development, school improvement, and the advancement of knowledge in the teaching profession; 9Q) proactively serves all students and their families with equity and honor and advocates on their behalf, ensuring the learning and well-being of each child in the classroom; 9R) is aware of and complies with the mandatory reporter provisions of Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act [325 ILCS 5/4]; 9S) models digital etiquette and responsible social actions in the use of digital technology; and 9T) models and teaches safe, legal, and ethical use of digital information and technology, including respect for copyright, intellectual property, and the appropriate documentation of sources. The expression 2 + 4 1 + 2 is equal to (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 4 (E) 5 2. The ones (units) digit of 542 is 2. When 542 is multiplied by 3, the ones (units) digit of the result is (A) 9 (B) 3 (C) 5 (D) 4 (E) 6 3. Some of the 1 × 1 squares in a 3 × 3 grid are shaded, as shown. What is the perimeter of the shaded region? (A) 10 (B) 14 (C) 8 (D) 18 (E) 20 4. If 3x + 4 = x + 2, the value of x is (A) 0 (B) −4 (C) −3 (D) −1 (E) −2 5. Which of the following is equal to 110% of 500? (A) 610 (B) 510 (C) 650 (D) 505 (E) 550 6. Eugene swam on Sunday, Monday and Tuesday. On Monday, he swam for 30 minutes. On Tuesday, he swam for 45 minutes. His average swim time over the three days was 34 minutes. For how many minutes did he swim on Sunday? (A) 20 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 32 (E) 37.5 7. For which of the following values of x is x 3 < x2 ? (A) x = 5 3 (B) x = 3 4 (C) x = 1 (D) x = 3 2 (E) x = 2112 years, Janice will be 8 times as old as she was 2 years ago. How old is Janice now? (A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 2 (E) 6 10. In the diagram, pentagon T P SRQ is constructed from equilateral 4 P T Q and square P QRS. The measure of ∠ST R is equal to (A) 10◦ (B) 15◦ (C) 20◦ (D) 30◦ (E) 45◦ Q P R S T Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. In the diagram, which of the following points is at a different distance from P than the rest of the points? (A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E y A x 2 2 4 4 6 8 6 8 B C D E P 12. If x = 2 and y = x 2 − 5 and z = y 2 − 5, then z equals (A) −6 (B) −8 (C) 4 (D) 76 (E) −4 13. In the diagram, P QR is a straight line segment. If x + y = 76, what is the value of x? (A) 28 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 36 (E) 38 x° x° x° y° y° P Q R 14. The line with equation y = 2x − 6 is reflected in the y-axis. What is the x-intercept of the resulting line? (A) −12 (B) 6 (C) −6 (D) −3 (E) 0 15. Amy bought and then sold 15n avocados, for some positive integer n. She made a profit of $100. (Her profit is the difference between the total amount that she earned by selling the avocados and the total amount that she spent in buying the avocados.) She paid $2 for every 3 avocados. She sold every 5 avocados for $4. What is the value of n? (A) 100 (B) 20 (C) 50 (D) 30 (E) 8 16. If 3x = 5, the value of 3x+2 is (A) 10 (B) 25 (C) 2187 (D) 14 (E) 45Generate all of these 25 questions Part A: Each correct answer is worth 5. 1. The regular pentagon shown has a side length of 2 cm. The perimeter of the pentagon is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm (E) 10 cm 2 cm 2. The faces of a cube are labelled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots. Three of the faces are shown. What is the total number of dots on the other three faces? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 15 3. The equation that best represents \a number increased by _ve equals 15" is (A) n 5 = 15 (B) n _ 5 = 15 (C) n + 5 = 15 (D) n + 15 = 5 (E) n _ 5 = 15 4. The line graph shows the number of bobbleheads sold at a store each year. The sale of bobbleheads increased the most between (A) 2016 and 2017 (B) 2017 and 2018 (C) 2018 and 2019 (D) 2019 and 2020 (E) 2020 and 2021 Number of 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 Year Sale of Bobbleheads 2021 Bobbleheads 20 40 60 80 5. Starting at 72, Aryana counts down by 11s: 72; 61; 50; : : : . What is the last number greater than 0 that Aryana will count? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 6. In the diagram, \ABC = 90_. The value of x is (A) 68 (B) 23 (C) 56 (D) 28 (E) 26 Day of the Week 44° x° A B C x° 7. Which of the following values is closest to zero? (A) 1 (B) 5 4 (C) 12 (D) 4 5 (E) 0:9 Grade 8 8. A jar contains 267 quarters. One quarter is worth $0.25. How many quarters must be added to the jar so that the total value of the quarters is $100.00? (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 103 (D) 133 (E) 153 9. A package of 8 greeting cards comes with 10 envelopes. Kirra has 7 cards but no envelopes. What is the smallest number of packages that Kirra needs to buy to have more envelopes than cards? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7 10. For the points in the diagram, which statement is true? (A) e > c (B) b < d (C) f > b (D) a < e (E) a > c y x (e, f ) (a, b) (c, d ) Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. The 26 letters of the English alphabet are listed in an in_nite, repeating loop: ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY ZABC : : : What is the 258th letter in this sequence? (A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z 12. A public holiday is always celebrated on the third Wednesday of a certain month. In that month, the holiday cannot occur on which of the following days? (A) 16th (B) 22nd (C) 18th (D) 19th (E) 21st 13. A circular spinner is divided into three sections. An arrow is attached to the centre of the spinner. The arrow is spun once. The probability that the arrow stops on the largest section is 50%. The probability it stops on the next largest section is 1 in 3. The probability it stops on the smallest section is (A) 1 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 1 6 (D) 2 7 (E) 3 10 14. A positive number is divisible by both 3 and 4. The tens digit is greater than the ones digit. How many positive two-digit numbers have this property? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 15. A rectangular pool measures 20 m by 8 m. There is a 1 m wide walkway around the outside of the pool, as shown by the shaded region. The area of the walkway is (A) 56 m2 (B) 60 m2 (C) 29 m2 (D) 52 m2 (E) 50 m2 20 m 8 m 1 m Grade 8 16. The results of asking 50 students if they participate in music or sports are shown in the Venn diagram. What percentage of the 50 students do not participate in music and do not participate in sports? (A) 0% (B) 80% (C) 20% (D) 70% (E) 40% Music Sports 15 5 20 17. There are 2 3 as many golf balls in Bin F as in Bin G. If there are a total of 150 golf balls, how many fewer golf balls are in Bin F than in Bin G? (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 90 18. In the sequence shown, Figure 1 is formed using 7 squares. Each _gure after Figure 1 has 5 more squares than the previous _gure. What _gure has 2022 squares? (A) Figure 400 (B) Figure 402 (C) Figure 404 (D) Figure 406 (E) Figure 408 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 19. Mateo's 300 km trip from Edmonton to Calgary passed through Red Deer. Mateo started in Edmonton at 7 a.m. and drove until stopping for a 40 minute break in Red Deer. Mateo arrived in Calgary at 11 a.m. Not including the break, what was his average speed for the trip? (A) 83 km/h (B) 94 km/h (C) 90 km/h (D) 95 km/h (E) 64 km/h 20. Equilateral triangle ABC has sides of length 4. The midpoint of BC is D, and the midpoint of AD is E. The value of EC2 is (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 6:25 (D) 8 (E) 10 Part C: Each correct answer is worth 8. 21. The positive factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6. There are two perfect squares less than 100 that have exactly _ve positive factors. What is the sum of these two perfect squares? (A) 177 (B) 80 (C) 145 (D) 52 (E) 97 22. In the list p; q; r; s; t; u; v, each letter represents a positive integer. The sum of the values of each group of three consecutive letters in the list is 35. If q + u = 15, then p + q + r + s + t + u + v is (A) 85 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 75 Grade 8 23. The net shown is folded to form a cube. An ant walks from face to face on the cube, visiting each face exactly once. For example, ABCFED and ABCEFD are two possible orders of faces the ant visits. If the ant starts at A, how many possible orders are there? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 32 (D) 30 (E) 40 A D B C E F 24. The number 385 is an example of a three-digit number for which one of the digits is the sum of the other two digits. How many numbers between 100 and 999 have this property? (A) 144 (B) 126 (C) 108 (D) 234 (E) 64 25. Student A, Student B, and Student C have been hired to help scientists develop a new avour of juice. There are 4200 samples to test. Each sample either contains blueberry or does not. Each student is asked to taste each sample and report whether or not they think it contains blueberry. Student A reports correctly on exactly 90% of the samples containing blueberry and reports correctly on exactly 88% of the samples that do not contain blueberry. The results for all three students are shown below. Student A Student B Student C Percentage correct on samples 90% 98% (2m)% containing blueberry Percentage correct on samples 88% 86% (4m)% not containing blueberry Student B reports 315 more samples as containing blueberry than Student A. For some positive integers m, the total number of samples that the three students report as containing blueberry is equal to a multiple of 5 between 8000 and 9000. The sum of all such values of m is (A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D) 27 (E) 29تمام يا شيما 🌸 سأقوم الآن بإنشاء **اختبار جاهز بالكامل بصيغة Quizalize** مع: ✔ الأسئلة ✔ الإجابات الصحيحة ✔ خيارات الإجابة ✔ التغذية الراجعة (Feedback) لكل سؤال ✔ يمكنك نسخه ولصقه مباشرة داخل Quizalize بدون أي تعديل الاختبار مناسب **للصف الثاني – رياضيات – الجمع والطرح – Unit 1**. --- # 🎯 **Quizalize Ready Test – Grade 2 Math (Addition & Subtraction)** ## **Title:** Unit 1 – Addition and Subtraction ## **Grade:** 2 ## **Subject:** Math --- # ✅ **Question 1 (Multiple Choice)** **What is 5 + 3 ?** Options: A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 ✔ D) 9 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Great job! 5 + 3 = 8. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Try again. Count forward from 5. --- # ✅ **Question 2 (Multiple Choice)** **What is 9 – 4 ?** Options: A) 3 B) 5 ✔ C) 6 D) 4 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Well done! You subtracted correctly. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Try again. Use your fingers to take away 4 from 9. --- # ✅ **Question 3 (Multiple Choice)** **Which addition sentence is correct?** Options: A) 4 + 4 = 10 B) 6 + 2 = 8 ✔ C) 7 + 3 = 15 D) 5 + 1 = 9 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Correct! 6 + 2 = 8. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Not correct. Try checking each answer carefully. --- # ✅ **Question 4 (Word Problem)** **Sarah has 6 apples. Her mother gives her 3 more. How many apples does she have now?** Options: A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 ✔ D) 10 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Great! 6 + 3 = 9. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Think again. Try drawing 6 apples, then adding 3. --- # ✅ **Question 5 (Word Problem – Subtraction)** **There are 10 birds on a tree. 4 birds fly away. How many are left?** Options: A) 5 B) 6 ✔ C) 7 D) 8 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Yes! 10 – 4 = 6. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Try again. Take away 4 from 10. --- # ✅ **Question 6 (Concept Understanding)** **Which action means addition?** Options: A) Taking away B) Putting together ✔ C) Breaking apart D) None **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Correct! Addition is putting things together. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Wrong. Addition means joining groups. --- # ✅ **Question 7 (Multiple Choice)** **Ali has 4 red balls and 4 blue balls. How many balls does he have?** Options: A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 ✔ D) 9 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Excellent! 4 + 4 = 8. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Try again. Add the two groups together. --- # ✅ **Question 8 (Reasoning – Subtraction)** **A box has 12 candies. You eat 3. Your friend eats 2. How many candies are left?** Options: A) 5 B) 7 ✔ C) 10 D) 6 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Well done! 12 – 3 – 2 = 7. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Try again. Remove 3, then remove 2. --- # ✅ **Question 9 (Find the Missing Number)** **? – 5 = 4** What number should replace **?** Options: A) 7 B) 8 C) 9 ✔ D) 10 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Great thinking! 9 – 5 = 4. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Try again. Add 5 + 4 to find the missing number. --- # ✅ **Question 10 (Equivalent Expressions)** **Which number sentence equals 7 + 2 ?** Options: A) 5 + 3 B) 6 + 2 C) 8 + 1 ✔ D) 4 + 4 **Correct Feedback:** ✔ Correct! 8 + 1 = 9, same as 7 + 2. **Incorrect Feedback:** ✘ Try again. Look for the one that equalsCâu 1: Chất khử là A. chất nhường electron. B. chất nhận electron. C. chất nhường proton. D. chất nhận proton. Câu 2: Phản ứng oxi hóa - khử là A. phản ứng hóa học trong đó có sự chuyển proton. B. phản ứng hóa học trong đó có sự thay đổi số oxi hóa. C. phản ứng hóa học trong đó phải có sự biến đổi hợp chất thành đơn chất. D. phản ứng hóa học trong đó sự chuyển electron từ đơn chất sang hợp chất. Câu 3: Sự oxi hóa một chất là quá trình A. nhận electron của chất đó. B. làm giảm số oxi hóa của chất đó. C. nhường electron của chất đó. D. làm thay đổi số oxi hóa của chất đó. Câu 4: Phát biểu nào dưới đây không đúng? A. Sự khử là sự mất hay cho electron. B. Sự oxi hoá là sự mất electron. C. Chất khử là chất nhường electron. D. Chất oxi hoá là chất nhận electron. Câu 5: Trong các phản ứng sau, phản ứng nào là phản ứng oxi hóa - khử? A. CaCO3 CaO + CO2. B. 2KClO3 2KCl + 3O2. C. 2NaHCO3 Na2CO3 + H2O + SO2. D. 2Fe(OH)3 Fe2O3 + 3H2O. Câu 6: Cho phương trình phản ứng: Fe + CuSO4 Cu + FeSO4. Vai trò của Fe trong phản ứng là A. chất oxi hóa. B. chất bị khử. C. chất khử. D. vừa là chất khử, là chất oxi hóa. Câu 7: Cho phương trình phản ứng: Cl2 + 2H2O 2HCl + 2HClO. Vai trò của Cl2 trong phản ứng là A. chất oxi hóa. B. chất bị khử. C. chất khử. D. vừa là chất khử, là chất oxi hóa. Câu 8: Cho phương trình phản ứng: AgNO3 + HCl AgCl + HNO3. Vai trò của AgNO3 trong phản ứng là A. chất oxi hóa. B. chất bị khử. C. không là chất khử, không là chất oxi hóa. D. vừa là chất khử, là chất oxi hóa. Câu 9: Trong các phản ứng sau, phản ứng nào không phải là phản ứng oxi hóa khử? A. Fe + 2HCl FeCl2 + H2. B. Zn + CuSO4 ZnSO4 + Cu. C. CH4 + Cl2 CH3Cl + HCl. D. BaCl2 + H2SO4 BaSO4 + 2HCl. Câu 10: Trong các phản ứng sau phản ứng nào là phản ứng oxi hóa - khử? A. NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O. B. 2Fe(OH)3 + 3H2SO4 Fe2(SO4)3 + 6H2O. C. CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + H2O + CO2. D. 2CH3COOH + Mg (CH3COO)2Mg + H2. Câu 11: Số oxi hóa của S trong SO2 bằng A. +4 B. -4 C. +2 D. -2 Câu 12: Số oxi hóa của C trong CH4 bằng A. +4 B. -4 C. +1 D. -1 Câu 13: Sơ đồ: Cu → Cu+2 + 2e biểu thị quá trình A. oxi hóa. B. nhận electron. C. phân hủy. D. khử Câu 14: Sơ đồ: N+5 + 3e → N+2 biểu thị quá trình A. oxi hóa B. khử C. nhận proton D. hóa hợp Câu 15: Sục khí SO2 vào dung dịch KMnO4 (thuốc tím), màu tím nhạt dần rồi mất màu (biết sản phẩm tạo thành là K2SO4, MnSO4, H2SO4 và H2O). Nguyên nhân là do A. SO2 đã oxi hóa KMnO4 thành MnO2. B. SO2 đã khử KMnO4 thành Mn+2. C. KMnO4 đã khử SO2 thành S+6. D. H2O đã oxi hóa KMnO4 thành Mn+2. Câu 17: Hỗn hợp tecmit dùng hàn gắn đường ray có thành phần chính là aluminium (Al) và iron (III) oxide (Fe2O3). Phản ứng xảy ra khi đung nóng hỗn hợp tecmit như sau: Fe2O3 + 2Al 2Fe + Al2O3. Phát biểu nào dưới đây là đúng? A. Al là chất bị oxi hoá. B. Fe2O3 là chất nhường electron. C. Fe2O3 là chất bị oxi hóa. D. Al2O3 là chất nhận electron. Câu 18: Phản ứng thu nhiệt là phản ứng A. giải phóng năng lượng dưới dạng nhiệt. B. hấp thu năng lượng dưới dạng nhiệt. C. cung cấp năng lượng dưới dạng nhiệt. D. hấp thu năng lượng dưới dạng hóa năng. Câu 19: Phản ứng nhiệt nhôm là phản ứng giữa bột nhôm và iron (III) oxide sinh ra một lượng nhiệt rất lớn và được ứng dụng dùng để hàn đường ray. Phản ứng nhiệt nhôm là phản ứng A. thu nhiệt. B. chưa xác định được. C. tỏa nhiệt. D. vừa thu nhiệt, vừa tỏa nhiệt. Câu 20: Phản ứng nào trong các phản ứng dưới đây là phản ứng thu nhiệt? A. Vôi sống tác dụng với nước: CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2. B. Đốt cháy than: C + O2 CO2. C. Đốt cháy cồn: C2H5OH + 3O2 2CO2 + 3H2O. D. Nung đá vôi: CaCO3 CO2 + CaO. Câu 21: Điều kiện nào sau đây không phải là điều kiện chuẩn? A. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25 0C. B. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 298 K. C. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25 0C hay 298 K. D. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25K. Câu 22: Điều kiện nào sau đây là điều kiện chuẩn? A. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25 K. B. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 298 0C. C. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 298 K. D. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25K. Câu 23: Nồng độ đối với chất tan trong dung dịch ở điều kiện chuẩn là? A. 0,01 mol/L. B. 0,1 mol/L. C. 1 mol/L. D. 0,5 mol/L. Câu 24: 1 mol chất khí ở điều kiện chuẩn chiếm thể tích bằng bao nhiêu? A. 24,79 lít. B. 2,479 lít. C. 22,4 lít. D. 2,24 lít. Câu 25: Kí hiệu nhiệt tạo thành chuẩn của một chất là A. . B. . C. H298.. D. . Câu 26: Số oxi hóa của một nguyên tử trong phân tử là A. điện tích quy ước của nguyên tử trong phân tử khi coi tất cả các electron liên kết đều chuyển hoàn toàn về nguyên tử của nguyên tố có độ âm điện lớn hơn. B. hóa trị của nguyên tử nguyên tố đó. C. điện tích thực của nguyên tử nguyên tố đó. D. độ âm điện của nguyên tử nguyên tố đó. Câu 27: Fe2O3 là thành phần chính của quặng hematite đỏ, dùng để luyện gang. Số oxi hoá của iron (Fe) trong Fe2O3 là A. +3. B. 3+. C. 3-. D. -3. Câu 28: Trong phản ứng oxi hóa – khử, chất nhận electron được gọi là A. chất khử. B. chất oxi hoá. C. acid. D. base. Câu 29: Các phản ứng quan trọng gắn liền với cuộc sống như sự cháy của than, củi; sự cháy của xăng, dầu trong các động cơ đốt trong,…thường thuộc loại phản ứng nào? A. Phản ứng thế. B. Phản ứng cộng. C. Phản ứng phân hủy. D. Phản ứng oxi hóa - khử. Câu 30: Enthalpy phản ứng chuẩn có kí hiệu là A. . B. . C. . D. .Quale dei seguenti numeri è un numero naturale? a) -3 b) 0 c) -1/2 d) √16 Qual è l'opposto di -10? a) 10 b) -20 c) 0 d) -5 Quale dei seguenti numeri è un numero intero relativo maggiore di -8? a) -9 b) -7 c) -6 d) 0 Quale dei seguenti numeri è un multiplo di 5? a) -15 b) 12 c) 7 d) 25 Qual è il risultato di 7 - (-3)? a) 4 b) 10 c) -4 d) -10 Quale delle seguenti affermazioni è vera? a) La somma di due numeri pari è sempre pari. b) Il prodotto di due numeri dispari è sempre pari. c) La somma di un numero pari e un numero dispari è sempre pari. d) Il prodotto di due numeri pari è sempre dispari. Se moltiplichiamo un numero intero per zero, qual è il risultato? a) 1 b) 0 c) Il risultato è indefinito. d) Dipende dal numero intero. Se sommiamo un numero intero a se stesso, qual è il risultato? a) Il risultato è sempre zero. b) Il risultato è sempre positivo. c) Il risultato dipende dal numero intero. d) Il risultato è sempre negativo. Quale dei seguenti numeri è un numero primo? a) 6 b) 11 c) 15 d) 20 Qual è il minimo comune multiplo (MCM) di 8 e 12? a) 6 b) 24 c) 48 d) 10Câu 15: Sục khí SO2 vào dung dịch KMnO4 (thuốc tím), màu tím nhạt dần rồi mất màu (biết sản phẩm tạo thành là K2SO4, MnSO4, H2SO4 và H2O). Nguyên nhân là do A. SO2 đã oxi hóa KMnO4 thành MnO2. B. SO2 đã khử KMnO4 thành Mn+2. C. KMnO4 đã khử SO2 thành S+6. D. H2O đã oxi hóa KMnO4 thành Mn+2. Câu 17: Hỗn hợp tecmit dùng hàn gắn đường ray có thành phần chính là aluminium (Al) và iron (III) oxide (Fe2O3). Phản ứng xảy ra khi đung nóng hỗn hợp tecmit như sau: Fe2O3 + 2Al 2Fe + Al2O3. Phát biểu nào dưới đây là đúng? A. Al là chất bị oxi hoá. B. Fe2O3 là chất nhường electron. C. Fe2O3 là chất bị oxi hóa. D. Al2O3 là chất nhận electron. Câu 18: Phản ứng thu nhiệt là phản ứng A. giải phóng năng lượng dưới dạng nhiệt. B. hấp thu năng lượng dưới dạng nhiệt. C. cung cấp năng lượng dưới dạng nhiệt. D. hấp thu năng lượng dưới dạng hóa năng. Câu 19: Phản ứng nhiệt nhôm là phản ứng giữa bột nhôm và iron (III) oxide sinh ra một lượng nhiệt rất lớn và được ứng dụng dùng để hàn đường ray. Phản ứng nhiệt nhôm là phản ứng A. thu nhiệt. B. chưa xác định được. C. tỏa nhiệt. D. vừa thu nhiệt, vừa tỏa nhiệt. Câu 20: Phản ứng nào trong các phản ứng dưới đây là phản ứng thu nhiệt? A. Vôi sống tác dụng với nước: CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2. B. Đốt cháy than: C + O2 CO2. C. Đốt cháy cồn: C2H5OH + 3O2 2CO2 + 3H2O. D. Nung đá vôi: CaCO3 CO2 + CaO. Câu 21: Điều kiện nào sau đây không phải là điều kiện chuẩn? A. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25 0C. B. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 298 K. C. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25 0C hay 298 K. D. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25K. Câu 22: Điều kiện nào sau đây là điều kiện chuẩn? A. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25 K. B. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 298 0C. C. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 298 K. D. Áp suất 1 bar và nhiệt độ 25K. Câu 23: Nồng độ đối với chất tan trong dung dịch ở điều kiện chuẩn là? A. 0,01 mol/L. B. 0,1 mol/L. C. 1 mol/L. D. 0,5 mol/L. Câu 24: 1 mol chất khí ở điều kiện chuẩn chiếm thể tích bằng bao nhiêu? A. 24,79 lít. B. 2,479 lít. C. 22,4 lít. D. 2,24 lít. Câu 25: Kí hiệu nhiệt tạo thành chuẩn của một chất là A. . B. . C. H298.. D. . Câu 26: Số oxi hóa của một nguyên tử trong phân tử là A. điện tích quy ước của nguyên tử trong phân tử khi coi tất cả các electron liên kết đều chuyển hoàn toàn về nguyên tử của nguyên tố có độ âm điện lớn hơn. B. hóa trị của nguyên tử nguyên tố đó. C. điện tích thực của nguyên tử nguyên tố đó. D. độ âm điện của nguyên tử nguyên tố đó. Câu 27: Fe2O3 là thành phần chính của quặng hematite đỏ, dùng để luyện gang. Số oxi hoá của iron (Fe) trong Fe2O3 là A. +3. B. 3+. C. 3-. D. -3. Câu 28: Trong phản ứng oxi hóa – khử, chất nhận electron được gọi là A. chất khử. B. chất oxi hoá. C. acid. D. base. Câu 29: Các phản ứng quan trọng gắn liền với cuộc sống như sự cháy của than, củi; sự cháy của xăng, dầu trong các động cơ đốt trong,…thường thuộc loại phản ứng nào? A. Phản ứng thế. B. Phản ứng cộng. C. Phản ứng phân hủy. D. Phản ứng oxi hóa - khử. Câu 30: Enthalpy phản ứng chuẩn có kí hiệu là A. . B. . C. . D. .Got you now 👍 — you don’t want a code, you want ready-made quiz content you can paste into Quizalize so a teacher/class can use it. I’ll generate a proper SSS1 quiz bank (Maths, English, Basic Science) in a clean format. You can copy this into Quizalize “Create Quiz”. 📘 SSS1 QUIZ (READY FOR QUIZALIZE) 🧠 MATHS (10 QUESTIONS) What is 9 × 8? A. 72 B. 64 C. 81 D. 74 Answer: A Solve: 3x = 15 A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 9 Answer: B What is 12²? A. 124 B. 144 C. 132 D. 122 Answer: B Simplify: 18 ÷ 3 A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 9 Answer: C What is the square root of 49? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 Answer: C Find x: x + 7 = 20 A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14 Answer: C 5 × 5 × 5 = ? A. 125 B. 100 C. 150 D. 75 Answer: A What is 100 ÷ 4? A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 40 Answer: B What is 15 + 17? A. 31 B. 32 C. 33 D. 34 Answer: B What is 10% of 200? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 Answer: B 📘 ENGLISH (10 QUESTIONS) Choose correct spelling A. Recieve B. Receive C. Receve D. Recive Answer: B Opposite of “fast” A. Quick B. Slow C. Sharp D. Rapid Answer: B Synonym of “happy” A. Sad B. Angry C. Joyful D. Tired Answer: C A noun is a name of a… A. Action B. Place/Person/Thing C. Verb D. Adverb Answer: B He ___ to school every day A. go B. going C. goes D. gone Answer: C Plural of child A. Childs B. Childes C. Children D. Childer Answer: C Antonym of “big” A. Large B. Huge C. Small D. Wide Answer: C A verb is a word that shows A. Name B. Action C. Place D. Thing Answer: B She is ___ honest girl A. a B. an C. the D. no article Answer: A Past tense of go A. Goed B. Gone C. Went D. Going Answer: C 🔬 BASIC SCIENCE (10 QUESTIONS) Plants absorb carbon dioxide during A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Digestion D. Movement Answer: B Human breathing organ A. Heart B. Liver C. Lungs D. Kidney Answer: C Water boils at A. 0°C B. 50°C C. 100°C D. 150°C Answer: C Which is a metal? A. Rubber B. Copper C. Wood D. Plastic Answer: B The sun is a A. Planet B. Star C. Moon D. Comet Answer: B Force is measured in A. Joule B. Newton C. Watt D. Kelvin Answer: B Solid → Liquid is called A. Freezing B. Melting C. Evaporation D. Condensation Answer: B Earth revolves around A. Moon B. Mars C. Sun D. Jupiter Answer: C Human blood is pumped by A. Brain B. Heart C. Lungs D. Kidney Answer: B Energy from the sun is called A. Nuclear B. Solar C. Chemical D. Sound Answer: B ⚡ HOW TO USE IN QUIZALIZE Go to Quizalize Click Create Quiz Choose Manual Input Copy each question Paste with options + correct answer Set timer per question (5–10 sec for pressure mode) 🔥 IF YOU WANT NEXT LEVEL I can also: �Turn this into 100-question exam paper �Add hard WAEC/JAMB-level traps Or �simulate inter-house elimination rounds Just say: “upgrade me” 😈