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LETTER B WHAT DOES IT SAY
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1. What is the meaning of the word "Izhaar"? A) To hide the sound B) To make it clear C) To change the sound D) To merge two letters 2. Which part of the body is used to pronounce Izhaar Halqi letters? A) The lips B) The tongue only C) The throat D) The nose 3. How many letters are there for Izhaar Halqi? A) 4 letters B) 6 letters C) 15 letters D) 2 letters 4. When do we apply the rule of Izhaar Halqi? A) When any letter comes after Meem Sakinah B) When an Izhaar letter comes after Noon Sakinah or Tanween C) When we see a Shaddah D) Only at the end of a Surah 5. Which of the following is NOT an Izhaar Halqi letter? A) Hamzah (أ) B) Haa (هـ) C) Baa (ب) D) 'Ayn (ع) 6. Which pair of letters comes from the deepest part of the throat (closest to the chest)? A) ع and ح B) غ and خ C) ء and هـ D) ق and ك 7. When you do Izhaar, do you make a long Ghunnah (nasal sound)? A) Yes, a very long one B) No, we pronounce the Noon clearly without extra Ghunnah C) Only if we want to D) Yes, for 2 counts 8. Which letter comes from the top part of the throat (closest to the mouth)? A) Khaad (خ) B) Haa (ح) C) Hamzah (أ) D) Meem (م) 9. What are the middle throat letters? A) ء and هـ B) ع and ح C) غ and خ D) ت and د 10. In the phrase "مَنْ عَمِلَ" (Man 'Amila), which rule is applied? A) Idghaam B) Ikhfaa C) Izhaar Halqi D) Iqlaab 11. Why do we do Izhaar in "مَنْ عَمِلَ"? A) Because the letter 'Ayn (ع) comes after Noon Sakinah B) Because it is easy to say C) Because Meem has a Fathah D) Because the Noon has a Shaddah 12. What does "Noon Sakinah" mean? A) A Noon with a Fathah B) A Noon with a Kasrah C) A Noon with no vowel (has a Sukoon) D) A double Noon 13. What is Tanween? A) A double vowel sign (Fathatain, Kasratain, Dammatain) at the end of a word D) A small Meem on top of a letter C) A stretching sign D) A stop sign 14. Can Izhaar Halqi happen within a single word? A) No, never B) Yes, it can happen in one word or between two words C) Only in short words D) Only in Surah Al-Fatihah 15. Look at the word "وَانْحَرْ" (Wanhar). What is the Izhaar letter here? A) Waw (و) B) Noon (ن) C) Haa (ح) D) Raa (ر) 16. In the Quran, what sign is usually placed on the Noon Sakinah to show it is Izhaar? A) A small circle or head of a Khaa (Sukoon sign) B) A Shaddah C) Nothing at all D) A little Meem 17. What happens to the Tanween vowels when there is Izhaar? A) They are written far apart from each other B) They are aligned perfectly parallel above/below each other C) One vowel is deleted D) They change color 18. Which of the following words contains an Izhaar Halqi rule? A) أَنْعَمْتَ B) مَنْ يَقُولُ C) مِنْ بَعْدِ D) كُنْتُمْ 19. Choose the group that contains ONLY Izhaar Halqi letters: A) ي ، ر ، م ، ل B) ء ، هـ ، ع ، ح ، غ ، خ C) ك ، ق ، ج ، د D) ب ، ت ، ث 20. In the phrase "عَذَابٌ أَلِيمٌ" ( 'Adhaabun Aleem), why is there Izhaar? A) Because Tanween is followed by Hamzah (أ) B) Because it ends with Meem C) Because the word is long D) Because of the letter Laam 21. What is the correct way to read "مِنْ حَكِيمٍ"? A) Mi---hakeem (hide the Noon) B) Min Hakeem (read Noon clearly and quickly) C) Mih-hakeem (mix them together) D) Mim-hakeem (change Noon to Meem) 22. "Ghain" (غ) and "Khaa" (خ) come from which part of the throat? A) Deep throat B) Middle throat C) Top throat D) The lips 23. If a Noon Sakinah is followed by the letter "هـ" (Haa), how do we pronounce it? A) Clear Noon B) Hidden Noon C) Double Noon D) Silent Noon 24. Which of these is a middle throat letter? A) ء B) خ C) ح D) هـ 25. Complete the sentence: Izhaar Halqi means to pronounce the Noon Sakinah or Tanween cleanly from its articulation point without any ________. A) Breathing B) Vowel (Harakah) C) Extra Ghunnah (nasalization) D) Stopping
Generate all of these 25 questions Part A: Each correct answer is worth 5. 1. The regular pentagon shown has a side length of 2 cm. The perimeter of the pentagon is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm (E) 10 cm 2 cm 2. The faces of a cube are labelled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots. Three of the faces are shown. What is the total number of dots on the other three faces? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 15 3. The equation that best represents \a number increased by _ve equals 15" is (A) n 5 = 15 (B) n _ 5 = 15 (C) n + 5 = 15 (D) n + 15 = 5 (E) n _ 5 = 15 4. The line graph shows the number of bobbleheads sold at a store each year. The sale of bobbleheads increased the most between (A) 2016 and 2017 (B) 2017 and 2018 (C) 2018 and 2019 (D) 2019 and 2020 (E) 2020 and 2021 Number of 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 Year Sale of Bobbleheads 2021 Bobbleheads 20 40 60 80 5. Starting at 72, Aryana counts down by 11s: 72; 61; 50; : : : . What is the last number greater than 0 that Aryana will count? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 6. In the diagram, \ABC = 90_. The value of x is (A) 68 (B) 23 (C) 56 (D) 28 (E) 26 Day of the Week 44° x° A B C x° 7. Which of the following values is closest to zero? (A) 1 (B) 5 4 (C) 12 (D) 4 5 (E) 0:9 Grade 8 8. A jar contains 267 quarters. One quarter is worth $0.25. How many quarters must be added to the jar so that the total value of the quarters is $100.00? (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 103 (D) 133 (E) 153 9. A package of 8 greeting cards comes with 10 envelopes. Kirra has 7 cards but no envelopes. What is the smallest number of packages that Kirra needs to buy to have more envelopes than cards? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7 10. For the points in the diagram, which statement is true? (A) e > c (B) b < d (C) f > b (D) a < e (E) a > c y x (e, f ) (a, b) (c, d ) Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. The 26 letters of the English alphabet are listed in an in_nite, repeating loop: ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY ZABC : : : What is the 258th letter in this sequence? (A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z 12. A public holiday is always celebrated on the third Wednesday of a certain month. In that month, the holiday cannot occur on which of the following days? (A) 16th (B) 22nd (C) 18th (D) 19th (E) 21st 13. A circular spinner is divided into three sections. An arrow is attached to the centre of the spinner. The arrow is spun once. The probability that the arrow stops on the largest section is 50%. The probability it stops on the next largest section is 1 in 3. The probability it stops on the smallest section is (A) 1 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 1 6 (D) 2 7 (E) 3 10 14. A positive number is divisible by both 3 and 4. The tens digit is greater than the ones digit. How many positive two-digit numbers have this property? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 15. A rectangular pool measures 20 m by 8 m. There is a 1 m wide walkway around the outside of the pool, as shown by the shaded region. The area of the walkway is (A) 56 m2 (B) 60 m2 (C) 29 m2 (D) 52 m2 (E) 50 m2 20 m 8 m 1 m Grade 8 16. The results of asking 50 students if they participate in music or sports are shown in the Venn diagram. What percentage of the 50 students do not participate in music and do not participate in sports? (A) 0% (B) 80% (C) 20% (D) 70% (E) 40% Music Sports 15 5 20 17. There are 2 3 as many golf balls in Bin F as in Bin G. If there are a total of 150 golf balls, how many fewer golf balls are in Bin F than in Bin G? (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 90 18. In the sequence shown, Figure 1 is formed using 7 squares. Each _gure after Figure 1 has 5 more squares than the previous _gure. What _gure has 2022 squares? (A) Figure 400 (B) Figure 402 (C) Figure 404 (D) Figure 406 (E) Figure 408 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 19. Mateo's 300 km trip from Edmonton to Calgary passed through Red Deer. Mateo started in Edmonton at 7 a.m. and drove until stopping for a 40 minute break in Red Deer. Mateo arrived in Calgary at 11 a.m. Not including the break, what was his average speed for the trip? (A) 83 km/h (B) 94 km/h (C) 90 km/h (D) 95 km/h (E) 64 km/h 20. Equilateral triangle ABC has sides of length 4. The midpoint of BC is D, and the midpoint of AD is E. The value of EC2 is (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 6:25 (D) 8 (E) 10 Part C: Each correct answer is worth 8. 21. The positive factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6. There are two perfect squares less than 100 that have exactly _ve positive factors. What is the sum of these two perfect squares? (A) 177 (B) 80 (C) 145 (D) 52 (E) 97 22. In the list p; q; r; s; t; u; v, each letter represents a positive integer. The sum of the values of each group of three consecutive letters in the list is 35. If q + u = 15, then p + q + r + s + t + u + v is (A) 85 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 75 Grade 8 23. The net shown is folded to form a cube. An ant walks from face to face on the cube, visiting each face exactly once. For example, ABCFED and ABCEFD are two possible orders of faces the ant visits. If the ant starts at A, how many possible orders are there? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 32 (D) 30 (E) 40 A D B C E F 24. The number 385 is an example of a three-digit number for which one of the digits is the sum of the other two digits. How many numbers between 100 and 999 have this property? (A) 144 (B) 126 (C) 108 (D) 234 (E) 64 25. Student A, Student B, and Student C have been hired to help scientists develop a new avour of juice. There are 4200 samples to test. Each sample either contains blueberry or does not. Each student is asked to taste each sample and report whether or not they think it contains blueberry. Student A reports correctly on exactly 90% of the samples containing blueberry and reports correctly on exactly 88% of the samples that do not contain blueberry. The results for all three students are shown below. Student A Student B Student C Percentage correct on samples 90% 98% (2m)% containing blueberry Percentage correct on samples 88% 86% (4m)% not containing blueberry Student B reports 315 more samples as containing blueberry than Student A. For some positive integers m, the total number of samples that the three students report as containing blueberry is equal to a multiple of 5 between 8000 and 9000. The sum of all such values of m is (A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D) 27 (E) 29
A. Arundhati Roy B. Jhumpa Lahiri C. Salman Rushdie D. Anita Desai ________________________________________ 2. The Lowland was published in: A. 2001 B. 2013 C. 2010 D. 2005 ________________________________________ 3. Which earlier work earned Lahiri the Pulitzer Prize? A. The Namesake B. Unaccustomed Earth C. Interpreter of Maladies D. The Lowland ________________________________________ 4. The novel is primarily about: A. Technology and modernity B. Immigration, family, and political violence C. Business rivalry D. Mythology and folklore ________________________________________ 5. The two central brothers in the novel are: A. Rahul and Anil B. Subhash and Udayan C. Gogol and Ashoke D. Amit and Nikhil ________________________________________ 6. Where did the brothers grow up? A. Mumbai B. Dhaka C. Calcutta D. Delhi ________________________________________ 7. Udayan becomes involved in: A. Peace activism B. Cinema C. Naxalite movement D. Business ________________________________________ 8. Subhash moves to: A. London B. Rhode Island C. Toronto D. Chicago ________________________________________ 9. Udayan is killed in: A. Jail B. A riot C. The lowland near his house D. A car accident ________________________________________ 10. Why does Subhash marry Gauri? A. Love B. To protect her and her unborn child C. Financial benefit D. Family pressure ________________________________________ 11. Gauri eventually: A. Becomes a politician B. Starts a business C. Leaves her family D. Returns to India ________________________________________ 12. Subhash raises Bela: A. With Gauri B. Alone C. With help from his parents D. In India ________________________________________ 13. Bela grows up believing: A. Udayan is her father B. Subhash is her father C. She has no father D. Her father died in war ________________________________________ 14. The setting of political unrest is linked to: A. Partition B. Naxalbari uprising C. Independence movement D. Civil War ________________________________________ 15. The narrative style uses: A. Magical realism B. Non-linear structure C. Poetry D. Second-person narration ________________________________________ 16. Gauri’s character represents: A. Traditional motherhood B. Obedient wife C. Intellectual autonomy and emotional detachment D. Political activism ________________________________________ 17. Bela’s character signifies: A. Rebellion against education B. Second-generation identity struggle C. Complete assimilation D. Materialistic living ________________________________________ 18. Memory in the novel functions as: A. A simple recollection B. A haunting presence affecting identity C. A forgotten history D. A symbolic decoration ________________________________________ 19. The lowland itself symbolizes: A. Wealth B. Stability C. Transitional, unstable space D. Escape ________________________________________ 20. Lahiri’s prose style can be described as: A. Flowery and ornate B. Minimalistic and restrained C. Dramatic and verbose D. Highly poetic ________________________________________ 21. Water imagery reflects: A. Joy and happiness B. Power and victory C. Memory and emotional fluidity D. Evil ________________________________________ 22. Which theory applies strongly to this novel? A. Structuralism B. Postcolonial hybridity C. Absurdism D. Modernism ________________________________________ 23. Postcolonial hybridity is linked to: A. Complete assimilation B. Identity in-between cultures C. Traditional values D. Language fluency alone ________________________________________ 24. Which character best reflects second-generation identity conflict? A. Gauri B. Bela C. Subhash D. Udayan ________________________________________ 25. What does Subhash struggle with most? A. Career failure B. Language C. Guilt and secrecy D. Wealth ________________________________________ 26. Udayan’s ideology centers on: A. Business growth B. Armed communist revolution C. Religious reform D. Education ________________________________________ 27. The novel shows how political violence leads to: A. Personal healing B. Economic prosperity C. Emotional trauma across generations D. Cultural unity ________________________________________ 28. Betrayal appears as: A. Only political B. Only emotional C. Both political and familial D. A background idea ________________________________________ 29. The genre of the text best fits: A. Fantasy B. Realistic political family saga C. Science fiction D. Thriller ________________________________________ 30. The narrative constantly shifts between: A. Dream and reality B. India and America C. Past and future India D. Fiction and nonfiction ________________________________________ 31. Homi Bhabha’s "third space" represents: A. Physical land B. A zone of cultural in-betweenness C. A literal building D. A heavenlike vision ________________________________________ 32. Gauri symbolizes: A. Traditional widowhood B. Female agency vs social expectation C. Blind loyalty D. Economic dependence ________________________________________ 33. Bela unknowingly inherits: A. Udayan’s ideology B. Gauri’s academic passion only C. Subhash’s calmness D. Grandparents’ wealth ________________________________________ 34. Lahiri uses silence to: A. Avoid details B. Deepen psychological complexity C. Reduce story relevance D. Simplify events ________________________________________ 35. A major structural device is: A. Letters B. Non-linear flashbacks C. Mythic storytelling D. Metafiction ________________________________________ 36. Which text offers a migrant theme comparison? A. The God of Small Things B. The White Tiger C. The Namesake D. Train to Pakistan ________________________________________ 38. The Naxalite movement first emerged in: A. Mumbai B. Naxalbari village C. Delhi D. Kerala ________________________________________ 39. Which theme repeats strongly? A. Celebration of success B. Silence and secrets C. Fantasy D. Heroism ________________________________________ 40. What does Bela do as an adult? A. Becomes a doctor B. Engages in environmental activism C. Joins corporate life D. Moves into politics ________________________________________ 41. The immigrant experience in the novel is portrayed as: A. Full belonging B. Alienation and partial belonging C. Achievement D. Liberation ________________________________________ 42. Which idea does Lahiri question through Gauri? A. Heroism B. Maternal expectation C. Religious devotion D. Wealth ________________________________________ 43. Subhash represents: A. Pure rebellion B. Survival and adaptation C. Anti-immigrant sentiment D. Total withdrawal ________________________________________ 44. Lahiri’s writing expects readers to: A. Passively accept the plot B. Read emotional subtext in silences C. Ignore symbols D. Only enjoy the story ________________________________________ 45. The lowland as a metaphor mainly signifies: A. Joy B. Unstable cultural ground C. Triumph D. Isolation from family ________________________________________ 46. Why is The Lowland considered significant? A. Its fantasy themes B. Its deep engagement with politics & identity C. Its humor D. Its romantic style ________________________________________ 47. Which comparative author also writes about diaspora identity? A. Chetan Bhagat B. Amitav Ghosh C. Premchand D. Ruskin Bond ________________________________________ 48. Udayan’s death drives the plot because: A. Family hides it B. It forces new relationships & trauma C. People forget him D. It has no consequence ________________________________________ 49. The narrative ends emphasizing: A. Closure and peace B. Lasting consequences of secrets C. National identity D. Religious conflict ________________________________________ 50. Scholars study this work because it explores: A. Only Indian history B. Trauma, diaspora, gender & politics C. Folk storytelling D. Comedy
Makharij al-Huruf (مخارج الحروف) refers to the specific places or points in the mouth and throat from which the Arabic letters originate. Knowing the correct makhraj is essential for proper Qur’an recitation. 📌 There are 5 main articulation areas in the human vocal system: Al-Jawf (the empty space in the mouth and throat) Al-Halq (the throat) Al-Lisan (the tongue) Ash-Shafatain (the two lips) Al-Khayshum (the nasal cavity) and trainer What is the meaning of "Makharij al-Huruf"? A. Rules of stopping B. Points of articulation C. Types of letters D. Tajwid marks ✅ Answer: B Which letters originate from the lips (Ash-Shafatain)? A. Alif, Waw, Ya B. Fa, Ba, Meem, Waw C. Ta, Da, Tha D. Kha, Ha, Ghayn ✅ Answer: B Where do the letters ‘ع’ and ‘ح’ originate from? A. Lips B. Nasal cavity C. Throat D. Tongue ✅ Answer: C The nasal cavity (Al-Khayshum) is the source of which sound? A. Ghunna B. Qalqalah C. Ikhfa D. Idgham ✅ Answer: A Which letter is produced from the middle of the tongue? A. Lam B. Kaf C. Jeem D. Ba ✅ Answer: C The sound of letter 'ق' comes from: A. The lips B. The nose C. The back of the tongue touching the soft palate D. The teeth ✅ Answer: C How many main articulation areas are there in Makharij al-Huruf? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 ✅ Answer: C Which of the following is a letter from Al-Jawf? A. Ba B. Waw (madd) C. Fa D. Tha ✅ Answer: B What does 'Ghunna' mean in tajwid? A. Prolongation B. Nasal sound C. Pause D. Echoing sound ✅ Answer: B Which letters are articulated with both lips closed? A. Fa and Waw B. Ba and Meem C. Ta and Da D. Ha and Kha ✅ Answer: B
What I Can Do Evaluate Multiple Choice: Choose the letter of the best answer. Write the chosen letter to your paper. 1. The following activities can be done during the rainy season EXCEPT _ A. flying kites B. watching TV C. reading books D. aerobic dancing 2. When is the most appropriate time to go on a family outing? A. wet season B. dry season C. cold season D. rainy season 3. Which food is best to eat during summer? A. lomi B. halo-halo C. hot coffee D. chicken soup 4. Which activity is suitable to do in a wet season? A. swimming B. drying fish C. staying indoors D. taking your pet dog for a walk 5. Which of the following materials is appropriate to bring regardless of the season? A. shades B. wide hat C. umbrella D. thick clothes
1. What is the primary goal of the board regarding compensation for professional employees? A) To minimize costs B) To attract and retain committed personnel C) To follow state regulations only D) To offer the highest salaries in the district 2. How is the compensation of certificated personnel determined? A) Based solely on local market rates B) Based on the state salary schedule with local supplements C) Based on the number of students taught D) At the discretion of the principal 3. When must teachers receive written notification of their employment status for the following school year? A) After the school year ends B) On the last day of school C) On or before the date the district extends offers of teaching employment D) At the start of the school year 4. Who has the authority to establish the compensation for support staff? A) The school board B) The superintendent C) The principal D) The teachers’ union 5. How often are employees paid? A) Weekly B) Monthly C) Semi-monthly D) Annually 6. What happens if a regular payday falls on a company-observed holiday? A) Employees are paid the following week B) Employees are paid on the last business day preceding that date C) Employees receive double pay D) Payments are canceled 7. Which of the following is NOT a mandatory deduction from an employee’s compensation? A) Federal income taxes B) State income taxes C) Employee bonuses D) FICA taxes 8. How should an employee report an improper deduction from their pay? A) Ignore it B) Report it to human resources or their direct supervisor C) Discuss it with colleagues D) Write a letter to the school board 9. Which of the following statements is true regarding exempt employees’ salaries? A) Their salary can be reduced for any reason. B) They receive full salary regardless of the number of hours worked in a week. C) Their pay is based on the number of days they work. D) They are paid hourly. 10. Under what condition can the district reduce an exempt employee's salary? A) If the employee takes vacation days B) If the employee is absent for personal reasons for one or more full days C) For minor conduct infractions D) If the employee decides to leave early
Classroom Expectations and Policies Assessment 1. What should students bring to class every day? a. Only a positive attitude b. Charged Chromebook, writing utensil, and positive attitude c. Just their books d. Snacks and drinks 2. What is the consequence for bullying in the classroom? a. A warning b. A violation card c. Extra homework d. A meeting with the principal 3. If a student breaks a personal item, what must they do? a. Ignore it b. Apologize c. Buy a new one for the teacher d. Ask for forgiveness 4. How should students handle using the futon during class? a. Sit on it every day b. Use it without asking c. Ask first and only use it during work time d. Sit on it during lectures 5. Where will all assignments be posted? a. On the classroom wall b. On Canvas c. Only verbally d. In a textbook 6. What happens if an assignment is submitted late? a. It will be graded normally b. It will not be accepted c. It will drop a letter grade each day it is late d. It will be given extra credit 7. After how many days of lateness will a student receive only half credit for an assignment? a. 1 day b. 2 days c. 3 days d. 4 days 8. What is the policy for retaking tests? a. No retakes allowed b. Students must schedule the retake themselves c. Retakes are given automatically d. Only the teacher can decide on retakes 9. What constitutes cheating in this classroom? a. Asking for help b. Claiming credit for someone else's work c. Working with a partner d. Participating in study groups 10. What is the penalty for cheating? a. A warning b. A failing grade on the assignment and notification of parents c. Extra assignments d. A detention 11. How will grades be determined? a. By participation only b. By points, with tests and quizzes weighted more than classwork c. By effort d. By attendance 12. Where can students use their cell phones? a. In class anytime b. In the commons and hallways during passing time and lunch c. In the restroom d. In the cafeteria only 13. What happens if a student uses their phone during class? a. They will receive a warning b. The phone will be confiscated immediately c. They can keep it if they ask d. They will lose points on their grade 14. What should a student do if they know they will be absent? a. Ignore it and hope for the best b. Come to the teacher at least three days before c. Ask a friend for notes d. Just show up later 15. If a student is sick and cannot do work, what should they focus on? a. Completing all missed assignments b. Getting better c. Emailing the teacher every hour d. Asking for extra credit 16. What is the policy on bringing food or drinks to class? a. It's not allowed at all b. It’s allowed as long as it’s not a distraction c. Only water is allowed d. Students must share their food 17. How should students contact the teacher with questions? a. Only during class time b. Through social media c. By email or in person d. By sending a friend 18. What happens if a student emails after 9 PM? a. The teacher will respond immediately b. The teacher will respond the next day at 7:45 AM c. The email will be ignored d. The teacher will call the student 19. How do violations accumulate for cell phone use? a. They reset every trimester b. They accumulate throughout the school year c. They reset every week d. They do not count 20. What should students do if they have concerns while the teacher is on maternity leave? a. Contact the principal b. Contact the substitute teacher for assistance c. Wait until the teacher returns d. Handle it on their own Answer Key (Always review AI generated answers for accuracy - Math is more likely to be inaccurate) b. Charged Chromebook, writing utensil, and positive attitude b. A violation card c. Buy a new one for the teacher c. Ask first and only use it during work time b. On Canvas c. It will drop a letter grade each day it is late c. 3 days b. Students must schedule the retake themselves b. Claiming credit for someone else's work b. A failing grade on the assignment and notification of parents b. By points, with tests and quizzes weighted more than classwork b. In the commons and hallways during passing time and lunch b. The phone will be confiscated immediately b. Come to the teacher at least three days before b. Getting better b. It’s allowed as long as it’s not a distraction c. By email or in person b. The teacher will respond the next day at 7:45 AM b. They accumulate throughout the school year b. Contact the substitute teacher for assistance
Create a multiple-choice quiz for 5th grade English learners (CEFR A1–A2 level) based on the following reading text. Text: Mari Copeny is a special girl. She helped her city get clean water. Mari lives in a city called Flint in the USA. In 2014, there was a big water problem in Flint. Mari wanted to do something. She decided to send a letter to the president of the USA. His name was Barack Obama. President Obama was angry about the dirty water in Flint. He wanted to help. He visited Flint and learned about the water problem. He helped the city get clean water. Mari is happy her letter helped Flint. She also wants to change other things. One day, Mari wants to be president of the USA. She plans to make life better for many people. Instructions for the quiz: • Create 8–10 multiple-choice questions. • Each question should have 4 answer options (A, B, C, D). • Mark the correct answer. • Use simple language suitable for 5th grade ESL learners. • Focus on comprehension of the text (who, where, why, what happened, sequence of events). • Include at least one question about Mari’s future goal.