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exam 1 review for final

Quiz by Lisa Amorando

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65 questions
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  • Q1
    . A woman’s obstetric history indicates that she is pregnant for the fourth time and all of her children from previous pregnancies are living. One was born at 39 weeks of gestation, twins were born at 34 weeks of gestation, and another child was born at 35 weeks of gestation. What is her gravidity and parity using the GTPAL system?
    4-1-2-0-4
    4-2-1-0-3
    3-0-3-0-3
    3-1-1-1-3
    120s
  • Q2
    A woman at 10 weeks of gestation who is seen in the prenatal clinic with presumptive signs and symptoms of pregnancy likely will have:
    amenorrhea.
    Hegar’s sign.
    Chadwick’s sign.
    positive pregnancy test.
    120s
  • Q3
    The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse’s instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is:
    fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife.
    a positive pregnancy test.
    quickening.
    Braxton Hicks contractions.
    120s
  • Q4
    During a patient’s physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as:
    Chadwick’s sign.
    Goodell’s sign.
    Hegar’s sign.
    McDonald’s sign.
    120s
  • Q5
    The diagnosis of pregnancy is based on which positive signs of pregnancy? (Select all that apply.)
    a)Identification of fetal heartbeat b)Palpation of fetal outline c)Visualization of the fetus d)Verification of fetal movement e)Positive hCG test
    A, C, D
    A,B,C
    A,B,C,D
    120s
  • Q6
    The multiple marker test is used to assess the fetus for which condition?
    Down syndrome
    Diaphragmatic hernia
    Anencephaly
    Congenital cardiac abnormality
    120s
  • Q7
    Which nutritional recommendation about fluids is accurate?
    Water with fluoride is especially encouraged because it reduces the child’s risk of tooth decay.
    A woman’s daily intake should be 8 to 10 glasses (2.3 L) of water, milk, or juice.
    Coffee should be limited to no more than two cups, but tea and cocoa can be consumed without worry.
    Of the artificial sweeteners, only aspartame has been not associated with any maternity health concerns.
    120s
  • Q8
    Which minerals and vitamins usually are recommended to supplement a pregnant woman’s diet?
    Water-soluble vitamins C and B6
    Fat-soluble vitamins A and D
    Calcium and zinc
    Iron and folate
    120s
  • Q9
    A 39-year-old primigravida thinks that she is about 8 weeks pregnant, although she has had irregular menstrual periods all her life. She has a history of smoking approximately one pack of cigarettes a day, but she tells you that she is trying to cut down. Her laboratory data are within normal limits. What diagnostic technique could be used with this pregnant woman at this time?
    Amniocentesis
    Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
    Nonstress test (NST)
    Ultrasound examination
    120s
  • Q10
    The nurse sees a woman for the first time when she is 30 weeks pregnant. The woman has smoked throughout the pregnancy, and fundal height measurements now are suggestive of growth restriction in the fetus. In addition to ultrasound to measure fetal size, what other tool would be useful in confirming the diagnosis?
    Amniocentesis
    Contraction stress test (CST)
    Doppler blood flow analysis
    Daily fetal movement counts
    120s
  • Q11
    A 41-week pregnant multigravida presents in the labor and delivery unit after a nonstress test indicated that her fetus could be experiencing some difficulties in utero. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed information about the fetus?
    Biophysical profile (BPP)
    Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
    Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
    Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
    120s
  • Q12
    A woman is undergoing a nipple-stimulated contraction stress test (CST). She is having contractions that occur every 3 minutes. The fetal heart rate (FHR) has a baseline of approximately 120 beats/min without any decelerations. The interpretation of this test is said to be:
    satisfactory.
    unsatisfactory.
    negative.
    positive.
    120s
  • Q13
    In comparing the abdominal and transvaginal methods of ultrasound examination, nurses should explain to their patients that:
    the transvaginal examination allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
    the abdominal examination is more useful in the first trimester.
    both require the woman to have a full bladder.
    initially the transvaginal examination can be painful.
    120s
  • Q14
    The nurse providing care for the antepartum woman should understand that contraction stress test (CST):
    is an invasive test; however, contractions are stimulated.
    is considered negative if no late decelerations are observed with the contractions.
    is more effective than nonstress test (NST) if the membranes have already been ruptured.
    sometimes uses vibroacoustic stimulation.
    120s
  • Q15
    Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring patient with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for:
    Chromosomal abnormalities.
    polyhydramnios.
    postterm pregnancy.
    oligohydramnios.
    120s

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