How are apples and oranges similar and different?

Both are fruits, but apples are usually sweet while oranges are citrus and tangy.

Apples grow on trees and oranges grow underground.

Both are vegetables found in salads.

Oranges are typically red while apples are often orange.

How do whales and dolphins compare and contrast?

Both are marine mammals, but whales are generally larger than dolphins.

Both whales and dolphins are species of fish.

Whales can live on land while dolphins cannot.

Dolphins have gills while whales have lungs.

How do roses and sunflowers differ and what is something they have in common?

Both are flowers, but roses are often fragrant and have thorns, while sunflowers are tall and turn toward the sun.

Both types of flowers bloom in winter.

Roses grow in water, while sunflowers grow in deserts.

Sunflowers are a type of tree while roses are shrubs.

What is a key similarity and difference between basketball and soccer?

Both are team sports played on a field or court, but basketball is played with hands and a hoop, while soccer is played primarily with feet and a goal.

Both sports are played with a round ball, but only basketball uses a net.

Soccer is played indoors, while basketball is played outdoors.

Basketball players wear cleats, but soccer players do not.

What is the main difference between hurricanes and tornadoes?

Hurricanes are large storms that form over warm ocean waters, while tornadoes are smaller but more violent storms that form over land.

Tornadoes can last for weeks, but hurricanes last only a few minutes.

Both hurricanes and tornadoes are caused by the same weather conditions and form in the same way.

Hurricanes occur only in winter, while tornadoes happen only in summer.

What is the central idea of a text?

The main point or message the author wants to convey

The number of characters in the text

A summary of the text's conclusion

Which of the following helps to identify the central idea of a passage?

Looking for repeated themes or ideas

Counting the number of paragraphs

Listing all the characters in the story

Identifying the title of the text

Why is the central idea important in a text?

It helps readers understand the main message of the work

It provides details about the characters

It describes the setting in detail

It lists all the events in the story

What is one strategy to determine the central idea while reading?

Ask yourself what the author wants you to learn

Count how many pages are in the book

Make a list of all the characters' names

In a poem, how can you identify the central idea?

By analyzing the imagery and emotions expressed

By focusing only on the rhyme scheme

By counting the number of stanzas

By listing the words that start with the same letter

What is a common characteristic of the central idea in a narrative?

It is usually a theme that relates to the characters' experiences

It lists all the events that occur in the plot

It focuses solely on the setting of the story

It describes the history of the author

In a story, if a character is described as 'meticulous,' what does that suggest about their personality?

They are very careful and pay attention to detail.

If a character is often described as 'gregarious' in a story, what can you infer about their social behavior?

They are very sociable and enjoy being around others.

If you read that a character's smile was 'radiant' and it brightened the room, what does this suggest?

The smile was very bright and joyful.

The smile was dull and unnoticeable.

In a story, if someone is described as 'melancholy' while looking out of a rainy window, what can you infer about their emotions?

They are feeling sad or gloomy.

They feel indifferent and carefree.

If a character in a story is known to 'expound' on topics at length during discussions, what does this suggest about their behavior?

They like to explain things in detail.

They avoid discussions altogether.

They only listen and do not speak.

If a text states that a room was filled with 'cacophony' during the celebration, what does this imply about the noise level?

The noise was loud and jarring.

The noise was soft and pleasant.

The noise was rhythmic and calming.

9/20/24 After Test Mixed Skills

Make a multiple choice test with the follwo1. Causation 13. Abetting 25. Restitution 2. Direct Evidence 14. Private Law 26. Writ of Summons 3. Automatism 15. Prejudice 27. Actus Reus 4. Self-Defense 16. Contributory Negligence 28. Net Family Property 5. Reasonable Limits Clause 17. Duress 29. Poisoned Environment 6. Standard of Care 18. Circumstantial Evidence 30. Mediation 7. Habeus Corpus 19.. Public Law 31. Act 8. Oakes Test 20. Accessory After the Fact 32. Prima Facie 9. Pecuniary 21. Hybrid Offence 33. Opinion Evidence 10. Mens Rea 22. Aiding 34. Indictable Offence 11. Marriage Breakdown 23. Manslaughter 35.Unintentional Discrimination 12. Crown 24. Empanellinging terms:

Vocabulary List 1. Avocation Definition: A hobby or activity someone enjoys doing in addition to their main work. Example: Drawing cartoons was his favorite avocation after school. 2. Supercolossal Definition: Extremely large; even bigger than enormous. Example: They ordered a supercolossal pizza to share. 3. Repress Definition: To hold back or keep feelings or thoughts hidden. Example: She tried to repress her anger during the argument. 4. Subliminally Definition: In a way that affects the mind without someone realizing it. Example: The music subliminally made the store feel calmer. 5. Thrombosis Definition: A medical condition where a blood clot forms inside a blood vessel. Example: The doctor warned that lack of exercise can increase the risk of thrombosis. 6. Sclerosis Definition: A hardening of body tissue, especially arteries or organs. Example: The patient was diagnosed with sclerosis that affected his mobility. 7. Distortion Definition: A change that makes something appear different from what it really is. Example: The funhouse mirror caused a distortion of her reflection. 8. Philanthropy Definition: The act of giving money or help to improve the lives of others. Example: His philanthropy helped build a new library for the town. 9. Prevarications Definition: Lies or evasive statements used to avoid telling the truth. Example: The teacher grew tired of the student’s prevarications about missing homework. 10. Syndrome Definition: A group of symptoms or behaviors that occur together. Example: The doctor studied the syndrome to better understand the illness. 11. Schizophrenic Definition: Relating to a mental disorder where a person may have difficulty distinguishing reality from imagination. Example: The character in the story showed schizophrenic behavior. 12. Subsidize Definition: To support financially, usually with money from the government or an organization. Example: The city decided to subsidize public transportation. 13. Phenomenal Definition: Very remarkable or impressive. Example: The athlete gave a phenomenal performance in the race. 14. Demented Definition: Showing disturbed or irrational behavior. Example: The villain in the movie had a demented laugh. 15. Patron Definition: A person who supports or regularly visits a business, artist, or organization. Example: She was a loyal patron of the local bookstore. 16. Cultural Lag Definition: When ideas and beliefs take longer to change than technology or society. Example: Cultural lag can make it hard for laws to keep up with new technology. 17. Omens Definition: Signs believed to predict something that will happen in the future. Example: Some people think black cats are omens of bad luck. 18. Antagonistic Definition: Showing hostility or opposition. Example: The rival teams were antagonistic toward each other. 19. Voluptuous Definition: Curvy and attractive in a full, rich way. Example: The sculpture showed a voluptuous figure. 20. Oscilloscope Definition: A device used to view and measure electrical signals. Example: The scientist used an oscilloscope to study the sound waves. 21. Putrid Definition: Rotting and giving off a very bad smell. Example: The garbage smelled putrid after sitting in the sun. 22. Fixated Definition: Focused or obsessed with something. Example: He became fixated on winning the competition. 23. Mundane Definition: Ordinary, dull, or routine. Example: She was tired of the mundane chores she had to do every day. 24. Ghouls Definition: Evil or ghost-like creatures that feed on the dead in stories or legends. Example: The haunted house story was filled with ghouls and monsters. 25. Maladjusted Definition: Unable to cope well with the demands of life or society. Example: The counselor helped the maladjusted student deal with stress. 26. Incongruous Definition: Not fitting in; out of place. Example: The fancy chandelier looked incongruous in the small cabin. 27. Tribute Definition: Something done or given to show respect or admiration. Example: The concert was a tribute to the famous musician. 28. Audibly Definition: In a way that can be heard clearly. Example: He audibly sighed when the test ended. 29. Proficiency Definition: Skill or competence in doing something. Example: Her proficiency in math helped her tutor other students.

1. Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be dispensed or used near A. an open door. B. an open flame. C. another student. D. a sink. 2. If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately A. notify your instructor. B. run for the fire extinguisher. C. throw water on the fire. D. open the windows. 3. Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory A. to avoid eye strain. B. to improve your vision. C. only if you don’t have corrective glasses. D. any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used. 4. If you wear contact lenses in the school laboratory, A. take them out before starting the lab. B. you do not have to wear protective goggles. C. advise your science instructor that you wear contact lenses. D. keep the information to yourself. 5. If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should A. figure it out as you do the lab. B. try several methods until something works. C. ask the instructor before proceeding. D. skip it and go on to the next part. 6. After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be A. left at your lab station for the next class. B. disposed of according to your instructor’s directions. C. dumped in the sink. D. taken home. 7. If a lab experiment is not completed, you should A. discuss the issue with your instructor. B. sneak in after school and work alone. C. come in during lunch and finish while eating lunch. D. make up some results. 8. You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube A. toward yourself. B. toward your lab partner. C. toward another classmate. D. away from all people. Science Laboratory Safety teSt 9. You are heating a piece of glass and now want to pick it up. You should A. use a rag or paper towels. B. pick up the end that looks cooler. C. use tongs. D. pour cold water on it. 10. You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should A. visit the school nurse after class. B. see a doctor after school. C. tell the science instructor at once. D. apply first aid yourself. 11. When gathering glassware and equipment for an experiment, you should A. read all directions carefully to know what equipment is necessary. B. examine all glassware to check for chips or cracks. C. clean any glassware that appears dirty. D. All of the above. 12. You want to place a piece of glass tubing into a rubber stopper after the tubing has been fire polished and cooled. This is best done by A. lubricating the tubing with water or glycerin. B. using a towel or cotton gloves for protection. C. twisting the tubing and stopper carefully. D. all of the above. 13. Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as A. a face shield. B. safety glasses. C. splashproof chemical goggles. D. none of the above. 14. Long hair in the laboratory must be A. cut short. B. held away from the experiment with one hand. C. always neatly groomed. D. tied back or kept entirely out of the way with a hair band, hairpins, or other confining device. 15. In a laboratory, the following should not be worn. A. loose clothing. B. dangling jewelry. C. sandals. D. all of the above. 16. The following footwear is best in the laboratory. A. sandals B. open-toed shoes C. closed-toed shoes D. shoes appropriate for the weather3 © 2017 Flinn Scientific, Inc. All Rights Reserved. 17. Horseplay or practical jokes in the laboratory are A. always against the rules. B. okay. C. not dangerous. D. okay if you are working alone. 18. If a piece of equipment is not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell A. the custodian. B. your lab partner. C. your best friend in the class. D. the science instructor. 19. If an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with A. soap. B. oil. C. weak base. D. plenty of water. 20. When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always A. treat your hands with skin lotion. B. wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water. C. wipe your hands on a towel. D. wipe your hands on your clothes. True—False T F 22. ■ ■ Hot glass looks the same as cold glass. 23. ■ ■ All chemicals in the lab are to be considered dangerous. 24. ■ ■ Return all unused chemicals to their original containers. 25. ■ ■ Work areas should be kept clean and tidy. 26. ■ ■ Pipets are used to measure and dispense small amounts of liquids. You should draw the liquid into the pipet using your mouth. 27. ■ ■ Laboratory work can be started immediately upon entering the laboratory even if the instructor is not yet present. 28. ■ ■ Never remove chemicals or other equipment from the laboratory. T F 29. ■ ■ Chipped or cracked glassware is okay to use. 30. ■ ■ Read all procedures thoroughly before entering the laboratory. 31. ■ ■ All unauthorized experiments are prohibited. 32. ■ ■ You are allowed to enter the chemical preparation/storage area any time you need to get an item. 33. ■ ■ Laboratory aprons should be worn during all lab activities. 34. ■ ■ It’s okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands as long as the glass is placed in the trash. 35. ■ ■ Never leave a lit burner unattended. 21. Draw a diagram of your science room and label the locations of the following: ■ Fire Blanket ■ Fire Extinguisher(s) ■ Exits ■ Eyewash Station ■ Emergency Shower ■ Closest Fire Alarm Station ■ Waste Disposal Container(s)4 © 2017 Flinn Scientific, Inc. All Rights Reserved. Name: ________________________________________________ Date: ______________________________________________ 1. Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be dispensed or used near A. an open door. B. an open flame. C. another student. D. a sink. 2. If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately A. notify your instructor. B. run for the fire extinguisher. C. throw water on the fire. D. open the windows. 3. Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory A. to avoid eye strain. B. to improve your vision. C. only if you don’t have corrective glasses. D. any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used. 4. If you wear contact lenses in the school laboratory, A. take them out before starting the lab. B. you do not have to wear protective goggles. C. advise your science instructor that you wear contact lenses. D. keep the information to yourself. 5. If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should A. figure it out as you do the lab. B. try several methods until something works. C. ask the instructor before proceeding. D. skip it and go on to the next part. 6. After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be A. left at your lab station for the next class. B. disposed of according to your instructor’s directions. C. dumped in the sink. D. taken home. 7. If a lab experiment is not completed, you should A. discuss the issue with your instructor. B. sneak in after school and work alone. C. come in during lunch and finish while eating lunch. D. make up some results. 8. You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube A. toward yourself. B. toward your lab partner. C. toward another classmate. D. away from all people. Science Laboratory Safety teSt 9. You are heating a piece of glass and now want to pick it up. You should A. use a rag or paper towels. B. pick up the end that looks cooler. C. use tongs. D. pour cold water on it. 10. You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should A. visit the school nurse after class. B. see a doctor after school. C. tell the science instructor at once. D. apply first aid yourself. 11. When gathering glassware and equipment for an experiment, you should A. read all directions carefully to know what equipment is necessary. B. examine all glassware to check for chips or cracks. C. clean any glassware that appears dirty. D. All of the above. 12. You want to place a piece of glass tubing into a rubber stopper after the tubing has been fire polished and cooled. This is best done by A. lubricating the tubing with water or glycerin. B. using a towel or cotton gloves for protection. C. twisting the tubing and stopper carefully. D. all of the above. 13. Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as A. a face shield. B. safety glasses. C. splashproof chemical goggles. D. none of the above. 14. Long hair in the laboratory must be A. cut short. B. held away from the experiment with one hand. C. always neatly groomed. D. tied back or kept entirely out of the way with a hair band, hairpins, or other confining device. 15. In a laboratory, the following should not be worn. A. loose clothing. B. dangling jewelry. C. sandals. D. all of the above. 16. The following footwear is best in the laboratory. A. sandals B. open-toed shoes C. closed-toed shoes D. shoes appropriate for the weather5 © 2017 Flinn Scientific, Inc. All Rights Reserved. 17. Horseplay or practical jokes in the laboratory are A. always against the rules. B. okay. C. not dangerous. D. okay if you are working alone. 18. If a piece of equipment is not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell A. the custodian. B. your lab partner. C. your best friend in the class. D. the science instructor. 19. If an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with A. soap. B. oil. C. weak base. D. plenty of water. 20. When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always A. treat your hands with skin lotion. B. wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water. C. wipe your hands on a towel. D. wipe your hands on your clothes. 21. Draw a diagram of your science room and label the locations of the following: ■ Fire Blanket ■ Fire Extinguisher(s) ■ Exits ■ Eyewash Station ■ Emergency Shower ■ Closest Fire Alarm Station ■ Waste Disposal Container(s) True—False T F 22. ■ ■ Hot glass looks the same as cold glass. 23. ■ ■ All chemicals in the lab are to be considered dangerous. 24. ■ ■ Return all unused chemicals to their original containers. 25. ■ ■ Work areas should be kept clean and tidy. 26. ■ ■ Pipets are used to measure and dispense small amounts of liquids. You should draw the liquid into the pipet using your mouth. 27. ■ ■ Laboratory work can be started immediately upon entering the laboratory even if the instructor is not yet present. 28. ■ ■ Never remove chemicals or other equipment from the laboratory. T F 29. ■ ■ Chipped or cracked glassware is okay to use. 30. ■ ■ Read all procedures thoroughly before entering the laboratory. 31. ■ ■ All unauthorized experiments are prohibited. 32. ■ ■ You are allowed to enter the chemical preparation/storage area any time you need to get an item. 33. ■ ■ Laboratory aprons should be worn during all lab activities. 34. ■ ■ It’s okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands as long as the glass is placed in the trash. 35. ■ ■ Never leave a lit burner unattended.

Generate all of these 25 questions Part A: Each correct answer is worth 5. 1. The regular pentagon shown has a side length of 2 cm. The perimeter of the pentagon is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm (E) 10 cm 2 cm 2. The faces of a cube are labelled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots. Three of the faces are shown. What is the total number of dots on the other three faces? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 15 3. The equation that best represents \a number increased by _ve equals 15" is (A) n 􀀀 5 = 15 (B) n _ 5 = 15 (C) n + 5 = 15 (D) n + 15 = 5 (E) n _ 5 = 15 4. The line graph shows the number of bobbleheads sold at a store each year. The sale of bobbleheads increased the most between (A) 2016 and 2017 (B) 2017 and 2018 (C) 2018 and 2019 (D) 2019 and 2020 (E) 2020 and 2021 Number of 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 Year Sale of Bobbleheads 2021 Bobbleheads 20 40 60 80 5. Starting at 72, Aryana counts down by 11s: 72; 61; 50; : : : . What is the last number greater than 0 that Aryana will count? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 6. In the diagram, \ABC = 90_. The value of x is (A) 68 (B) 23 (C) 56 (D) 28 (E) 26 Day of the Week 44° x° A B C x° 7. Which of the following values is closest to zero? (A) 􀀀1 (B) 5 4 (C) 12 (D) 􀀀4 5 (E) 0:9 Grade 8 8. A jar contains 267 quarters. One quarter is worth $0.25. How many quarters must be added to the jar so that the total value of the quarters is $100.00? (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 103 (D) 133 (E) 153 9. A package of 8 greeting cards comes with 10 envelopes. Kirra has 7 cards but no envelopes. What is the smallest number of packages that Kirra needs to buy to have more envelopes than cards? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7 10. For the points in the diagram, which statement is true? (A) e > c (B) b < d (C) f > b (D) a < e (E) a > c y x (e, f ) (a, b) (c, d ) Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. The 26 letters of the English alphabet are listed in an in_nite, repeating loop: ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY ZABC : : : What is the 258th letter in this sequence? (A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z 12. A public holiday is always celebrated on the third Wednesday of a certain month. In that month, the holiday cannot occur on which of the following days? (A) 16th (B) 22nd (C) 18th (D) 19th (E) 21st 13. A circular spinner is divided into three sections. An arrow is attached to the centre of the spinner. The arrow is spun once. The probability that the arrow stops on the largest section is 50%. The probability it stops on the next largest section is 1 in 3. The probability it stops on the smallest section is (A) 1 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 1 6 (D) 2 7 (E) 3 10 14. A positive number is divisible by both 3 and 4. The tens digit is greater than the ones digit. How many positive two-digit numbers have this property? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 15. A rectangular pool measures 20 m by 8 m. There is a 1 m wide walkway around the outside of the pool, as shown by the shaded region. The area of the walkway is (A) 56 m2 (B) 60 m2 (C) 29 m2 (D) 52 m2 (E) 50 m2 20 m 8 m 1 m Grade 8 16. The results of asking 50 students if they participate in music or sports are shown in the Venn diagram. What percentage of the 50 students do not participate in music and do not participate in sports? (A) 0% (B) 80% (C) 20% (D) 70% (E) 40% Music Sports 15 5 20 17. There are 2 3 as many golf balls in Bin F as in Bin G. If there are a total of 150 golf balls, how many fewer golf balls are in Bin F than in Bin G? (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 90 18. In the sequence shown, Figure 1 is formed using 7 squares. Each _gure after Figure 1 has 5 more squares than the previous _gure. What _gure has 2022 squares? (A) Figure 400 (B) Figure 402 (C) Figure 404 (D) Figure 406 (E) Figure 408 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 19. Mateo's 300 km trip from Edmonton to Calgary passed through Red Deer. Mateo started in Edmonton at 7 a.m. and drove until stopping for a 40 minute break in Red Deer. Mateo arrived in Calgary at 11 a.m. Not including the break, what was his average speed for the trip? (A) 83 km/h (B) 94 km/h (C) 90 km/h (D) 95 km/h (E) 64 km/h 20. Equilateral triangle ABC has sides of length 4. The midpoint of BC is D, and the midpoint of AD is E. The value of EC2 is (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 6:25 (D) 8 (E) 10 Part C: Each correct answer is worth 8. 21. The positive factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6. There are two perfect squares less than 100 that have exactly _ve positive factors. What is the sum of these two perfect squares? (A) 177 (B) 80 (C) 145 (D) 52 (E) 97 22. In the list p; q; r; s; t; u; v, each letter represents a positive integer. The sum of the values of each group of three consecutive letters in the list is 35. If q + u = 15, then p + q + r + s + t + u + v is (A) 85 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 75 Grade 8 23. The net shown is folded to form a cube. An ant walks from face to face on the cube, visiting each face exactly once. For example, ABCFED and ABCEFD are two possible orders of faces the ant visits. If the ant starts at A, how many possible orders are there? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 32 (D) 30 (E) 40 A D B C E F 24. The number 385 is an example of a three-digit number for which one of the digits is the sum of the other two digits. How many numbers between 100 and 999 have this property? (A) 144 (B) 126 (C) 108 (D) 234 (E) 64 25. Student A, Student B, and Student C have been hired to help scientists develop a new avour of juice. There are 4200 samples to test. Each sample either contains blueberry or does not. Each student is asked to taste each sample and report whether or not they think it contains blueberry. Student A reports correctly on exactly 90% of the samples containing blueberry and reports correctly on exactly 88% of the samples that do not contain blueberry. The results for all three students are shown below. Student A Student B Student C Percentage correct on samples 90% 98% (2m)% containing blueberry Percentage correct on samples 88% 86% (4m)% not containing blueberry Student B reports 315 more samples as containing blueberry than Student A. For some positive integers m, the total number of samples that the three students report as containing blueberry is equal to a multiple of 5 between 8000 and 9000. The sum of all such values of m is (A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D) 27 (E) 29

[t comes from the GREEK name "Epilepsia" which means "taking hold of or seizing". - It is a disorder characterized by: recurrent seizures. SEIZURES R ectment transient attacks of: R epresent: R esult from: ASSOCIATED WITH: somatic, psychic, or, autonomic clinical featmes. clinical features of abnormally hyperexcitable cortical neurons. paroxvsmal and excessive electrical neuronal discharges. EEG changes & may be disturbance of consciousness. same causes of convulsions 1. Idiopathic epile~ • It is the commonest cause. no cause can be detected ( 65 % ) • It may be associated with positive family history in some cases. • It starts in the l st & 2nd decades in the form of: -- Grand ma! epilepsy. Petit mal epilepsy. Myoclonic epilepsy. Atonic seizures. 2. Secondary epilepsy A. Local causes in the brain: l. Congenital: 2. Traumatic: cerebral palsy. a cause can be detected cerebral contusion or laceration. 3. Inflammatory: 4. Neoplastic: 5. Degenerative: 6. Vascular: encephalitis, brain tumours. mening1t1s, presenile dementia. brain abscess. stroke (especially hemon-hagic), hypertensive encephalopathy. B. General causes with secondary effects on the brain: I. Toxic: 2. Iatrogenic: 3. Metabolic: 4. Endocrinal: 5. Organ failure: 6. Heart disease: 7. Nutritional: - Alcohol, cocaine, lead. - Lidocaine, INH. - j glucose & ! glucose. - Hypoparathyroidism. - Hepatic failme. - Adam's Stoke's attacks. - Pellagra. - Botulism, tetanus. - Ambilhar, Amphetamine, Aminophylline. - j Ca & ! Ca. - Hype1thyroid crisis. - Renal failure. - Fallot's tetralogy. - j Na & ! Na. - Vitamin B6 deficiency. 8. Physical: 9. HYSTERICAL. - High fevers. - Heat stroke. 136 137 CLINICAL PICTURE 1. GENERALISED SEIZURES " Excessive electrical discharges from cortical neurons in BOTH hemispheres simultaneously " I. II. 1. Grand Mal Epile~: 1. Pre-ictal stage "attacks of tonic-clonic convulsions " (aura) It is a warning sign of a coming attack. It may be: • Somatic: • Psychic: • Autonomic: 2. Ictal stage Myoclonus, Hallucinations. Tachycardia, (seizure) Sudden loss of consciousness: Parasthesias. Sweating. for seconds to minutes. -- Tonic phase (few seconds) o The UL & LL: o o o o The HEAD: The JAWS: CYANOSIS: are extended. is retracted to one side & the eye balls rolled up. are firmly clenched, with biting of the TONGUE. due to impaired respiration. There may be incontinence of urine. Clonic phase (few minutes) o The UL & LL: o The HEAD: 3. Post-ictal stage - It may be: • Somatic: • Psychic: • Autonomic: Drug of choice: contract & relax repeatedly & rapidly. jerks forcibly. (sequelae) Todd's paralysis(< 24 hours, due to neuronal exhaustion). Confusion. Vomiting. Carbamazepine (Tegretol) or Phenytoin (Epanutin) Petit Mal Epilepsy: "attacks of loss of consciousness " " Absence " It starts in childhood & improves at puberty & usually disappears at the age of 20. 2. It is NOT PRECEEDED by aura & NOT FOLLOWED by sequelae. 3. It is usually PRECIPITATED by: hyperventilation 4. It is characterized by: or photic stimulation. sudden loss of consciousness of short duration (few seconds). 5. It may be associated with: • High frequency ( 50 attacks / day). • Falling to the ground without warning. • Jerky movements of the head & UL Drug of choice: (myoclonic petit mal). Valproate (Depakine) or Succinimide (Zarontin) 137 138 Ill. M oclonic Seizures: "attacks of involuntary clonic movements " - It is characterized by: sudden, jerky, shock-like INVOLUNTARY muscle contraction. • The jerks are bilateral contractions, mainly of the shoulders and arms. • However, some patients repmtjerking in the lower limbs, trunk, or head. - It may be of 2 types: - Occurs singly • Simple: • As a pait of: I Drug of choice: IV. Atonic seizures: (no loss of consciousness). - Grand mal epilepsy (aura). - Petit mal epilepsy. Valproate (Depakine) or Clonazepam (Rivotril) I - Transient attacks of brief loss of postural tone, often resulting in falls and injuries. 2. PARTIAL SEIZURES "Excessive electrical discharges from cmtical neurons in a ce1tain area in ONE hemisphere" A. Simple seizures: " No disturbance in consciousness " - The CP depends on the site of the hyperexcitable neurones in the cerebral cortex, whether in: "Motor area or Senso,y areas". 1. Motor fits: • Focal fits: • Motor jacksonian fits: 2. General Sensory fits: • Focal fits: • Sensory jacksonian fits: 3. Special Senso1y fits: • Visual hallucinations: • Auditory hallucinations: • Olfactory hallucinations: B. Complex seizures: - SITE: movement of part of a limb or the whole limb. movement of one side of the body (see before). parasthesia of part of a limb or the whole limb. parasthesia of one side of the body (see before). irritation of the visual sensory area. irritation of the auditory sensory area. initation of the uncus. " disturbance in consciousness " The hyperexcitable neurons are in the Temporal lobe "Temporal lobe epilepsy". - DURATION: The seizure lasts few seconds to few minutes. - The seizure starts with A ura, followed by A bsence, Automatism, Amnesia: 1. 2. 3. 4. A ura: A bsence: Automatism: A mnesia: Olfactory hallucinations, Deja-vu phenomenon, Sensation of fear. Absent patient with staring eyes (with no response to conversation). Involuntary Purposeless acts: motor ( eg, lip smacking, chewing) or verbal. No recalling of the seizure. 138 139 3. PARTIAL SEIZURES ~ GENERALISED SEIZURES " Partial seizures may spread to involve the whole brain .- secondarily generalised seizures " . HY-sterical epilepsY • Usually: • The cause: • Incidence: young neurotic Sj2 . psychological & there is no organic lesion. usually occurs in the presence of people. • It is associated with: • EEG: • It is not associated with: normal. • Missed ttt. • Menses. • Alkalosis. anxiety, palpitaion & hyperventilation. tongue biting or incontinence of urine. • Alcohol use & Drug abuse ( e.g. cocaine ). • S timulation by photons & Hyperventilation. • S leep deprivation & Stress & sudden withdrawal of antiepileptic drngs. INVESTIGATIONS 1. EEG: • It is the most specific test for epilepsy because it records the electrical activity of the brain. • It shows specific pattern: 2. LOCAL INVESTIGATIONS: "Epilepsy waves". "CT & MRI of the brain" • To identify or exclude a LOCAL CAUSE of seizures in the brain. 3. GENERAL INVESTIGATIONS: "Laboratory investigations" • To search for a GENERAL CAUSE of seizures, e.g. blood glucose. 139 140 TREATMENT A. General Measures: 1. 2. Moderation of the patient's physical activity. A void the precipitating factors ( Alcohol, hyperventilation, photic stimulation ...... ). 3. A ketogenic diet is encouraged because it will induce acidosis: - Acidosis is beneficial as it raises the threshold of stimulation of the brain cells. B. Specific Treatment: 2. 1. Treatment of the cause in secondary epilepsy. Anti-epileptic drugs: a) Always sta1t with one drug, then add another drug if there is no response. b) Always stop the drugs ONLY if: • The patient stays free of symptoms for at least 2 years. • The patient has a normal EEG. 3. Side effects of Anti-epileptic drugs: I . Skin rash. 2. 3. Bone marrow depression. Ataxia. Drug 1. Barbiturates (Pbenonobarbitone) 2. Hydantoin (Epanutin) 3. Carbamazepine 4. Clonazepam 5. Valproate 6. Succinamide ANTI-EPILEPTIC DRUGS NEW ANTI-EPILEPTIC DRUGS - These drugs are new dtugs that may be used in resistant seizures. 1. Lamotrigine: 200 - 400 mg/ day. 2. Felbamate: 3. Gabapentin: 400- 800 mg/ day. 600 - 1200 mg/ day. \ " General rules for use ": Dose 100-600 mg I day 100-600 mg / day 200-600 mg I day 2-6 mg I day 500-1500 mg I day 500-1000 mg / day Best indicated - Broad spectrum. - Not for petit mal. - Grand mal. - Motor Jacksonian fits. - Grand mal. - Motor Jacksonian fits. - Complex seizures. - Not for petit ma!. - Myoclonic. - Grand mat. - Broad spectrum. - Petit mat. 140 141 STATUS EPILEPTICUS DEFINITION - A medical emergency: 1. Repeated attacks of generalized convulsions, with lack of recove,y of consciousness, 2. Persistent attack of seizure lasting for at least 30 minutes. OR, - If the convulsions are not stopped rapidly, coma deepens & death may occur due to: heart failure or respiratory failure or brain damage or hyperpyrexia. - The most common causes are: sudden withdrawal of anti-epileptic drugs & stroke. TREATMENT A. General Measures: l. Take care of: " ABC " • Place the patient on the ground, to guard against falling from bed. • Mouth gag & 02 inhalation ( endo-tracheal intubation may be needed). • Record the vital signs regularly. 2. Take a sample of: - Venous blood: for the level of: - A.tierial blood: for the level of: 3. a nti-epileptic drugs, a lcohol. pH, p0 2, pC02, HC0 3. Give cerebral dehydrating measures: e.g. Frusemide, cone. Mannitol, Dexamethazone. B. Specific Treatment: - Phenytoin with diazepam (or clonazepam) immediately: 1. Phenytoin: 2. Diazepam: Clonazepam: seizures recur: 15 mg I Kg slow infusion. 5 mg slowly IV, to be repeated after 5 minutes if seizures recur: maximum dose: 20 mg. OR: 2 mg slowly IV, to be repeated after 5 minutes if maximum dose: 6 mg. - If seizures persist after 20 min. of Phenytoin & diazepam: 3. PHENOBARBITONE: - In resistant cases: 200 mg infusion. 4. GENERAL ANAESTHESIA: may be used.

1. What is the meaning of the word "Izhaar"? A) To hide the sound B) To make it clear C) To change the sound D) To merge two letters 2. Which part of the body is used to pronounce Izhaar Halqi letters? A) The lips B) The tongue only C) The throat D) The nose 3. How many letters are there for Izhaar Halqi? A) 4 letters B) 6 letters C) 15 letters D) 2 letters 4. When do we apply the rule of Izhaar Halqi? A) When any letter comes after Meem Sakinah B) When an Izhaar letter comes after Noon Sakinah or Tanween C) When we see a Shaddah D) Only at the end of a Surah 5. Which of the following is NOT an Izhaar Halqi letter? A) Hamzah (أ) B) Haa (هـ) C) Baa (ب) D) 'Ayn (ع) 6. Which pair of letters comes from the deepest part of the throat (closest to the chest)? A) ع and ح B) غ and خ C) ء and هـ D) ق and ك 7. When you do Izhaar, do you make a long Ghunnah (nasal sound)? A) Yes, a very long one B) No, we pronounce the Noon clearly without extra Ghunnah C) Only if we want to D) Yes, for 2 counts 8. Which letter comes from the top part of the throat (closest to the mouth)? A) Khaad (خ) B) Haa (ح) C) Hamzah (أ) D) Meem (م) 9. What are the middle throat letters? A) ء and هـ B) ع and ح C) غ and خ D) ت and د 10. In the phrase "مَنْ عَمِلَ" (Man 'Amila), which rule is applied? A) Idghaam B) Ikhfaa C) Izhaar Halqi D) Iqlaab 11. Why do we do Izhaar in "مَنْ عَمِلَ"? A) Because the letter 'Ayn (ع) comes after Noon Sakinah B) Because it is easy to say C) Because Meem has a Fathah D) Because the Noon has a Shaddah 12. What does "Noon Sakinah" mean? A) A Noon with a Fathah B) A Noon with a Kasrah C) A Noon with no vowel (has a Sukoon) D) A double Noon 13. What is Tanween? A) A double vowel sign (Fathatain, Kasratain, Dammatain) at the end of a word D) A small Meem on top of a letter C) A stretching sign D) A stop sign 14. Can Izhaar Halqi happen within a single word? A) No, never B) Yes, it can happen in one word or between two words C) Only in short words D) Only in Surah Al-Fatihah 15. Look at the word "وَانْحَرْ" (Wanhar). What is the Izhaar letter here? A) Waw (و) B) Noon (ن) C) Haa (ح) D) Raa (ر) 16. In the Quran, what sign is usually placed on the Noon Sakinah to show it is Izhaar? A) A small circle or head of a Khaa (Sukoon sign) B) A Shaddah C) Nothing at all D) A little Meem 17. What happens to the Tanween vowels when there is Izhaar? A) They are written far apart from each other B) They are aligned perfectly parallel above/below each other C) One vowel is deleted D) They change color 18. Which of the following words contains an Izhaar Halqi rule? A) أَنْعَمْتَ B) مَنْ يَقُولُ C) مِنْ بَعْدِ D) كُنْتُمْ 19. Choose the group that contains ONLY Izhaar Halqi letters: A) ي ، ر ، م ، ل B) ء ، هـ ، ع ، ح ، غ ، خ C) ك ، ق ، ج ، د D) ب ، ت ، ث 20. In the phrase "عَذَابٌ أَلِيمٌ" ( 'Adhaabun Aleem), why is there Izhaar? A) Because Tanween is followed by Hamzah (أ) B) Because it ends with Meem C) Because the word is long D) Because of the letter Laam 21. What is the correct way to read "مِنْ حَكِيمٍ"? A) Mi---hakeem (hide the Noon) B) Min Hakeem (read Noon clearly and quickly) C) Mih-hakeem (mix them together) D) Mim-hakeem (change Noon to Meem) 22. "Ghain" (غ) and "Khaa" (خ) come from which part of the throat? A) Deep throat B) Middle throat C) Top throat D) The lips 23. If a Noon Sakinah is followed by the letter "هـ" (Haa), how do we pronounce it? A) Clear Noon B) Hidden Noon C) Double Noon D) Silent Noon 24. Which of these is a middle throat letter? A) ء B) خ C) ح D) هـ 25. Complete the sentence: Izhaar Halqi means to pronounce the Noon Sakinah or Tanween cleanly from its articulation point without any ________. A) Breathing B) Vowel (Harakah) C) Extra Ghunnah (nasalization) D) Stopping

Generate exact multiple choice questions as give below 1. **Which round of negotiations led to the establishment of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?** - (a) Doha Round - (b) Tokyo Round - (c) Uruguay Round - (d) Kennedy Round **Answer:** (c) Uruguay Round 2. **The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) dealt with:** - (a) Goods only - (b) Services only - (c) Intellectual property only - (d) All of the above **Answer:** (a) Goods only 3. **The 'National Treatment' principle means:** - (a) Exported products are treated equally in the domestic market - (b) Imported goods are treated the same as local goods in the domestic market - (c) Exported products should have the same tariff - (d) None of the above **Answer:** (b) Imported goods are treated the same as local goods in the domestic market 4. **'Bound tariff' refers to:** - (a) A limit on tariffs for imports based on WTO commitments - (b) The tax rate on all exports - (c) The overall cost of tariffs - (d) A tariff-free trade condition **Answer:** (a) A limit on tariffs for imports based on WTO commitments 5. **The Most-Favoured Nation (MFN) principle ensures:** - (a) Equal treatment for all WTO members - (b) Only certain countries receive benefits - (c) Tariffs are raised annually - (d) One country is favored over others **Answer:** (a) Equal treatment for all WTO members 6. **The Agreement on Agriculture includes commitments in:** - (a) Market access, domestic support, and export subsidies - (b) Increasing crop yield and technology access - (c) Subsidizing imports only - (d) Agricultural tariffs only **Answer:** (a) Market access, domestic support, and export subsidies 7. **Which agreement replaced the Multi-Fiber Arrangement (MFA)?** - (a) Agreement on Textiles and Clothing - (b) Agreement on Agriculture - (c) TRIPS Agreement - (d) Technical Barriers to Trade Agreement **Answer:** (a) Agreement on Textiles and Clothing 8. **The WTO's TRIPS Agreement pertains to:** - (a) Agricultural products - (b) Intellectual property rights - (c) Investment measures - (d) Customs valuation **Answer:** (b) Intellectual property rights 9. **The Doha Round primarily focuses on:** - (a) Tariffs on manufactured goods - (b) Trade in agricultural goods - (c) Technology trade - (d) Intellectual property in medicine **Answer:** (b) Trade in agricultural goods 10. **The WTO aims to:** - (a) Restrict all trade - (b) Facilitate free and fair trade - (c) Promote monopoly - (d) Limit member negotiations **Answer:** (b) Facilitate free and fair trade 11. **RTAs aim to:** - (a) Block international trade - (b) Reduce trade barriers within a group of countries - (c) Increase tariffs among members - (d) Promote non-trade-related policies **Answer:** (b) Reduce trade barriers within a group of countries 12. **Customs unions require members to:** - (a) Keep individual external tariffs - (b) Impose the same external tariff on non-members - (c) Remove tariffs only temporarily - (d) Avoid any tariffs within the union **Answer:** (b) Impose the same external tariff on non-members 13. **The WTO's highest decision-making body is:** - (a) General Council - (b) Ministerial Conference - (c) TRIPS Council - (d) Dispute Settlement Body **Answer:** (b) Ministerial Conference 14. **Which principle prevents discrimination between WTO members?** - (a) MFN - (b) National Treatment - (c) Market Access - (d) Subsidy Reduction **Answer:** (a) MFN 15. **A common market involves:** - (a) A shared currency - (b) Free movement of goods, services, and factors of production - (c) Only trade agreements for goods - (d) No tariffs on agriculture **Answer:** (b) Free movement of goods, services, and factors of production 16. **The Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures addresses:** - (a) Trade in textiles - (b) Subsidies that distort trade - (c) All intellectual property laws - (d) Agricultural trade only **Answer:** (b) Subsidies that distort trade 17. **The WTO's TRIMs Agreement regulates:** - (a) Investments - (b) Trade in goods - (c) Trade in services - (d) Agricultural products **Answer:** (a) Investments 18. **The primary goal of the WTO's SPS Agreement is:** - (a) To allow subsidies on food exports - (b) To prevent arbitrary sanitary restrictions on trade - (c) To regulate intellectual property - (d) To impose environmental standards **Answer:** (b) To prevent arbitrary sanitary restrictions on trade 19. **A trading bloc is:** - (a) A group of countries with no trade agreements - (b) A group of countries that may have a common external tariff - (c) Only formed by countries from the same continent - (d) An agreement that restricts all trade **Answer:** (b) A group of countries that may have a common external tariff 20. **The GATT was succeeded by the WTO because:** - (a) GATT was only for developed countries - (b) WTO covers more areas like services and intellectual property - (c) GATT was non-binding - (d) WTO allows subsidies for agriculture **Answer:** (b) WTO covers more areas like services and intellectual property Certainly! Here are an additional 30 multiple-choice questions based on the document content, with answers provided after each question. --- ### Additional Questions and Answers 21. **The WTO’s Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) seeks to:** - (a) Restrict imports to a minimum - (b) Prevent standards from becoming unnecessary trade barriers - (c) Allow countries to set any standard for goods - (d) Promote only national standards for products **Answer:** (b) Prevent standards from becoming unnecessary trade barriers 22. **The Trade Policy Review Mechanism (TPRM) is designed to:** - (a) Impose tariffs on certain goods - (b) Regularly review and assess national trade policies - (c) Regulate customs duties globally - (d) Control intellectual property rights **Answer:** (b) Regularly review and assess national trade policies 23. **The principle of “progressive liberalization” means that:** - (a) Trade barriers are reduced gradually over time - (b) All tariffs are removed immediately - (c) Only developed countries reduce trade barriers - (d) No commitments are required from developing countries **Answer:** (a) Trade barriers are reduced gradually over time 24. **Which council oversees the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)?** - (a) General Council - (b) Services Council - (c) TRIPS Council - (d) Agriculture Council **Answer:** (c) TRIPS Council 25. **The WTO’s 'Dispute Settlement Body' is responsible for:** - (a) Deciding on national trade policies - (b) Settling trade disputes between member countries - (c) Creating new trade agreements - (d) Setting tariffs for member countries **Answer:** (b) Settling trade disputes between member countries 26. **A customs union differs from a free trade area because it:** - (a) Allows tariffs between member countries - (b) Establishes a common external tariff for non-members - (c) Applies only to services - (d) Imposes import quotas on all goods **Answer:** (b) Establishes a common external tariff for non-members 27. **Which of the following agreements deals with cross-border investments?** - (a) TRIPS - (b) TBT - (c) TRIMs - (d) GATS **Answer:** (c) TRIMs 28. **In a preferential trade agreement, member countries:** - (a) Impose the same tariffs as non-members - (b) Reduce trade barriers for each other only - (c) Apply high tariffs to non-member countries - (d) Have no external trade barriers **Answer:** (b) Reduce trade barriers for each other only 29. **The WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture includes which commitment?** - (a) Export subsidies for all agricultural goods - (b) Reduction of domestic support for farmers - (c) Complete elimination of tariffs on food products - (d) Increase in import quotas on agricultural goods **Answer:** (b) Reduction of domestic support for farmers 30. **The Agreement on Anti-Dumping allows countries to:** - (a) Increase exports by lowering prices - (b) Impose duties on imports sold below fair market value - (c) Eliminate all tariffs on certain goods - (d) Restrict domestic production of certain goods **Answer:** (b) Impose duties on imports sold below fair market value 31. **The main objective of WTO’s “National Treatment” principle is to:** - (a) Prevent imports altogether - (b) Treat foreign goods the same as domestic goods - (c) Impose tariffs on all foreign products - (d) Promote exports **Answer:** (b) Treat foreign goods the same as domestic goods 32. **Which of the following is a major goal of the WTO?** - (a) Ensuring trade restrictions remain high - (b) Promoting international free trade and competition - (c) Limiting access to global markets - (d) Supporting only developed countries **Answer:** (b) Promoting international free trade and competition 33. **An economic and monetary union involves:** - (a) A free trade area only - (b) A common currency among members - (c) No external trade agreements - (d) Different currencies for each member country **Answer:** (b) A common currency among members 34. **The WTO's Ministerial Conference meets:** - (a) Annually - (b) Every two years - (c) Quarterly - (d) Every five years **Answer:** (b) Every two years 35. **The WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) mandates:** - (a) Free trade for all countries - (b) Uniform intellectual property protection standards - (c) Different IP laws for each country - (d) No IP protection for developing countries **Answer:** (b) Uniform intellectual property protection standards 36. **The WTO principle of 'transparency' requires member countries to:** - (a) Keep trade policies secret - (b) Publicly disclose trade policies and practices - (c) Have identical trade policies - (d) Eliminate tariffs on all goods **Answer:** (b) Publicly disclose trade policies and practices 37. **One of the WTO's objectives in dispute settlement is to:** - (a) Resolve trade disputes peacefully - (b) Impose sanctions on non-members - (c) Regulate global tariffs - (d) Control member states' import quotas **Answer:** (a) Resolve trade disputes peacefully 38. **Under the WTO's Market Access commitment, member countries agree to:** - (a) Allow unrestricted imports - (b) Set maximum tariff levels on imported goods - (c) Ban certain goods from other countries - (d) Only trade with specific countries **Answer:** (b) Set maximum tariff levels on imported goods 39. **GATS, or the General Agreement on Trade in Services, governs trade in:** - (a) Agricultural goods - (b) Intellectual property - (c) Services - (d) Manufactured products **Answer:** (c) Services 40. **The Agreement on Pre-shipment Inspection (PSI) aims to:** - (a) Ensure high tariffs on all imports - (b) Allow for inspection of goods before shipping - (c) Eliminate export taxes - (d) Control intellectual property trade **Answer:** (b) Allow for inspection of goods before shipping 41. **Which of the following agreements aims to harmonize customs valuation?** - (a) Anti-Dumping Agreement - (b) Customs Valuation Agreement - (c) TRIMs Agreement - (d) Agreement on Subsidies **Answer:** (b) Customs Valuation Agreement 42. **A significant aspect of the Doha Round is:** - (a) Reducing tariffs on agricultural products - (b) Restricting intellectual property rights - (c) Eliminating all forms of trade - (d) Blocking services trade agreements **Answer:** (a) Reducing tariffs on agricultural products 43. **The term “dumping” in international trade refers to:** - (a) Exporting goods at prices lower than domestic market prices - (b) Importing goods illegally - (c) Increasing domestic prices - (d) Imposing excessive tariffs **Answer:** (a) Exporting goods at prices lower than domestic market prices 44. **WTO members are expected to follow which key principle in reducing tariffs?** - (a) National Treatment - (b) Progressive Liberalization - (c) Quota System - (d) Non-Discrimination **Answer:** (b) Progressive Liberalization 45. **The WTO aims to promote fair competition by:** - (a) Allowing tariffs as the only form of protection - (b) Supporting MFN and anti-dumping measures - (c) Limiting access to agricultural products - (d) Increasing subsidies **Answer:** (b) Supporting MFN and anti-dumping measures 46. **A plurilateral agreement within the WTO:** - (a) Includes all WTO members - (b) Involves only specific countries with shared interests - (c) Bans all tariffs for members - (d) Imposes global trade restrictions **Answer:** (b) Involves only specific countries with shared interests 47. **Trade facilitation in the WTO context means:** - (a) Making trade faster, cheaper, and more predictable - (b) Increasing tariffs on imports - (c) Eliminating all customs procedures - (d) Restricting trade with non-members **Answer:** (a) Making trade faster, cheaper

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