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Here is a transcript of a video about Narrative Writing. Generate 25 questions. Intro to Narrative Writing What is Narrative Writing? You today, I want to introduce you to the basics of narrative writing. Narrative writing is writing that tells a story. It can be real or imagined, that is, nonfiction or fiction. It has a beginning, middle, and end. That is, it includes the basic elements of a plot exposition, rising action, conflict, climax, falling action, and resolution. And it's full of interesting details. The author's purpose in writing a narrative is to entertain the reader. There are three main types of narrative writing. The first is a personal narrative when a writer shares a true story from his or her own life. We could also say this type of narrative is autobiographical. The second type of narrative is biographical when a writer shares a true story from another person's life. The third type of narrative is fictional. When a writer tells an invented story, short stories, and novels are fictional narratives. The Process of Writing a Narrative While we could add to this list, there are five important parts of a narrative that I especially want you to remember as you write your own narrative. These parts of a narrative include setting, characters, plot, point of view, and dialogue. The first part of a narrative is the setting , where, and when the narrative takes place. The setting affects both the plot and characters in your narrative, so it's important to spend some time brainstorming where, when, and in what conditions your story takes place. The second part of a narrative is the characters , the people, animals or creatures involved in a story. Remember that your story must have a protagonist, the character facing the problem, and an antagonist the character or force causing the problem. Take some time while planning your narrative to focus on your characters beyond the characters names and roles they play in the story. Think about whether you'd like them to be flat with very few character traits or round with many character traits. Also think about which characters in your story will remain static or unchanged, and which characters will be dynamic, undergoing an important change in your narrative. The third part of a narrative is the plot , the sequence of events in a narrative. Take some time to think carefully through your story's plot. How will it begin and how will it end? What conflicts will your characters encounter? What is the climax or turning point of your story? How will the problems be solved? Creating a storyboard or labeling a plot diagram are both good tools for planning your story's plot. The fourth part of a narrative is the point of view , which is the perspective from which a narrative is told. You can choose to write your narrative in first person, writing a personal narrative from your own point of view, or you can choose a character in a fictional narrative to tell your story. Another option is to write your narrative in the third person point of view, telling the story from the perspective of an unseen narrator that is not a character in the story. Finally, the fifth part of a narrative is dialogue. The words the characters speak in your story dialogue can establish the setting, show characterization, foreshadow events, or advance the action in a narrative. Dialogue brings your narrative to life. It's important to review how to punctuate dialogue, following grammatical rules for using quotation marks, commas, and other N marks such as periods and question marks. As you begin writing your narrative, I'll help you break down each step of the process. But hopefully this introduction gives you a basic understanding of what narrative writing is, and hopefully it sparks some ideas for you to begin planning your own narrative.If you are an EFL teacher, and you are going to give your students a quiz for irregular verbs from the following list: “bring”, “buy”, “catch”, “dig”, “feed”, “feel”, “fight”, “find”, “have”, “hear”, “hold”, “keep”, “lead”, “leave”, “lend”, “lose”, “make”, “mean”, “meet”, “pay”, “say”, “sell”, “send”, “sit”, “sleep”, “smell”, “spend”, “stand”, “sweep”, “teach”, “tell”, “think”, “understand”, and “win”. Can you generate 25 questions multiple-choice questions, the exmaple is: 1. make: _________?Generate all of these 25 questions Part A: Each correct answer is worth 5. 1. The regular pentagon shown has a side length of 2 cm. The perimeter of the pentagon is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm (E) 10 cm 2 cm 2. The faces of a cube are labelled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots. Three of the faces are shown. What is the total number of dots on the other three faces? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 15 3. The equation that best represents \a number increased by _ve equals 15" is (A) n 5 = 15 (B) n _ 5 = 15 (C) n + 5 = 15 (D) n + 15 = 5 (E) n _ 5 = 15 4. The line graph shows the number of bobbleheads sold at a store each year. The sale of bobbleheads increased the most between (A) 2016 and 2017 (B) 2017 and 2018 (C) 2018 and 2019 (D) 2019 and 2020 (E) 2020 and 2021 Number of 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 Year Sale of Bobbleheads 2021 Bobbleheads 20 40 60 80 5. Starting at 72, Aryana counts down by 11s: 72; 61; 50; : : : . What is the last number greater than 0 that Aryana will count? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 6. In the diagram, \ABC = 90_. The value of x is (A) 68 (B) 23 (C) 56 (D) 28 (E) 26 Day of the Week 44° x° A B C x° 7. Which of the following values is closest to zero? (A) 1 (B) 5 4 (C) 12 (D) 4 5 (E) 0:9 Grade 8 8. A jar contains 267 quarters. One quarter is worth $0.25. How many quarters must be added to the jar so that the total value of the quarters is $100.00? (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 103 (D) 133 (E) 153 9. A package of 8 greeting cards comes with 10 envelopes. Kirra has 7 cards but no envelopes. What is the smallest number of packages that Kirra needs to buy to have more envelopes than cards? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7 10. For the points in the diagram, which statement is true? (A) e > c (B) b < d (C) f > b (D) a < e (E) a > c y x (e, f ) (a, b) (c, d ) Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. The 26 letters of the English alphabet are listed in an in_nite, repeating loop: ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY ZABC : : : What is the 258th letter in this sequence? (A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z 12. A public holiday is always celebrated on the third Wednesday of a certain month. In that month, the holiday cannot occur on which of the following days? (A) 16th (B) 22nd (C) 18th (D) 19th (E) 21st 13. A circular spinner is divided into three sections. An arrow is attached to the centre of the spinner. The arrow is spun once. The probability that the arrow stops on the largest section is 50%. The probability it stops on the next largest section is 1 in 3. The probability it stops on the smallest section is (A) 1 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 1 6 (D) 2 7 (E) 3 10 14. A positive number is divisible by both 3 and 4. The tens digit is greater than the ones digit. How many positive two-digit numbers have this property? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 15. A rectangular pool measures 20 m by 8 m. There is a 1 m wide walkway around the outside of the pool, as shown by the shaded region. The area of the walkway is (A) 56 m2 (B) 60 m2 (C) 29 m2 (D) 52 m2 (E) 50 m2 20 m 8 m 1 m Grade 8 16. The results of asking 50 students if they participate in music or sports are shown in the Venn diagram. What percentage of the 50 students do not participate in music and do not participate in sports? (A) 0% (B) 80% (C) 20% (D) 70% (E) 40% Music Sports 15 5 20 17. There are 2 3 as many golf balls in Bin F as in Bin G. If there are a total of 150 golf balls, how many fewer golf balls are in Bin F than in Bin G? (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 90 18. In the sequence shown, Figure 1 is formed using 7 squares. Each _gure after Figure 1 has 5 more squares than the previous _gure. What _gure has 2022 squares? (A) Figure 400 (B) Figure 402 (C) Figure 404 (D) Figure 406 (E) Figure 408 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 19. Mateo's 300 km trip from Edmonton to Calgary passed through Red Deer. Mateo started in Edmonton at 7 a.m. and drove until stopping for a 40 minute break in Red Deer. Mateo arrived in Calgary at 11 a.m. Not including the break, what was his average speed for the trip? (A) 83 km/h (B) 94 km/h (C) 90 km/h (D) 95 km/h (E) 64 km/h 20. Equilateral triangle ABC has sides of length 4. The midpoint of BC is D, and the midpoint of AD is E. The value of EC2 is (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 6:25 (D) 8 (E) 10 Part C: Each correct answer is worth 8. 21. The positive factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6. There are two perfect squares less than 100 that have exactly _ve positive factors. What is the sum of these two perfect squares? (A) 177 (B) 80 (C) 145 (D) 52 (E) 97 22. In the list p; q; r; s; t; u; v, each letter represents a positive integer. The sum of the values of each group of three consecutive letters in the list is 35. If q + u = 15, then p + q + r + s + t + u + v is (A) 85 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 75 Grade 8 23. The net shown is folded to form a cube. An ant walks from face to face on the cube, visiting each face exactly once. For example, ABCFED and ABCEFD are two possible orders of faces the ant visits. If the ant starts at A, how many possible orders are there? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 32 (D) 30 (E) 40 A D B C E F 24. The number 385 is an example of a three-digit number for which one of the digits is the sum of the other two digits. How many numbers between 100 and 999 have this property? (A) 144 (B) 126 (C) 108 (D) 234 (E) 64 25. Student A, Student B, and Student C have been hired to help scientists develop a new avour of juice. There are 4200 samples to test. Each sample either contains blueberry or does not. Each student is asked to taste each sample and report whether or not they think it contains blueberry. Student A reports correctly on exactly 90% of the samples containing blueberry and reports correctly on exactly 88% of the samples that do not contain blueberry. The results for all three students are shown below. Student A Student B Student C Percentage correct on samples 90% 98% (2m)% containing blueberry Percentage correct on samples 88% 86% (4m)% not containing blueberry Student B reports 315 more samples as containing blueberry than Student A. For some positive integers m, the total number of samples that the three students report as containing blueberry is equal to a multiple of 5 between 8000 and 9000. The sum of all such values of m is (A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D) 27 (E) 29Generate exact multiple choice questions as give below 1. **Which round of negotiations led to the establishment of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?** - (a) Doha Round - (b) Tokyo Round - (c) Uruguay Round - (d) Kennedy Round **Answer:** (c) Uruguay Round 2. **The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) dealt with:** - (a) Goods only - (b) Services only - (c) Intellectual property only - (d) All of the above **Answer:** (a) Goods only 3. **The 'National Treatment' principle means:** - (a) Exported products are treated equally in the domestic market - (b) Imported goods are treated the same as local goods in the domestic market - (c) Exported products should have the same tariff - (d) None of the above **Answer:** (b) Imported goods are treated the same as local goods in the domestic market 4. **'Bound tariff' refers to:** - (a) A limit on tariffs for imports based on WTO commitments - (b) The tax rate on all exports - (c) The overall cost of tariffs - (d) A tariff-free trade condition **Answer:** (a) A limit on tariffs for imports based on WTO commitments 5. **The Most-Favoured Nation (MFN) principle ensures:** - (a) Equal treatment for all WTO members - (b) Only certain countries receive benefits - (c) Tariffs are raised annually - (d) One country is favored over others **Answer:** (a) Equal treatment for all WTO members 6. **The Agreement on Agriculture includes commitments in:** - (a) Market access, domestic support, and export subsidies - (b) Increasing crop yield and technology access - (c) Subsidizing imports only - (d) Agricultural tariffs only **Answer:** (a) Market access, domestic support, and export subsidies 7. **Which agreement replaced the Multi-Fiber Arrangement (MFA)?** - (a) Agreement on Textiles and Clothing - (b) Agreement on Agriculture - (c) TRIPS Agreement - (d) Technical Barriers to Trade Agreement **Answer:** (a) Agreement on Textiles and Clothing 8. **The WTO's TRIPS Agreement pertains to:** - (a) Agricultural products - (b) Intellectual property rights - (c) Investment measures - (d) Customs valuation **Answer:** (b) Intellectual property rights 9. **The Doha Round primarily focuses on:** - (a) Tariffs on manufactured goods - (b) Trade in agricultural goods - (c) Technology trade - (d) Intellectual property in medicine **Answer:** (b) Trade in agricultural goods 10. **The WTO aims to:** - (a) Restrict all trade - (b) Facilitate free and fair trade - (c) Promote monopoly - (d) Limit member negotiations **Answer:** (b) Facilitate free and fair trade 11. **RTAs aim to:** - (a) Block international trade - (b) Reduce trade barriers within a group of countries - (c) Increase tariffs among members - (d) Promote non-trade-related policies **Answer:** (b) Reduce trade barriers within a group of countries 12. **Customs unions require members to:** - (a) Keep individual external tariffs - (b) Impose the same external tariff on non-members - (c) Remove tariffs only temporarily - (d) Avoid any tariffs within the union **Answer:** (b) Impose the same external tariff on non-members 13. **The WTO's highest decision-making body is:** - (a) General Council - (b) Ministerial Conference - (c) TRIPS Council - (d) Dispute Settlement Body **Answer:** (b) Ministerial Conference 14. **Which principle prevents discrimination between WTO members?** - (a) MFN - (b) National Treatment - (c) Market Access - (d) Subsidy Reduction **Answer:** (a) MFN 15. **A common market involves:** - (a) A shared currency - (b) Free movement of goods, services, and factors of production - (c) Only trade agreements for goods - (d) No tariffs on agriculture **Answer:** (b) Free movement of goods, services, and factors of production 16. **The Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures addresses:** - (a) Trade in textiles - (b) Subsidies that distort trade - (c) All intellectual property laws - (d) Agricultural trade only **Answer:** (b) Subsidies that distort trade 17. **The WTO's TRIMs Agreement regulates:** - (a) Investments - (b) Trade in goods - (c) Trade in services - (d) Agricultural products **Answer:** (a) Investments 18. **The primary goal of the WTO's SPS Agreement is:** - (a) To allow subsidies on food exports - (b) To prevent arbitrary sanitary restrictions on trade - (c) To regulate intellectual property - (d) To impose environmental standards **Answer:** (b) To prevent arbitrary sanitary restrictions on trade 19. **A trading bloc is:** - (a) A group of countries with no trade agreements - (b) A group of countries that may have a common external tariff - (c) Only formed by countries from the same continent - (d) An agreement that restricts all trade **Answer:** (b) A group of countries that may have a common external tariff 20. **The GATT was succeeded by the WTO because:** - (a) GATT was only for developed countries - (b) WTO covers more areas like services and intellectual property - (c) GATT was non-binding - (d) WTO allows subsidies for agriculture **Answer:** (b) WTO covers more areas like services and intellectual property Certainly! Here are an additional 30 multiple-choice questions based on the document content, with answers provided after each question. --- ### Additional Questions and Answers 21. **The WTO’s Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) seeks to:** - (a) Restrict imports to a minimum - (b) Prevent standards from becoming unnecessary trade barriers - (c) Allow countries to set any standard for goods - (d) Promote only national standards for products **Answer:** (b) Prevent standards from becoming unnecessary trade barriers 22. **The Trade Policy Review Mechanism (TPRM) is designed to:** - (a) Impose tariffs on certain goods - (b) Regularly review and assess national trade policies - (c) Regulate customs duties globally - (d) Control intellectual property rights **Answer:** (b) Regularly review and assess national trade policies 23. **The principle of “progressive liberalization” means that:** - (a) Trade barriers are reduced gradually over time - (b) All tariffs are removed immediately - (c) Only developed countries reduce trade barriers - (d) No commitments are required from developing countries **Answer:** (a) Trade barriers are reduced gradually over time 24. **Which council oversees the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)?** - (a) General Council - (b) Services Council - (c) TRIPS Council - (d) Agriculture Council **Answer:** (c) TRIPS Council 25. **The WTO’s 'Dispute Settlement Body' is responsible for:** - (a) Deciding on national trade policies - (b) Settling trade disputes between member countries - (c) Creating new trade agreements - (d) Setting tariffs for member countries **Answer:** (b) Settling trade disputes between member countries 26. **A customs union differs from a free trade area because it:** - (a) Allows tariffs between member countries - (b) Establishes a common external tariff for non-members - (c) Applies only to services - (d) Imposes import quotas on all goods **Answer:** (b) Establishes a common external tariff for non-members 27. **Which of the following agreements deals with cross-border investments?** - (a) TRIPS - (b) TBT - (c) TRIMs - (d) GATS **Answer:** (c) TRIMs 28. **In a preferential trade agreement, member countries:** - (a) Impose the same tariffs as non-members - (b) Reduce trade barriers for each other only - (c) Apply high tariffs to non-member countries - (d) Have no external trade barriers **Answer:** (b) Reduce trade barriers for each other only 29. **The WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture includes which commitment?** - (a) Export subsidies for all agricultural goods - (b) Reduction of domestic support for farmers - (c) Complete elimination of tariffs on food products - (d) Increase in import quotas on agricultural goods **Answer:** (b) Reduction of domestic support for farmers 30. **The Agreement on Anti-Dumping allows countries to:** - (a) Increase exports by lowering prices - (b) Impose duties on imports sold below fair market value - (c) Eliminate all tariffs on certain goods - (d) Restrict domestic production of certain goods **Answer:** (b) Impose duties on imports sold below fair market value 31. **The main objective of WTO’s “National Treatment” principle is to:** - (a) Prevent imports altogether - (b) Treat foreign goods the same as domestic goods - (c) Impose tariffs on all foreign products - (d) Promote exports **Answer:** (b) Treat foreign goods the same as domestic goods 32. **Which of the following is a major goal of the WTO?** - (a) Ensuring trade restrictions remain high - (b) Promoting international free trade and competition - (c) Limiting access to global markets - (d) Supporting only developed countries **Answer:** (b) Promoting international free trade and competition 33. **An economic and monetary union involves:** - (a) A free trade area only - (b) A common currency among members - (c) No external trade agreements - (d) Different currencies for each member country **Answer:** (b) A common currency among members 34. **The WTO's Ministerial Conference meets:** - (a) Annually - (b) Every two years - (c) Quarterly - (d) Every five years **Answer:** (b) Every two years 35. **The WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) mandates:** - (a) Free trade for all countries - (b) Uniform intellectual property protection standards - (c) Different IP laws for each country - (d) No IP protection for developing countries **Answer:** (b) Uniform intellectual property protection standards 36. **The WTO principle of 'transparency' requires member countries to:** - (a) Keep trade policies secret - (b) Publicly disclose trade policies and practices - (c) Have identical trade policies - (d) Eliminate tariffs on all goods **Answer:** (b) Publicly disclose trade policies and practices 37. **One of the WTO's objectives in dispute settlement is to:** - (a) Resolve trade disputes peacefully - (b) Impose sanctions on non-members - (c) Regulate global tariffs - (d) Control member states' import quotas **Answer:** (a) Resolve trade disputes peacefully 38. **Under the WTO's Market Access commitment, member countries agree to:** - (a) Allow unrestricted imports - (b) Set maximum tariff levels on imported goods - (c) Ban certain goods from other countries - (d) Only trade with specific countries **Answer:** (b) Set maximum tariff levels on imported goods 39. **GATS, or the General Agreement on Trade in Services, governs trade in:** - (a) Agricultural goods - (b) Intellectual property - (c) Services - (d) Manufactured products **Answer:** (c) Services 40. **The Agreement on Pre-shipment Inspection (PSI) aims to:** - (a) Ensure high tariffs on all imports - (b) Allow for inspection of goods before shipping - (c) Eliminate export taxes - (d) Control intellectual property trade **Answer:** (b) Allow for inspection of goods before shipping 41. **Which of the following agreements aims to harmonize customs valuation?** - (a) Anti-Dumping Agreement - (b) Customs Valuation Agreement - (c) TRIMs Agreement - (d) Agreement on Subsidies **Answer:** (b) Customs Valuation Agreement 42. **A significant aspect of the Doha Round is:** - (a) Reducing tariffs on agricultural products - (b) Restricting intellectual property rights - (c) Eliminating all forms of trade - (d) Blocking services trade agreements **Answer:** (a) Reducing tariffs on agricultural products 43. **The term “dumping” in international trade refers to:** - (a) Exporting goods at prices lower than domestic market prices - (b) Importing goods illegally - (c) Increasing domestic prices - (d) Imposing excessive tariffs **Answer:** (a) Exporting goods at prices lower than domestic market prices 44. **WTO members are expected to follow which key principle in reducing tariffs?** - (a) National Treatment - (b) Progressive Liberalization - (c) Quota System - (d) Non-Discrimination **Answer:** (b) Progressive Liberalization 45. **The WTO aims to promote fair competition by:** - (a) Allowing tariffs as the only form of protection - (b) Supporting MFN and anti-dumping measures - (c) Limiting access to agricultural products - (d) Increasing subsidies **Answer:** (b) Supporting MFN and anti-dumping measures 46. **A plurilateral agreement within the WTO:** - (a) Includes all WTO members - (b) Involves only specific countries with shared interests - (c) Bans all tariffs for members - (d) Imposes global trade restrictions **Answer:** (b) Involves only specific countries with shared interests 47. **Trade facilitation in the WTO context means:** - (a) Making trade faster, cheaper, and more predictable - (b) Increasing tariffs on imports - (c) Eliminating all customs procedures - (d) Restricting trade with non-members **Answer:** (a) Making trade faster, cheaperGot you now 👍 — you don’t want a code, you want ready-made quiz content you can paste into Quizalize so a teacher/class can use it. I’ll generate a proper SSS1 quiz bank (Maths, English, Basic Science) in a clean format. You can copy this into Quizalize “Create Quiz”. 📘 SSS1 QUIZ (READY FOR QUIZALIZE) 🧠 MATHS (10 QUESTIONS) What is 9 × 8? A. 72 B. 64 C. 81 D. 74 Answer: A Solve: 3x = 15 A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 9 Answer: B What is 12²? A. 124 B. 144 C. 132 D. 122 Answer: B Simplify: 18 ÷ 3 A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 9 Answer: C What is the square root of 49? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8 Answer: C Find x: x + 7 = 20 A. 11 B. 12 C. 13 D. 14 Answer: C 5 × 5 × 5 = ? A. 125 B. 100 C. 150 D. 75 Answer: A What is 100 ÷ 4? A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 40 Answer: B What is 15 + 17? A. 31 B. 32 C. 33 D. 34 Answer: B What is 10% of 200? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 Answer: B 📘 ENGLISH (10 QUESTIONS) Choose correct spelling A. Recieve B. Receive C. Receve D. Recive Answer: B Opposite of “fast” A. Quick B. Slow C. Sharp D. Rapid Answer: B Synonym of “happy” A. Sad B. Angry C. Joyful D. Tired Answer: C A noun is a name of a… A. Action B. Place/Person/Thing C. Verb D. Adverb Answer: B He ___ to school every day A. go B. going C. goes D. gone Answer: C Plural of child A. Childs B. Childes C. Children D. Childer Answer: C Antonym of “big” A. Large B. Huge C. Small D. Wide Answer: C A verb is a word that shows A. Name B. Action C. Place D. Thing Answer: B She is ___ honest girl A. a B. an C. the D. no article Answer: A Past tense of go A. Goed B. Gone C. Went D. Going Answer: C 🔬 BASIC SCIENCE (10 QUESTIONS) Plants absorb carbon dioxide during A. Respiration B. Photosynthesis C. Digestion D. Movement Answer: B Human breathing organ A. Heart B. Liver C. Lungs D. Kidney Answer: C Water boils at A. 0°C B. 50°C C. 100°C D. 150°C Answer: C Which is a metal? A. Rubber B. Copper C. Wood D. Plastic Answer: B The sun is a A. Planet B. Star C. Moon D. Comet Answer: B Force is measured in A. Joule B. Newton C. Watt D. Kelvin Answer: B Solid → Liquid is called A. Freezing B. Melting C. Evaporation D. Condensation Answer: B Earth revolves around A. Moon B. Mars C. Sun D. Jupiter Answer: C Human blood is pumped by A. Brain B. Heart C. Lungs D. Kidney Answer: B Energy from the sun is called A. Nuclear B. Solar C. Chemical D. Sound Answer: B ⚡ HOW TO USE IN QUIZALIZE Go to Quizalize Click Create Quiz Choose Manual Input Copy each question Paste with options + correct answer Set timer per question (5–10 sec for pressure mode) 🔥 IF YOU WANT NEXT LEVEL I can also: �Turn this into 100-question exam paper �Add hard WAEC/JAMB-level traps Or �simulate inter-house elimination rounds Just say: “upgrade me” 😈Instructions: Please answer the following questions to test your understanding of aptitudes and interests. 1. What are Core Drivers (Talents) in the context of aptitudes and interests? a) Abilities that are developed through education b) Natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment c) Interests that change over time d) Personality traits 2. Determine how effective and satisfied you'll be doing a particular kind of work. a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Spatial Visualization d) Sequential Reasoning 3. Which Core Driver is associated with the knack for organizing things in a sequential and systematic manner? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Spatial Visualization d) Sequential Reasoning 4. What is the primary role of Space Planners in careers? a) They are responsible for interior design b) They read maps and blueprints c) They generate creative ideas d) They manage financial accounts 5. Which Core Driver relates to the ability to mentally translate two-dimensional images into three-dimensions? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Spatial Visualization d) Sequential Reasoning 6. What type of individuals are known as 3D Visualizers? a) Those who excel in visual art b) People who can quickly process numerical data c) Individuals who can mentally create 3D models from 2D representations d) Creative writers 7. How do Brainstormers differ from Concentrated & Focused individuals in terms of generating ideas? a) Brainstormers generate more ideas b) Concentrated & Focused individuals generate more ideas c) They generate ideas at the same rate d) Both groups struggle to generate ideas 8. What is the primary advantage of having high Visual Comparison Speed? a) It helps in artistic endeavors b) It is useful in complex mathematical problems c) It aids in tasks requiring clerical detail and accuracy d) It enhances spatial visualization 9. Which career is NOT associated with the Core Driver: Visual Comparison Speed? a) Fire Inspector b) Astronomer c) Creative Writer d) Orthoptist 10. What is the main focus of Numerical Reasoning? a) Identifying numerical patterns and trends b) Analyzing historical data c) Solving abstract problems d) Communicating effectively 11. Which Core Driver involves the ability to rapidly draw conclusions from seemingly unrelated pieces of information? a) Numerical Reasoning b) Idea Generation c) Spatial Visualization d) Inductive Reasoning 12. What is the primary characteristic of Diagnostic Problem Solvers? a) They follow a logical step-by-step method of problem-solving b) They rely on specific information and observed experience c) They intuitively leap to conclusions based on limited information d) They are meticulous and deliberate in decision-making 13. What is the role of Fact Checkers in the problem-solving process? a) They intuitively provide solutions b) They rely on specific information and observed experience c) They enjoy acquiring new information and learning d) They make conclusions based on limited facts 14. In what type of role are Abstract Thinkers most comfortable? a) Counseling b) Law c) Marketing d) Construction 15. How can understanding your Core Drivers benefit collaborative work? a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectively b) It creates conflicts within the team c) It doesn't affect collaborative work d) It makes collaboration more challenging 16. Which Core Driver is associated with processing complex mathematical problems logically? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Sequential Reasoning d) Idea Generation 17. What are Collaborative Planners more likely to do in a team project? a) Lead the team b) Create individual pieces of a project c) Solve abstract problems d) Generate creative ideas 18. How can understanding your aptitudes and interests help you make informed career choices? a) It guarantees job satisfaction b) It allows you to align your career with your strengths c) It helps you choose any career at random d) It has no impact on career decisions 19. Which Core Driver affects whether your thoughts go in several directions at once or follow single ideas more readily? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Idea Generation d) Inductive Reasoning 20. What is the primary characteristic of Idea Contributors? a) They generate creative ideas b) They discuss the big picture and next steps c) They are highly focused and detailed d) They follow a logical step-by-step approach 21. What is the role of Space Planners in the problem-solving process? a) They intuitively provide solutions b) They rely on specific information and observed experience c) They quickly organize information d) They create abstract plans 22. Which Core Driver is linked to the ability to see relationships in seemingly unrelated pieces of information? a) Spatial Visualization b) Inductive Reasoning c) Idea Generation d) Visual Comparison Speed 23. Which career is NOT associated with the Core Driver: Numerical Reasoning? a) Statistician b) Survey Researcher c) Chef d) Actuary 24. What are Core Drivers, and why are they important in the context of aptitudes and interests? a) They are educational qualifications b) They are interests that change over time c) They are natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment d) They are personality traits 25. How can understanding your Core Drivers benefit collaborative work? a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectively b) It creates conflicts within the team c) It doesn't affect collaborative work d) It makes collaboration more challenging Answers: b) Natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment a) Visual Comparison Speed d) Sequential Reasoning b) They read maps and blueprints c) Spatial Visualization c) Individuals who can mentally create 3D models from 2D representations a) Brainstormers generate more ideas c) It aids in tasks requiring clerical detail and accuracy c) Creative Writer a) Identifying numerical patterns and trends d) Inductive Reasoning c) They intuitively leap to conclusions based on limited information b) They rely on specific information and observed experience b) Law a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectively b) Numerical Reasoning b) Create individual pieces of a project b) It allows you to align your career with your strengths c) Idea Generation b) They discuss the big picture and next steps c) They quickly organize information b) Inductive Reasoning c) Chef c) They are natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectivelyIl produttore che decide di usare degli intermediari per organizzare la distribuzione dei suoi prodotti, deve decidere quanti usarne per ciascun livello, Esistono 3 possibili strategie di copertura: La distribuzione intensiva ➠ l'impresa cerca il maggior numero possibile di punti vendita per il proprio prodotto e tende a moltiplicare i centri di stoccaggio per assicurare la massima copertura dell'area di vendita e la massima esposizione per la marca; si adatta ai prodotti di acquisto corrente e ai servizi di facile esecuzione. es. i Pocket Coffee che sono venduti ovunque sia possibile. Vantaggi: massimizza la disponibilità del prodotto e consente di generare una quota di mercato consistente grazie all'elevata esposizione della marca ai potenziali clienti. Rischi: il volume d'affari può differire da un distributore all'altro, mentre il costo di contatto è identico per ogni intermediario, l'aumento del costo di distribuzione può compromettere la redditività. Quando il prodotto è distribuito in larga misura in punti vendita molteplici e differenziati, l'impresa rischia di: perdere il controllo della sua strategia di marketing, non riuscire a prevenire la concorrenza sleale in fatto di prezzi, una riduzione della qualità del servizio e la mancanza di collaborazione. Infine questa distribuzione è spesso incompatibile con la salvaguardia di un'immagine di marca coerente e di un posizionamento preciso nel mercato. La distribuzione selettiva ➠ Il produttore ricorre, in una determinata area geografica, a un numero di intermediari inferiore rispetto al numero di intermediari disponibili; è indicata per i prodotti il cui acquisto è ponderato e non frequente (shopping good), e per I quali il cliente procede a un confronto tra i vari prezzi e tra le varie caratteristiche delle offerte presenti sul mercato.es. Burberry distribuisce i suoi prodotti di abbigliamento in negozi specializzati, accuratamente selezionati. Questa distribuzione può scaturire dal rifiuto di una parte di dettaglianti di accettare il prodotto nel proprio assortimento, perché si abbia distribuzione selettiva voluta dal produttore, deve essere quest'ultimo a selezionare i propri intermediari; esistono diversi possibili criteri di scelta: La dimensione del distributore, misurata dal suo volume d'affari, costituisce il criterio più usato. La qualità del servizio offerto; alcuni distributori sono in grado di svolgere alcune funzioni in modo più efficace di altri. La competenza tecnica e l'attrezzatura aggiornata del distributore sono criteri importanti soprattutto nel caso dei prodotti complessi, per i quali la qualità dell'assistenza post vendita è fondamentale. Optando per questa distribuzione si accetta di limitare la disponibilità della propria offerta, onde ridurre i costi di distribuzione e ottenere una migliore collaborazione da parte degli intermediari, questa collaborazione ha diverse forme: la partecipazione alle spese di pubblicità e di promozione; l'inserimento di prodotti nuovi o non richiesti, il mantenimento di un livello minimo di scorte ecc.. Rischi: non garantire una copertura sufficiente del mercato, il produttore deve assicurarsi che il cliente finale sia in grado di identificare facilmente il distributore, altrimenti la ridotta disponibilità conduce a perdite di opportunità di vendita; l'impresa è praticamente obbligata a scegliere un canale di tipo indiretto breve. La distribuzione esclusiva e I sisterni di franchising ➠ in una zona predeterminata, un solo distributore ottiene il diritto esclusivo di vendere la marca e s'impegna a non vendere marche concorrenti della stessa categoria di prodotti.es. Louis Vuitton distribuisce i suoi prodotti in negozi esclusivi: a ogni punto vendita viene assegnata una zona in cui nessun altro è autorizzato a rappresentare la marca. Vantaggi: differenzia il proprio prodotto con una politica di alta qualità, di prestigio, la collaborazione con distributori esclusivi facilita la realizzazione dei programmi di servizio al cliente del produttore. Vantaggi e inconvenienti sono gli stessi della distribuzione selettiva, ma accentuati. Una forma particolare è il franchising ➠forma di marketing verticale contrattuale integrato che fa riferimento a un sistema completo di distribuzione dei beni e dei servizi. Esso implica una relazione contrattuale continua in cui l'impresa affiliante (franchisor) dà ai suoi affiliati (franchisee) il privilegio di vendere il proprio prodotto o servizio che è molto conosciuto. Il franchisee accetta di pagare una quota iniziale e/o royalties calcolate sulle vendite e di ricevere assistenza e servizi dal franchisor;Il franchisee acquista il diritto di utilizzare una formula di successo e beneficia del supporto e delle conoscenze del franchisor. Caratteristiche di un franchising efficace: si commercializza un prodotto o servizio di alta qualità,la domanda del prodotto o servizio è universale,viene offerto servizio ed assistenza iniziale e continuativi, vengono specificati il canone iniziale e le royalty, coinvolge il franchisee nella gestione e sviluppo del sistema, specifica procedure di rinnovo, annullamento e proroga del contratto. La classificazione dei beni di consumo La scelta della strategia migliore per un dato prodotto dipende dalle caratteristiche del prodotto stesso e dall'obiettivo perseguito dall'impresa nell'ambiente competitivo in cui opera, si stabilisce una distinzione fra 4 sottogruppi: 1) I prodotti d'acquisto corrente (convenience good) sono i beni che il consumatore acquista con il minimo sforzo possibile, di frequente e in piccole quantità, adottando un comportamento d'acquisto abitudinario. Questa categoria può essere suddivisa in: prodotti di prima necessità: sono acquistati regolarmente e includono la maggior parte dei prodotti alimentari, l'acquisto è facilitato dalla fedeltà alla marca e dalla pubblicità ripetitiva. prodotti d'impulso: vengono acquistati senza alcuna premeditazione (patatine);devono essere disponibili in più negozi; la confezione e gli espositori sono importanti per la loro vendita. prodotti d'urgenza: vengono acquistati per soddisfare un bisogno inaspettato e urgente, vanno acquistati nel momento del bisogno quindi devono essere disponibili in diversi tipi di punti vendita (cerotti, disinfettanti ecc.); per questi prodotti, l'impresa non ha scelta: è necessaria la massima copertura del mercato perché, se il cliente non trova il prodotto o la marca desiderata nel momento e nel luogo in cui vuole acquistarla, sceglierà un'altra marca. 2) I prodotti di acquisto ragionato (shopping good) sono prodotti per i qualí si percepisce un livello elevato di rischio, per cui i consumatori investono tempo e impegno per confrontare le caratteristiche di prodotti alternativi, in base a criteri come la qualità, il prezzo, lo stile ecc. es. mobili, abiti... prodotti a prezzo elevato e a bassa frequenza d'acquisto. In questi casi, i clienti potenziali si recano in vari punti vendita prima di decidere l'acquisto e il personale di vendita esercita un'influenza notevole sulla decisione finale. Per questi prodotti è indicata la distribuzione selettiva, in quanto serve la collaborazione del dettagliante e l'ubicazione adeguata del punto vendita. 3) I prodotti esclusivi (specialty good) sono prodotti con caratteristiche uniche; all'acquisto di tali beni il consumatore è pronto a dedicare molti sforzi, si tratta di marche di prodotti di lusso es. auto, alta moda ecc. Per questi prodotti, i clienti non procedono a confronti tra le marche: cercano il punto vendita dove è disponibile il prodotto o la marca desiderata. Il fattore determinante è la fedeltà al prodotto o alla marca, per il produttore di un bene specifico, la distribuzione esclusiva rappresenta la migliore soluzione. 4) I prodotti non ricercati sono quelli che i clienti non conoscono, o quelli che sono noti ma non c'è interesse spontaneo, rientrano, per esempio, apparecchiature per il controllo della temperatura o assicurazioni sulla vita. Questi prodotti non ricercati richiedono sforzi di vendita notevoli e la collaborazione dell'intermediario è indispensabile. 16.6 Le politiche di comunicazione nella rete distributiva Per conseguire gli obiettivi di marketing dell'impresa, è necessaria la collaborazione dei distributori. Per ottenere tale impegno da parte degli intermediari, l'impresa può scegliere 2 politichecomunicative: Le politiche push Consiste nel concentrare gli sforzi di comunicazione e di promozione sugli intermediari, in modo da stimolarli a collaborare con l'azienda, inserire il prodotto nei loro assortimenti, immagazzinarlo in quantità consistenti e garantirgli lo spazio di vendita adeguato. L'obiettivo è quello di sollecitare la collaborazione volontaria del distributore che, a seconda degli incentivi e delle condizioni di vendita che gli vengono proposti (margini elevati, sconti sulle quantità, pubblicità nel punto vendita, budget promozionali, distribuzioni gratuite), tenderà a privilegiare il nostro prodotto, quindi è indispensabile un programma di incentivi. Il rischio di questa strategia è che potrebbe rendere l'impresa dipendente dall'intermediario, che ne controlla l'accesso al mercato. Le politiche pull Consiste nel tagliare fuori gli intermediari e cercare di costruire la domanda dell'impresa rivolgendosi direttamente ai potenziali consumatori nel segmento target. L'obiettivo comunicativo è quello di creare una forte domanda da parte del consumatore finale e di sviluppare la fedeltà alla marca in modo che il distributore sia costretto a inserirla nel proprio assortimento, per soddisfare le richieste del consumatore. Sono necessarie spese sulla comunicazione in pubblicità sui media, promozioni ai consumatori e altri mezzi di mkt diretto, se si ha successo, il produttore avrà il potere d'influenzare i partecipanti al canale distributivo e di indurli a prendere in carico la marca.. Procter & Gamble adotta una politica pull per lanciare i nuovi prodotti. Però questa politica richiede ingenti risorse finanziarie per coprire i costi delle campagne pubblicitarie, si tratta di costi fissi mentre adottando una politica push, i costi sono proporzionali ai volumi di vendita e diventano più sostenibili, in particolare per le piccole imprese. Una politica pull va considerata un investimento a lungo termine: l'obiettivo dell'impresa è quello di creare un capitale di reputazione, il cosiddetto "brand equity". In pratica le due politiche di comunicazione sono utilizzate insieme. 16.7 L'analisi dei costi di distribuzione I costi di distribuzione sono misurati dalla differenza tra il prezzo unitario di vendita pagato dal consumatore finale e il prezzo pagato al produttore dal primo acquirente. Il margine di distribuzione s'identifica dunque con il concetto di valore aggiunto del canale distributivo. Laddove più intermediari intervengono nel processo distributivo, il margine di distribuzione è costituito dalla somma dei margini del diversi Intermediari. I margini di distribuzione Si esprime in termini percentuali, si calcola sia in rapporto al costo d'acquisto (C), sia in rapporto al prezzo di vendita (P). Si parla di margine di distribuzione (D) come di mark-up (o "ricarico") e di"sconto". Abbiamo diverse formule di calcolo: Costi di distribuzione (CD) ➨ CD = Pcf - Ppa Pcf = prezzo pagato dal consumatore finale Ppa = prezzo pagato al produttore dal primo acquirente Margine di distribuzione (MD) = volume d’affari del canale (VA) MD = ∑ md n md = Pv - Pa n = margini dei diversi intermediari In un sistema di distribuzione indiretto, il margine di distribuzione è uguale alla somma dei margini dei distributori IL MARGINE DEL DISTRIBUTORE (D) = prezzo di vendita - costo d'acquisto = D = P - C IL MARGINE DI DISTRIBUZIONE IN PERCENTUALE sul prezzo di vendita (sconto): D* = P-C / P sul costo di acquisto (mark-up): D° = P-C / C REGOLE DI EQUIVALENZA D*= D° /1 + D° D° = D* /1 - D* Calcolo del prezzo di vendita al cliente Costo di acquisto = 90€; Sconto = 25% Prezzo di vendita al dettaglio = 90€/ (1 - 0,25) = 90€/0,75 = 120€ I margini di distribuzione sono espressi in relazione al prezzo di vendita, ma la prassi può variare fra un settore e l'altro e fra un'impresa e l'altra, inoltre dipende dalla posizione occupata dall'intermediario nella rete e remunera la funzione o le funzioni esercitate. In alcuni casi, l'intermediario beneficia di più margini. Confronto tra prezzo di listino, di fattura e finale I margini di distribuzione costituiscono solo una parte del margine totale, bisogna distinguere tra; ➤prezzo di listino è il prezzo ufficiale, pubblicato nel tariffario o nel listino dell'azienda. ➤prezzo di fattura è il prezzo di listino al netto delle deduzioni "in fattura" che andrebbero conteggiate in aggiunta allo sconto standard per il distributore, per esempio, di sconti speciali al distributore, sconti all'utente finale e promozioni in fattura. ➤prezzo finale è il prezzo di fattura senza le deduzioni "aggiunte fuori fattura", come lo sconto per i pagamenti in contanti, i costi del conto clienti, le indennità, i rimborsi, i programmi promozionali fuori fattura e le spese di spedizione, inoltre confezioni speciali o supporto tecnico.. sottraendo dal prezzo finale il costo di questi servizi si ottiene il margine finale, ossia la misura della redditività del prodotto. Confronto fra costi di distribuzione Il margine di distribuzione remunera le funzioni e i compiti della distribuzione assunti dagli intermediari. Nel canale indiretto lungo, la maggior parte dei compiti fisici di distribuzione (stoccaggio e trasporto) sono svolti dai grossisti e i costi sono proporzionali al volume d'affari del fabbricante e coperti dal margine del grossista e del distributore. Il produttore deve mantenere un servizio commerciale minimo, con spese fisse a suo carico ridotte però l'impresa esercita un controllo scarso sull'organizzazione di vendita. Nel canale indiretto breve, la quota di spese fisse diventa preponderante rispetto al costo totale di distribuzione; il fabbricante deve sostenere le spese della distribuzione fisica, organizzare una rete di magazzini e un'amministrazione delle vendite, sugli oneri finanziari prodotti dalla gestione delle scorte e del conto vendita della clientela, come pure la funzione di vendita. L'adozione di questo canale implica per il fabbricante, un rischio finanziario maggiore, però l'impresa è in grado di esercitare un miglior controllo sulla propria organizzazione commerciale, essendo in contatto diretto con la domanda finale. L'indice di redditività di ciascuno di essi si calcolerà nel modo seguente: R = volume d'affari - costi di distribuzione /costi di distribuzione dove R rappresenta una valutazione dell'indice di redditività previsto, tenendo conto dell'insieme dei costi che ogni canale comporta. Why and How Managers Plan Importance of planning The planing process Benefits of planning Planning and time management Types of PLans used by managers Long term and short term plans Strageic and tactical plans Operational plans Planning Tools and Techiqunes Forecasting Contrigency planning Scenario planning Benchmaking Use of staff planners Implementing Plans to Achive Results Goal setting Goal management Goal alignment Participation and involvement Planning Def: The process of setting objectives and determining how best to accomplish them Planning at Eaton Corporation “Making the hard decision before events force them upon you, an anticipating the future needs of the market before the demand asset itself Objectives and goals Identifity the specific results or desired outcomes that one intends to achieve Plan Def: A statement of action steps to be taken in order to accomplish the objectives (goals) Steps in the planning process: Define your objectives Determine where you stand vis-a-vis objectives Develpo premises reagrdsing future conditions Analyze alternatives and make a plan Implement the plan and evaluate results What are the benefits of planning Improves focus and flexibility Imporves action orteitation Imporves coordination and control Imporves time management Time Managment Personal time management tips Do say “no” to request that distract you form what you should be doing Dont get bogged down inn details that can be addressed later Do screen telephone calls, emails and meeting request Dont let drop in visitors, text messaging use up your time Do prioritize your important and urgent work Dont become calendar bound by letting other control your schedule Do follow priorities; do most important and urgent work first Some 77% of mangers in one survey said that digital age has increased th number of decisions they have to make 43% said there was less time available to make these decisions Types of plans used by Managers What is teh time horizon Long term vs Short term Long term Look three or more years into teh future Short term plans Typically cover one year or less However: the increasing environmental complexity and dynamism of recent years has severely tested the concept of “long-term” planning Plans are subject to frequent revisions Most executives would likely agree that these complexities adn uncertainties challenge how er actually go about planning and how far ahead we can really plan At the very least we can conclude that there is a lot less permanency to long term plans today and that tey are subject to frequent revision Managment reaeracher Eillot Jaques believes tha people vary in their capability to think with different time horizons Types of Plans used by Managers (3 of 5) Strategic plans Set broad, comprehensive and linger term action directions for teh entire organization or major division Vision Clarifies purpose of the organization and what it hopes to be on the future Typical plans Specify how the organizations resources are used to implement strategy Tactical plans in business often take the form of functional plans Functional plans Incidate how different component within the organiztion will help accompnlish the overall strategy Production plans Finacial plans Facilites Plans Logisitc plans Marketing plans Human Resource Plans Operation plans Describe short-term activities to implement strategic plans Policies: Are standing plans that communicate guidelines for decisions Ex: Policies on office romances: The media is quick to report when a top executive or public figures runs into trouble over an office affair. Are there ant policies on office romances? Employer polices on office raltioshiis vary. One survey find teh following: 24% prohibit relationships among employees in the same department 13% prohibit relationships among employees who have the smae supervisor 80% prohibit relationships between supervisors and subordinates 5% have no restrictions on office romances Procedures: Are rules that describe actions to be taken in specific situations Budgets: are single use plans that commit resources to projects or activities Zero based budgets: allocate resources as if each budget were brand new There is no guarantee that any past funding will be renwer. All propsales, old and new, must compete for available funds at teh start of each new budget cycle Forcasting Attempts to predict the future Qualitaive forecasting uses expert opinions Quantitative forecasting uses mathematical models and statiscal aanylsis of historical data dna surveys Contingency planning Identify alternative course of action to take when things go wrong Anticipate changing conditions Contain trigger points to indicate when to activate plan (or a specific course of action) Scenario planning A long term version of contingency planning Identifying alternative future scenarios Plans made for each future scenario Increases organizations flexibility and preparation for future shocks Benchmarking Use of external and internal comparisons to better evaluate current performance Adopting best practices: things people adn organization do that lead to superior performance Staff Planners Experts who assist in all steps of the planning process They help bring focus and expertise to a wide variety of planning tasks Important: Communication between staff planers landline managers is essential for teh success of teh planning process Goal Setting - Always set SMART goal The solution: Goal Aligment Between Team Leader and Team Member Jonintly plan: Set objectives, set standards, choose actions Individually acy: Perform tasks (member), provide support (leader) Jointly control: Review results, discuss implications, renew cycle x4 Collective effort and commitment Participatroy planning Includes in all planning steps that people who will be affected by the plans adn askedd to help implement them Unloacks motivational potential of goal setting Management by objective (MBO) promotes participation Participation increases understanding and acceptance of plan and commitment to success Participatory planning - Number of people involved in teh decision making process Amazon is intensely focused on what it does. It believes in creating tight single-threaded teams, also known as “2 pizza team.” Data and Decision Making What are some of the important competencies managers must have today? Delegate Marketing and technology Manager must have Technological competency Ability to understand new technologies and to use them to their best advantage Information competency Ability to locate, gather, organize and display information for decision-making and problem solving Analytical competency Ability to evaluate and analyze information to make actual decisions and solve real problems What is the difference between Data and Information Data Raw facts and observation Information Data made useful and meaningful for decision-making Important concepts Big data Exists in huge quantities and is difficult to process without sophisticated mathematical and analytical techniques Data production today Bernard Marr is an internationally best-selling author. He helps organizations improve their business performance, use data more intelligently Data mining The process of analyzing data to produce useful information for decision-makers Management Analytics The systematic evaluation and analysis of data to make informed decision Information drives management Bad Data Refers to information that can be erroneous, misleading, and without general formatting The challenge: Can er use the data that is available in the “Big Data” Needs to be valid Can not trust everything out there Being ethical Look at the trends Data is structured and unstructured Data BIg Data = Structured + Unstructured Information Drive Management decision making What are the characteristics of useful information Easy to access If its credible Accurate Characteristics of useful information: Timely High quality Complete Relevant Understandable What about bad data It's not credible Miss information If it is not structured/ organized Bias based on opinions Confusing If its updated Bad data Refers to information that can be erroneous miss What are some examples of Management information system Business intelligence -BI Information systems to extract and report data in organized ways that are useful to decision-makers Executive dashboards Visually update and display key performance metrics (or Key Performance Indicators -KPIs) and information on a real-time basis Information needs in organization External Environment Information exchanges with the external environment Gather intelligence information Provide public information Information needs within the organizations (internal Enviroement) Information exchange within the organization Facilitate decision making Facilitate problem-solving Managers as information processors Continually gather, share and receive information Now as much electronic as it is face-to-face Always on, always connected How many people telecommute at least once a week 70% of people globally work remotely at least once a week, Work at home after covid 19 our forecast Our best estimate it that 25-30% of the workforce will be working form home multiple days a week by the end of 2021 As of 2023, 12.7% of full time employees work from home, while 28.2% work a hybrid model Managers as problem solvers Problem-solving The process of identifying a discrepancy between actual and desired performance and taking action to resolve it Ishikawa Fishbone diagram To identify the cause of problems Decision A choice among possible alternative courses of action Performance threat Something is wrong or has the potential to go wrong Performance opportunity The situation offers the chance for a better future if the right steps are taken Problem-solving approaches or style - from textbook Problem avoiders Inactive in information gathering and solving problems Problem seekers Proactive in anticipation of problems and opportunities and taking appropriate action to gain an advantage Problem solvers Reactive in gathering information and solving problem Managers - can approach problems in a systematic or intuitive manner Systematic thinking approaches problem in rational, step-by-step and analytical fashion Intuitive thinking approaches problems in a flexible and spontaneous fashion Multidimensional thinking- applies both intuitive and systematic thinking Managers face structured and unstructured problems Structure problems Are ones that are familiar, straight forward, and clear with respect to information needs Program decisions apply solutions that are readily available from past experiences to solve structured problems Know how to solve them Familiar Know what we are dealing with Unstructured problems Are ones that are full of ambiguities and information deficiencies Nonprogrammed decisions apply a specific solution to meet the demands of a unique problem Commonly faced by higher-level management Crisis decision making A crisis involves an unexpected problem that can lead to disaster if not resolved quickly and appropriately Ruled for crisis management Figure out what is going on Remember that speed matters Remember that slow counts, too Respect the danger of the unfamiliar Value the skeptic Be ready to “fight fire with fire” Managers make decisions with various amounts of information Certain environment Offers complete information on possible action alternatives and their consequences Risk environment Lacks complete information but offers probabilities of the likely outcomes for possible action alternatives Uncertain environment Lacks so much information that it is difficult to assign probabilities to the likely outcomes of alternative Ex: Certain and uncertain environments: The worldwide Governance Indicators for over 200 countries, comparing distinct environments (Canada-Brazil) Step 1-Identify and define the problem Focuses on information gathering information processing and deliberation Decision objectives should be established What are some common mistakes in definding problems? Common mistakes in defining problems Defining the problem too broadly or too narrowly Focusing on symptoms instead of causes Choosing the wrong problem to deal with Step 2- Generate and Evaluate Alternative Courses of Action Potential solutions are formulated and more information is gathered, data are analyzed, the advantages and disadvantages of alternative solutions are identified Common mistakes: Abandoning the search for alternatives too quickly Step 3- Decide on a preferred course of Action Two different approaches Behavioural model leads to satisficing decisions Classical model les to optimising decisions Behavioural Model Rationality is bounded because: There are limits our thinks capacity Available information (incomplete) Time constraints Step 4-Implement the decision Involves taking action to make sure the solution decided upon becomes a reality Managers need to have the willingness and ability to implement action plans Problems: Lack of participation error should be avoided Step 5 - Evaluate Results Involves comparing actual and desired results The positive and negative consequences of the chosen course of action should be examined If actual results fall short desire results, the manager returns to earlier steps in the decision-making process At all steps, check ethical reasoning Ask these spotlight questions Utility Does teh decision satisfy all constituents or stakeholders Rights Does the description respect the rights and duties of everyone? Justice Is the decision consistent with the canons of justice Caring Is the decision consistent with my responsibilities to care? Issues in decision-making How do errors happen? Heuristics: are strategies for simplifying decision-making Availability Bias: Bases a decision on recent information or events Representativeness bias: Bases a decision on similarity to other situations Anchoring and Adjustment Bias: Bases a decision on incremental adjustment from a prior decision point Framing error: Tring to solve a problem in the context perceived, positive or negative Confirmation Error: Focusing on information that confirms a decision already made Escalating commitment: Continuing a course of action even though it is not working Creative Decision making Creativity is the generation of a novel idea or unique approach that solves a problem or crafts an opportunity Big C: Creativity occurs when extraordinary things are done by exceptional people Little C: Creativity occurs when average people come up with unique ways to deal with daily events and situations The three types of situational creativity drivers Chapter review What are objectives and goals? The specific results or desired outcomes What are the 5 characteristics of great (SMART) goals? Forecasting - Attempts Qualitative forecasting uses options Quantitative forecasting uses mathematical models and statistical analysis of historical data and surveys Scenarios-Oracle’s crystal ball combines qualitative and quantitative methods