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Https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! CGEIT: Certified in the Governance of Enterprise IT Volume A Question #1 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario? īˇ A. Avoidance īˇ B. Mitigation īˇ C. Parkinson's Law īˇ D. Lag Time Answer: A Question #2 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is? īˇ A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. īˇ B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event. īˇ C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives. īˇ D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #3 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use? īˇ A. Delphi technique īˇ B. Isolated pilot groups īˇ C. SWOT analysis īˇ D. Root cause analysis Answer: A Question #4 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities. Answer: Life cycle Question #5 Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration. Answer: Conformance Question #6 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management? īˇ A. Service Portfolio Update īˇ B. Business Planning Data īˇ C. Strategic Planning īˇ D. Strategic Service Assessment īˇ E. Service Strategy Definition Answer: B Question #7 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve. īˇ B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need. īˇ C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve. īˇ D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources. Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations īˇ B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance īˇ C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding īˇ D. Capitalization on knowledge & information Answer: ABD Question #9 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model Answer: Sensitivity analysis Question #10 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs? īˇ A. Voluntary exit īˇ B. Plant closing īˇ C. Involuntary exit īˇ D. Outplacement Answer: C Question #11 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected. Answer: asset https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #12 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this? īˇ A. Estimate activity duration īˇ B. Quantitative analysis īˇ C. Qualitative analysis īˇ D. Risk identification Answer: C Question #13 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio? īˇ A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization. īˇ B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations. īˇ C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area. īˇ D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations. Answer: D Question #14 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor? īˇ A. Corporate restructure īˇ B. Divestiture īˇ C. Rightsizing īˇ D. Outsourcing Answer: B Question #15 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task? īˇ A. Organizational process assets īˇ B. Enterprise architecture īˇ C. Business need https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Enterprise environmental factors Answer: D Question #16 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality? īˇ A. Agreement īˇ B. COBIT īˇ C. Service Improvement Plan īˇ D. Benchmarking Answer: D Question #17 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project oriented analysis for identified risks? īˇ A. Modeling and simulation īˇ B. Expected monetary value īˇ C. Sensitivity analysis īˇ D. Jo-Hari Window Answer: D Question #18 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? "This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives." īˇ A. Identify Risks īˇ B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis īˇ C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis īˇ D. Monitor and Control Risks Answer: C Question #19 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process? īˇ A. Research īˇ B. Adapt īˇ C. Plan īˇ D. Improve Answer: C Question #20 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events? īˇ A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to. īˇ B. The events should be entered into the risk register. īˇ C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis. īˇ D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis. Answer: B Question #21 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what? īˇ A. Corrective action īˇ B. Preventive action īˇ C. Scope creep īˇ D. Defect repair Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market? īˇ A. Project gap īˇ B. Competitive gap īˇ C. Usage gap https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Product gap Answer: C Question #23 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact? īˇ A. Risk response plan īˇ B. Look-up table īˇ C. Project sponsor īˇ D. Risk management plan Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes? īˇ A. Incident Management īˇ B. IT Facilities Management īˇ C. Release Management īˇ D. Request Fulfillment Answer: D Question #25 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis? īˇ A. Bandwidth īˇ B. Pricing īˇ C. Product īˇ D. Promotion Answer: A Question #26 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Quantitative analysis īˇ B. Qualitative risk analysis īˇ C. Historical information īˇ D. Rolling wave planning Answer: B Question #27 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas? īˇ A. Risk coordinator īˇ B. Risk expeditor īˇ C. Risk owner īˇ D. Risk team leader Answer: C Question #28 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts? īˇ A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization īˇ B. Portfolio Management īˇ C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards īˇ D. Portfolio What-If Planning Answer: C Question #29 DRAG DROP - Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes defined by Val IT. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #30 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group? īˇ A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring īˇ B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing īˇ C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring īˇ D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Service Portfolio Update īˇ B. Strategic Service Assessment īˇ C. Service Strategy Definition īˇ D. Strategic Planning Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following are the main goals of Broadcasting Board of Governors (BBG)'s strategic plan 2008- 2013?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. It employs modern communication techniques and technologies. īˇ B. It builds on our reach and impact within the muslim world. īˇ C. It engages the world in conversation about England. īˇ D. It enhances program delivery across all platforms. Answer: ABD Question #33 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT decision making and the IT budget are in one place, much easier to manage, and require much less effort to organize? īˇ A. Decentralized īˇ B. Federated īˇ C. Project-based īˇ D. Centralized Answer: D Question #34 A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this? īˇ A. LA īˇ B. VPN īˇ C. NDA īˇ D. SLA Answer: D Question #35 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers areas such as the execution of the applications within the IT system and its results as well as the support processes that enable the effective and efficient execution of these IT systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Deliver and Support īˇ B. Acquire and Implement īˇ C. Monitor and Evaluate īˇ D. Plan and Organize Answer: A Question #36 Gary has identified a project risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. This workaround to the risk event is known as what type of risk response? īˇ A. Avoidance īˇ B. Mitigation īˇ C. Acceptance īˇ D. Transference Answer: D Question #37 Management has asked you to perform a risk audit and report back on the results. Bonny, a project team member asks you what a risk audit is. What do you tell Bonny? īˇ A. A risk audit is a review of the effectiveness of the risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process. īˇ B. A risk audit is a review of all the risks that have yet to occur and what their probability of happening are. īˇ C. A risk audit is an audit of all the risks that have occurred in the project and what their true impact on cost and time has been. īˇ D. A risk audit is a review of all the risk probability and impact for the risks, which are still present in the project but which have not yet occurred. Answer: A Question #38 Wendy is the project manager of the FBL project for your company. She has identified several risks within her project and has created a risk contingency reserve of $45,000 total. Her project is nearly complete and many of the risks have not happened in the project. What should Wendy do with the funds in the contingency reserve? īˇ A. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are transferred to the project budget. īˇ B. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until all of the risks have passed. īˇ C. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until the project is closed. īˇ D. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are released. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as a process, effected by an entity's board of directors, management, and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise? īˇ A. COBIT īˇ B. COSO ERM framework īˇ C. Casualty Actuarial Society framework īˇ D. Val IT Answer: B Question #40 The IT strategy formulation process consists of four steps to provide guidance to all who are involved. Which of the following steps are performed in the IT strategy formulation process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Decide how to get from here to there. īˇ B. Evaluate changes. īˇ C. Assess process maturity. īˇ D. Map out the big picture. Answer: ABD Question #41 Which of the following concepts is a semi-standard structured report supported by proven design methods and automation tools that can be used by managers to keep track of the execution of activities by staff within their control and monitor the consequences arising from these actions? īˇ A. Total Security Management īˇ B. Balanced Scorecard (BSC) īˇ C. Total Quality Management īˇ D. Six Sigma Answer: B Question #42 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various architecture domains for TOGAF at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #43 DRAG DROP - The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and policies for managing information technology (IT) infrastructure, development, and operations. Drag and drop the ITIL processes that focus on service operation, i.e. operational processes in Service Support, in the correct places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #44 You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example of what risk response? īˇ A. Mitigation īˇ B. Sharing īˇ C. Transference īˇ D. Acceptance Answer: B Question #45 Which of the following is the main objective of business process outsourcing? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Realigning business process with business strategy īˇ B. Permitting the enterprise to focus on core main competences īˇ C. Optimizing business processes īˇ D. Increasing the automation of business processes Answer: B Question #46 In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training? īˇ A. Design īˇ B. Initiation īˇ C. Programming and training īˇ D. Evaluation and acceptance Answer: C Question #47 You are the project manager of a newly formed project to create a new manufacturing facility. You are working with a business analyst to identify, document, and prioritize stakeholders' needs for the facility. You'll also need to quantify any subjective terms and needs to define the project scope. What is this process called? īˇ A. Requirements analysis īˇ B. Project scope statement creation īˇ C. Requirements gathering īˇ D. Stakeholder analysis Answer: D Question #48 IT Governance is used by the management to regulate the Information Systems, to accomplish its objectives. IT governance forms an integral part of corporate governance. Which of the following elements are required to implement a good IT governance framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Communication īˇ B. Structure īˇ C. Project īˇ D. Process Answer: ABD Question #49 Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. The Service Catalogue Manager īˇ B. The Supplier Manager īˇ C. The Configuration Manager īˇ D. The IT Service Continuity Manager Answer: B Question #50 All projects that are presented in your organization must go through a board to review the return on investment, risk, and worthiness of a project. All projects are considered but not all projects are initiated. What is the name of the process that this board is completing in your organization? īˇ A. Project selection committee īˇ B. Change governance īˇ C. Project portfolio management īˇ D. Project portfolio management board Answer: C Question #51 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management enables portfolio managers to include or exclude investments, change start and end dates, adjust budgets and reevaluate priorities? īˇ A. Integrated Capability īˇ B. Portfolio Planning Analysis īˇ C. Portfolio What-If Planning īˇ D. Portfolio Management Answer: C Question #52 Fred is the project manager of the PKL project. He is working with his project team to complete the quantitative risk analysis process as a part of risk management planning. Fred understands that once the quantitative risk analysis process is complete, the process will need to be completed again in at least two other times in the project. When will the quantitative risk analysis process need to be repeated? īˇ A. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the risk response planning and as a part of monitoring and controlling. īˇ B. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the plan risk response planning and as part of procurement. īˇ C. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after new risks are identified and as pa of monitoring and controlling. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the cost management planning an as a part of monitoring and controlling. Answer: A Question #53 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decided, with your stakeholders' approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project which of the following are likely to increase? īˇ A. Costs īˇ B. Risks īˇ C. Human resource needs īˇ D. Quality control concerns Answer: B Question #54 Which of the following processes ensures that all vital assets and resources of the organization are safeguarded? īˇ A. Defining Resource Requirements process īˇ B. Cost estimating process īˇ C. Vendor contract administration process īˇ D. Risk management process Answer: D Question #55 In software development, which of the following analysis is used to document the services and functions that have been accidentally left out, deliberately eliminated or still need to be developed? īˇ A. Vulnerability analysis īˇ B. Cost-benefit analysis īˇ C. Requirement analysis īˇ D. Gap analysis Answer: D Question #56 The entry points to Service Strategy are referred to as "the Four Ps". They identify the different forms a service strategy may take. Which of the following is a correct list of the 'Four Ps'? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. People, Products, Partners, and Profit īˇ B. People, Potential, Products, and Performance īˇ C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, and Profit īˇ D. Perspective, Position, Plan, and Pattern Answer: D Question #57 Melody is the project manager for her organization. She has created a risk response to conduct more tests on the software her project is creating. The identified risk that prompted this response was that the software is missionīŋžcritical and must be flawless before it can be put into product. What type of a risk response has Melody used in this scenario? īˇ A. Transference īˇ B. Enhance īˇ C. Avoidance īˇ D. Mitigation Answer: D Question #58 Which of the following are the roles of a CIO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Standardizes architecture & technology. īˇ B. Defines value creation roles within IT. īˇ C. Provides IT infrastructure to facilitate knowledge & information creation/sharing. īˇ D. Establishes business priorities & allocates resources for IT performance. Answer: ABC Question #59 Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required? īˇ A. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced. īˇ B. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed. īˇ C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier. īˇ D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #60 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes are applied across the enterprise where all business units/entities conform to the same set of IT governance processes, and IT investment decisions are based on the enterprise view? īˇ A. Stage 3-Consistent īˇ B. Stage 4-Best practices īˇ C. Stage 1-Ad hoc īˇ D. Stage 2-Fragmented Answer: A Question #61 You are the project manager of the AMD project for your organization. In this project, you are currently performing quantitative risk analysis. The tool and technique you are using is simulation where the project model is computed many times with the input values chosen at random for each iteration. The goal is to create a probability distribution from the iterations for the project schedule. What technique will you use with this simulation? īˇ A. Pareto modeling īˇ B. Expected Monetary Value īˇ C. Monte Carlo Technique īˇ D. Analogous modeling Answer: C Question #62 Robert is the business analyst for his organization and he's working with several stakeholders to identify the business need for an opportunity. Robert needs to identify the stakeholder that will be responsible for authorizing the actions needed in order to meet the identified business need. Which stakeholder does Robert need to identify? īˇ A. Regulator īˇ B. Implementation Subject Matter Expert īˇ C. Sponsor īˇ D. Customer Answer: C Question #63 Which of the following levels of Gartner's cost optimization framework describes the right kind of partnership with IT vendors, which can benefit each party in times of economic upturns? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Cost Savings within IT īˇ B. Joint Business and IT Cost Savings īˇ C. IT Procurement īˇ D. Enabling Innovation and Business Restructuring Answer: C Question #64 Which conduct stakeholder analysis technique is useful for identifying shared characteristics of a stakeholder group? īˇ A. Brainstorming īˇ B. Scope modeling īˇ C. Interviews īˇ D. Surveys Answer: D Question #65 Which of the following are parts of SWOT Analysis? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Optimism īˇ B. Threats īˇ C. Weaknesses īˇ D. Opportunities īˇ E. Tools īˇ F. Strengths Answer: BCDF Question #66 You are the project manager of the NNN project for your company. You and the project team are working together to plan the risk responses for the project. You feel that the team has successfully completed the risk response planning and now you must initiate what risk process it is. Which of the following risk processes is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased? īˇ A. Risk response implementation īˇ B. Quantitative risk analysis īˇ C. Risk identification īˇ D. Qualitative risk analysis Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #67 You are the project manager for your company and a new change request has been approved for your project. This change request, however, has introduced several new risks to the project. You have communicated these risk events and the project stakeholders understand the possible effects these risks could have on your project. You elect to create a mitigation response for the identified risk events. Where will you record the mitigation response? īˇ A. Risk log īˇ B. Risk management plan īˇ C. Risk register īˇ D. Project management plan Answer: C Question #68 Which positive risk response best describes a teaming agreement? īˇ A. Enhance īˇ B. Exploit īˇ C. Share īˇ D. Venture Answer: C Question #69 Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit youre your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response? īˇ A. Exploiting īˇ B. Positive īˇ C. Opportunistic īˇ D. Enhancing Answer: A Question #70 Which document refers to the steps that must be taken if there is a major gap in the projected delivery quality of a service and the actual delivery? īˇ A. Service Improvement Plan īˇ B. Service Quality Plan īˇ C. Business Service Catalogue īˇ D. Service Level Agreement https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following responsibilities are performed by the core team of IT governance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Provide service feedback to providers. īˇ B. Undertake core tasks. īˇ C. Define plan and deliverables. īˇ D. Report on process. Answer: BCD Question #72 Which of the following IT governance frameworks provides governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI), and is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management? īˇ A. VMM īˇ B. Val IT īˇ C. Risk IT īˇ D. COBIT Answer: B Question #73 Which of the following roles in Service Design is responsible for delivering a particular service within the agreed service levels and also acts as the counterpart of the Service Level Manager when negotiating OLAs? īˇ A. The Service Design Manager īˇ B. The Service Level Manager īˇ C. The Service Owner īˇ D. The Service Catalogue Manager Answer: C Question #74 Harold is the project manager of a large project in his organization. He has been actively communicating and working with the project stakeholders. One of the outputs of the manage stakeholder expectations process can actually create new risk events for Harold's project. Which output of the manage stakeholder expectations process can create risks? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Project management plan updates īˇ B. Project document updates īˇ C. Change requests īˇ D. Organizational process assets updates Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following concepts is the business practice of developing and implementing comprehensive risk management and security practices for a firm's entire value chain? īˇ A. TOGAF īˇ B. TQM īˇ C. BSC īˇ D. TSM Answer: D Question #76 Sensitivity analysis is a technique for systematically changing parameters in a model to determine the effects of such changes and is useful for computer modelers for a range of purposes. Which of the following purposes does the sensitivity analysis include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Decision making or the development of recommendations for decision makers īˇ B. Model development īˇ C. Estimating the average outcome īˇ D. Increased understanding or quantification of the system Answer: ABD Question #77 Beth is an HR Professional for her organization and she's been alerted by management that the company will be outsourcing a large portion of operations. This outsourcing will likely cause several employees to lose employment with the organization. Which of the following is the best course of action that Beth can take in regard to communicating with the employees about the outsourcing change? īˇ A. Be honest and truthful and do not hide the facts. īˇ B. Refer all īˇ C. Document all īˇ D. Don't share the details of the outsourcing decision. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #78 Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Managing the IT workforce. īˇ B. Correcting all risk issues. īˇ C. Conducting IT risk assessments. īˇ D. Developing a strategic plan. Answer: ACD Question #79 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT resources are centralized under a single reporting structure with centralized resource allocation (staffing), and the organizational structure is built around the resource pools? īˇ A. Federated īˇ B. Centralized īˇ C. Project-based īˇ D. Decentralized Answer: C Question #80 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk responses she has created? īˇ A. The level of detail is set by historical information. īˇ B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking. īˇ C. The level of detail is set of project risk governance. īˇ D. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk. Answer: B Question #81 strategic plans with business strategic plans and the alignment of IT services with enterprise operations? īˇ A. Risk Management īˇ B. IT Governance Framework īˇ C. Strategic Alignment īˇ D. Value Delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #82 You are the project manager for the ABC organization. Your current project has 75 internal stakeholders and 245 external stakeholders. Many of the risks within your project will only affect the internal stakeholders, but several of the identified risk events will affect the external stakeholders. Management would like to know the total number of communication channels in the project. How many communication channels exist in this project? īˇ A. 245 īˇ B. 102,080 īˇ C. 51,040 īˇ D. 320 Answer: C Question #83 Which of the following is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement and guides process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization? īˇ A. Capability Maturity Model Integration īˇ B. Service Portfolio īˇ C. COBIT īˇ D. Six Sigma Answer: A Question #84 Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project? īˇ A. She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives. īˇ B. She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule īˇ C. She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much a possible. īˇ D. She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule. Answer: D Question #85 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Della works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. She is working with the project stakeholders to begin the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following inputs will be needed for the quantitative risk analysis process in her project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Project scope statement īˇ B. Risk management plan īˇ C. Cost management plan īˇ D. Risk register Answer: BCD Question #86 Which types of project tends to have more well-understood risks? īˇ A. First-of-its kind technology projects īˇ B. State-of-art technology projects īˇ C. Recurrent projects īˇ D. Operational work projects Answer: C Question #87 Marsha is the project manager of the NHQ Project. There's a risk that her project team has identified, which could cause the project to be late by more than a month. Marsha does not want this risk event to happen so she devises extra project activities to ensure that the risk event will not happen. The extra steps, however, will cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response is this approach? īˇ A. Exploiting īˇ B. Transference īˇ C. Mitigation īˇ D. Enhancing Answer: C Question #88 Which of the following frameworks describes a standard for processes within business information management at the strategy, management and operations level? īˇ A. Val IT īˇ B. BISL īˇ C. COBIT īˇ D. TOGAF https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #89 You are the project manager of a large construction project. You are evaluating the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats involved in a project. In which of the following processes are you on? īˇ A. Define Scope īˇ B. Identify Risks īˇ C. Plan Risk Responses īˇ D. Plan Risk Management Answer: B Question #90 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)? īˇ A. Repeatable level īˇ B. Managed level īˇ C. Defined level īˇ D. Fundamental level Answer: D Question #91 A project manager must have certain interpersonal skills to communicate with stakeholders and manage their expectations of the project work. Which of the following interpersonal skills has been identified as one of the biggest reasons for project success or failure? īˇ A. Motivation īˇ B. Influencing īˇ C. Political and cultural awareness īˇ D. Communication Answer: D Question #92 TOGAF is based on four pillars, called architecture domains. Which of the following architecture domains provides a blueprint for the individual application systems to be deployed, the interactions between the application systems, and their relationships to the core business processes of the organization with the frameworks for services to be exposed as business functions for integration? īˇ A. Business architecture īˇ B. Applications architecture īˇ C. Technical architecture https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Data architecture Answer: B Question #93 Which of the following external factors complicate the notion of business-IT for achieving strategic alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Resource limitations īˇ B. Economic and regulatory changes īˇ C. World region changes and events īˇ D. Market changes Answer: BCD Question #94 You are hosting a collection of stakeholders from across the organization to identify the ideas and attitudes about your company's help desk. You want the stakeholders to honestly share their opinions about the help desk service so you can identify problems, solutions, and take actions to improve the service. What type of requirements elicitation activity is this? īˇ A. Root cause analysis īˇ B. Stakeholder analysis īˇ C. Focus groups īˇ D. Workshop Answer: C Question #95 Which of the following are the main objectives of the Performance measurement domain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. It satisfies the customer's need. īˇ B. It defines value creation roles within IT. īˇ C. It meets out the goals. īˇ D. It statistically controls the process sequences. Answer: ACD Question #96 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! You work as a project manager for TechSoft Inc. You are working with the project stakeholders on the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. You have used all the tools to the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. Which of the following techniques is NOT used as a tool in qualitative risk analysis process? īˇ A. Risk Data Quality Assessment īˇ B. Risk Categorization īˇ C. Risk Reassessment īˇ D. Risk Urgency Assessment Answer: C Question #97 Paul has been asked to complete SWOT analysis for his solution scope. What does SWOT analysis mean? īˇ A. Stakeholder Weaknesses, Organizational Threats īˇ B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats īˇ C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Time īˇ D. Stakeholders Weaknesses, Organization, Threats Answer: B Volume B Question #1 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are about to complete the quantitative risk analysis process for your project. You can use three available tools and techniques to complete this process. Which one of the following is NOT a tool or technique that is appropriate for the quantitative risk analysis process? īˇ A. Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques īˇ B. Organizational process assets īˇ C. Expert judgment īˇ D. Data gathering and representation techniques Answer: B Question #2 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be known as what term? īˇ A. Cost-benefits analysis īˇ B. Benchmarking https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. Cost of conformance to quality īˇ D. Team development Answer: C Question #3 Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling? īˇ A. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA) īˇ B. Service-oriented architecture (SOA) īˇ C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA) īˇ D. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) Answer: D Question #4 Which of the following processes involves choosing the alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan? īˇ A. Scope Change control īˇ B. Monitor and Control risk īˇ C. Integrated Change control īˇ D. Configuration Management Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following architecture domains for TOGAF describes the structure of an organization's logical and physical data assets and the associated data management resources? īˇ A. Applications architecture īˇ B. Technical architecture īˇ C. Data architecture īˇ D. Business architecture Answer: C Question #6 Which volume provides guidance on clarification and prioritization of service-provider investments in services? īˇ A. Service Operation īˇ B. Service Strategy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. Service Design īˇ D. Service Management Answer: B Question #7 Which of the following problems occur with performance measurement systems that limit their usefulness? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. It is dependent on gross aggregates, which tend to understate or ignore distributional contributions and consequences. īˇ B. It is dependent on the timely occurrence of corrective action which is required for effective management control. īˇ C. It is dependent on historical patterns and reluctant to accept new structural changes that are capable of generating different outcomes īˇ D. It is dependent on summary data, which emphasizes averages and discounts outliers. Answer: ACD Question #8 You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project? īˇ A. Risk utility function īˇ B. Mitigation-ready project management īˇ C. Risk-reward mentality īˇ D. Risk avoidance Answer: A Question #9 Which of the following techniques is used for understanding the "environment" in which a business operates? īˇ A. Critical success factor analysis īˇ B. PEST analysis īˇ C. SWOT analysis īˇ D. Market segmentation Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #10 Which of the following process groups is the most efficient at providing resources to the development of the procurement process? īˇ A. Acquisition process īˇ B. Contract management īˇ C. Process management īˇ D. Resource management Answer: A Question #11 You are working with your project stakeholders to identify risks within the JKP Project. You want to use an approach to engage the stakeholders to increase the breadth of the identified risks by including internally generated risk. Which risk identification approach is most suited for this goal? īˇ A. Brainstorming īˇ B. Assumptions analysis īˇ C. SWOT analysis īˇ D. Delphi Technique Answer: C Question #12 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders, some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders? īˇ A. Communications Management Plan īˇ B. Risk Response Plan īˇ C. Project Management Plan īˇ D. Risk Management Plan Answer: A Question #13 As seen from the perspective of how the enterprise defines and executes business strategies to achieve its goals and objectives, which of the following elements does the ERM comprise of? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Enhancing risk response decisions īˇ B. Providing integrated responses to few risks īˇ C. Reducing operational surprises and losses https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Aligning risk appetite and strategy Answer: ACD Question #14 You work as the project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are monitoring the project performance. You want to make a decision to change the project plan to eliminate a risk in order to protect the project objectives. Which of the following strategies will you use to tackle the risk? īˇ A. Risk mitigation īˇ B. Risk avoidance īˇ C. Risk acceptance īˇ D. Risk transference Answer: B Question #15 Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create? īˇ A. RACI chart īˇ B. Roles and responsibility matrix īˇ C. Work breakdown structure īˇ D. Resource breakdown structure Answer: D Question #16 You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis? īˇ A. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis. īˇ B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances. īˇ C. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances. īˇ D. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible. Answer: D Question #17 Lisa is the project manager of the FKN project for her organization. She is working with Sam, the CIO, to discuss a discount the vendor has offered the project based on the amount of materials that is ordered. Lisa and Sam review the offer and agree that while their project may qualify for the discounted materials the savings is nominal and they https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! would not necessarily pursue the savings. Lisa documents this positive risk response in the risk register. What risk response is this? īˇ A. Share īˇ B. Acceptance īˇ C. Enhance īˇ D. Transference Answer: B Question #18 You are the project manager of the GHY Project and would like to perform a review of your project from several different characteristics. You would like to review what worked in the project and what needed improvement. What type of analysis would be most appropriate for the end of project review? īˇ A. Feasibility study īˇ B. Product breakdown īˇ C. Business case study īˇ D. SWOT analysis Answer: D Question #19 Which of the following best describes the identification, analysis, and ranking of risks? īˇ A. Plan Risk management īˇ B. Design of experiments īˇ C. Fixed-price contracts īˇ D. Fast tracking Answer: A Question #20 There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process? īˇ A. Risk management plan īˇ B. Risk register īˇ C. Enterprise environmental factors īˇ D. Cost management plan Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #21 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes is fully developed and optimized across the enterprise, and a well-built IT portfolio management process is put to ensure that all IT investment decisions are themselves optimized? īˇ A. Stage 2-Fragmented īˇ B. Stage 4-Best practices īˇ C. Stage 3-Consistent īˇ D. Stage 1-Ad hoc Answer: B Question #22 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would best help you? īˇ A. Plan risk responses īˇ B. Create a risk governance approach īˇ C. Create the project risk register īˇ D. Monitor and control project risks Answer: A Question #23 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project. Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project? īˇ A. Acceptance īˇ B. Enhance īˇ C. Sharing īˇ D. Exploiting Answer: A Question #24 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to perform at an agreed level over a period of time? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Reliability īˇ B. Security īˇ C. Recoverability īˇ D. Serviceability īˇ E. Resilience īˇ F. Maintainability īˇ G. Error control Answer: ABCDEF Question #25 Your project team has identified a project risk that must be responded to. The risk has been recorded in the risk register and the project team has been discussing potential risk responses for the risk event. The event is not likely to happen for several months but the probability of the event is high. Which one of the following is a valid response to the identified risk event? īˇ A. Risk audit īˇ B. Earned value management īˇ C. Corrective action īˇ D. Technical performance measurement Answer: C Question #26 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _________ provides investment management services to the firm and directs on how to take decisions on fund. Answer: fund manager Question #27 You are the business analyst for the YGT Organization. You have just completed a capabilities gap assessment and have determined that your organization does not have the necessary resources and technology to seize a business opportunity. What is the most likely course of action for the organization? īˇ A. Hire contractors to complete the project work. īˇ B. Move onto the next opportunity. īˇ C. Launch a new project. īˇ D. Hire additional resources. Answer: C Question #28 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Stephen is the project manager of the GBB project. He has worked with two subject matter experts and his project team to complete the risk assessment technique. There are approximately 47 risks that have a low probability and a low impact on the project. Which of the following answers best describes what Stephen should do with these risk events? īˇ A. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to the risk register. īˇ B. Because they are low probability and low impact, the risks can be dismissed. īˇ C. Because they are low probability and low impact, Stephen should accept the risks. īˇ D. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watch list for future monitoring. Answer: D Question #29 Which of the following is a continuous process of comparing performance with desired objectives to identify opportunities for improvement, and is conducted by individuals, groups, or organizations relating to their own work? īˇ A. Management Assessment īˇ B. Continuous improvement īˇ C. Self Assessment īˇ D. Control Answer: C Question #30 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _______ portion of the issue log records the previous pending issues that have been taken care of. Answer: resolved issues Question #31 In which of the following methods of risk mitigation does the senior management approve the implementation of the controls that are recommended by the risk management team, and that will lower the risk to an acceptable level? īˇ A. Risk Avoidance īˇ B. Risk Alleviation īˇ C. Risk Limitation īˇ D. Risk Transference Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #32 A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it'll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event? īˇ A. Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart. īˇ B. Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist. īˇ C. Add the identified risk to the risk register. īˇ D. Add the identified risk to the issues log. Answer: C Question #33 Which of the following are the tasks performed by the Management committee in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. To work on architectural design īˇ B. To define value creation roles within IT īˇ C. To balance sustain/growth proposals īˇ D. To manage complex projects Answer: ACD Question #34 Which of the following steps are performed in the Planning phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Plan the risk-based assurance initiatives. īˇ B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives. īˇ C. Perform a quick risk assessment. īˇ D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ACD Question #35 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management describes the ability to model the IT Portfolio with metrics most appropriate to the business such as ROI, Break- Even, Cost Avoidance, and Revenue Return? īˇ A. Integrated Capability īˇ B. Portfolio What-If Planning https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards īˇ D. Highly Configurable Answer: D Question #36 īˇ A. Strategic Alignment īˇ B. Risk Management īˇ C. Value Delivery īˇ D. IT Governance Framework Answer: D Question #37 Which of the following frameworks is for enterprise architecture, and provides a comprehensive approach to the design, planning, implementation, and governance of an enterprise information architecture? īˇ A. TOGAF īˇ B. Val IT īˇ C. BISL īˇ D. COBIT Answer: A Question #38 Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which of the following processes? īˇ A. Change Management, Capacity Management, Event Management, and Service Request Management īˇ B. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management īˇ C. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release Management, and Request Fulfillment īˇ D. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following processes is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships relating to components of the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure? īˇ A. Service Catalogue Management īˇ B. Service Level Management īˇ C. ICT Operations Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Service Asset and Configuration Management Answer: D Question #40 You are the project manager of the GHG project for your company. You have identified the project risks, completed qualitative and quantitative analysis, and created risk responses. You also need to document how and when risk audits will be performed in the project. Where will you define the frequency of risk audits? īˇ A. Schedule management plan īˇ B. Risk management plan īˇ C. Quality management plan īˇ D. Risk response plan Answer: B Question #41 What stakeholder(s) must participate in the document elicitation result? īˇ A. Business analyst and the key stakeholders īˇ B. Business analyst and the business owner īˇ C. Business analyst, business analysis team, and the key stakeholders īˇ D. Business analyst Answer: D Question #42 You are the HR Professional for your organization and you're working with the management to define the role of contractors versus employees in your organization. According to the Internal Revenue Service, there are three categories of control that help determine whether a person is a contractor or an employee. Which one of the following is not one of the three levels of control as defined by the IRS for employee versus contractor? īˇ A. Type of relationship īˇ B. Locale of work performed īˇ C. Behavioral control īˇ D. Financial control Answer: B Question #43 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Holly and Gary are HR Professionals in their organization and they're working to develop the strategic plan for their organization. Holly and Gary are using SWOT analysis to help understand the needs of human, financial, technological, capital, and other aspects of their organization. What is SWOT? īˇ A. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats an organization may face. īˇ B. SWOT is an analysis to define the schedule, weaknesses, opportunities, and timetable of a project endeavor. īˇ C. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, openness, and timeliness of an organization. īˇ D. SWOT is an analysis to define the seriousness, weaknesses, openness, and timetable of organization development. Answer: A Question #44 DRAG DROP - COBIT stands for Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology. COBIT is a set of best practices (framework) for information technology (IT) management created by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI) in 1996. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Monitor and Evaluate') next to the IT processes defined by COBIT to support CSI. Select and Place: Answer: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #45 What is the key output handed over to Service Transition within Service Design? īˇ A. Business Perspective īˇ B. Service Portfolio Management īˇ C. ITIL Small-Scale Implementation īˇ D. Service Design Package Answer: D Question #46 Which of the following processes are covered by Service Strategy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Service Portfolio Management īˇ B. IT Financial Management īˇ C. Demand Management īˇ D. IT Architecture Management īˇ E. Supplier Management Answer: ABCE Question #47 Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur? īˇ A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) īˇ B. Exposure Factor (EF) īˇ C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) īˇ D. Safeguard Answer: C Question #48 Which of the following concepts is used to reduce the errors produced during the manufacturing or service process, increase customer satisfaction, streamline supply chain management, aims for modernization of equipment and ensures workers have the highest level of training? īˇ A. Balanced Scorecard (BSC) īˇ B. Six Sigma īˇ C. Total Quality Management īˇ D. Total Security Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #49 Enterprise analysis provides many things for an organization. All of the following are tasks included in enterprise analysis except for which one? īˇ A. Solution performance assessment īˇ B. Define business need īˇ C. Determine solution approach īˇ D. Assess capability gaps Answer: A Question #50 Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management? īˇ A. Project risk management happens at every milestone. īˇ B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning. īˇ C. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item. īˇ D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project. Answer: C Question #51 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities? īˇ A. Decision analysis īˇ B. Alternative generation īˇ C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints īˇ D. Ranking of approaches Answer: B Question #52 Service Level Management provides for continual identification, monitoring and review of the levels of IT services specified in the service level agreements (SLAs). What are the responsibilities of Service Level Management? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Producing and maintaining a Service Catalog. īˇ B. Liaising with Availability Management. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. Ensuring that the agreed IT services are delivered. īˇ D. Ensuring the primary functions of the Service Desk. īˇ E. Ensuring that appropriate IT Service Continuity plans have been made. Answer: ABCE Question #53 You are the project manager of a computer upgrade project. You and the vendor are in dispute over the deliverables the vendor was to provide and configure. What document can best describe how you and the vendor are to proceed if there is a claim against the vendor? īˇ A. Procurement management plan īˇ B. Project cost management plan īˇ C. Enterprise environmental factors īˇ D. Contract Answer: D Question #54 Which of the following is a way of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcome that customers wish to get without the control of specific costs and risks? īˇ A. Processes īˇ B. Service Desk īˇ C. Functions īˇ D. Service Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following objectives can be the best coordinated with the Human resource management? īˇ A. Increasing the automation of the business processes īˇ B. Satisfying the business needs īˇ C. Rewarding employee fairly īˇ D. Focusing on the business improvements Answer: B Question #56 Which of the following steps are performed in the Scoping phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Customize control objectives. īˇ B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives. īˇ C. Select the control objectives for critical processes. īˇ D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ABC Question #57 Which of the following frameworks describes an enterprise view of all project management activities and how these activities contribute to the success of the organization? īˇ A. Casualty Actuarial Society framework īˇ B. COSO ERM īˇ C. Enterprise project management (EPM) īˇ D. COBIT Answer: C Question #58 Which of the following planned and purposeful management processes are required by Strategic Alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Clarifying the role that IT should play īˇ B. Aligning IT strategy with the business strategy īˇ C. Evaluating, post implementation, benefits delivered by IT īˇ D. Creating and sustaining awareness of the strategic role of IT at a top management level Answer: ACD Question #59 Which of the following terms includes performance objectives and criteria (POCs), performance indicators, and any other means that evaluate the success in achieving a specified goal? īˇ A. Precision īˇ B. Performance Measurement System īˇ C. Performance Measure īˇ D. Performance Measurement Category Answer: C Question #60 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! For the entire IT organizations to be agile, all members of the IT organizations need to understand the need for agility and be committed to this process. Which of the following working principles or activity loops are involved for the IT organizations to be agile? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Loop 2 īˇ B. Loop 4 īˇ C. Loop3 īˇ D. Loop 1 Answer: ACD Question #61 You are interviewing members of a project team to test their understanding of the assigned risk responses as risk owners. You and the project manager are working together to evaluate the risk responses to determine their effectiveness in the project. What project management technique are you performing with the project manager in this scenario? īˇ A. Risk identification with the project team īˇ B. Risk audits īˇ C. Risk analysis īˇ D. Stakeholder analysis as the project team is a stakeholder Answer: B Question #62 Which of the following domains of COBIT addresses the development of a maintenance plan that a company should adopt in order to prolong the life of an IT system and its components? īˇ A. Plan and Organize īˇ B. Acquire and Implement īˇ C. Deliver and Support īˇ D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: B Question #63 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as the discipline by which an organization in any industry assesses, controls, exploits, finances, and monitors risks from all sources for the purpose of increasing the organization's short- and long-term value to its stakeholders? īˇ A. COSO ERM framework īˇ B. COBIT īˇ C. Val IT https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Casualty Actuarial Society framework Answer: D Question #64 Ned is the project manager of the HNN project for your company. Ned has asked you to help him complete some probability distributions for his project. What portion of the project will you most likely use for probability distributions? īˇ A. Uncertainty in values such as duration of schedule activities īˇ B. Risk probability and impact matrixes īˇ C. Bias towards risk in new resources īˇ D. Risk identification Answer: A Question #65 Walter is the project manager of a large construction project. He'll be working with several vendors on the project. Vendors will be providing materials and labor for several parts of the project. Some of the works in the project are very dangerous so Walter has implemented safety requirements for all of the vendors and his own project team. Stakeholders for the project have added new requirements, which have caused new risks in the project. A vendor has identified a new risk that could affect the project if it comes into fruition. Walter agrees with the vendor and has updated the risk register and created potential risk responses to mitigate the risk. What should Walter also update in this scenario considering the risk event? īˇ A. Project contractual relationship with the vendor īˇ B. Project communications plan īˇ C. Project scope statement īˇ D. Project management plan Answer: D Question #66 You are the project manager of the NGQQ Project for your company. To help you communicate project status to your stakeholders, you are going to create a stakeholder register. All of the following information should be included in the stakeholder register except for which one? īˇ A. Stakeholder management strategy īˇ B. Assessment information of the stakeholders' major requirements, expectations, and potential influence īˇ C. Stakeholder classification of their role in the project īˇ D. Identification information for each stakeholder https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #67 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model states that there are no proper IT governance processes, and it is not documented by management as a requirement? īˇ A. Stage 3-Consistent īˇ B. Stage 2-Fragmented īˇ C. Stage 1-Ad hoc īˇ D. Stage 4-Best practices Answer: C Question #68 Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management, and Request Fulfillment are part of which of the following stages of the Service Lifecycle? īˇ A. Service Strategy īˇ B. Service Transition īˇ C. Continual Service Improvement īˇ D. Service Operation Answer: D Question #69 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have to communicate the causes of risk events to the stakeholders. Which risk diagramming technique you will use to communicate the causes of risk events to project stakeholders? īˇ A. Project network diagrams īˇ B. Ishikawa diagrams īˇ C. Process flow charts īˇ D. Influence diagrams Answer: B Question #70 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _______are activities that are dangerous to complete and manage such as construction, electrical work, or manufacturing. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: Pure risks Question #71 What project management plan is most likely to direct the quantitative risk analysis process for a project in a matrix environment? īˇ A. Risk management plan īˇ B. Staffing management plan īˇ C. Risk analysis plan īˇ D. Human resource management plan Answer: A Question #72 The water sanitation project manager has determined that risks associated with handling certain chemicals are too high. He has therefore decided to allow someone else to complete this portion of the project by outsourcing the handling and installation of the chemicals and filter equipment to an experienced contractor. This is an example of which of the following? īˇ A. Transference īˇ B. Acceptance īˇ C. Mitigation īˇ D. Avoidance Answer: A Question #73 Which of the following outsourcing defines the performance objectives reached by negotiation between the user and the provider of a service, or between an outsourcer and an organization? īˇ A. Service level Agreement (SLA) īˇ B. Proposal īˇ C. Contract īˇ D. Outsource Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management seamlessly initiates the projects, and incorporates the asset and software development costs to improve the accuracy of ongoing portfolio assessment and project prioritization? īˇ A. Portfolio Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. Portfolio What-If Planning īˇ C. Integrated Capability īˇ D. Portfolio Planning Analysis Answer: C Question #75 Shawn is the project manager of the WHT Project for his company. In this project Shawn's team reports that they have found a way to complete the project work for less cost than what was originally planned. The project team presents a new software that will help to automate the project work. While the software and the associated training costs $25,000 it will save the project nearly $65,000 in total costs. Shawn agrees to the software and changes to the project management plan accordingly. What type of risk response has been used in this instance? īˇ A. Enhancing īˇ B. Accepting īˇ C. Avoidance īˇ D. Exploiting Answer: D Question #76 Which of the following sub-processes of Capacity Management is concerned with the management of the individual components of the IT Infrastructure? īˇ A. Capacity Management Reporting īˇ B. Business Capacity Management īˇ C. Service Capacity Management īˇ D. Resource Capacity Management Answer: D Question #77 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. You are working on NGQQ Project for your company. You have completed the risk analysis processes for the risk events. You and the project team have created risk responses for most of the identified project risks. Which of the following risk response planning techniques will you use to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the responses? īˇ A. Risk transference īˇ B. Risk avoidance īˇ C. Risk acceptance īˇ D. Risk mitigation https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #78 Which of the following are the advantages of IT Resource Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. It develops the IT service quality and effectiveness. īˇ B. It reduces the IT project complexity. īˇ C. It reduces the enterprise risks. īˇ D. It provides customer organization to construct the Request for Proposal (RFP). Answer: ABC Question #79 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers the use of information & technology, and how best it can be used in a company to help achieve the company's goals and objectives? īˇ A. Deliver and Support īˇ B. Acquire and Implement īˇ C. Plan and Organize īˇ D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: C Question #80 Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management? īˇ A. Planning meetings and analysis īˇ B. Variance and trend analysis īˇ C. Data gathering and representation techniques īˇ D. Information gathering techniques Answer: A Question #81 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #82 You are the project manager of a large construction project. Part of the project involves the wiring of the electricity in the building your project is creating. You and the project team determine the electrical work is too dangerous to perform yourself so you hire an electrician to perform the work for the project. This is an example of what type of risk response? īˇ A. Avoidance īˇ B. Mitigation īˇ C. Transference īˇ D. Acceptance Answer: C Question #83 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Gary is the project manager of the MMQ project for his company. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for his project. Sarah, a project team member, does not understand the process that Gary is using to plan the risk responses. Which approach is the preferred method to address project risks and the risk responses? īˇ A. Risks in the project should be addressed by their probability for creating risk responses. īˇ B. Risks in the project should be addressed by the organization's risk tolerance for creating risk responses. īˇ C. Risks in the project should be addressed by their priority for creating risk responses. īˇ D. Risks in the project should be addressed by their impact for creating risk responses. Answer: C Question #84 Which of the following are the main benefits of using Information Services Procurement Library (ISPL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. The contract can be used as a control instrument. īˇ B. The customer can take advantage of the competitive market. īˇ C. The proposals of consumers become comparable. īˇ D. The use of a strategy that really fits the situation. Answer: ABD Question #85 During qualitative risk analysis you want to define the risk urgency assessment. All of the following are indicators of risk priority except for which one? īˇ A. Risk rating īˇ B. Warning signs īˇ C. Cost of the project īˇ D. Symptoms Answer: C Question #86 What does the T in SWOT analysis mean? īˇ A. Time īˇ B. Trial īˇ C. Threats īˇ D. Test https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #87 Which of the following components work to support achievements of the enterprise's mission, strategies, and related business objectives in an internal control system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Control activities īˇ B. Control environment īˇ C. Strategic alignment īˇ D. Risk assessment Answer: ABD Question #88 Which of the following are the objectives of Service Level Management (SLM)? 1. To negotiate SLAs with the customers and to design services in accordance with the agreed service level targets. 2. Defining, documenting, and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided. 3. Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in. 4. Monitoring, measuring, and reporting the actual level of services provided. 5. Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction. īˇ A. 1, 2, and 3 only īˇ B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only īˇ C. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 īˇ D. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only īˇ E. 1 and 2 only Answer: B Question #89 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules? īˇ A. Risk management plan īˇ B. Enterprise environmental factors īˇ C. Risk probability and impact matrix īˇ D. Organizational process assets Answer: D Question #90 Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below? System and data are validated. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements. īˇ A. Evaluation and acceptance īˇ B. Programming and training īˇ C. Initiation īˇ D. Definition Answer: A Question #91 Ben is the project manager of the CMH Project for his organization. He has identified a risk that has a low probability of happening, but the impact of the risk event could save the project and the organization with a significant amount of capital. Ben assigns Laura to the risk event and instructs her to research the time, cost, and method to improve the probability of the positive risk event. Ben then communicates the risk event and response to management. What risk response has been used here? īˇ A. Enhance īˇ B. Transference īˇ C. Sharing īˇ D. Exploit Answer: A Question #92 You are the project manager for ABC project. You are planning for when and how human resource requirements will be met. You are working on ____. īˇ A. Scope management plan īˇ B. Project organization chart īˇ C. Staffing management plan īˇ D. Resource calendar Answer: C Question #93 Jeff works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project. Which of the following are the inputs to the identify risks process that Jeff will use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Risk management plan īˇ B. Activity cost estimates īˇ C. Scope baseline https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Risk register Answer: ABC Question #94 Which of the following types of agreement creates a confidential relationship between the parties to protect any type of confidential and proprietary information or a trade secret? īˇ A. CNC īˇ B. NDA īˇ C. SLA īˇ D. Non-price competition Answer: B Question #95 Gary is the project manager for his organization. He is working with the project stakeholders on the project requirements and how risks may affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes risks in the project. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a project risk? īˇ A. It is an unknown event that can affect the project scope. īˇ B. It is an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective. īˇ C. It is an uncertain event that can affect the project costs. īˇ D. It is an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. Answer: B Question #96 Which of the following roles is used to ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)? īˇ A. The Service Level Manager īˇ B. The Configuration Manager īˇ C. The IT Security Manager īˇ D. The Change Manager Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #97 Which of the following are commonly used terms when discussing service improvement outcomes? 1) Improvements 2) Benefits 3) Return On Investment (ROI) 4) Value On Investment(VOI) 5) Resources īˇ A. 2, 3, and 5 only īˇ B. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only īˇ C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only īˇ D. 1, 2, and 4 only īˇ E. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: C Question #98 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT identifies resource requirements? īˇ A. PM5 īˇ B. PM3 īˇ C. PM2 īˇ D. PM4 Answer: C Volume C Question #1 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT establishes an investment threshold? īˇ A. PM4 īˇ B. PM7 īˇ C. PM6 īˇ D. PM5 Answer: C Question #2 Which of the following ISO standards defines the corporate governance of IT? īˇ A. ISO 9000 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. ISO 27001 īˇ C. ISO 20000 īˇ D. ISO 38500 Answer: D Question #3 Which of the following concepts aims to limit errors to 1 per million units produced? īˇ A. TQM īˇ B. BSC īˇ C. Six Sigma īˇ D. TSM Answer: A Question #4 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT establishes the organizational structures? īˇ A. VG7 īˇ B. VG9 īˇ C. VG6 īˇ D. VG8 Answer: A Question #5 Which of the following activity loops describes improvement of the existing processes? īˇ A. Loop 3 īˇ B. Loop 4 īˇ C. Loop 1 īˇ D. Loop 2 Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following strategies includes marketing strategies, new product development strategies, HR strategies and, financial strategies? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Operational strategy īˇ B. Corporate strategy īˇ C. Business strategy īˇ D. Functional strategy Answer: D Question #7 Which of the following phases in SDLC transforms the detailed requirements into complete, detailed system design document? īˇ A. Planning īˇ B. Design īˇ C. Development īˇ D. Initiation Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following phases in SDLC provides the basis for acquiring the resources needed to achieve a solution? īˇ A. Design īˇ B. Planning īˇ C. Development īˇ D. Initiation Answer: B Question #9 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle occurs during the concept and idea stages of basic research? īˇ A. IT asset phase īˇ B. IT discovery phase īˇ C. IT process phase īˇ D. IT project phase Answer: B Question #10 Which of the following steps of development of business case describes the financial benefits analysis? īˇ A. Step 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. Step 3 īˇ C. Step 2 īˇ D. Step 4 Answer: B Question #11 Which of the following is a practice of forecasting possible risks to the organization and taking steps to mitigate their impact on operations? īˇ A. Timekeeping īˇ B. Enterprise risk management īˇ C. Applicant tracking systems īˇ D. HR audit Answer: B Question #12 Which of the following risk functions directs the Sarbanes-Oxley Section 302 and 404 assessments? īˇ A. Operations management īˇ B. Accounting / Financial compliance īˇ C. Operational Quality Assurance īˇ D. Compliance & Ethics Answer: B Question #13 Which of the following project management plans defines the risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring strategies? īˇ A. Communications Management Plan īˇ B. Resource Management Plan īˇ C. Risk Management Plan īˇ D. Stakeholder management strategy Answer: C Question #14 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for policy creation, policy communication, record creation, and HR information systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Compensation and benefit īˇ B. Personnel policy īˇ C. Analysis and design for work īˇ D. Support for strategy Answer: B Question #15 Which of the following resource categories includes costs, productivity, availability, and change and configuration management? īˇ A. Products īˇ B. Processes īˇ C. People īˇ D. Partners Answer: B Question #16 What is the formula for measuring the "usage gap"? īˇ A. Usage gap = market potential - existing usage īˇ B. Usage gap = market potential * existing usage īˇ C. Usage gap = market potential / existing usage īˇ D. Usage gap = market potential + existing usage Answer: A Question #17 Which of the following individuals/team advises on infrastructure needs and architectural design? īˇ A. Management committee īˇ B. CEO īˇ C. CIO īˇ D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #18 In which of the following types of biases does the data collection itself interfere with the process it is measuring? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Interaction īˇ B. Nonresponse īˇ C. Perception īˇ D. Operational Answer: A Question #19 Which of the following categories describes the value added by the process divided by the value of the labor and capital consumed? īˇ A. Quality īˇ B. Timeliness īˇ C. Quantity īˇ D. Productivity Answer: D Question #20 Which of the following processes uses statistical evidences to determine progress toward specific defined organizational objectives? īˇ A. Resource management īˇ B. Risk management īˇ C. Value delivery īˇ D. Performance measurement Answer: D Question #21 Which of the following has the tendency or inclination of outlook that is a troublesome source of error in human sensing? īˇ A. Defect īˇ B. Bias (of measurement) īˇ C. Vulnerability īˇ D. Risk Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following areas tracks the project delivery, and monitors the IT services? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Risk management īˇ B. Performance measurement īˇ C. Strategic alignment īˇ D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #23 Which of the following individuals ensures that IT complies with policy, laws and regulations? īˇ A. Project sponsor īˇ B. Compliance officer īˇ C. Supplier īˇ D. Business partner Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following IT processes contained in the Deliver and Support domain of COBIT manages the operations? īˇ A. DS10 īˇ B. DS13 īˇ C. DS9 īˇ D. DS8 Answer: B Question #25 Which of the following individuals supports and contributes to customer's governance approach? īˇ A. User representatives īˇ B. Supplier/Business partners īˇ C. Compliance officers īˇ D. Project sponsors Answer: B Question #26 Which of the following techniques builds various plausible views of possible futures for a business? īˇ A. PEST analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. Scenario Planning īˇ C. SWOT Analysis īˇ D. Market Segmentation Answer: B Question #27 Which of the following areas focuses on aligning with the business and collaborative solutions? īˇ A. Risk management īˇ B. Strategic alignment īˇ C. Resource management īˇ D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #28 Which of the following techniques seeks to identify the similarities and differences between the groups of customers or users? īˇ A. Market Segmentation īˇ B. PEST Analysis īˇ C. SWOT Analysis īˇ D. Scenario Planning Answer: A Question #29 Which of the following areas concentrates on optimizing expenses, and providing the value of IT? īˇ A. Value delivery īˇ B. Risk management īˇ C. Resource management īˇ D. Strategic alignment Answer: A Question #30 Which of the following is used as a tool that assists in risk identification? īˇ A. Performance report īˇ B. Status report https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. Variance analysis īˇ D. Issue log Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following is the amount of risk an enterprise is willing to except in pursuit of its mission? īˇ A. Threats īˇ B. Vulnerability īˇ C. Risk Appetite īˇ D. Inherent Risk Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following risks refers to the risk associated with an event in the absence of specific controls? īˇ A. Financial reporting risk īˇ B. Inherent risk īˇ C. Operational risk īˇ D. Compliance risk Answer: B Question #33 Which of the following types of risks includes liability torts, property damage, natural catastrophe and financial risk? īˇ A. Asset risk īˇ B. Hazard risk īˇ C. Operational risk īˇ D. Strategic risk Answer: B Question #34 Which of the following areas addresses the safeguarding of IT assets, disaster recovery and continuity of operations? īˇ A. Performance measurement īˇ B. Risk management īˇ C. Value delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Strategic alignment Answer: B Question #35 Which of the following individuals/team allocates business resources for effective IT governance? īˇ A. Business Executive īˇ B. CEO īˇ C. CIO īˇ D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #36 Which of the following resource categories includes skill sets, certifications, productivity, and morale? īˇ A. Partners īˇ B. Processes īˇ C. People īˇ D. Products Answer: C Question #37 Which of the following attributes are the COBIT's generic maturity model attributes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Policies, plans and procedures īˇ B. Tools and automation īˇ C. Awareness and communication īˇ D. Availability and accessibility Answer: ABC Question #38 Which of the following systems come under the category of linking systems to connect an enterprise with its customers and supplier? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Website and portal īˇ B. Electronic data interchange (EDI)/extensible markup language (XML) data transfer systems https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. Office productivity īˇ D. E-mail, smartphone, instant messaging Answer: ABD Question #39 Which of the following steps of IT governance program establishes a balanced scorecard mechanism for measuring current performance that are related to the IT governance focus areas? īˇ A. Define target areas īˇ B. Develop improvement strategies īˇ C. Understand and define the risks īˇ D. Measure results Answer: D Question #40 objectives? īˇ A. Strategic Alignment īˇ B. Performance management īˇ C. Value Delivery īˇ D. Risk Management Answer: A Question #41 Which of the following steps of IT governance program decides on the highest priority projects that will help to improve the management and governance of the significant gap areas? īˇ A. Define target areas īˇ B. Develop improvement strategies īˇ C. Measure results īˇ D. Understand and define the risks Answer: B Question #42 In which of the following components of the COSO ERM are the policies and procedures established and implemented to help ensure that the risk responses are effectively carried out? īˇ A. Control activity https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. Risk assessment īˇ C. Risk response īˇ D. Event identification Answer: A Question #43 Which of the following factors influence the operating environment of an enterprise? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Mission, vision and values of an enterprise īˇ B. Outcome measures īˇ C. Stakeholders values īˇ D. Industry practices Answer: ACD Question #44 You are using the IT BSC management tool to apply the practices of IT BSC to the IT function. You want to perform the following functions: ⥠Deliver value ⥠Manage cost âĄManage risks âĄAchieve intercompany synergies Which process of the IT BSC Measurement tool will you use? īˇ A. Future Orientation īˇ B. Operational excellence īˇ C. Corporate contribution īˇ D. Customer Orientation Answer: C Question #45 Which of the following types of benefits are provided by the new IT-driven initiative for IT investment program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Cost avoidance benefit īˇ B. Direct benefit īˇ C. Indirect benefit īˇ D. Incremental benefit https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: ABD Question #46 Which of the following components of COSO ERM framework encompasses the nature of an enterprise, and sets the basis for how risk is viewed and addressed by an organization people, including risk management philosophy and risk appetite, integrity and ethical values, and the environment in which it operates? īˇ A. Risk response īˇ B. Risk assessment īˇ C. Control activity īˇ D. Internal environment Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following are the categories of IT-related spending or investments defined by the META group? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Grow the business īˇ B. Strategic investment īˇ C. Transform the business īˇ D. Run the business Answer: ACD Question #48 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of cost containment, predictability or reliability, continual unit cost improvement, and benchmarking for justification? īˇ A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) īˇ B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) īˇ C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) īˇ D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) Answer: C Question #49 Which of the following functions are performed by the Future Orientation measure of the IT BSC management tool? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. It focuses on professional learning and development. īˇ B. It attracts and retains people with key competencies. īˇ C. It manages operational service performance. īˇ D. It measures and rewards individual and team performance. Answer: ABD Question #50 Which of the following are the process control objectives for the process controls embedment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Process ownership īˇ B. Process goals and objectives īˇ C. Process repeatability īˇ D. Process availability Answer: ABC Question #51 Which of the following guides provides risk and value statements to help identify and validate the need to execute each control objective? īˇ A. IT assurance guide īˇ B. IT control objectives for Basel II guide īˇ C. COBIT control practices guide īˇ D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: C Question #52 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of anticipation of business needs, service levels over cost, and business enablement and facilitation (removal of obstacles)? īˇ A. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) īˇ B. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) īˇ C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) īˇ D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) Answer: B Question #53 Which of the following components of the COSO ERM identifies the required information, captures it, and communicates it in a form and time frame that enable people to carry out their responsibilities? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Information and communication īˇ B. Internal environment īˇ C. Monitoring īˇ D. Objectives setting Answer: A Question #54 Which of the following statements explains the difference between the IT strategy committee and the IT steering committee? īˇ A. The IT strategy committee assists the executive in the delivery of the IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee advises the board and management on IT strategy. īˇ B. The IT strategy committee focuses on implementation, whereas the IT steering committee focuses on the current and future strategic IT issues. īˇ C. The IT strategy committee aligns and approves the IT architecture, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority conflicts. īˇ D. The IT strategy committee provides direction to management relative to IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following guides provides guidance on how COBIT is useful in supporting a variety of assurance tasks, along with the recommended testing steps that are aligned with the control practices? īˇ A. COBIT control practices guide īˇ B. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide īˇ C. IT assurance guide īˇ D. IT control objectives for Basel II guide Answer: C Question #56 Which of the following examples are included in the general controls embedded in IT processes and services? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Completeness īˇ B. Change management īˇ C. Systems development īˇ D. Accuracy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: BC Question #57 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The ________ creates and delivers momentum in gaining executive support, and provides help to set up messaging that is constantly conveyed to motivate the team, and gives information to the stakeholders. Answer: communication plan Question #58 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to decrease costs or revenues? īˇ A. Increasing production rates īˇ B. Decreasing production and operating costs īˇ C. Improving product quality īˇ D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: ABC Question #59 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to increase costs or revenues? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Erecting barriers to entry by competitors īˇ B. Increasing production rates īˇ C. Improving product quality īˇ D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: AD Question #60 The testing methods help in shaping opinion against assurance objectives by combining one or more of the test types. Which of the following are the test types used in this process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Observe īˇ B. Inspect īˇ C. Plan īˇ D. Inquire Answer: ABD https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #61 Which of the following strategic issues in the IFAC report highlight the underlying success and failure of enterprises? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Ability to provide service feedback to providers īˇ B. Strategy execution īˇ C. Ability to undertake successful mergers and acquisitions īˇ D. Clarity of strategy Answer: BCD Question #62 Which of the following guides emphasizes on the fundamental steps for implementing information security within the enterprise, and provides easy to follow guidance for addressing security aspects of IT governance? īˇ A. COBIT security baseline guide īˇ B. COBIT control practices guide īˇ C. IT assurance guide īˇ D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: A Question #63 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of working well with other functions, IT value realization over time rather than-just cost, and being business process- focused but solution driven? īˇ A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) īˇ B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) īˇ C. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) īˇ D. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) Answer: C Question #64 Which of the following examples are included in the application controls embedded in business process applications? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. īˇ A. Segregation of duties īˇ B. Validity īˇ C. Security īˇ D. Computer operations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: AB Question #65 Which of the following individuals provides the funding, and want to see the return on their investment and strategic alignment with their strategic objectives? īˇ A. Compliance officers īˇ B. Internal auditors īˇ C. Business partners īˇ D. Product suppliers Answer: C Question #66 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT defines information requirements? īˇ A. VG6 īˇ B. VG4 īˇ C. VG5 īˇ D. VG3 Answer: C Question #67 Which of the following is a family of ISO standards for Total Quality Management (TQM)? īˇ A. ISO 20000 īˇ B. ISO 9000 īˇ C. ISO 38500 īˇ D. ISO 27001 Answer: B Question #68 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT creates an overall portfolio view? īˇ A. PM8 īˇ B. PM7 īˇ C. PM9 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. PM10 Answer: C Question #69 Which of the following individuals provides service feedback to the providers? īˇ A. Compliance officers īˇ B. User representatives īˇ C. Project sponsors īˇ D. Suppliers Answer: B Question #70 Which of the following is a non repetitive set of tasks that lead to the achievement of a new objective? īˇ A. Plan īˇ B. Strategy īˇ C. Techniques īˇ D. Tactics Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following activity loops emphasizes on monitoring and deciding processes? īˇ A. Loop 2 īˇ B. Loop 4 īˇ C. Loop 3 īˇ D. Loop 1 Answer: D Question #72 Which of the following activity loops describes creation of new processes? īˇ A. Loop 3 īˇ B. Loop 2 īˇ C. Loop 4 īˇ D. Loop 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #73 In which of the following editions of COBIT was "Management Guidelines" added? īˇ A. The third edition īˇ B. The first edition īˇ C. The fourth edition īˇ D. The second edition Answer: D Question #74 Which of the following service delivery processes includes controls, document and record, as its sub processes? īˇ A. Service level management īˇ B. Service reporting īˇ C. Information security management īˇ D. Capacity management Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle is governed by a series of stages and gates for managing the lifecycle of projects? īˇ A. IT project phase īˇ B. IT process phase īˇ C. IT asset phase īˇ D. IT discovery phase Answer: A Question #76 Which of the following service delivery processes has the goal to produce, agreed on, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the effective communication? īˇ A. Service level management īˇ B. Service reporting īˇ C. Information security management īˇ D. Capacity management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #77 What is the major goal of risk management in the decision-making process? īˇ A. To manage the clients īˇ B. To manage the time īˇ C. To manage the resources īˇ D. To manage the uncertainty Answer: D Question #78 Which of the following types of risks includes currency risk, liquidity risk, and technology obsolescence? īˇ A. Asset risk īˇ B. Operational risk īˇ C. Hazard risk īˇ D. Strategic risk Answer: A Question #79 Which of the following risk functions ensures the product/service alignment with the customer requirements? īˇ A. Accounting īˇ B. Marketing īˇ C. Strategic planning īˇ D. Credit Answer: B Question #80 Which of the following is the process of identifying and assessing factors that may jeopardize the success of a project or the achievement of a goal? īˇ A. Risk retention īˇ B. Risk identification īˇ C. Risk communication īˇ D. Risk analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #81 Which of the following is the process of defining the way work is performed and the tasks that a given job requires? īˇ A. Selection īˇ B. Recruitment īˇ C. Job design īˇ D. Job analysis Answer: C Question #82 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for attitude surveys, labor relation, employee handbook, and labor law compliance? īˇ A. Personnel policy īˇ B. Employee relation īˇ C. Compensation and benefit īˇ D. Analysis and design for work Answer: B Question #83 Which of the following categories measures the health of the organization and the working environment of its employees? īˇ A. Quantity īˇ B. Safety īˇ C. Effectiveness īˇ D. Efficiency Answer: B Question #84 Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? īˇ A. Continual Service Improvement īˇ B. Service Support īˇ C. Service Strategy īˇ D. Governance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D More Questions. Question #1 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for an enterprise when prioritizing IT projects? īˇ A. Results of IT performance benchmarks against competitors īˇ B. Impact on the business due to expected project outcomes īˇ C. Technical capability of the enterprise to execute the projects īˇ D. Process owner expectations based on operational benefits Answer: B Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/3294993/prioritizing-projects.html Question #2 Senior management finds that too many projects are currently in-progress and all are experiencing expensive project overruns due to lack of resources. Many of the projects also appear to overlap in their objectives and expected outcomes. Which of the following would BEST streamline the process of evaluating and selecting funding priorities? īˇ A. Portfolio management īˇ B. Value governance īˇ C. Project management īˇ D. Business case development Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2016/ensuring-value-from-it-enabledīŋžinvestments Question #3 The CEO of a large enterprise has announced the commencement of a major business expansion that will double the size of the organization. IT will need to support the expected demand expansion. The CIO should FIRST: īˇ A. update the IT strategic plan to align with the decision. īˇ B. recruit IT resources based on the expansion decision. īˇ C. review the resource utilization matrix. īˇ D. embed IT personnel in the business units. Answer: C Question #4 Portfolio management in a large enterprise BEST enables which of the following? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Performance management īˇ B. Risk reduction īˇ C. Value creation īˇ D. Human resource optimization Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following BEST defines the IT investment activities an enterprise will undertake when aligning to business goals? īˇ A. Portfolio management īˇ B. Procurement management īˇ C. Project management īˇ D. Risk management Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing IT governance in a small, newly established organization? īˇ A. Approving enterprise architecture and standards īˇ B. Defining IT project management methodology īˇ C. Assigning a budget for IT governance applications īˇ D. Assigning IT roles and responsibilities Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2017/using-cobit-in-governmentīŋždepartments Question #7 Which of the following is the BEST method to monitor IT governance effectiveness? īˇ A. Service level management īˇ B. Balanced scorecard īˇ C. Risk control self-assessment īˇ D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis Answer: B Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-6/performance-measurement-metrics-for-itīŋžgovernance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #8 An internal auditor conducts an assessment of a two-year-old IT risk management program. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the CIO? īˇ A. Organizational responsibility for IT risk management is not clearly defined. īˇ B. IT risk training records are not properly retained in accordance with established schedules. īˇ C. None of the members of the IT risk management team have risk management-related certifications. īˇ D. Only a few key risk indicators identified by the IT risk management team are being monitored and the rest will be on a phased schedule. Answer: D Question #9 An enterprise has discovered that there is significant duplication of IT investments. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in addressing this issue? īˇ A. Establishing an IT steering committee īˇ B. Delegating IT investment decisions to centralized IT īˇ C. Maintaining an inventory of IT investments īˇ D. Increasing the frequency of IT investment audits Answer: A Question #10 A regulatory audit assessed an enterprise's main transactional application as noncompliant. In addition to fines and required corrections, an agreement was reached to implement a set of governance controls over IT. Accountability for these controls is BEST assigned to which of the following? īˇ A. Internal audit director īˇ B. CIO īˇ C. The board of directors īˇ D. Application users Answer: A Question #11 An enterprise is planning a change in business direction. As a result, IT risk will significantly increase. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST course of action? īˇ A. Plan for the corresponding IT reorganization. īˇ B. Recommend delaying the business change. īˇ C. Report the risk to executive management. īˇ D. Implement IT changes to align with the plan. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #12 Which of the following is the GREATEST expected strategic organizational benefit from the standardization of technical platforms? īˇ A. Reduces IT operational training costs īˇ B. Reduces response time īˇ C. Meets regulatory compliance requirements īˇ D. Optimizes infrastructure investments Answer: D Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=odC_AQAAQBAJ&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=enterprise+IT+expected+strat egic+organizational+benefit+from +the+standardization+of+technical +platforms&source=bl&ots=KnpTgkPPsb&sig=ACfU3U3fIFhOpMt81n2_xEoKhLtDFBmv8g&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKE wjegNiP6PfpAhWOh1wKHQB4AX8Q6AE wCXoECAcQAQ#v=onepage&q=enterprise%20IT%20expected%20strategic%20organizational%20benefit%20from% 20the%20standardization%20of% 20technical%20platforms&f=false Question #13 Which of the following would be the BEST way for an enterprise to address new legal and regulatory requirements applicable to IT? īˇ A. Benchmark how other IT organizations are treating the new requirements. īˇ B. Adopt a zero-tolerance approach for noncompliance with regulatory matters. īˇ C. Treat as a risk to be assessed before developing a response. īˇ D. Use a cost-benefit analysis to determine if compliance is warranted. Answer: D Question #14 Which of the following is MOST critical for sustaining a newly implemented IT governance program? īˇ A. Launch an enterprise-wide IT governance awareness program. īˇ B. Designate a board representative to sponsor the IT governance program. īˇ C. Ensure that there are IT policies, procedures, and standards in place. īˇ D. Benchmark the program periodically against industry peers. Answer: C Question #15 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise decides to accept the IT risk of a subsidiary located in another country even though it exceeds the enterprise's risk appetite. Which of the following would be the BEST justification for this decision? īˇ A. Local market common practices īˇ B. Risk framework alignment īˇ C. Technical gaps among subsidiaries īˇ D. Compliance with local regulations Answer: C Question #16 The board of directors of an enterprise has questioned whether the business is focused on optimizing value. The IT strategy committee's BEST action to address the board's concern is to: īˇ A. initiate reporting and review of key IT performance metrics. īˇ B. form a technology council to monitor the efficiency of project implementation. īˇ C. conduct a portfolio review to assess the benefits realization of IT investments. īˇ D. conduct a benchmark to assess IT value relative to competitors. Answer: A Question #17 à ÃÂĄÃâĸÃÅž determines the enterprise is lagging behind its competitors in consumer mobile offerings, and mandates an aggressive rollout of several new mobile services within the next 12 months. To ensure the IT organization is capable of supporting this business objective, the enterprise's CIO should FIRST: īˇ A. procure contractors with experience in mobile application development. īˇ B. task direct reports with creating training plans for their teams. īˇ C. create a sense of urgency with the IT team that mobile knowledge is mandatory. īˇ D. request an assessment of current in-house mobile technology skills. Answer: D Question #18 Following a merger of two major corporations, the new strategic goal is "One business function. One IT system." Which of the following should be the FIRST step to achieve this goal? īˇ A. Form a combined IT steering committee. īˇ B. Document requirements for each business function. īˇ C. Create a standard enterprise architecture. īˇ D. Define service level agreements with each business function. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #19 Which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure IT technical competencies support the enterprise? īˇ A. Ensure there is adequate budget for IT technical training. īˇ B. Determine training requirements from customer service satisfaction surveys. īˇ C. Align training requirements to the capabilities needed to support the business strategy. īˇ D. Hold annual job fairs targeting new graduates in IT technical fields. Answer: C Reference: https://www.mckinsey.com/~/media/McKinsey/Industries/Financial%20Services/Our%20Insights/Nextīŋžgen%20technology%20transformation%20in% 20financial%20services/Next-gen-technology-transformation-in-financial-services.ashx Question #20 A data governance strategy has been defined by the IT strategy committee which includes privacy objectives related to access controls, authorized use, and data collection. Which of the following should the committee do NEXT? īˇ A. Mandate the creation of a data privacy policy. īˇ B. Establish a data privacy budget. īˇ C. Perform a data privacy impact assessment. īˇ D. Mandate data privacy training for employees. Answer: A Question #21 Once an IT governance framework has been defined, which of the following is the MOST effective approach to align IT to business objectives? īˇ A. Auditing the alignment of IT to business objectives regularly īˇ B. Reviewing the return on investment of IT initiatives on a regular basis īˇ C. Establishing a cross business unit committee to prioritize IT investment īˇ D. Reporting IT investment and performance to senior management regularly Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=r2e7NmwoFGoC&pg=PA137&lpg=PA137&dq=Once+an+IT+governance+fra mework+has+been+defined, +which+of+the+following+is+the+MOST+effective+approach+to+align+IT+to+business +objectives&source=bl&ots=tz7jATmLvQ&sig=ACfU3U1dkpiL5L1JJLfyOORIf9gBtlFSDQ&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj Cqv7_- ffpAhXGN8AKHSOpDoAQ6AEwCnoECAkQAQ#v=onepage&q=Once%20an%20IT%20governance%20framework%20h as%20been%20defined%2C%20which% https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! 20of%20the%20following%20is%20the%20MOST%20effective%20approach%20to%20align%20IT%20to%20busines s%20objectives&f=false Question #22 An IT governance committee is defining a risk management policy for a portfolio of IT-enabled investments. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing the policy? īˇ A. Risk appetite of the enterprise īˇ B. Risk management framework īˇ C. Value obtained with minimum risk īˇ D. Possible investment failures Answer: B Question #23 A contracted company employs key IT systems operational personnel to oversee technology used to manage a critical line of business. Management is concerned that a mass resignation by many disgruntled personnel may lead to a shutdown of these key systems. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY responsibility of IT governance to address this risk? īˇ A. Renegotiate employment agreements to lessen the likelihood of a mass resignation. īˇ B. Cross train management to assume support of the technology. īˇ C. Develop a resourcing strategy that quickly replaces staff. īˇ D. Survey key support staff to determine what is causing them to be disgruntled. Answer: D Question #24 A CIO determines IT investment management processes are not fully realizing the benefits identified in business cases. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent this issue? īˇ A. Document lessons learned throughout the investment life cycle. īˇ B. Perform stage-gate reviews throughout the life cycle of each project. īˇ C. Evaluate the delegation of investment approval authorities. īˇ D. Establish a requirement for CIO review and approval of each business case. Answer: A Question #25 How does an enterprise benefit from implementing a set of key risk indicators (KRIs)? īˇ A. The set of KRIs remains relevant over time. īˇ B. Risk exposures are monitored to ensure they remain within risk appetite. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. The need for a formal risk and control assessment program is eliminated. īˇ D. The frequency of risk data gathering and reporting is minimized. Answer: B Reference: https://www.metricstream.com/insights/Key-Risk-indicators-ERM.htm Question #26 A large retail chain realizes that while there has not been any loss of data, IT security has not been a priority and should become a key goal for the enterprise. What should be the FIRST high-level initiative for a newly created IT strategy committee in order to support this business goal? īˇ A. Modernizing internal IT security practices īˇ B. Identifying gaps in information asset protection īˇ C. Recruiting and training qualified IT security staff īˇ D. Defining data archiving and retrieval policies Answer: B Question #27 A multinational enterprise recently purchased a large company located in a different country. When introducing the concept of governance to the new acquisition, it is MOST important that executive management recognize: īˇ A. the use of international standards. īˇ B. language differences. īˇ C. globally recognized good practices. īˇ D. the impact of cultural changes. Answer: C Question #28 The MOST effective way to ensure that IT supports the agile needs of an enterprise is to: īˇ A. implement open source systems. īˇ B. outsource infrastructure management. īˇ C. develop a robust enterprise architecture. īˇ D. perform process modeling. Answer: D Question #29 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! From an IT governance perspective, which of the following would be the MOST significant impact of moving all IT applications to an external Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud provider? īˇ A. The necessity to update key risk indicators (KRIs) īˇ B. The integration of the IT department with business lines īˇ C. The improvement of IT service alignment with business īˇ D. The shift from service delivery to service management Answer: C Question #30 Which of the following is the MOST important driver of IT governance? īˇ A. Management transparency īˇ B. Technical excellence īˇ C. Effective internal controls īˇ D. Quality measurement Answer: A Question #31 When developing an IT strategic plan that supports an enterprise's business goals, which of the following should be done FIRST? īˇ A. Understand the current vision. īˇ B. Perform a business impact analysis. īˇ C. Ensure that IT drives business goals. īˇ D. Analyze benchmarking data. Answer: B Reference: https://www.infoentrepreneurs.org/en/guides/strategic-planning/ Question #32 Prior to decommissioning an IT system, it is MOST important to: īˇ A. assess compliance with environmental regulations. īˇ B. review the media disposal records. īˇ C. assess compliance with the retention policy. īˇ D. review the data sanitization records. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #33 An enterprise is trying to increase the maturity of its IT process from being ad hoc to being repeatable. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this change? īˇ A. Required outcomes are more frequently achieved. īˇ B. Process performance is measured in business terms. īˇ C. Required outcomes are mapped to business objectives. īˇ D. Process optimization is embedded across the organization. Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=1iZ3qWnLU0oC&pg=PA218&lpg=PA218&dq=increase+the+maturity+of+its+ IT+process+from+being+ad+hoc +to+being+repeatable&source=bl&ots=u6T_F9VL-V&sig=ACfU3U0bLAxWfJhgn10- z1Qk0syhD_HCFw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjhn43L2fnpAhVC_qQKHRagBNcQ6AEwD3oECAQQAQ#v=onepage&q =increase%20the%20maturity%20of% 20its%20IT%20process%20from%20being%20ad%20hoc%20to%20being%20repeatable&f=false Question #34 Which of the following entities is structured PRIMARILY to ensure goals and objectives are aligned between IT and the business? īˇ A. Board of directors īˇ B. Portfolio management committee īˇ C. Change advisory board īˇ D. IT strategy committee Answer: A Reference: https://courses.lumenlearning.com/boundless-management/chapter/principles-of-management/ Question #35 A recent audit of IT investments has found that while initial returns meet expectations, benefits realization declines more than expected over time. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this situation? īˇ A. Standardize resource monitoring approaches. īˇ B. Institute project quality and performance metrics. īˇ C. Establish key risk indicators (KRIs). īˇ D. Institute regular business case updates and reviews. Answer: D Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/guidelines-successful-benefits-realization-9909 Question #36 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise's IT department has been operating independently without regard to business concerns, leading to misalignment between business and IT. The BEST way to establish alignment would be to require: īˇ A. business to help define IT goals. īˇ B. IT to define business objectives. īˇ C. business to fund IT services. īˇ D. IT and business to define risks. Answer: A Question #37 Which of the following are the MOST critical enablers for implementing IT governance in an enterprise? īˇ A. Involvement of IT strategy and steering committees īˇ B. Assigning roles and responsibilities for IT governance īˇ C. Commitment and promotion by senior management īˇ D. Prioritizing IT projects and funding for IT governance Answer: C Reference: https://www3.pinkelephant.com/articles/The7EnablersandConstraintsofITSMv1.PDF Question #38 A business unit is planning to replace an existing IT legacy solution with a hosted Software as a Service (SaaS) solution. However, business management is concerned that stored data will be at risk. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to reduce the risk associated with the SaaS solution? īˇ A. Include risk-related requirements in the SaaS contract. īˇ B. Create key risk indicators for the SaaS solution. īˇ C. Redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance. īˇ D. Research the technology and identify potential security threats. Answer: A Question #39 Which of the following would be MOST helpful in gaining executive support for an IT-enabled business initiative? īˇ A. Framing the in terms of impact to business value īˇ B. Presenting a comprehensive risk management plan īˇ C. Providing examples of risks realized by competitors for similar initiatives īˇ D. Presenting key findings of a business impact analysis conducted by IT managers https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #40 An enterprise is planning to implement several strategic initiatives that will require the acquisition of new IT systems. Which of the following would BEST enable the IT steering committee to prioritize proposed initiatives based on business objectives? īˇ A. IT strategic management īˇ B. Project management īˇ C. Enterprise architecture management īˇ D. Project portfolio management Answer: C Question #41 An IT governance committee recently received a report indicating a scarcity of key IT skills in the marketplace to meet the core needs of the business. Reviewing which of the following would BEST help the committee respond to this situation? īˇ A. IT balanced scorecard īˇ B. Outsourcing strategy īˇ C. IT strategic plan īˇ D. Human resource strategy Answer: D Question #42 An enterprise has decided to create its first mobile application. The IT director is concerned about the potential impact of this initiative. Which of the following is the MOST important input for managing the risk associated with this initiative? īˇ A. Business requirements īˇ B. IT risk scorecard īˇ C. Enterprise risk appetite īˇ D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #43 Senior management has made a decision to automate a number of key controls due to concerns that current IT risk controls are overly cumbersome and adversely impacting IT agility. Which of the following should be required FIRST to facilitate this process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Control gap analysis īˇ B. Control self-assessments īˇ C. Controls optimization īˇ D. Cost-benefit analysis Answer: D Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/itac-planning/#gref Question #44 The IT function received only 50% of the requested funding to support the IT strategy for new business initiatives. Which of the following is the CIO's MOST important course of action before considering alternative resource options? īˇ A. Prioritize the portfolio. īˇ B. Terminate less visible maintenance projects. īˇ C. Develop a new balanced scorecard. īˇ D. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. Answer: A Reference: https://hbr.org/1980/07/strategic-management-for-competitive-advantage Question #45 A business case indicates an enterprise would reduce costs by implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program allowing employees to use personal devices for e-mail. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance action? īˇ A. Assess the enterprise architecture. īˇ B. Update the BYOD policy. īˇ C. Update the network infrastructure. īˇ D. Assess the BYOD risk. Answer: A Question #46 An enterprise has decided to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system to achieve operating and cost efficiencies through global IT standardization. The business units are resistant because they are used to operating autonomously. The CEO has instructed the CIO to move quickly with the implementation to force acceptance with business unit leaders. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step? īˇ A. Request funding from the CEO to hire ERP consultants. īˇ B. Ask the CEO to be the sponsor of the program. īˇ C. Engage a reluctant business unit to conduct a proof-of-concept pilot. īˇ D. Build a governance framework for identifying non-standard processes. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following is MOST critical to have in place before management can establish an IT risk assessment and response approach? īˇ A. A portfolio of IT investments īˇ B. Defined roles and responsibilities īˇ C. Historic data on risk events īˇ D. A balanced scorecard Answer: B Question #48 An IT audit report indicates that a lack of IT employee risk awareness is creating serious security issues in application design and configuration. Which of the following would be the BEST key risk indicator (KRI) to show progress in IT employee behavior? īˇ A. Results of application security testing īˇ B. Results of application security awareness training quizzes īˇ C. Number of reported security incidents īˇ D. Number of IT employees attending security training sessions Answer: C Question #49 An enterprise can BEST assess the benefits of a new IT project through its life cycle by: īˇ A. calculation of the total cost of ownership. īˇ B. calculation of the net present value. īˇ C. periodic review of the business case. īˇ D. periodic measurement of the project slip rate. Answer: C Question #50 Which of the following is the MOST important objective of IT program portfolio management? īˇ A. Reduced technology costs īˇ B. Reduced project management costs īˇ C. Improved IT service delivery īˇ D. Appropriate investment mix https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Reference: https://www.northeastern.edu/graduate/blog/project-management-vs-portfolio-management-vs-programīŋžmanagement/ Question #51 Which of the following is the BEST way for the CIO to ensure senior business management understands the current IT risk profile? īˇ A. Present an aggregated view of risk. īˇ B. Present the updated risk register. īˇ C. Present a detailed list of risk findings. īˇ D. Present a list of scheduled risk mitigation actions. Answer: A Question #52 Besides the mitigation of IT risk, which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of IT governance? īˇ A. Control of IT processes īˇ B. Meeting of IT financial goals īˇ C. Resolution of IT audit findings īˇ D. Value delivery of IT to the business Answer: D Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/co/Documents/risk/InteligenciaFrentealRiesgo/No.6- RiskIntelligenceCIO.pdf Question #53 Despite an adequate training budget, IT staff are not keeping skills current with emerging technologies critical to the enterprise. The BEST way for the enterprise to address this situation would be to: īˇ A. establish an agreed-upon skills development plan with each employee. īˇ B. allow staff to attend technology conferences. īˇ C. create a standard-setting center of excellence. īˇ D. assign human resources (HR) to develop an IT skills matrix. Answer: D Question #54 The PRIMARY reason a CIO and IT senior management should stay aware of the business environment is to: īˇ A. measure efficiency of IT resources. īˇ B. revisit prioritization of IT projects. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. re-assess the IT investment portfolio. īˇ D. adjust IT strategy as needed. Answer: A Question #55 Which of the following aspects of the transition from X-rays to digital images would be BEST addressed by implementing information security policy and procedures? īˇ A. Establishing data retention procedures īˇ B. Training technicians on acceptable use policy īˇ C. Minimizing the impact of hospital operation disruptions on patient care īˇ D. Protecting personal health information Answer: D Question #56 To enable consistent assessment of candidate program investments for inclusion into the IT portfolio, it is MOST important to identify: īˇ A. an IT balanced scorecard. īˇ B. the impact on enterprise architecture. īˇ C. common selection criteria. īˇ D. currently available resources. Answer: A Reference: http://businessit.biz/bit_share/VAL%20IT/VAL%20IT.pdf Question #57 What information is MOST important to include when reporting key risk indicators to the board of directors? īˇ A. The effect of emerging risk trends on current risk exposure īˇ B. Risk appetite, risk threshold and risk tolerance īˇ C. Classification of current business risk īˇ D. Costs and resource needs related to risk mitigation measures Answer: A Question #58 The board of directors of a major retail chain wants to know what capabilities are in place to prevent customer credit card data from being hacked. Which of the following should be established to provide useful information about a potential future event? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Risk tolerance īˇ B. Lead indicators īˇ C. Lag indicators īˇ D. Performance indicators Answer: B Question #59 Several experienced IT resources have been hired away by a competitor. These individuals created and managed a business critical system that gave the enterprise a market advantage. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern of the system's business owner? īˇ A. The impact on morale of the remaining IT employees īˇ B. The competitor hiring additional IT employees from the enterprise īˇ C. Whether access to the system and data has been adequately revoked īˇ D. Whether remaining staff are able to maintain the quality of the system Answer: D Question #60 An enterprise has a large backlog of IT projects. The current strategy is to execute projects as they are submitted, but executive management does not believe this method is optimal. Which of the following is the MOST important action to address this concern? īˇ A. Establish a performance dashboard that determines business value. īˇ B. Create a combined business/IT committee to determine project prioritization. īˇ C. Implement a methodology to prioritize projects based on resource availability. īˇ D. Implement stage-gating to determine the value of each project. Answer: D Question #61 An enterprise's board of directors can BEST manage enterprise risk by: īˇ A. mandating board-approved enterprise risk management (ERM) modifications. īˇ B. requiring the establishment of an enterprise-wide program management office. īˇ C. ensuring the cost-effectiveness of the internal control system. īˇ D. requiring the establishment of an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework. Answer: D Reference: https://www.coso.org/documents/COSOBoardsERM4pager-FINALRELEASEVERSION82409_001.pdf https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #62 An IT investment review board wants to ensure that IT will be able to support business initiatives. Each initiative is comprised of several interrelated IT projects. Which of the following would help ensure that the initiatives meet their goals? īˇ A. Verification of initiatives against the architecture īˇ B. Review of the business case for each initiative īˇ C. Establishment of portfolio management īˇ D. Review of project management methodology Answer: C Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/proven-project-portfolio-management-process-8503 Question #63 Which of the following is MOST critical to support IT governance cultural changes within an organization? īˇ A. IT governance process manuals īˇ B. Regularly scheduled governance training īˇ C. Demonstrated management commitment īˇ D. Established IT monitoring and measuring Answer: D Question #64 An enterprise has decided to use third-party software for a business process which is hosted and supported by the same third party. The BEST way to provide quality of service oversight would be to establish a process: īˇ A. to qualify service providers. īˇ B. for enterprise architecture updates. īˇ C. for robust change management. īˇ D. for periodic service provider audits. Answer: A Question #65 In a successful enterprise that is profitable in its marketplace and consistently growing in size, the non-IT workforce has grown by 50% in the last two years. The demand for IT staff in the marketplace is more than the supply, and the enterprise is losing staff to rival organizations. Due to the rapid growth, IT has struggled to keep up with the enterprise, and IT procedures and associated job roles are not well-defined. The MOST critical activity for reducing the impact caused by IT staff turnover is to: īˇ A. outsource the IT operation. īˇ B. increase compensation for IT staff. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. hire temporary staff. īˇ D. document processes and procedures. Answer: D Question #66 A business has outsourced IT operations to several third-party providers, but service level agreements (SLAs) are not clearly defined in all cases. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the business? īˇ A. Third parties could provide overlapping services. īˇ B. Quality of services is not enforceable. īˇ C. The scope of work is not clearly defined. īˇ D. Costs are not measurable. Answer: B Question #67 A large enterprise has been experiencing high turnover of skilled IT personnel, resulting in a significant loss of knowledge within the IT department. Which of the following should be done FIRST to address this problem? īˇ A. Conduct a survey of current IT staff. īˇ B. Revise the IT resource management plan. īˇ C. Update human resources policies and practices. īˇ D. Develop an incentive scheme for IT employees. Answer: A Question #68 A newly established IT steering committee is concerned whether or not a system is meeting availability objectives. Which of the following will provide the BEST information to make an assessment? īˇ A. Critical success factors īˇ B. Balanced scorecard īˇ C. Performance indicators īˇ D. Capability maturity levels Answer: D Question #69 Following a major IT incident that resulted in a loss to the enterprise, a CIO is preparing for a meeting with the board of directors to discuss what may have failed internally. Which of the following should the CIO do FIRST to provide assurance to the board? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Review the IT control environment. īˇ B. Ensure IT and enterprise risk management alignment. īˇ C. Review the incident response policy. īˇ D. Verify continuous monitoring is being performed. Answer: B Question #70 A newly appointed CIO has issued a new IT strategic plan. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the CIO to ensure the IT management team is held accountable for the delivery of the plan? īˇ A. Provide management training on IT strategic objectives. īˇ B. Revise the managers' performance goals to include key objectives. īˇ C. Enforce disciplinary action for managers if the plan is not delivered. īˇ D. Update the IT balanced scorecard with key objectives. Answer: B Question #71 Which of the following is the PRIMARY ongoing responsibility of the IT governance function related to risk? īˇ A. Responding to and controlling all IT risk events īˇ B. Verifying that all business units have staff skilled at assessing risk īˇ C. Communicating the enterprise risk management plan īˇ D. Ensuring IT risk management is aligned with business risk appetite Answer: C Question #72 Which of the following is the BEST outcome measure to determine the effectiveness of IT risk management processes? īˇ A. Time lag between when IT risk is identified and the enterprise's response īˇ B. Percentage of business users satisfied with the quality of risk training īˇ C. Frequency of updates to the IT risk register īˇ D. Number of events impacting business processes due to delays in responding to risks Answer: A Question #73 The BEST way for a CIO to monitor the alignment between the business and IT strategy is to regularly review: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. IT services supporting business processes. īˇ B. the balanced scorecard. īˇ C. key risk indicators (KRIs). īˇ D. the risk register. Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following is PRIMARILY achieved through performance measurement? īˇ A. Process improvement īˇ B. Benefit realization īˇ C. Cost efficiency īˇ D. Transparency Answer: A Question #75 While assessing the feasibility of introducing new IT practices and standards into the IT governance framework, it is CRITICAL to understand an organization's: īˇ A. maturity of IT processes. īˇ B. culture. īˇ C. enterprise architecture. īˇ D. level of outsourcing. Answer: C Question #76 A new IT initiative is delivered successfully. Which of the following should be updated to reflect the new technology? īˇ A. Balanced scorecard īˇ B. IT strategy īˇ C. IT tactical plan īˇ D. Enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #77 The MOST beneficial aspect of utilizing an IT risk management framework is that it: īˇ A. addresses a lack of data in risk reporting. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. facilitates the identification of technologies posing the greatest risk to IT. īˇ C. enables a consistent approach to risk management. īˇ D. drives inclusion of the technology function in enterprise risk management. Answer: B Question #78 When defining an enterprise governance framework, the PRIMARY determination of the degree to which the framework is principle-based or policy-based is: īˇ A. enterprise architecture framework. īˇ B. organizational decision-making style. īˇ C. IT process maturity. īˇ D. organizational structure. Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/past-issues/2013/it-policy-framework-based-on-cobit-5 Question #79 A company is considering selling products online, and the CIO has been asked to advise the board of directors of potential problems with this strategy. Which of the following would be the CIO's BEST course of action? īˇ A. Perform a risk assessment. īˇ B. Review the security framework. īˇ C. Conduct a return on investment analysis. īˇ D. Review the enterprise architecture. Answer: B Question #80 After shifting from lease to purchase of IT infrastructure and software licenses, an enterprise has to pay for unexpected lease extensions causing significant cost overruns. The BEST direction for the IT steering committee would be to establish: īˇ A. a program to annually review financial policy on overruns. īˇ B. an end-of-life program to remove aging infrastructure from the environment. īˇ C. budget cuts to compensate for the cost overruns. īˇ D. a policy to consider total cost of ownership in investment decisions. Answer: D Question #81 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is evaluating a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) solution to support a core business process. There is no outsourcing governance or vendor management in place. The CEO's FIRST course of action should be to: īˇ A. establish a contract with the SaaS solution provider. īˇ B. instruct management to use the standard procurement process. īˇ C. ensure the service level agreements for service providers are defined. īˇ D. ensure the roles and responsibilities to manage service providers are defined. Answer: B Question #82 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure timely reporting on risk events and responses to appropriate levels of management? īˇ A. Corporate directory īˇ B. Key personnel interviews īˇ C. Emergency response team īˇ D. Escalation procedures Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=k_hgAwAAQBAJ&pg=PA43&lpg=PA43&dq=cobit+help+to+ensure+timely+re porting+on+risk+events+and +responses+to+appropriate+levels+of +management&source=bl&ots=f2MF7tvMQB&sig=ACfU3U1F_qwMA3wQlZ2tpcb8bvzR3eUTyw&hl=en&sa=X&ved= 2ahUKEwj4kajJq_zpAhUrDWMBHQu2BWoQ 6AEwB3oECAoQAQ#v=onepage&q=cobit%20help%20to%20ensure%20timely%20reporting%20on%20risk%20event s%20and%20responses%20to% 20appropriate%20levels%20of%20management&f=false Question #83 When developing an IT governance framework, it is MOST important for an enterprise to consider: īˇ A. stakeholders' support. īˇ B. information technology risk. īˇ C. framework development cost. īˇ D. information technology strategy. Answer: A Question #84 Which of the following would be MOST useful for prioritizing IT improvement initiatives to achieve desired business outcomes? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Portfolio management īˇ B. Budget variance analysis īˇ C. IT skills matrix īˇ D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #85 Which of the following BEST supports an IT strategy committee's objective to align employee competencies with planned initiatives? īˇ A. Set management goals to hire co-operative work experience students. īˇ B. Specify minimum training hours required for continuing professional education. īˇ C. Add achievement of competencies to employee performance goals. īˇ D. Require balanced scorecard concepts training of all employees. Answer: C Question #86 The IT director of a large project-driven enterprise is concerned that all recently completed IT projects have exceeded their budgets. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this concern? īˇ A. Implement portfolio management. īˇ B. Require monitoring of budget utilization. īˇ C. Assign business sponsors to active projects. īˇ D. Implement agile project methodology. Answer: B Question #87 An enterprise is experiencing a pattern of sensitive data breaches. While each breach has been successfully remediated, leadership is concerned about recurrence. What should the leadership team do FIRST? īˇ A. Require a root cause analysis be performed. īˇ B. Contact the appropriate regulatory authorities. īˇ C. Increase the amount of data breach insurance coverage. īˇ D. Direct IT to research vulnerability management software solutions. Answer: A Question #88 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A government agency plans to use predictive analytics to improve the quality of its services. The IT director is confident they have selected the right tool and can acquire appropriate resources to support the business need. Which of the following should be the director's NEXT course of action? īˇ A. Ensure job descriptions are available for newly-hired IT resources. īˇ B. Ensure IT has the appropriate processes in place. īˇ C. Implement a balanced scorecard to measure service quality. īˇ D. Establish a data governance council that includes IT senior management. Answer: C Question #89 During a period of financial crisis, an enterprise is evaluating its IT service strategy. The board of directors recognizes the need to save money without sacrificing the quality of IT services provided. To achieve this objective, the IT strategy committee should FIRST: īˇ A. re-design IT service management processes. īˇ B. cancel discretionary IT projects. īˇ C. reduce the total cost of ownership of IT services. īˇ D. re-prioritize the IT investment portfolio. Answer: D Question #90 To successfully implement enterprise IT governance, which of the following should be the MAIN focus of IT policies? īˇ A. Optimizing operational benefits īˇ B. Enhancing organizational capability īˇ C. Limiting IT costs īˇ D. Providing business value Answer: A Question #91 A recent benchmarking analysis has indicated an IT organization is retaining more data and spending significantly more on data retention than its competitors. Which of the following would BEST ensure the optimization of retention costs? īˇ A. Requiring that all business cases contain data deletion and retention plans īˇ B. Revalidating the organization's risk tolerance and re-aligning the retention policy īˇ C. Redefining the retention policy to align with industry best practices īˇ D. Moving all high-risk and medium-risk data backups to cloud storage https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #92 An enterprise is undertaking a multi-year portfolio of IT initiatives to replace core accounting systems. The program management team has developed a business case and is defining a roadmap for the initiatives. Of the following, who should be responsible for defining the optimization criteria for the portfolio? īˇ A. Project management office īˇ B. Board of directors īˇ C. Program management team īˇ D. IT steering committee Answer: C Question #93 An enterprise has entered into a new market which brings additional regulatory compliance requirements. To address these new requirements, the enterprise should FIRST: īˇ A. update the organization's risk profile. īˇ B. have executive management monitor compliance. īˇ C. outsource the compliance process. īˇ D. appoint a compliance officer. Answer: B Question #94 An IT steering committee is preparing to review proposals for projects that implement emerging technologies. In anticipation of the review, the committee should FIRST: īˇ A. require a review of the enterprise risk management framework. īˇ B. understand how the emerging technologies will influence risk across the enterprise. īˇ C. determine if the IT staff can support the emerging technologies. īˇ D. require a capacity plan and framework review for the emerging technologies. Answer: A Question #95 The CIO of a large enterprise has taken the necessary steps to align IT objectives with business objectives. The BEST way for the CIO to ensure these objectives are delivered effectively by IT staff is to: īˇ A. enhance the budget for training based on the IT objectives. īˇ B. include the IT objectives in staff performance plans. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. include CIO sign-off of the objectives as part of the IT strategic plan. īˇ D. map the IT objectives to an industry-accepted framework. Answer: D Question #96 An analysis of an organization's security breach is complete. The results indicate that the quality of the code used for updates to its primary customer-facing software has been declining and security flaws were introduced. The FIRST IT governance action to correct this problem should be to review: īˇ A. the incident response plan. īˇ B. the change management control framework. īˇ C. compliance with the user testing process. īˇ D. the qualifications of developers to write secure code. Answer: A Question #97 Senior leadership is concerned about a recent trend of excessive exceptions to existing controls. Which of the following should be implemented to address this concern? īˇ A. Continuous monitoring īˇ B. Independent audits īˇ C. A control library īˇ D. Risk awareness training Answer: A Question #98 It has been discovered that multiple business units across an enterprise are using duplicate IT applications and services to fulfill their individual needs. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to address this concern? īˇ A. IT project roadmap īˇ B. IT service management īˇ C. Enterprise architecture īˇ D. Enterprise risk framework Answer: C Question #99 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! When developing a business case for an enterprise resource planning (ERP) implementation, which of the following, if overlooked, causes the GREATEST impact to the enterprise? īˇ A. Salvage value of legacy hardware īˇ B. IT best practices īˇ C. Interdependent systems īˇ D. Vendor selection Answer: D Question #100 A regional business unit of a major financial institution is considering the use of a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud vendor to implement a new system. Which of the following should be performed FIRST? īˇ A. Update the outsourcing policy. īˇ B. Investigate on-premise software solutions. īˇ C. Develop a business case. īˇ D. Determine if the cloud vendor has a secure data center. Answer: D Question #101 During the implementation phase of a central ERP system, a project manager identifies a significant lack of human capabilities to support the system. The issue is reported to the project sponsor, and the sponsor sends a request for an increase in the budget to the IT steering committee. What should be the IT steering committee's FIRST action? īˇ A. Require a revised business case. īˇ B. Approve the budget request. īˇ C. Provide appropriate training. īˇ D. Refer back to the project sponsor for resolution. Answer: B Question #102 For a large enterprise, which of the following is the BEST indicator that IT governance has a poor reputation? īˇ A. Regulatory noncompliance īˇ B. Low attendance at strategy committee meetings īˇ C. High turnover of IT staff īˇ D. Data leakage Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #103 An enterprise has committed to the implementation of a new IT governance model. The BEST way to begin this implementation is to: īˇ A. prioritize how much and where to invest in IT. īˇ B. identify the role of IT in supporting the business. īˇ C. define policies for data, applications, and organization of infrastructure. īˇ D. identify IT services that currently support the enterprise's capability. Answer: C Question #104 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the CEO in IT governance? īˇ A. Evaluating return on investment īˇ B. Managing the risk governance process īˇ C. Establishing enterprise strategic goals īˇ D. Nominating IT steering committee membership Answer: C Reference: https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/careers/jobs/what-is-a-ceo-chief-executive-officer/ Question #105 Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the CIO when an enterprise plans to replace its enterprise resource applications? īˇ A. Ensuring IT architecture requirements are considered īˇ B. Selecting and vetting application vendors īˇ C. Determining critical success factors for related projects īˇ D. Establishing software quality criteria Answer: A Question #106 Upcoming IT-related regulations carry costly penalties for an enterprise. The issuing regulatory agency has a history of weak enforcement. The IT steering committee should FIRST direct management to: īˇ A. update the enterprise architecture. īˇ B. perform benchmarking activities. īˇ C. evaluate the impact of the emerging risk. īˇ D. develop mitigation plans for noncompliance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #107 When establishing a methodology for business cases, it would be MOST beneficial for an enterprise to include procedures for: īˇ A. addressing required changes outside the business case. īˇ B. updating the business case throughout its life cycle. īˇ C. identifying metrics post-implementation to measure project success. īˇ D. entering the business case into the enterprise architecture. Answer: D Question #108 The PRIMARY focus of a committee tasked with evaluating an IT project portfolio should be to ensure: īˇ A. a consistent estimation methodology is leveraged. īˇ B. the enterprise strategy is updated. īˇ C. consistent selection criteria are applied. īˇ D. an industry standard capability maturity model is used. Answer: D Question #109 Which of the following issues identified during an IT review is MOST important to address to improve the alignment between the business and IT? īˇ A. Services in the IT portfolio are not traceable to the IT strategy. īˇ B. IT strategy reviews are conducted only after business strategy changes. īˇ C. Business satisfaction surveys are not conducted regularly. īˇ D. IT dashboards have not been established. Answer: A Question #110 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for IT management to report to executive management regarding the value of IT? īˇ A. IT process maturity level īˇ B. Resource assessment īˇ C. Balanced scorecard īˇ D. Cost-benefit analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #111 When determining the desired maturity levels for IT governance processes, it is MOST important to: īˇ A. ensure that maturity can be achieved at the lowest cost. īˇ B. ensure target levels are in line with external competitor benchmarks. īˇ C. agree on target levels in response to need. īˇ D. focus on existing strengths as key drivers for the target levels. Answer: D Question #112 Which of the following is the MOST important reason for selecting IT key risk indicators (KRIs)? īˇ A. Enabling comparison against similar IT KRIs īˇ B. Increasing the probability of achieving IT goals īˇ C. Assessing the current IT controls model īˇ D. Demonstrating the effectiveness of IT risk policies Answer: B Question #113 Which of the following would BEST help a CIO enhance the competencies of an IT business analytics team? īˇ A. Understanding current staff skill sets and identifying gaps īˇ B. Defining the IT architecture and identifying training areas īˇ C. Creating operational processes and identifying resources īˇ D. Establishing team goals and identifying the proper structure Answer: C Question #114 The BEST way to ensure an IT steering committee meets enterprise objectives is to: īˇ A. have key business stakeholders represented on the committee. īˇ B. establish key performance indicators (KPIs). īˇ C. require a member of the committee to have IT governance expertise. īˇ D. benchmark against industry best practices. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #115 Which of the following is the MOST important input for the development of a human resources strategy to address IT skill gaps? īˇ A. Technology direction of the enterprise īˇ B. Training budget allocated for IT staff īˇ C. A recent IT skills matrix īˇ D. Training effectiveness reports Answer: C Question #116 A hospital's executive steering committee is concerned about the increasing number of cyber attacks on patient data systems across the industry. The committee has asked the CIO to provide regular reporting with information that will help provide better oversight of cyber-related risk to the hospital. Including which of the following in the report would be MOST helpful to the committee? īˇ A. Status of key risk indicators īˇ B. Current business impact levels īˇ C. IT operations gap assessment īˇ D. Cybersecurity risk benchmarks Answer: B Question #117 Which of the following is the BEST way to provide effective IT risk management? īˇ A. Implementing a cost-effective mitigation program īˇ B. Appointing a chief risk officer īˇ C. Embedding risk management in operations īˇ D. Establishing an incident management program Answer: A Question #118 Maintaining a list of all potential IT initiatives for implementing the business strategy should be the responsibility of the: īˇ A. portfolio management function. īˇ B. individual business units. īˇ C. chief executive officer (CEO). https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. chief operating officer (COO). Answer: D Question #119 A large enterprise has decided to use an emerging technology that needs to be integrated with the current IT infrastructure. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent adverse effects to the enterprise resulting from the new technology? īˇ A. Develop key risk indicators (KRIs). īˇ B. Develop key performance indicators (KPIs). īˇ C. Implement service level agreements (SLAs). īˇ D. Update the risk appetite statement. Answer: B Question #120 An enterprise recognizes that a large percentage of its IT employees are eligible for retirement in the next five years. A significant amount of institutional knowledge resides with retirement-eligible staff. From the board's perspective, which of the following is the GREATEST concern for the enterprise in this situation? īˇ A. Service delivery to the business īˇ B. Loss of key IT personnel īˇ C. Lack of timeline for succession plan īˇ D. Lack of process documentation Answer: D Question #121 Which of the following groups would be MOST appropriate to decide whether to proceed with an IT-enabled investment at the individual program level? īˇ A. Business sponsors īˇ B. Program management office īˇ C. IT steering committee īˇ D. Board of directors Answer: C Question #122 Which of the following will BEST enable an enterprise to convey IT governance direction and objectives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Corporate culture īˇ B. Business processes īˇ C. Principles and policies īˇ D. Skills and competencies Answer: C Question #123 A large enterprise's IT department has identified a new risk management solution that would significantly enhance IT risk monitoring processes. However, there is a business perception that the new solution would not provide a visible benefit to the enterprise. Which of the following is the BEST way to gain business support? īˇ A. Articulate the business value of the new solution. īˇ B. Promote the IT benefits and the streamlining of processes. īˇ C. Provide real time risk reporting to the business. īˇ D. Obtain sign-off on a reduced headcount over the next five years. Answer: B Question #124 When assessing the impact of a new regulatory requirement, which of the following should be the FIRST course of action? īˇ A. Update affected IT policies. īˇ B. Implement new regulatory requirements. īˇ C. Assess the budget impact of the new regulation. īˇ D. Map the regulation to business processes. Answer: D Question #125 Before establishing IT key risk indicators, which of the following should be defined FIRST? īˇ A. IT risk and security framework īˇ B. IT key performance indicators īˇ C. IT goals and objectives īˇ D. IT resource strategy Answer: C Reference: https://bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1515 Question #126 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Which of the following should be the FIRST step for executive management to take in communicating what is considered acceptable use with regard to personally owned devices for company business? īˇ A. Post awareness messages throughout the facility. īˇ B. Develop and disseminate an applicable policy. īˇ C. Provide training on how to protect data on personal devices. īˇ D. Require employees to read and sign a disclaimer. Answer: C Question #127 An enterprise's strategic change requires an IT strategic initiative re-evaluation. Which of the following BEST indicates that an established IT governance framework could handle the re-evaluation? īˇ A. Creation of an IT steering committee to align the IT strategic initiatives to the recent change īˇ B. Inclusion of IT portfolio management procedures with strategic change review activities īˇ C. Development of a business case to evaluate the impact of the strategic change īˇ D. Holding IT investments until an analysis of the strategic change impact was complete Answer: C Question #128 Which of the following BEST indicates that a change management process has been implemented successfully? īˇ A. Degree of control īˇ B. Outcome measures īˇ C. Process performance īˇ D. Maturity levels Answer: B Question #129 To meet the growing demands of a newly established business unit, IT senior management has been tasked with changing the current IT organization model to service-oriented. With significant growth expected of the IT organization, which of the following is the MOST important consideration when planning for long-term IT service delivery? īˇ A. The IT organization is able to sustain business requirements. īˇ B. IT is able to provide a comprehensive service catalog to the business. īˇ C. The IT service delivery model is approved by the business. īˇ D. An IT risk management process is in place. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #130 Which of the following BEST enables the alignment of IT and enterprise strategy? īˇ A. Project portfolio management īˇ B. IT resource planning īˇ C. IT performance monitoring and reporting īˇ D. Enterprise compliance audits Answer: B Question #131 Which of the following would provide the BEST input for prioritizing strategic IT improvement initiatives? īˇ A. Business case evaluation īˇ B. Business process analysis īˇ C. Business impact analysis īˇ D. Business dependency assessment Answer: C Question #132 An enterprise has decided to utilize a cloud vendor for the first time to provide email as a service, eliminating inīŋžhouse email capabilities. Which of the following IT strategic actions should be triggered by this decision? īˇ A. Update and communicate data storage and transmission policies. īˇ B. Develop a data protection awareness education training program. īˇ C. Monitor outgoing email traffic for malware. īˇ D. Implement a data classification and storage management tool. Answer: A Question #133 Which of the following is the BEST IT architecture concept to ensure consistency, interoperability, and agility for infrastructure capabilities? īˇ A. Establishment of an IT steering committee īˇ B. Standards-based reference architecture and design specifications īˇ C. Design of policies and procedures īˇ D. Establishment of standard vendor and technology designations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #134 An enterprise is implementing its FIRST mobile sales channel. Final approval for accepting the associated IT risk should be obtained from which of the following? īˇ A. IT steering committee īˇ B. Chief information officer īˇ C. Business sponsor īˇ D. Risk manager Answer: B Question #135 Who should be accountable for quantifying the business impact of a potential breach of a server containing retail transactions for the last year? īˇ A. Information systems security officer īˇ B. Head of retail īˇ C. Chief risk officer īˇ D. Chief information officer Answer: A Question #136 The use of an enterprise architecture framework BEST supports IT governance by providing: īˇ A. key information for IT service level management. īˇ B. IT standards for application development. īˇ C. business information for IT capacity planning. īˇ D. reference models to align IT with business. Answer: A Question #137 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate mechanism for measuring overall IT organizational performance? īˇ A. IT balanced scorecard īˇ B. Service level metrics īˇ C. Maturity model īˇ D. IT portfolio return on investment https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Reference: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/215879518_Measuring_the_Performance_of_IT_Service_Management Question #138 The PRIMARY reason for periodically evaluating IT resource staffing requirements is to: īˇ A. ensure the enterprise has sufficient resources to address changing business and IT needs. īˇ B. ascertain the IT function has sufficient skilled staff to maintain daily operations. īˇ C. verify that human resource recruitment and retention processes meet enterprise IT objectives. īˇ D. confirm IT-related responsibilities are defined for the enterprise's business and IT staff. Answer: A Question #139 à ÃÂĄÃâĸÃÅž wants to establish a governance framework to facilitate the alignment of IT and business strategies. Which of the following should be a KEY requirement of this framework? īˇ A. A service delivery strategy īˇ B. Defined resourcing levels īˇ C. A defined enterprise architecture īˇ D. An outsourcing strategy Answer: C Question #140 Reviewing which of the following should be the FIRST step when evaluating the possibility of outsourcing an IT system? īˇ A. Outsourcing strategy īˇ B. IT staff skill sets īˇ C. Outsourced business processes īˇ D. Service level agreements (SLAs) Answer: D Question #141 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of implementing service level agreements (SLAs) with an outsourcing vendor? īˇ A. Establishing penalties for not meeting service levels īˇ B. Complying with regulatory requirements īˇ C. Achieving operational objectives https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Gaining a competitive advantage Answer: C Question #142 Of the following, the BEST response to the absence of a data security breach notification by a service provider is to contractually require that: īˇ A. security incidents identified by the provider be reported. īˇ B. security related key performance indicators be included in all service level agreements. īˇ C. security incident information be shared only on a need-to-know basis. īˇ D. a registry of all security breaches be maintained by the service provider. Answer: A Question #143 Which of the following should be the MOST essential consideration when outsourcing IT services? īˇ A. Alignment with existing HR policies and practices īˇ B. Adoption of a diverse vendor selection process īˇ C. Identification of core and non-core business processes īˇ D. Compliance with enterprise architecture Answer: C Question #144 A multinational enterprise is planning to migrate to cloud-based systems. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the risk management committee? īˇ A. Resource alignment īˇ B. Security breaches īˇ C. Regulatory compliance īˇ D. Cost considerations Answer: C Question #145 In a large enterprise, which of the following should be responsible for the implementation of an IT balanced scorecard? īˇ A. IT steering committee https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. Chief risk officer īˇ C. Project management office īˇ D. Chief information officer Answer: C Question #146 The approval of an enterprise risk management framework is the role of the: īˇ A. chief information officer. īˇ B. chief risk officer. īˇ C. IT steering committee īˇ D. board of directors. Answer: C Reference: https://www.clearrisk.com/risk-management-blog/bid/56487/Establishing-an-Enterprise-Risk-Management-ERMīŋžFramework-Enterprise Question #147 The BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an enterprise's IT governance framework is by assessing the: īˇ A. value of IT contribution. īˇ B. maturity of IT processes. īˇ C. application of IT standards. īˇ D. compliance to IT policy. Answer: B Question #148 A steering committee has been advised by the IT project management office that individual business units are building systems components that could be leveraged by other business units. Instead, identical components are being duplicated across the enterprise. Which of the following committee directives would be the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of this duplication? īˇ A. Implement stage gate reviews to assess systems. īˇ B. Establish an enterprise architecture. īˇ C. Perform an assessment of change management processes. īˇ D. Review IT system release management practices. Answer: C Question #149 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! To support the enterprise's digital transformation, the CIO has been asked to include an Internet of Things (IoT) component in the IT strategy. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration? īˇ A. Ensuring IoT usage in the industry has been analyzed īˇ B. Ensuring IoT can be used in current revenue streams īˇ C. Ensuring solution providers and their IoT use cases have been researched īˇ D. Ensuring initial approvals are limited to small IoT projects to gain experience Answer: A Question #150 A retail enterprise wants to leverage emerging technologies to create a new sales channel for its customers. However, IT has little experience with these technologies and is unsure if the proposed schedule can be met. Which of the following will BEST help to determine IT's ability to meet this need? īˇ A. Conducting a resource gap assessment īˇ B. Defining business benefits realization metrics īˇ C. Reviewing the resource management policy īˇ D. Developing a target state enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #151 Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when designing an implementation plan for IT governance? īˇ A. Roles and responsibilities īˇ B. Risk tolerance levels īˇ C. Organization culture īˇ D. Principle and policies Answer: A Question #152 Once the strategic vision has been established, which of the following would be the BEST activity for supporting the implementation of performance measures? īˇ A. Document policy requirements. īˇ B. Document strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. īˇ C. Identify key performance indicators (KPIs). īˇ D. Monitor service level performance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #153 Which of the following is MOST critical for the successful implementation of an IT process? īˇ A. Objectives and metrics īˇ B. IT process assessment īˇ C. Process framework īˇ D. Service delivery process model Answer: C Question #154 An enterprise has made a decision to move some business applications to the public cloud despite being very new to the cloud environment. What is MOST important for the CIO to do to help ensure the success of this initiative? īˇ A. Review the vendor management framework. īˇ B. Request a right-to-audit clause in the provider contract. īˇ C. Require a vulnerability and threat assessment. īˇ D. Ensure the cloud provider complies with international standards. Answer: D Question #155 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an enterprise architecture? īˇ A. Improves transparency and compliance īˇ B. Provides a visual perspective of information systems īˇ C. Improves interoperability and scalability īˇ D. Ensures continuous innovation Answer: A Question #156 When conducting a risk assessment in support of a new regulatory requirement, the IT risk committee should FIRST consider the: īˇ A. cost burden to achieve compliance. īˇ B. disruption to normal business operations. īˇ C. readiness of IT systems to address the risk. īˇ D. risk profile of the enterprise. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #157 An enterprise is planning to migrate its IT infrastructure to a cloud-based solution but does not have experience with this technology. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the risk of IT service disruptions when using this new technology? īˇ A. Evaluate the sourcing options. īˇ B. Reflect the change in the enterprise architecture (EA). īˇ C. Implement key performance indicators (KPIs). īˇ D. Engage an experienced IT consultant to perform the migration. Answer: C Question #158 Which of the following BEST reflects mature risk management in an enterprise? īˇ A. A regularly updated risk register īˇ B. Responsive risk awareness culture īˇ C. Ongoing risk assessment īˇ D. Ongoing investment in risk mitigation Answer: C Question #159 An IT strategy committee wants to evaluate how well the IT department supports the business strategy. Which of the following is the BEST method for making this determination? īˇ A. Capability maturity assessment īˇ B. IT balanced scorecard reporting īˇ C. IT controls assurance program īˇ D. Customer survey analysis Answer: A Question #160 From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to enhance in an enterprise undergoing rapid development of a cloud technology? īˇ A. Change management processes to capture organizational and project changes. īˇ B. Data restructuring plan to ensure the architecture supports future changes. īˇ C. IT project dashboard reporting to capture new risk, threats, and scenarios. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Configuration management processes to ensure availability goals are maintained. Answer: D Question #161 A regulatory audit of an IT department has identified discrepancies between processes described in the procedures and what is actually done by system administrators. The discrepancies were caused by recent IT application changes. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent the recurrence of similar findings in the future? īˇ A. Include the update of documentation within the change management framework. īˇ B. Assign the responsibility for periodic revisions and changes to process owners. īˇ C. Require each IT employee to confirm compliance with IT procedures on an annual basis. īˇ D. Establish high-level procedures to minimize process changes. Answer: B Question #162 Which of the following is the MOST important input for designing a development program to help IT employees improve their ability to respond to business needs? īˇ A. Skills competency assessment īˇ B. Cost-benefit analysis īˇ C. Annual performance evaluations īˇ D. Capability maturity model Answer: A Question #163 The accountability for a business continuity program for business-critical systems is BEST assigned to the: īˇ A. director of internal audit, īˇ B. enterprise risk manager. īˇ C. chief information officer. īˇ D. chief executive officer. Answer: C Question #164 Which of the following should occur FIRST in the IT investment process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Analyze the risks and benefits of the investment for each IT project. īˇ B. Assess each project's impact on the enterprise's investment plan. īˇ C. Select IT projects that will best support the enterprise's mission. īˇ D. Analyze IT investments based on past data. Answer: B Question #165 To ensure IT risk is managed in a consistent manner, it is MOST important for IT governance to establish a: īˇ A. risk management reporting tool to ensure compliance. īˇ B. balanced scorecard that includes IT risks. īˇ C. risk management committee to identify IT-related risks. īˇ D. risk management framework. Answer: C Question #166 An independent consultant has been hired to conduct an ad hoc audit of an enterprise's information security office with results reported to the IT governance committee and the board. Which of the following is MOST important to provide to the consultant before the audit begins? īˇ A. The scope and stakeholders of the audit īˇ B. The organizational structure of the security office īˇ C. The polices and framework used by the security office īˇ D. Acceptance of the audit risks and opportunities Answer: A Question #167 The PRIMARY reason for using quantitative criteria in developing business cases for IT projects is to: īˇ A. benchmark project success with similar enterprises. īˇ B. learn lessons from errors made in past projects. īˇ C. improve the process of evaluating returns after implementation. īˇ D. apply other corporate standards to the development project. Answer: C Question #168 A CIO is planning to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system at the request of the business. Of the following, who is accountable for providing sponsorship for the IT-enabled change across the enterprise? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. CIO īˇ B. CEO īˇ C. IT strategy committee īˇ D. Human resource director Answer: C Question #169 Which of the following would a CIO use to present the overall view of IT performance to the board of directors? īˇ A. Maturity model īˇ B. Balanced scorecard īˇ C. Key performance indicators (KPIs) īˇ D. Key risk indicators (KRIS) Answer: A Question #170 An enterprise wants to implement an IT governance framework to ensure enterprise expectations of IT are met. Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial outcome of implementing the framework? īˇ A. Optimization of IT performance īˇ B. Development of IT policies īˇ C. Creation of an IT balanced scorecard īˇ D. Establishment of key IT risk indicators Answer: D Question #171 The PRIMARY reason for implementing an IT governance program in an enterprise is to: īˇ A. comply with regulatory requirements. īˇ B. balance the demand for information and the ability to deliver. īˇ C. decrease the scale of investment in information systems due to budgetary controls. īˇ D. reduce risks due to improved compensating controls. Answer: B Question #172 To help ensure that an IT dashboard effectively conveys the current state of IT to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to establish? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Key performance indicators (KPIs) īˇ B. Emerging threat analysis reporting īˇ C. An IT risk awareness program īˇ D. IT spend against budget Answer: A Question #173 An enterprise has a zero-tolerance policy regarding security. This policy is causing a large number of email attachments to be blocked and is a disruption to the enterprise. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance step to address this email issue? īˇ A. Obtain senior management input based on identified risk. īˇ B. Direct the development of an email usage policy. īˇ C. Recommend business sign-off on the zero-tolerance policy. īˇ D. Introduce an exception process. Answer: B Question #174 Which of the following is a CIO's BEST approach to ensure IT executes against an approved strategy? īˇ A. Request IT senior leaders to collectively plan tactics for execution. īˇ B. Ask project management to define the IT activities for accomplishing the strategy. īˇ C. Provide specific direction for execution of the tasks across IT. īˇ D. Have IT leaders independently develop goals for their teams. Answer: B Question #175 Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a formal, documented IT policy? īˇ A. Alignment with IT service management īˇ B. Communication of IT management intent īˇ C. Mapping of business objectives īˇ D. Resource optimization for enterprise initiatives Answer: C Question #176 Senior management is concerned about an increase in cybersecurity risk to the enterprise. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in establishing an early warning system to determine which potential threats should be escalated to senior management? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Agreed-upon risk thresholds īˇ B. A risk appetite statement īˇ C. Key performance indicators (KPIs) īˇ D. Patch management logs Answer: A Question #177 An enterprise learns that a new privacy regulation was recently published to protect customers in the event of a breach involving personally identifiable information (PII). The IT risk management team's FIRST course of action should be to: īˇ A. evaluate the risk appetite for the new regulation. īˇ B. determine if the new regulation introduces new risk. īˇ C. assign a risk owner for the new regulation. īˇ D. define the risk tolerance for the new regulation. Answer: C Question #178 When designing an IT governance framework, the PRIMARY consideration should be to: īˇ A. comply with external monitoring standards. īˇ B. ensure stakeholders receive value from IT. īˇ C. require cost-benefit analysis before implementing controls. īˇ D. benchmark controls against industry best practices. Answer: C Question #179 The PRIMARY objective of IT resource planning within an enterprise should be to: īˇ A. maximize value received from IT. īˇ B. determine risk associated with IT resources. īˇ C. determine IT outsourcing options. īˇ D. finalize service level agreements for IT. Answer: A Question #180 A global enterprise is experiencing an economic downturn and is rapidly losing market share. IT senior management is reassessing the core activities of the business, including IT, and the associated resource implications. Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! has decided to focus on its local market and to close international operations. A critical issue from a resource management perspective is to retain the most capable staff. This is BEST achieved by: īˇ A. reviewing current goals-based performance appraisals across the enterprise. īˇ B. retaining capable staff exclusively from the local market. īˇ C. ranking employees across the enterprise based on length of service. īˇ D. ranking employees across the enterprise based on their compensation. Answer: C Question #181 An enterprise developed a new e-business web application designed to broaden its sales base. Internal project management guidelines were followed, but indicators for key goals were not established. Which of the following should be the MAIN concern of the IT steering committee? īˇ A. It may be difficult to align IT objectives with performance. īˇ B. Benefits realization may not be properly assessed. īˇ C. Resources may not be optimally utilized. īˇ D. Return on investment may be difficult to evaluate. Answer: B Question #182 An IT security team identified a significant weakness in the enterprise's Internet-facing infrastructure. The exposure requires immediate corrective action that is both cost and resource intensive. Which of the following is the MAIN reason why accountability for this risk should be assigned to the board of directors? īˇ A. The exploit can cause serious disruptions to the enterprise's reputation and profitability. īˇ B. The board should be aware of risks concerning organizational operations. īˇ C. Risk ownership at the highest level will ensure risk awareness throughout the enterprise. īˇ D. The IT organization cannot take ownership for self-identified risks concerning infrastructure security. Answer: C Question #183 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to assess the consistency of IT processes against industry benchmarks to determine where to focus improvement initiatives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ A. Utilizing a capability maturity model īˇ B. Reviewing key performance measures īˇ C. Reviewing IT process audit results īˇ D. Evaluating the current balanced scorecard Answer: C Question #184 An organization requires updates to their IT infrastructure to meet business needs. Which of the following will provide the MOST useful information when planning for the necessary IT investments? īˇ A. Audit findings īˇ B. Business user satisfaction metrics īˇ C. Enterprise architecture īˇ D. Risk assessment report Answer: A Question #185 As part of the implementation of IT governance, the board of an enterprise should establish an IT strategy committee to: īˇ A. ensure IT risks inherent in the enterprise strategy implementation are managed. īˇ B. drive IT strategy development and take responsibility for implementing the IT strategy. īˇ C. assume governance accountability for the business strategy on behalf of the board. īˇ D. provide input to and ensure alignment of the enterprise and IT strategies. Answer: C Question #186 A root-cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly-hired IT system administrators. Who should be accountable for resolving the situation? īˇ A. HR training director īˇ B. Chief information officer īˇ C. HR recruitment manager īˇ D. Business process owner Answer: C Question #187 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT team is having difficulty meeting new demands placed on the department as a result of a major and radical shift in enterprise business strategy. Which of the following the CIO's BEST course of action to address this situation? īˇ A. Review the current IT strategy. īˇ B. Utilize third parties for non-value-added processes. īˇ C. Align the business strategy with the IT strategy. īˇ D. Review the IT risk appetite. Answer: C Question #188 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure an IT steering committee is informed of newly emerging risks in critical IT projects? īˇ A. Requiring regular updates of the risk register for each project īˇ B. Requiring a summarized report of relevant risks īˇ C. Reviewing the response for each risk in the log īˇ D. Conducting periodic reviews of project performance Answer: A Question #189 Which of the following MOST effectively demonstrates operational readiness to address information security risk issues? īˇ A. Executive management has announced an information security risk initiative. īˇ B. Procedures have been established for assessing and mitigating information security risks. īˇ C. IT management has communicated the need for information security risk management to the business. īˇ D. A policy has been communicated stating enterprise commitment and readiness to address information security risk. Answer: B Question #190 Which of the following should be the CIO's GREATEST consideration when making changes to the IT strategy? īˇ A. Have key stakeholders been consulted? īˇ B. Have IT risk metrics been adjusted? īˇ C. Has the investment portfolio been revised? īˇ D. Has the impact to the enterprise architecture been assessed? Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #191 Senior management wants to promote investment in IT, but is uncertain that associated risks are being properly identified. The BEST way to address this concern is to: īˇ A. ensure business cases are developed by IT. īˇ B. engage an external consultant to develop risk scenarios. īˇ C. assign an IT cost controller to the finance department. īˇ D. appoint an IT representative to the business risk committee. Answer: D Question #192 An enterprise is contracting with an outsourcing partner for a long-term engagement. The BEST time for the enterprise to plan for the event of contract termination: īˇ A. developing the initial contract. īˇ B. either party decides to terminate the contract. īˇ C. issues surface in the contractual relationship. īˇ D. planning for the contract as part of business continuity. Answer: C Question #193 The MOST important aspect of an IT governance framework to ensure that IT supports repeatable business processes is: īˇ A. resource management. īˇ B. quality management. īˇ C. risk management. īˇ D. earned value management. Answer: B Question #194 Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to ensure IT capabilities are appropriately aligned with business requirements for specific business processes? īˇ A. Issuing a management mandate that IT and business process stakeholders work together īˇ B. Requiring architecture and design reviews with business process stakeholders īˇ C. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) īˇ D. Requiring internal IT architecture and design reviews https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #195 For the first time, the procurement department has requested that IT grant remote access to third-party suppliers. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for IT in responding to the request? īˇ A. Analyze risks and propose a solution. īˇ B. Implement a remote access architecture. īˇ C. Develop a remote access policy. īˇ D. Issue log-on credentials to third-party suppliers. Answer: A Question #196 Which of the following would BEST help to improve an enterprise's ability to manage large IT investment projects? īˇ A. Reviewing and evaluating existing business cases īˇ B. Creating a change management board īˇ C. Publishing the IT approval process online for wider scrutiny īˇ D. Implementing a review and approval process for each phase Answer: C Question #197 Which of the following is the BEST approach to assist an enterprise in planning for IT-enabled investments? īˇ A. Enterprise architecture īˇ B. Service level management īˇ C. Task management īˇ D. IT process mapping Answer: D Question #198 To measure the value of IT-enabled investments, an enterprise needs to identify its drivers as defined by its: īˇ A. value statements. īˇ B. service level agreements (SLAs). īˇ C. business strategy. īˇ D. technology strategy. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #199 Which of the following is the BEST way to address concerns associated with outsourcing an IT process? īˇ A. Implement a business continuity plan. īˇ B. Perform a risk assessment. īˇ C. Review the IT governance framework. īˇ D. Manage service levels. Answer: D Question #200 A CIO has recently been made aware of a new regulatory requirement which may affect IT-enabled business activities. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step in deciding the appropriate response to the new requirement? īˇ A. Consult with legal and risk experts to understand the requirements. īˇ B. Confirm there are adequate resources to mitigate compliance requirements. īˇ C. Consult with the board for guidance on the new requirement. īˇ D. Revise initiatives that are active to reflect the new requirements. Answer: B Question #201 The risk committee is overwhelmed by the number of false positives included in risk reports. What action would BEST address this situation? īˇ A. Evaluate key risk indicators. īˇ B. Adjust IT balanced scorecard. īˇ C. Conduct a risk assessment. īˇ D. Change the reporting format. Answer: C Question #202 An enterprise has recently experienced an excessive number of exceptions due to outdated control frameworks. What should the leadership team do FIRST? īˇ A. Mandate a reassessment of the current control frameworks. īˇ B. Review the IT control standards. īˇ C. Mandate strict adherence to control frameworks. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ D. Update the exception review and approval process. Answer: B Question #203 In an effort to reduce operation costs, an enterprise is switching from all internally-hosted applications to a mixture of internally- and externally-hosted applications. Of the following, the risk appetite for this decision would BEST be defined by the: īˇ A. vendor oversight committee. īˇ B. board of directors. īˇ C. chief information security officer. īˇ D. chief information officer. Answer: C Question #204 IT senior management has just received a survey report indicating that more than one third of the organization's key IT staff plan to retire within the next 12 months. Which of the following is the MOST important governance action to prepare for this possibility? īˇ A. Request the development of a succession plan. īˇ B. Engage HR for recruitment of new staff. īˇ C. Evaluate lower-level staff as succession candidates. īˇ D. Review motivation drivers for key IT staff. Answer: C Question #205 A CEO of a large enterprise is concerned that risk events are not regularly addressed at the C-suite level unless related to emergency incidents. Which of the following is the BEST way for the CEO to ensure risk events are given sufficient time and attention? īˇ A. Instruct managers to take ownership for their department's identified risks. īˇ B. Issue performance objectives that target the elimination of enterprise risks. īˇ C. Include the of key enterprise risk as an agenda item at board meetings. īˇ D. Require the development of a risk procedure on how to capture risks. Answer: C Question #206 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is assessing whether to utilize wearable technology. The enterprise has no prior experience with this technology and has asked the chief technology officer (CTO) to assess the impact to the enterprise. The CTO should FIRST: īˇ A. prioritize wearable technology risk. īˇ B. understand the enterprise's risk tolerance. īˇ C. map the business goals to IT risk processes. īˇ D. create an IT risk scorecard. Answer: B Question #207 An enterprise has an overarching enterprise architecture document. The CIO is concerned that EA is not leveraged in recent IT-enabled investments. Which of the following would BEST help to address these concerns and enforce the leveraging of enterprise architecture? īˇ A. Require enterprise architecture review at key milestones. īˇ B. Publish and train on the enterprise architecture document. īˇ C. Form a team to update enterprise architecture regularly. īˇ D. Adopt a globally-recognized enterprise architecture framework. Answer: B Question #208 After performing a gap analysis of IT risks and controls capability, the MOST important consideration for the associated risk responses is that they are: īˇ A. added to the IT balanced scorecard. īˇ B. approved by executive management. īˇ C. assessed for severity of impact. īˇ D. submitted to the audit committee. Answer: C Question #209 A new CEO is made aware of a lack of cooperation between IT and business units and needs to take action to enable more efficient IT delivery of solutions to support the business. What should be the FIRST step to address this concern? īˇ A. Introduce IT related key performance indicators (KPIs). īˇ B. Establish business user group training for increased collaboration. īˇ C. Clarify roles and assign accountabilities for results. īˇ D. Implement a continuous auditing policy for IT initiatives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #210 An IT steering committee is presented with an audit finding that new software applications are delivered on time but consistently have unacceptable levels of defects. Which of the following would be the BEST direction from the committee? īˇ A. Establish code peer reviews. īˇ B. Evaluate the change management process. īˇ C. Implement performance indicators. īˇ D. Evaluate the quality assurance process. Answer: D Question #211 Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT governance in an enterprise? īˇ A. Project delivery īˇ B. Value delivery īˇ C. Residual risk īˇ D. Resource utilization Answer: B Question #212 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to enhance security risk management alignment between IT and business? īˇ A. Facilitate joint workshops for IT and the business on risk assessment techniques. īˇ B. Analyze benchmark reports to understand the organization's security investments against competitors. īˇ C. Establish a process in which IT and the business collaborate on risk assessment and mitigation prioritization. īˇ D. Perform a trend analysis based on security investment levels and business initiatives. Answer: C Question #213 An IT steering committee is concerned that enterprise technologies have grown stagnant and are outdated. Which of the following is the BEST strategy to invest in modem technology? īˇ A. Redefine the target architecture to define new technologies that can be incorporated into the infrastructure. īˇ B. Create a new investment category for innovation that becomes a new way for tracking investment decisions/ https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ C. Update the IT human resource management plan to requite training and development for emerging technologies. īˇ D. Decrease spending on steady state and increase spending on modernization and enhancements. Answer: A Question #214 An enterprise makes an acquisition of a similar entity offering related services. A consequence of the acquisition is a reduction of IT workforce. When addressing human resource allocation, the MOST important IT governance consideration is to: īˇ A. manage organizational change. īˇ B. assess 7 skill sets. īˇ C. monitor team expenditures. īˇ D. cross-train IT resources. Answer: D Question #215 An enterprise's board of directors has asked the CIO to implement ways to make the IT function more environmentally responsible. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step to ensure continued alignment of IT needs with the requirements of the board? īˇ A. Create a staff awareness education plan focused on IT environmental responsibility. īˇ B. Incorporate new environmentally responsible objectives into existing IT goals. īˇ C. Assess potential environmentally responsible IT initiatives. īˇ D. Write a business case for an environmentally responsible initiative for IT. Answer: A Question #216 An enterprise has an ongoing issue of corporate applications not delivering the expected benefits due to missing key functionality. As a result, many groups are using spreadsheets and databases instead of approved enterprise applications to store and manipulate information. Which of the following will BEST improve the success rate of future IT initiatives? īˇ A. Engage the business user community in acceptance testing of acquired applications. īˇ B. Prohibit the use of non-approved alternate software solutions. īˇ C. Establish a process for risk and value management. īˇ D. Engage stakeholders to identify and validate business requirements. Answer: D Question #217 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT strategy committee has reviewed an audit report indicating sales employees are using personal smartphones to conduct corporate business. Although the committee appreciates the business benefits, it is also concerned with the security risk. To deliver the business benefit, the committee's FIRST recommendation should be to: īˇ A. update the corporate security policy to include personal devices. īˇ B. document procedures for securing personal devices. īˇ C. improve training courses on securing corporate information. īˇ D. perform a risk assessment on personal device data protection. Answer: D Question #218 Which of the following is the BEST way to implement effective IT risk management? īˇ A. Minimize the number of IT risk management decision points. īˇ B. Adopt risk management processes. īˇ C. Establish a risk management function. īˇ D. Align with business risk management processes. Answer: B Question #219 Which of the following characteristics would BEST indicate that an IT process is a good candidate for outsourcing? īˇ A. Operational processes that are well-defined īˇ B. Non-strategic processes that are not documented īˇ C. Strategic processes that require expert professionals īˇ D. Processes with higher risk to the enterprise Answer: B Question #220 Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an effective set of key risk indicators (KRIs)? īˇ A. Identifying possible future adverse impacts on the enterprise īˇ B. Evaluating existing technology for risk monitoring capabilities īˇ C. Establishing executive level buy-in of the risk program īˇ D. Quantifying the productivity of the risk management team Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #221 A large bank has completed several acquisitions in the last few years that have resulted in redundant IT applications. To align with the strategic initiative of providing integrated services to customers, the IT steering committee has decided to share data and integrate applications. Which of the following would be MOST important to review in this situation? īˇ A. IT risk register īˇ B. Balanced scorecard measures īˇ C. Enterprise architecture īˇ D. IT strategic plan Answer: C Question #222 To evaluate IT resource management, it is MOST important to define: īˇ A. principles for the IT strategy. īˇ B. responsibilities for executing resource management. īˇ C. applicable key goals. īˇ D. IT resource utilization reporting procedures. Answer: B Question #223 Which of the following is the MOST effective measure to assist in the evaluation of IT value delivery? īˇ A. Actual benefits derived from the achievement of business objectives īˇ B. Increase in user productivity īˇ C. Trends in service capacity and availability metrics īˇ D. Increase in customer satisfaction survey results Answer: A Question #224 Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that the governance of enterprise IT is consistently executed? īˇ A. Regular review of IT policies and procedures īˇ B. Defined key risk indicators īˇ C. Established and monitored IT management processes īˇ D. Experienced and skilled IT leadership https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #225 The BEST time to identify metrics to measure the performance of an IT-enabled investment is during: īˇ A. investment feasibility analysis. īˇ B. system implementation. īˇ C. project initiation. īˇ D. business case development. Answer: D Question #226 An enterprise is concerned that ongoing maintenance costs are not being considered when prioritizing IT-enabled business investments. Which of the following should be the enterprise's FIRST course of action? īˇ A. Require business cases to have product life cycle information. īˇ B. Establish a portfolio manager role to monitor and control the IT projects. īˇ C. Mandate an enterprise architecture review with business stakeholders. īˇ D. Implement a balanced scorecard for the IT project portfolio. Answer: C Question #227 The IT program manager does not see the value of conducting risk assessments for a new major IT project. The manager is reluctant to cooperate with internal auditors and the newly formed steering committee. Midway through the project, program requirements were changed because the CEO is a friend of a vendor and wants to implement this vendor's new technology. This decision will cause the current IT program budget to be insufficient and will be shown as overspending, After the requirement change request, the IT program manager should FIRST: īˇ A. report the matter to internal audit as a program deviation to be reviewed. īˇ B. obtain confirmation from the business and a decision by the steering committee. īˇ C. align IT with the business and agree to the business request. īˇ D. request additional funding from the business owner to cover the additional scope. Answer: B Question #228 A business unit within an enterprise has directly contracted with a cloud service provider to process sensitive customer information. The CIO later identifies a serious risk of potential data compromise due to the vendor's insufficient segregation of environments and lack of strong access controls. The FIRST course of action should be to: īˇ A. immediately suspend sending of data to the cloud service provider. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! īˇ B. notify internal audit of the risk. īˇ C. discuss the risk with the vendor to determine mitigation actions. īˇ D. inform the business process owner of the risk. Answer: B Question #229 Which of the following would BEST align an enterprise's IT investments with its strategic objectives? īˇ A. High process maturity score īˇ B. IT budget and financial statements īˇ C. Control self-assessment īˇ D. Portfolio management Answer: A Question #230 To ensure that the process of developing a business case for IT-enabled investments continually supports benefits realization, the benefits expected from investment programs must be actively managed through: īˇ A. the system development life cycle. īˇ B. the economic life cycle. īˇ C. obsolescence planning. īˇ D. project life cycle. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! âĸ Agriculture is growing of crops and keeping of animals. âĸ People who practice agriculture are called farmers. âĸ Agriculture is very important to the family. Benefits to the family âĸ It provides food. âĸ It provides money. âĸ Agriculture gives us medicine. âĸ It provides jobs. âĸ Agriculture gives us transport and power. âĸ It helps most families become self sufficient. âĸ Farm tools are instruments used on farms to make work easier. âĸ They are usually handheld and are used frequently when practicing agricultural activities. âĸ Farm tools are light in weight, easy to handle and are suited to the strength of the farmer Name of tool Picture Use Watering can For fine watering of seed beds bucket Carrying manure, fertilizer,seed and ripe crops Name of tool Picture Use Sickle Cutting grass and harvesting of cereals like rice and wheat Slasher Cutting down tall grass and weeds USES OF FARM TOOLS Name of tool Picture Use Garden trowel Transplanting seedlings and making planting holes Hand fork Shallow cultivation of soil Aerating the soil USES OF FARM TOOLS Name of tool Picture Use Shovel Loading and offloading soil or manure into a wheelbarrow, scotch cart or truck Spade Digging and turning over of moist soil USES OF FARM TOOLS Name of tool Picture Use Garden fork Loosening and turn soil Garden line Marking straight ridges and garden beds USES OF FARM TOOLS Name of tool Picture Use wheelbarrow Moving items around the farm Items such as soil, mulch, animal feed. Etc Knapsack sprayer Spraying pesticides and herbicides Spraying fertilizers on crops. âĸ An inventory is a record of the things that you have. âĸ This is a list of tools issued out and tools received back and from whom Inventory of farm tools Inventory record sheets Created by Date Name of tool Sheet Tool numbenumber Description r Location Quantity Spade 1/15 Black,wooden handle Store room 2 SAFETY IN AGRICULTURE âĸ Agricultural activities can be dangerous. âĸ Hazards involved results in injury, disability and death of people and animals. âĸ The hazards are usually caused by physical injury and chemical poisoning. Common hazards in Agriculture 1. physical injury These include: âĸ Injury caused by accidents during use of farm tools, equipment and machinery. âĸ Misuse and improper storage of farm tools and equipment. âĸ Being kicked by animals. âĸ Drowning in farm pond, pool or dam. Common hazards in Agriculture 2 . Chemical poisoning These include: âĸ Spraying without protective clothing. âĸ Eating or smoking when spraying chemicals. âĸ Dumping toxic chemical left overs on land and in water. âĸ Eating agriculture produces without prior permission from adults. âĸ Pesticides, herbicides and fertilizers pollute water sources and kill animals. Chemical poisoning Ways of preventing common agricultural hazards 1. Wear protective clothing such as gloves, gumboots, respirator, hat and overalls. 2. Do not eat, drink or smoke when spraying. 3. Dispose off all chemical remains safely. 4. Bury or burn empty chemical containers and chemical left overs. 5. Wash thoroughly with running water and soap after using chemicals. 6. Do not spray during windy days. 7. Handle tools the right way. 8. Fence farm ponds and dams. Ways of preventing common agricultural hazards Climate and Landuse Seasons of Zimbabwe Seasons of Zimbabwe Definition of terms âĸ A season is a time of the year with almost the same weather patterns. âĸ Weather is the state of the atmosphere at a particular time at a particular place. âĸ it is the daily condition of air around us. âĸ Seasons are determined by rainfall and temperature. Seasons of Zimbabwe âĸ There are four seasons in Zimbabwe , which are: 1.The rain season 2.Post rain season 3.Cool dry season 4.Hot dry season Seasons of Zimbabwe 1.The rain season ( summer) âĸ It is also called the hot- wet season. âĸ The season begins in mid November to mid March. âĸ The period is rainy and hot. âĸ Dams and rivers fill up. Seasons of Zimbabwe 2 . The post rain season ( autumn ) âĸ It starts mid March â May âĸ The days are bright and sunny. âĸ The leaves change from green to red, orange, yellow or brown before falling. âĸ In addition, there is less sunlight because the days are shorter. âĸ It is the harvesting period of most crops. Seasons of Zimbabwe 3. The cold dry season ( winter ) âĸ It begins mid May â mid August âĸ The mornings, evenings and nights are very cold. âĸ Has short days and long nights. Seasons of Zimbabwe 4 . The hot season (spring ) âĸ It begins mid August â mid November. âĸ The days are very hot with cool nights. âĸ A season for trees to develop new shoots. Summer Activities Agricultural activities done during the rain season includes: âĸ Ploughing and planting of summer crops for example maize, cotton. âĸ Weeding âĸ Pest and disease control âĸ Applying fertilizers. âĸ Weekly dipping of animals because ticks, lice and mites would be many. âĸ Harvesting of summer crops âĸ Preparing fireguards. A fireguard is a fire break. âĸ Beginning of the planting of wheat, barley and oats.â Winter Activities âĸ Planting of winter crops such as wheat, barley and oats. âĸ Harvesting and selling of summer crops continues. âĸ Constructing frost barriers for frost sensitive crops such as tomatoes. âĸ Vaccinating animals against blackleg. âĸ Supplementary feeding of grazing animals. âĸ Dosing of animals to kill internal parasites. Spring Activities âĸ Shelling and threshing of grain crops. âĸ Dry planting of summer crops. âĸ Carrying manure to fields. âĸ Ploughing and harrowing. âĸ Making planting holes Soil Components âĸSoil is made up of 4 components: 1)Mineral matter 2)Organic matter 3)Soil water 4)Soil air Owls, such as the young snowy owls on the previous page, have for centuries been symbols of both wisdom and mystery. To many cultures their piercing eyes have conveyed a look of intelligence. Their silent flight through darkened landscapes in search of prey has projected an air of power or wonder. For this chapter and this book, owls are an engaging example of a living organism from the world of biologyâthe study of life. BIOLOGY AND YOU Living in a small town, in the country, or at the edge of the suburbs, one may be lucky enough to hear an owl's hooting. This experience can lead to questions about where the bird lives, what it hunts, and how it finds its prey on dark, moonless nights. Biology, or the study of life, offers an organized and scientific framework for posing and answering such questions about the natural world. Biologists study questions about how living things work, how they interact with the environment, and how they change over time. Biologists study many different kinds of living things ranging from tiny organisms, such as bacteria, to very large organisms, such as elephants. Each day, biologists investigate subjects that affect you and the way you live. For example, biologists determine which foods are healthy. As shown in Figure 1-1, everyone is affected by this impor- tant topic. Biologists also study how much a person should exer- cise and how one can avoid getting sick. Biologists also study what CHARACTERISTICS OF LIFE The world is filled with familiar objects, such as tables, rocks, plants, pets, and automobiles. Which of these objects are living or were once living? What are the criteria for assigning something to the living world or the nonliving world? Biologists have established that living things share seven characteristics of life. These characteristics are organization and the presence of one or more cells, response to a stimulus (plural, stimuli), homeostasis, metabolism, growth and development, reproduction, and change through time. Organization and Cells Organization is the high degree of order within an organismâs internal and external parts and in its interactions with the living world. For example, compare an owl to a rock. The rock has a spe- cific shape, but that shape is usually irregular. Furthermore, differ- ent rocks, even rocks of the same type, are likely to have different shapes and sizes. In contrast, the owl is an amazingly organized individual, as shown in Figure 1-2. Owls of the same species have the same body parts arranged in nearly the same way and interact with the environment in the same way. Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. ORGANISM (Barn Owl) ORGAN (Owlâs Ear) TISSUE (Nervous Tissue Within the Ear) CELL (Nerve Cell) your air, land, and fAll living organisms, whether made up of one cell or many cells, have some degree of organization. A cell is the smallest unit that can perform all lifeâs processes. Some organisms, such as bacteria, are made up of one cell and are called unicellular (YOON-uh-SEL-yoo-luhr) organisms. Other organisms, such as humans or trees, are made up of multiple cells and are called multicellular (MUHL-ti-SEL-yoo-luhr) organisms. Complex multicellular organisms have the level of orga- nization shown in Figure 1-2. In the highest level, the organism is made up of organ systems, or groups of specialized parts that carry out a certain function in the organism. For example, an owlâs ner- vous system is made up of a brain, sense organs, nerve cells, and other parts that sense and respond to the owlâs surroundings. Organ systems are made up of organs. Organs are structures that carry out specialized jobs within an organ system. An owlâs ear is an organ that allows the owl to hear. All organs are made up of tissues. Tissues are groups of cells that have similar abilities and that allow the organ to function. For example, nervous tissue in the ear allows the ear to detect sound. Tissues are made up of cells. A cell must be covered by a membrane, contain all genetic information necessary for replication, and be able to carry out all cell functions. Within each cell are organelles. Organelles are tiny structures that carry out functions necessary for the cell to stay alive. Organelles contain biological molecules, the chemical compounds that provide physical structure and that bring about movement, energy use, and other cellular functions. All biological molecules are made up of atoms. Atoms are the simplest particle of an ele- ment that retains all the properties of a certain element. Response to Stimuli Another characteristic of life is that an organism can respond to a stimulusâa physical or chemical change in the internal or external environment. For example, an owl dilates its pupils to keep the level of light entering the eye constant. Organisms must be able to respond and react to changes in their environment to stay alive. ORGANELLE (Mitochondrion) BIOLOGICAL MOLECULE (Phospholipid) ATOM (Oxygen) cell from the Latin, cella meaning âsmall room,â or âhutâ Word Roots and Origins www.scilinks.org Topic: Characteristics of Life Keyword: HM60257 mb06se_bios01.qxd 5/18/07 10:37 AM Page 7 8 CHAPTER 1 Homeostasis All living things, from single cells to entire organisms, have mecha- nisms that allow them to maintain stable internal conditions. Without these mechanisms, organisms can die. For example, a cellâs water content is closely controlled by the taking in or releas- ing of water. A cell that takes in too much water will rupture and die. A cell that doesnât get enough water will also shrivel and die. Homeostasis (HOH-mee-OH-STAY-sis) is the maintenance of a stable level of internal conditions even though environmental conditions are constantly changing. Organisms have regulatory systems that maintain internal conditions, such as temperature, water content, and uptake of nutrients by the cell. In fact, multi- cellular organisms usually have more than one way of maintain- ing important aspects of their internal environment. For example, an owlâs temperature is maintained at about 40°C (104°F). To keep a constant temperature, an owlâs cells burn fuel to produce body heat. In addition, an owlâs feathers can fluff up in cold weather. In this way, they trap an insulating layer of air next to the birdâs body to maintain its body temperature. Metabolism Living organisms use energy to power all the life processes, such as repair, movement, and growth. This energy use depends on metabolism (muh-TAB-uh-LIZ-uhm). Metabolism is the sum of all the chemical reactions that take in and transform energy and materials from the environment. For example, plants, algae, and some bacteria use the sunâs energy to generate sugar molecules during a process called photosynthesis. Some organisms depend on obtaining food energy from other organisms. For instance, an owlâs metabolism allows the owl to extract and modify the chemi- cals trapped in its nightly prey and use them as energy to fuel activities and growth. Growth and Development All living things grow and increase in size. Some nonliving things, such as crystals or icicles, grow by accumulating more of the same material of which they are made. In contrast, the growth of living things results from the division and enlargement of cells. Cell division is the formation of two new cells from an existing cell, as shown in Figure 1-3. In unicellular organisms, the primary change that occurs following cell division is cell enlargement. In multi- cellular life, however, organisms mature through cell division, cell enlargement, and development. Development is the process by which an organism becomes a mature adult. Development involves cell division and cell differen- tiation, or specialization. As a result of development, an adult organism is composed of many cells specialized for different func- tions, such as carrying oxygen in the blood or hearing. In fact, the human body is composed of trillions of specialized cells, all of which originated from a single cell, the fertilized egg. This unicellular organism, Escherichia coli, inhabits the human intestines. E. coli reproduces by means of cell division, during which the original cell splits into two identical offspring cells. FIGURE 1-3 Observing Homeostasis Materials 500 mL beakers (3), wax pen, tap water, thermometer, ice, hot water, goldfish, small dip net, watch or clock with a second hand Procedure 1. Use a wax pen to label three 500 mL beakers as follows: 27°C (80°F), 20°C (68°F), 10°C (50°F). Put 250 mL of tap water in each beaker. Use hot water or ice to adjust the tem- perature of the water in each beaker to match the temperature on the label. 2. Put the goldfish in the beaker of 27°C water. Record the number of times the gills move in 1 minute. 3. Move the goldfish to the beaker of 20°C water. Repeat observations. Move the goldfish to the beaker of 10°C. Repeat observations. Analysis What happens to the rate at which gills move when the temp- erature changes? Why? How do gills help fish maintain homeostasis? Quick Lab mb06se_bios01.qxd 5/18/07 10:37 AM Page 8 THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 9 Reproduction All organisms produce new organisms like themselves in a process called reproduction. Reproduction, unlike other characteristics, is not essential to the survival of an individual organism. However, because no organism lives forever, reproduction is essential for the continuation of a species. Glass frogs, as shown in Figure 1-4, lay many eggs in their lifetime. However, only a few of the frogsâ off- spring reach adulthood and successfully reproduce. During reproduction, organisms transmit hereditary informa- tion to their offspring. Hereditary information is encoded in a large molecule called deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA. A short segment of DNA that contains the instructions for a single trait of an organism is called a gene. DNA is like a large library. It contains all the booksâgenesâthat the cell will ever need for making all the struc- tures and chemicals necessary for life. Hereditary information is transferred to offspring during two kinds of reproduction. In sexual reproduction, hereditary information recombines from two organisms of the same species. The resulting offspring are similar but not identical to their parents. For example, a male frogâs sperm can fertilize a femaleâs egg and form a single fer- tilized egg cell. The fertilized egg then develops into a new frog. In asexual reproduction, hereditary information from different organisms is not combined; thus the original organism and the new organism are genetically the same. A bacterium, for example, reproduces asexually when it splits into two identical cells. Change Through Time Although individual organisms experience many changes during their lifetime, their basic genetic characteristics do not change. However, populations of living organisms evolve or change through time. The ability of populations of organisms to change over time is important for survival in a changing world. This factor is also impor- tant in explaining the diversity of life-forms we see on Earth today. 1. How does biology affect a personâs daily life? 2. How does biology affect society? 3. Name the characteristics shared by living things. 4. Summarize the hierarchy of organization found in complex multicellular organisms. 5. What are the different functions of homeostasis and metabolism in living organisms? 6. How does the growth among living and nonliv- ing things differ? 7. Why is reproduction an important characteristic of life? CRITICAL THINKING 8. Applying Information Crystals of salt grow and are highly organized. Why donât biologists con- sider them to be alive? 9. Analyzing Models When a scientist designs a space probe to detect life on a distant planet, what kinds of things should it measure? 10. Making Comparisons Both cells and organisms share the characteristics of life. How are cells and organismsood supply will be like in the near future.EVOLUTION OF LIFE Individual organisms change during their lifetime, but their basic genetic characteristics do not change. However, populations of liv- ing organisms do change through time, or evolve. Evolution, or descent with modification, is the process in which the inherited characteristics within populations change over generations, such that genetically distinct populations and new species can develop. Evolution as a theme in biology helps us understand how the various branches of the âtree of lifeâ came into existence and have changed over time. It also explains how organisms alive today are related to those that lived in the past. Finally, it helps us understand the mechanisms that underlie the way organisms look and behave. Natural Selection The ability of populations of organisms to change over time is important for survival in a changing world. According to the theory of evolution by natural selection, organisms that have certain favorable traits are better able to survive and reproduce success- fully than organisms that lack these traits. One product of natural selection is the adaptation of organisms to their environment. Adaptations are traits that improve an indi- vidualâs ability to survive and reproduce. For example, rabbits with white fur and short ears in a snowy place, such as the one in Figure 1-7a, may avoid predators and frostbitten ears more often than those with dark fur and long ears. Thus, the next generation of rabbits will have a greater percentage of animals carrying the genes for white fur and short ears. In contrast, the brown, long- eared rabbit, as shown in Figure 1-7b, would survive and reproduce more successfully in a hot desert environment. The survival and reproductive success of organisms with favor- able traits cause a change in populations of organisms over gener- ations. This descent with modification is an important factor in explaining the diversity of organisms we see on Earth today. 1. Name three unifying themes found in biology. 2. How is the unity and diversity in the living world represented? 3. Identify the three domains and the kingdoms found in each domain. 4. How are organisms interdependent? 5. Describe why evolution is important in explain- ing the diversity of life. 6. Distinguish between evolution and natural selection. CRITICAL THINKING 7. Applying Information Assign the various top- pings you put on pizza to the appropriate domains and kingdoms of life. 8. Analyzing Graphics According to the âtreeâ in Figure 1-5, which of these pairs are more closely related: Archaea:Bacteria or Archaea:Eukarya? 9. Making Hypotheses Fossil evidence shows that bats descended from shrewlike organisms that could not fly. Write a hypothesis for how natural selection might have led to flying bats. SECTION 2 REVIEW (a) This short-eared arctic hare, Lepus arcticus, is hidden from predators and protected from frostbite in a snowy environment. (b) The mottled brown coats of desert rabbits blend in with the dirt and dry grasses, and their long ears help them radiate excess heat and thus avoid overheating. FIGURE 1-7 (a) (b) Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 13 TH E STUDY OF BIOLOGY Curiosity leads us to ask questions about life. Science provides a way of answering such questions about the natural world. Science is a systematic method that involves forming and testing hypotheses. More importantly, science relies on evidence, not beliefs, for drawing conclusions. SCIENCE AS A PROCESS Science is characterized by an organized approach, called the scientific method, to learn how the natural world works. The methods of science are based on two important principles. The first principle is that events in the natural world have natural causes. For example, the ancient Greeks believed that lightning and thunder occurred because a supernatural god Zeus hurled thunderbolts from the heavens. By contrast, a scientist considers lightning and thunder to result from electric charges in the atmos- phere. When trying to solve a puzzle from nature, all scientists, such as the one in Figure 1-8, accept that there is a natural cause to solve that puzzle. A second principle of science is uniformity. Uniformity is the idea that the fundamental laws of nature operate the same way at all places and at all times. For example, scientists assume that the law of gravity works the same way on Mars as it does on Earth. Steps of the Scientific Method Although there is no single method for doing science, scientific studies involve a series of common steps. 1. The process of science begins with an observation. An observation is the act of perceiving a natural occurrence that causes someone to pose a question. 2. One tries to answer the question by forming hypotheses (singular, hypothesis). A hypothesis is a proposed explanation for the way a particular aspect of the natural world functions. 3. A prediction is a statement that forecasts what would happen in a test situation if the hypothesis were true. A prediction is recorded for each hypothesis. 4. An experiment is used to test a hypothesis and its predictions. 5. Once the experiment has been concluded, the data are analyzed and used to draw conclusions. 6. After the data have been analyzed, the data and conclusions are communicated to scientific peers and to the public. This way oth- ers can verify, reject, or modify the researcherâs conclusions. SECTION 3 OBJECTIVES â Outline the main steps in the scientific method. â Summarize how observations are used to form hypotheses. â List the elements of a controlled experiment. â Describe how scientists use data to draw conclusions. â Compare a scientific hypothesis and a scientific theory. â State how communication in science helps prevent dishonesty and bias. VOCABULARY scientific method observation hypothesis prediction experiment control group experimental group independent variable dependent variable theory peer review All researchers, such as the one releasing an owl above, use the scientific method to answer the questions they have about nature. FIGURE 1-8 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 14 CHAPTER 1 OBSERVING AND ASKING QUESTIONS The scientific method generally begins with an unexplained observa- tion about nature. For example, people have noticed for thousands of years that owls can catch prey in near total darkness. As shown in steps and of Figure 1-9, an observation may then raise ques- tions. The owl observation raises the question: How does an owl detect prey in the dark? FORMING A HYPOTHESIS After stating a question, a biologist lists possible answers to a sci- entific questionâhypotheses. Good hypotheses answer a question and are testable in the natural world. For example, as shown in step Figure 1-9, there are several possible hypotheses for the question of how owls hunt at night: (a) owls hunt by keen vision in the dark; (b) owls hunt by superb hearing; or (c) owls hunt by detecting the preyâs body heat. Predicting To test a hypothesis, scientists make a prediction that logically fol- lows from the hypothesis. A prediction is what is expected to hap- pen if each hypothesis were true. For example, if hypothesis (a) is true, (owls hunt by keen night vision) then one can predict that the owl will pounce only on the mouse in either a light or a dark room. If hypothesis (b) is true (owls hunt by hearing), then one can pre- dict that in a lighted room, the owl will pounce closer to the mouseâs head. But, in a dark room, the owl should pounce closer to a rustling leaf attached to the mouse. Finally, if hypothesis (c) is true (owls hunt by sensing body heat), then an owl would strike only the prey no matter the room conditions, because owls hunt by detecting the preyâs body heat. 3 1 2 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. A scientific study includes observations, questions, hypotheses, predictions, experiments, data analysis, and conclu- sions. A biologist can use the scientific method to set up an experiment to learn how an owl captures prey at night. FIGURE 1-9 1 OBSERVATION Owls capture prey on dark nights. 2 QUESTION How do owls detect prey on dark nights? 3 HYPOTHESES a) Owls hunt in the dark by vision. b) Owls hunt in the dark by hearing. c) Owls hunt in the dark by sensing body heat. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 15 Notice that these predictions make it difficult to distinguish be- tween the vision and body heat hypotheses. The reason is that both hypotheses predict that the owl could grab the mouse in a dark room. Also, these three hypotheses do not eliminate all other factors that could influence how the owl finds its prey. However, testing predictions can allow one to begin rejecting hypotheses and thus to get closer to determining the answer(s) to a question. DESIGNING AN EXPERIMENT Biologists often test hypotheses by setting up an experiment. Step in Figure 1-9 outlines an experiment to test the hypotheses about how an owl hunts at night. First, experimenters set up a room with an owl perch high on one side and a small trap door on the other side for releasing mice. Then, they tied a leaf to each mouseâs tail with a string and released each mouse into the room. Next, each mouse ran silently across the room, but the leaf trailed behind, making a rustling noise. During half of the trials, the lights were on. During the other half, the room was dark. Technicians videotaped all the action in the chamber with an infrared light, which owls cannot see. The researchers then viewed the videos and measured the position of the owlâs strike relative to each mouseâs head. Performing the Experiment Many scientists use a controlled experiment to test their hypotheses. A controlled experiment compares an experimental group and a control group and only has one variable. The control group pro- vides a normal standard against which the biologist can compare results of the experimental group. The experimental group is iden- tical to the control group except for one factor, the independent variable. The experimenter manipulates the independent variable, sometimes called the manipulated variable. 4 4 EXPERIMENT 5 DATA COLLECTION AND ANALYSIS Measure and compare the distance from the owlâs strike to the mouse and to the leaf in light and dark. 6 CONCLUSION Data supported the hearing hypothesis: Owls hunt in the dark by hearing. prey Test predictions of the three hypotheses. Control: In the light Experimental: In the dark 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 Predicting Results Materials 2 Petri dishes with agar, cellophane tape, wax pen Procedure 1. Open one of the Petri dishes, and streak your finger across the surface of the agar. 2. Replace the lid, and seal it with the tape. Label this Petri dish with your name and a number 1. 3. Seal the second Petri dish with- out removing the lid. Label this Petri dish with your name and the number 2. 4. Write a prediction about what will happen in each dish. Store your dishes as your teacher directs. Record your observations. Follow your teacherâs directions for disposal of your dishes. Analysis Was your prediction accurate? What evidence can you cite to support your prediction? If you did not obtain the results you predicted, would you change your testing method or your prediction? Explain. Evaluate the importance of obtaining a result that does not support your prediction. Quick Lab mb06se_bios03.qxd 5/18/07 10:40 AM Page 15 16 CHAPTER 1 The independent variable in the owl experiment is the presence or absence of light. In the owl experiment, the control group hunts in the light, and the experimental group hunts in the dark. In addi- tion to varying the independent variable, a scientist observes or measures another factor called the dependent variable, or respond- ing variable, because it is affected by the independent variable. In the owl experiment, the dependent variable is distance from the owlâs strike to the mouseâs head. Testing the Experiment Some controlled experiments are conducted âblind.â In other words, the biologist who scores the results is unaware of whether a given subject is part of the experimental or control group. This factor helps eliminate experimenter bias. Experiments should also be repeated, because living systems are variable. Moreover, scien- tists must collect enough data to find meaningful results. COLLECTING AND ANALYZING DATA Most experiments measure a variableâthe dependent variable. This measurement provides quantitative data, data measured in numbers. For example, in the experiment above, scientists mea- sured the distance of an owlâs strike from the preyâs head in cen- timeters, as shown in step of Figure 1-9. An eventâs duration in milliseconds is also an example of quantitative data. Biologists usually score the results of an experiment by using one of their senses. They might see or hear the results of an experiment. Scientists also extend their senses with a micro- scope for tiny objects or a microphone for soft sounds. In the owl experiment, biologists extended their vision with infrared cameras. Analyzing and Comparing Data After collecting data from a field study or an experiment and then organizing it, biologists then analyze the data. In analyzing data, the goal is to determine whether the data are reliable, and whether they support or fail to support the predictions of the hypothesis. To do so, scientists may use statistics to help determine relation- ships between the variables involved. They can then compare their data with other data that were obtained in other similar studies. It is also important at this time to determine possible sources of error in the experiment just per- formed. Scientists usually display their data in tables or graphs when analyzing it. For the owl study, biologists could have made a bar graph such as the one in Figure 1-10, which shows the average distance from the owlâs strike relative to the mouseâs head or the leaf in the light and in the dark. 5 5 0 10 15 20 25 In the light In the dark Average distance from strike (cm) Distance Between Owl Strike and a Mouse or From a Leaf Attached to Mouse 30 Mouse Leaf Mouse Leaf The data below are hypothetical results that might occur from the described owl experiment.The independent variable is the darkness of the room, and the dependent variable is how far the owl struck from the mouseâs head.The data show that the owl strikes more accurately at the mouse in the light but strikes more accurately at the leaf in the dark. FIGURE 1-10 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 17 DRAWING CONCLUSIONS Biologists analyze their tables, graphs, and charts to draw conclu- sions about whether or not a hypothesis is supported, as shown in step of Figure 1-9. The hypothetical owl data show that in the light, owls struck with greater accuracy at the mouse than at the leaf, but in the dark, owls struck with greater accuracy at the leaf than the mouse. Thus, the findings support the hearing hypothe- sis, but not the vision hypothesis. An experiment can only disprove, not prove, a hypothesis. For example, one cannot conclude from the results that the hearing hypothesis is proven to be true. Perhaps the owl uses an unknown smell to strike at the mouse. One can only reject the vision hypothe- sis because it did not predict the results of the experiment correctly. Acceptance of a hypothesis is always tentative in science. The scientific community revises its understanding of phenomena, based on new data. Having ruled out one hypothesis, a biologist will devise more tests to try to rule out any remaining hypotheses. Making Inferences Scientists often draw inferences from data gathered during a field study or experiment. An inference (IN-fuhr-uhns) is a conclusion made on the basis of facts and previous knowledge rather than on direct observations. Unlike a hypothesis, an inference is not directly testable. In the owl study, it is inferred that the owl detects prey from a distance rather than by direct touch. Applying Results and Building Models As shown in Figure 1-11, scientists often apply their findings to solve practical problems. They also build models to represent or describe things. For example in 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick used cardboard balls and wire bars to build physical models of atoms in an attempt to understand the structure of DNA. Mathematical models are sets of equations that describe how dif- ferent measurable items interact in a system. The experimenter can adjust variables to better model the real-world data. CONSTRUCTING A THEORY When a set of related hypotheses is confirmed to be true many times, and it can explain a great amount of data, scientists often reclassify it as a theory. Some examples include the quantum the- ory, the cell theory, or the theory of evolution. People commonly use the word âtheoryâ in a different way than scientists use the word. People may say âItâs just a theoryâ suggesting that an idea is untested, but scientists view a theory as a highly tested, generally accepted principle that explains a vast number of observations and experimental data. 6 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. Biologists often apply their knowledge of the natural world to practical problems. Studies on the owlâs keen ability to locate sounds in space despite background noise are helping biotechnologists and bioengineers develop better solutions for people with impaired hearing, such as the people shown in this picture. FIGURE 1-11 18 CHAPTER 1 COMMUNICATING IDEAS An essential aspect of scientific research is scientists working together. Scientists often work together in research teams or sim- ply share research results with other scientists. This is done by publishing findings in scientific journals or presenting them at sci- entific meetings, as shown in Figure 1-12. Sharing information allows others working independently to verify findings or to con- tinue work on established results. For example, Roger Payne pub- lished the results of his owl experiments in a journal in 1971. Then, other biologists could repeat it for verification or use it to study the mechanisms introduced by the paper. With the growing impor- tance of science in solving societal issues, it is becoming increas- ingly vital for scientists to be able to communicate with the public at large. Publishing a Paper Scientists submit research papers to scientific journals for publica- tion. A typical research paper has four sections. First, the Introduction poses the problem and hypotheses to be investigated. Next, the Materials and Methods describe how researchers proceeded with the experiment. Third, the Results state the findings the experiment presented, and finally, the Discussion gives the significance of the experiment and future directions the scientists will take. Job Description Forensic biolo- gists are scientists who study biological materials to investigate potential crimes and other legal issues against humans and animals. Forensic scientists have knowledge in areas of biology, such as DNA and blood pattern analysis, and work in private sector and public laboratories. Focus On a Forensic Biologist As a law enforcement forensic specialist for the Texas Parks and Wildlife Department, Beverly Villarreal assists the game warden in investigations of fish and wildlife violations, such as illegal hunting and fishing. Villarreal analyzes blood and tissue samples to identify species of animals such as fish, birds, and reptiles. Her work helps game wardens as they enforce state laws regarding hunting and fishing. Most people think of forensic scientists as the glamorous crime investigators on TV, but according to Villarreal real forensic scientists âspend a great deal of time at a lab bench running analysis after analysis.â Many of the methods used in animal forensics, such as DNA sequenc- ing, are also used in human forensics. Education and Skills âĸ High schoolâthree years of science courses and four years of math courses. âĸ Collegeâbachelor of science in biol- ogy, including course work in zoology and genetics, plus experience in per- forming DNA analyses. âĸ Skillsâpatience, attention to detail, and ability to use fine tools. Careers in BIOLOGY Forensic Biologist For more about careers, visit go.hrw.com and type in the keyword HM6 Careers. www.scilinks.org Topic: Scientific Investigations Keyword: HM61358 mb06se_bios03.qxd 5/18/07 10:40 AM Page 18 THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 19 1. What two principles make the scientific method a unique process? 2. Define the roles of observations and hypotheses in science. 3. Summarize the parts of a controlled experiment. 4. Summarize how we make conclusions about the results of an experiment. 5. Why is the phrase, âitâs just a theoryâ misleading? 6. Give another example of a conflict of interest. CRITICAL THINKING 7. Making Hypotheses On a nocturnal owlâs skull, one ear points up, and the other ear points down. Suggest a hypothesis for this observation. 8. Designing Experiments Design an experiment to establish if owls hunt by keen sight or hunt by heat seeking. 9. Calculating Information What was the average distance between the owlâs strike and the mouse if the recorded differences in this experiment were 25, 22, 19, 19, and 15? SECTION 3 REVIEW After scientists submit their papers to a scientific journal, the editors of that journal will send the paper out for peer review. In a peer review, scientists who are experts in the field anonymously read and critique that research paper. They determine if a paper pro- vides enough information so that the experiment can be duplicated and if the author used good experimental controls and reached an accurate conclusion. They also check if the paper is written clearly enough for broad understanding. Careful analysis of each otherâs research by fellow scientists is essential to making scientific progress and preventing scientific dishonesty. HONESTY AND BIAS The scientific community depends on both honesty and good sci- ence. While designing new studies, experimenters must be very careful to prevent previous ideas and biases from tainting both the experimental process and the conclusions. Scientists have to keep in mind that they are always trying to disprove their favorite ideas. Scientists repeat experiments to verify previous findings. This allows for science to have a method for self-correction and it also keeps researchers honest and credible to their peers in the field. Conflict of Interest For most scientists, maintaining a good reputation for collecting and presenting valid data is more important than temporary prestige or income. So, scientists try to avoid any potential conflicts of interest. For example, a scientist who owns a biotechnology company and manufactures a drug would not be the best researcher to critically test that drugâs safety and effectiveness. To avoid this potential con- flict of interest, the scientist allows an unaffected party, such as a research group, to test the drugâs effectiveness. The threat of a potential scandal based on misleading data or conclusions is a pow- erful force in science that helps keep scientists honest and fair. Scientists present their experiments in various forms. The scientists above are presenting their work in the form of a poster at a scientific meeting. FIGURE 1-12 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. The Internet can provide a wealth of scientific information for a report, but the information may not always be credible or accurate. You can use the methods above to check the accuracy and credibility of your sources. SCIENCE TECHNOLOGY SOCIETY SCIENCE ON THE INTERNET: A New Information Age I n the past, students research- ing a science topic would typ- ically begin their research by visiting a library to use printed reference materials, such as encyclopedias. Today, most stu- dents research topics by using a computer and searching for information on the Internet. The Internet can provide students with a wealth of infor- mation. But which Web sites have accurate information, and which Web sites do not? Checking Web Addresses Students should use the Web address, or URL, to establish the Web siteâs credibility. Usually, the domain name can suggest who has published the Web site. Web sites can be pub- lished by governmental agen- cies (ends in âdot govâ or .gov), by educational institutions (ends in âdot eduâ or .edu), by organizations (ends in âdot orgâ or .org), or by commercial businesses (ends in âdot comâ or .com). Government Web sites are usually reliable. Examples of credible governmental Web sites are the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). University and medical school sites are also reliable sources of information. Many organiza- tions that research and teach the public about specific diseases and conditions can also provide reliable information. Examples of such organizations are the American Cancer Society and the American Heart Association. Evaluating Web Sites The credibility of the author of the Web site should also be checked. Make sure the author is not trying to sell anything and is established in his or her field. For example, a health Web siteâs author should be a med- ical professional. It is also important to check the date that the information was posted on the Web to ensure that the information is current. Also, the Web site should provide ref- erences from valid sources, such as scientific journals or govern- ment publications. Finally, the student should always double-check informa- tion between several reliable Web sites. If two or three reliable sites provide the same informa- tion, the student can feel confi- dent in using that information. Web Sites for Students The Internet Connect boxes in this textbook have all been reviewed by professionals at the National Science Teachers Association (NSTA). Students can trust that these sites are reliable sources for science- or health-related topics. REVIEW 1. Which types of Web addresses are the most reliable? 2. List four important features to evaluate when using a Web site for research. 3. Supporting Reasoned Opinions Why do you think a Web site that is advertising a product may not offer accurate information? REVIEW 20 www.scilinks.org Topic: Using the Internet Keyword: HM61589 mb06se_biosts.qxd 5/18/07 10:42 AM Page 20 TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES With proper equipment and good methods, biologists can see, manipulate, and understand the natural world in new ways. Microscopes are one of many useful tools used to unlock natureâs biological secrets. MICROSCOPES AS TOOLS Tools are objects used to improve the performance of a task. Microscopes are tools that extend human vision by making enlarged images of objects. Biologists use microscopes to study organisms, cells, cell parts, and molecules. Microscopes reveal details that otherwise might be difficult or impossible to see. Light Microscopes To see small organisms and cells, biologists typically use a light microscope, such as the one shown in Figure 1-13. A compound light microscope is a microscope that shines light through a spec- imen and has two lenses to magnify an image. To use this micro- scope, one first mounts the specimen to be viewed on a glass slide. The specimen must be thin enough for light to pass through it. For tiny pond organisms, such as the single-celled paramecium, light passing through the organism is not a problem. For thick objects, such as plant stems, biologists must cut thin slices for viewing. There are four major parts of a compound light microscope. For further description of the parts of a micro- scope, see the Appendix. 1. Eyepiece The eyepiece (ocular (AHK-yoo-luhr) lens) magnifies the image, usually 10 times. 2. Objective Lens Light passes through the specimen and then through the objective lens, which is located directly above the specimen. The objective lens enlarges the image of the specimen. Scientists sometimes use stains to make the image easier to see. 3. Stage The stage is a platform that supports a slide holding the specimen. The slide is placed over the opening in the stage of the microscope. 4. Light Source The light source is a light bulb that provides light for viewing the image. It can be either light reflected with a mirror or an incandescent light from a small lamp. SECTION 4 OBJECTIVES â List the function of each of the major parts of a compound light microscope. â Compare two kinds of electron microscopes. â Describe the importance of having the SI system of measurement. â State some examples of good laboratory practice. VOCABULARY compound light microscope eyepiece (ocular lens) objective lens stage light source magnification nosepiece resolution scanning electron microscope transmission electron microscope metric system base unit Compound light microscopes open the human eye to an interesting world including tiny pond organisms, healthy and diseased cells, and the functioning of cell parts. FIGURE 1-13 Objective lens Eyepiece (ocular lens) Stage Light THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 21 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 22 CHAPTER 1 Magnification and Resolution Microscopes vary in powers of magnification and resolution. Magnification is the increase of an objectâs apparent size. Revolving the nosepiece, the structure that holds the set of objective lens, rotates these lenses into place above the specimen. In a typical com- pound light microscope, the most powerful objective lens produces an image up to 100 times (100) the specimenâs actual size. The degree of enlargement is called the power of magnification of the lens. The standard ocular lens magnifies a specimen 10 times (10). To compute the power of magnification of a microscope, the power of magnification of the strongest objective lens (in this case, 100) is multiplied by the power of magnification of the ocular lens (10). The result is a total power of magnification of 1000. Resolution (REZ-uh-LOO-shuhn) is the power to show details clearly in an image. The physical properties of light limit the ability of light microscopes to resolve images, as shown in Figure 1-14a. At pow- ers of magnification beyond about 2,000, the image of the speci- men becomes fuzzy. For this reason, scientists use other microscopes to view very small cellsâThereâs No Such Thing as Sound Scienceâ by By Christie Aschwanden was a lead science writer for FiveThirtyEight. FiveThirtyEight, Science, Dec. 6, 2017 Science is being turned against itself. For decades, its twin ideals of transparency and rigor have been weaponized by those who disagree with results produced by the scientific method. Under the Trump administration, that fight has ramped up again. In a move ostensibly meant to reduce conflicts of interest, Environmental Protection Agency Administrator Scott Pruitt has removed a number of scientists from advisory panels and replaced some of them with representatives from industries that the agency regulates. Like many in the Trump administration, Pruitt has also cast doubt on the reliability of climate science. For instance, in an interview with CNBC, Pruitt said that âmeasuring with precision human activity on the climate is something very challenging to do.â Similarly, Trumpâs pick to head NASA, an agency that oversees a large portion the nationâs climate research, has insisted that research into human influence on climate lacks certainty, and he falsely claimed that âglobal temperatures stopped rising 10 years ago.â Kathleen Hartnett White, Trumpâs nominee to head the White House Council on Environmental Quality, said in a Senate hearing last month that she thinks we âneed to have more precise explanations of the human role and the natural roleâ in climate change. The same entreaties crop up again and again: We need to root out conflicts. We need more precise evidence. What makes these arguments so powerful is that they sound quite similar to the points raised by proponents of a very different call for change thatâs coming from within science. This other movement strives to produce more robust, reproducible findings. Despite having dissimilar goals, the two forces espouse principles that look surprisingly alike: Science needs to be transparent. Results and methods should be openly shared so that outside researchers can independently reproduce and validate them. The methods used to collect and analyze data should be rigorous and clear, and conclusions must be supported by evidence. These are the arguments underlying an âopen scienceâ reform movement that was created, in part, as a response to a âreproducibility crisisâ that has struck some fields of science.1 But theyâre also used as talking points by politicians who are working to make it more difficult for the EPA and other federal agencies to use science in their regulatory decision-making, under the guise of basing policy on âsound science.â Scienceâs virtues are being wielded against it. What distinguishes the two calls for transparency is intent: Whereas the âopen scienceâ movement aims to make science more reliable, reproducible and robust, proponents of âsound scienceâ have historically worked to amplify uncertainty, create doubt and undermine scientific discoveries that threaten their interests. âOur criticisms are founded in a confidence in science,â said Steven Goodman, co-director of the Meta-Research Innovation Center at Stanford and a proponent of open science. âThatâs a fundamental difference â weâre critiquing science to make it better. Others are critiquing it to devalue the approach itself.â Calls to base public policy on âsound scienceâ seem unassailable if you donât know the termâs history. The phrase was adopted by the tobacco industry in the 1990s to counteract mounting evidence linking secondhand smoke to cancer. A 1992 Environmental Protection Agency report identified secondhand smoke as a human carcinogen, and Philip Morris responded by launching an initiative to promote what it called âsound science.â In an internal memo, Philip Morris vice president of corporate affairs Ellen Merlo wrote that the program was designed to âdiscredit the EPA report,â âprevent states and cities, as well as businesses from passing smoking bansâ and âproactivelyâ pass legislation to help their cause. The sound science tactic exploits a fundamental feature of the scientific process: Science does not produce absolute certainty. Contrary to how itâs sometimes represented to the public, science is not a magic wand that turns everything it touches to truth. Instead, itâs a process of uncertainty reduction, much like a game of 20 Questions. Any given study can rarely answer more than one question at a time, and each study usually raises a bunch of new questions in the process of answering old ones. âScience is a process rather than an answer,â said psychologist Alison Ledgerwood of the University of California, Davis. Every answer is provisional and subject to change in the face of new evidence. Itâs not entirely correct to say that âthis study proves this fact,â Ledgerwood said. âWe should be talking instead about how science increases or decreases our confidence in something.â The tobacco industryâs brilliant tactic was to turn this baked-in uncertainty against the scientific enterprise itself. While insisting that they merely wanted to ensure that public policy was based on sound science, tobacco companies defined the term in a way that ensured that no science could ever be sound enough. The only sound science was certain science, which is an impossible standard to achieve. âDoubt is our product,â wrote one employee of the Brown & Williamson tobacco company in a 1969 internal memo. The note went on to say that doubt âis the best means of competing with the âbody of factââ and âestablishing a controversy.â These strategies for undermining inconvenient science were so effective that theyâve served as a sort of playbook for industry interests ever since, said Stanford University science historian Robert Proctor. The sound science push is no longer just Philip Morris sowing doubt about the links between cigarettes and cancer. Itâs also a 1998 action plan by the American Petroleum Institute, Chevron and Exxon Mobil to âinstall uncertaintyâ about the link between greenhouse gas emissions and climate change. Itâs industry-funded groupsâ late-1990s effort to question the science the EPA was using to set fine-particle-pollution air-quality standards that the industry didnât want. And then there was the more recent effort by Dow Chemical to insist on more scientific certainty before banning a pesticide that the EPAâs scientists had deemed risky to children. Now comes a move by the Trump administrationâs EPA to repeal a 2015 rule on wetlands protection by disregarding particular studies. (To name just a few examples.) Doubt merchants arenât pushing for knowledge, theyâre practicing what Proctor has dubbed âagnogenesisâ â the intentional manufacture of ignorance. This ignorance isnât simply the absence of knowing something; itâs a lack of comprehension deliberately created by agents who donât want you to know, Proctor said.2 In the hands of doubt-makers, transparency becomes a rhetorical move. âItâs really difficult as a scientist or policy maker to make a stand against transparency and openness, because well, who would be against it?â said Karen Levy, researcher on information science at Cornell University. But at the same time, âyou can couch everything in the language of transparency and it becomes a powerful weapon.â For instance, when the EPA was preparing to set new limits on particulate pollution in the 1990s, industry groups pushed back against the research and demanded access to primary data (including records that researchers had promised participants would remain confidential) and a reanalysis of the evidence. Their calls succeeded and a new analysis was performed. The reanalysis essentially confirmed the original conclusions, but the process of conducting it delayed the implementation of regulations and cost researchers time and money. Delay is a time-tested strategy. âGridlock is the greatest friend a global warming skeptic has,â said Marc Morano, a prominent critic of global warming research and the executive director of ClimateDepot.com, in the documentary âMerchants of Doubtâ (based on the book by the same name). Moranoâs site is a project of the Committee for a Constructive Tomorrow, which has received funding from the oil and gas industry. âWeâre the negative force. Weâre just trying to stop stuff.â Some of these ploys are getting a fresh boost from Congress. The Data Quality Act (also known as the Information Quality Act) was reportedly written by an industry lobbyist and quietly passed as part of an appropriations bill in 2000. The rule mandates that federal agencies ensure the âquality, objectivity, utility, and integrity of informationâ that they disseminate, though it does little to define what these terms mean. The law also provides a mechanism for citizens and groups to challenge information that they deem inaccurate, including science that they disagree with. âIt was passed in this very quiet way with no explicit debate about it â that should tell you a lot about the real goals,â Levy said. But whatâs most telling about the Data Quality Act is how itâs been used, Levy said. A 2004 Washington Post analysis found that in the 20 months following its implementation, the act was repeatedly used by industry groups to push back against proposed regulations and bog down the decision-making process. Instead of deploying transparency as a fundamental principle that applies to all science, these interests have used transparency as a weapon to attack very particular findings that they would like to eradicate. Now Congress is considering another way to legislate how science is used. The Honest Act, a bill sponsored by Rep. Lamar Smith of Texas,3 is another example of what Levy calls a âTrojan horseâ law that uses the language of transparency as a cover to achieve other political goals. Smithâs legislation would severely limit the kind of evidence the EPA could use for decision-making. Only studies whose raw data and computer codes were publicly available would be allowed for consideration. That might sound perfectly reasonable, and in many cases it is, Goodman said. But sometimes there are good reasons why researchers canât conform to these rules, like when the data contains confidential or sensitive medical information.4 Critics, which include more than a dozen scientific organizations, argue that, in practice, the rules would prevent many studies from being considered in EPA reviews.5 It might seem like an easy task to sort good science from bad, but in reality itâs not so simple. âThereâs a misplaced idea that we can definitively distinguish the good from the not-good science, but itâs all a matter of degree,â said Brian Nosek, executive director of the Center for Open Science. âThere is no perfect study.â Requiring regulators to wait until they have (nonexistent) perfect evidence is essentially âa way of saying, âWe donât want to use evidence for our decision-making,ââ Nosek said. Most scientific controversies arenât about science at all, and once the sides are drawn, more data is unlikely to bring opponents into agreement. Michael Carolan, who researches the sociology of technology and scientific knowledge at Colorado State University, wrote in a 2008 paper about why objective knowledge is not enough to resolve environmental controversies. âWhile these controversies may appear on the surface to rest on disputed questions of fact, beneath often reside differing positions of value; values that can give shape to differing understandings of what âthe factsâ are.â Whatâs needed in these cases isnât more or better science, but mechanisms to bring those hidden values to the forefront of the discussion so that they can be debated transparently. âAs long as we continue down this unabashedly naive road about what science is, and what it is capable of doing, we will continue to fail to reach any sort of meaningful consensus on these matters,â Carolan writes. The dispute over tobacco was never about the science of cigarettesâ link to cancer. It was about whether companies have the right to sell dangerous products and, if so, what obligations they have to the consumers who purchased them. Similarly, the debate over climate change isnât about whether our planet is heating, but about how much responsibility each country and person bears for stopping it. While researching her book âMerchants of Doubt,â science historian Naomi Oreskes found that some of the same people who were defending the tobacco industry as scientific experts were also receiving industry money to deny the role of human activity in global warming. What these issues had in common, she realized, was that they all involved the need for government action. âNone of this is about the science. All of this is a political debate about the role of government,â she said in the documentary. These controversies are really about values, not scientific facts, and acknowledging that would allow us to have more truthful and productive debates. What would that look like in practice? Instead of cherry-picking evidence to support a particular view (and insisting that the science points to a desired action), the various sides could lay out the values they are using to assess the evidence. For instance, in Europe, many decisions are guided by the precautionary principle â a system that values caution in the face of uncertainty and says that when the risks are unclear, it should be up to industries to show that their products and processes are not harmful, rather than requiring the government to prove that they are harmful before they can be regulated. By contrast, U.S. agencies tend to wait for strong evidence of harm before issuing regulations. Both approaches have critics, but the difference between them comes down to priorities: Is it better to exercise caution at the risk of burdening companies and perhaps the economy, or is it more important to avoid potential economic downsides even if it means that sometimes a harmful product or industrial process goes unregulated? In other words, under what circumstances do we agree to act on a risk? How certain do we need to be that the risk is real, and how many people would need to be at risk, and how costly is it to reduce that risk? Those are moral questions, not scientific ones, and openly discussing and identifying these kinds of judgment calls would lead to a more honest debate. Science matters, and we need to do it as rigorously as possible. But science canât tell us how risky is too risky to allow products like cigarettes or potentially harmful pesticides to be sold â those are value judgements that only humans can make.Plant cells have three kinds of structures that are not found in animal cells and that are extremely important to plant survival: plastids, central vacuoles, and cell walls. PLANT CELLS Most of the organelles and other parts of the cell just described are common to all eukaryotic cells. However, plant cells have three additional kinds of structures that are extremely important to plant function: cell walls, large central vacuoles, and plastids. To understand why plant cells have structures not found in ani- mal cells, consider how a plantâs lifestyle differs from an animalâs. Plants make their own carbon-containing molecules directly from carbon taken in from the environment. Plant cells take carbon diox- ide gas from the air, and in a process called photosynthesis, they convert carbon dioxide and water into sugars. The organelles and structures in plant cells are shown in Figure 4-21. SECTION 4 OBJECTIVES â List three structures that are present in plant cells but not in animal cells. â Compare the plasma membrane, the primary cell wall, and the secondary cell wall. â Explain the role of the central vacuole. â Describe the roles of plastids in the life of a plant. â Identify features that distinguish prokaryotes, eukaryotes, plant cells, and animal cells. VOCABULARY cell wall central vacuole plastid chloroplast thylakoid chlorophyll Chloroplast Golgi apparatus Mitochondrion Cell membrane Nucleolus Nucleus Cytoskeleton Rough endoplasmic reticulum Pore Smooth endoplasmic reticulum Central vacuole Ribosome Cell wall In addition to containing almost all of the types of organelles that animal cells contain, plant cells contain three unique features. Those features are the cell wall, the central vacuole, and plastids, such as chloroplasts. FIGURE 4-21 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 88 CHAPTER 4 CELL WALL The cell wall is a rigid layer that lies outside the cellâs plasma membrane. Plant cell walls contain a carbohydrate called cellulose. Cellulose is embedded in a matrix of proteins and other carbohy- drates that form a stiff box around each cell. Pores in the cell wall allow water, ions, and some molecules to enter and exit the cell. Primary and Secondary Cell Walls The main component of the cell wall, cellulose, is made directly on the surface of the plasma membrane by enzymes that travel along the membrane. These enzymes are guided by microtubules inside the plasma membrane. Growth of the primary cell wall occurs in one direction, based on the orientation of the microtubules. Other components of the cell wall are made in the ER. These materials move in vesicles to the Golgi and then to the cell surface. Some plants also produce a secondary cell wall. When the cell stops growing, it secretes the secondary cell wall between the plasma membrane and the primary cell wall. The secondary cell wall is very strong but can no longer expand. The wood in desks and tabletops is made of billions of secondary cell walls. The cells inside the walls have died and disintegrated. CENTRAL VACUOLE Plant cells may contain a reservoir that stores large amounts of water. The central vacuole is a large, fluid-filled organelle that stores not only water but also enzymes, metabolic wastes, and other materials. The central vacuole, shown in Figure 4-22, forms as other smaller vacuoles fuse together. Central vacuoles can make up 90 percent of the plant cellâs volume and can push all of the other organelles into a thin layer against the plasma membrane. When water is plentiful, it fills a plantâs vacuoles. The cells expand and the plant stands upright. In a dry period, the vacuoles lose water, the cells shrink, and the plant wilts. Other Vacuoles Some vacuoles store toxic materials. The vacuoles of acacia trees, for example, store poisons that provide a defense against plant-eating ani- mals. Tobacco plant cells store the toxin nicotine in a storage vacuole. Other vacuoles store plant pigments, such as the colorful pigments found in rose petals. The central vacuole occupies up to 90 percent of the volume of some plant cells. The central vacuole stores water and helps keep plant tissue firm. FIGURE 4-22 Central vacuole Nucleus Chloroplast Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. CELL STRUCTURE AND FUNCTION 89 PLASTIDS Plastids are another unique feature of plant cells. Plastids are organelles that, like mitochondria, are surrounded by a double mem- brane and contain their own DNA. There are several types of plastids, including chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and leucoplasts. Chloroplasts Chloroplasts use light energy to make carbohydrates from carbon dioxide and water. As Figure 4-23 shows, each chloroplast contains a system of flattened, membranous sacs called thylakoids. Thylakoids contain the green pigment chlorophyll, the main mole- cule that absorbs light and captures light energy for the cell. Chloroplasts can be found not only in plant cells but also in a wide variety of eukaryotic algae, such as seaweed. Chloroplast DNA is very similar to the DNA of certain photosyn- thetic bacteria. Plant cell chloroplasts can arise only by the divi- sion of preexisting chloroplasts. These facts may suggest that chloroplasts are descendants of ancient prokaryotic cells. Like mitochondria, chloroplasts are also thought to be the descendants of ancient prokaryotic cells that were incorporated into plant cells through a process called endosymbiosis. Chromoplasts Chromoplasts are plastids that contain colorful pigments and that may or may not take part in photosynthesis. Carrot root cells, for example, contain chromoplasts filled with the orange pigment carotene. Chromoplasts in flower petal cells contain red, purple, yellow, or white pigments. Other Plastids Several other types of plastids share the general features of chloro- plasts but differ in content. For example, amyloplasts store starch. Chloroplasts, chromoplasts, and amyloplasts arise from a common precursor, called a proplastid. Thylakoid Inner membrane Outer membrane chloroplast from the Greek chloros, meaning âpale green,â and plastos, meaning âformedâ Word Roots and Origins A chloroplast captures energy from sunlight and uses that energy to convert carbon dioxide and water into sugar and other carbohydrates. FIGURE 4-23 Copyright Š by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 90 CHAPTER 4 COMPARING CELLS All cells share common features, such as a cell membrane, cyto- plasm, ribosomes, and genetic material. But there is a high level of diversity among cells, as shown in Figure 4-24. There are signifi- cant differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes. In addition, plant cells have features that are not found in animal cells. Prokaryotes Versus Eukaryotes Prokaryotes differ from eukaryotes in that prokaryotes lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles. Prokaryotes have a region, called a nucleoid, in which their genetic material is concen- trated. However, prokaryotes lack an internal membrane system. Plant Cells Versus Animal Cells Three unique features distinguish plant cells from animal cells. One is the production of a cell wall by plant cells. Plant cells contain a large central vacuole. Third, plant cells contain a variety of plastids, which are not found in animal cells. Cell walls, central vacuoles, and plastids are unique features that are important to plant function. 1. Identify three unique features of plant cells. 2. List the differences between the plasma mem- brane, the primary cell wall, and the secondary cell wall. 3. Identify three functions of plastids. 4. Name three things that may be stored in vacuoles. 5. Describe the features that distinguish prokary- otes from eukaryotes and plant cells from animal cells. CRITICAL THINKINGBiomedical Engineering Flashcard 1 Q: What is biomedical engineering? A: The field that designs medical solutions (devices, implants, machines, medicines) to improve health. Flashcard 2 Q: How many bones does an adult have? A: 206 bones. Flashcard 3 Q: How many bones are humans born with? A: About 270 bones. Flashcard 4 Q: What is a prosthetic? A: An artificial device used to replace a missing body part. Flashcard 5 Q: What must engineers consider when designing prosthetics? A: Connection to the body Communication with the body Life-like movement Flashcard 6 Q: What is internal fixation? A: Hardware attached inside the body directly to the bone to repair it. Flashcard 7 Q: Examples of internal fixation? A: Rods, screws, plates, pins, bone grafts. Flashcard 8 Q: What is external fixation? A: Supports outside the body used to stabilize bones while they heal. Flashcard 9 Q: Examples of external fixation? A: Casts, braces, slings, external screws. Flashcard 10 Q: What is biocompatibility? A: Materials that can safely exist in the body without causing harm or rejection. Circulatory System Flashcard 11 Q: What is the job of the circulatory system? A: Deliver oxygen and nutrients and remove wastes from cells. Flashcard 12 Q: What do arteries do? A: Carry blood away from the heart. Flashcard 13 Q: What do veins do? A: Carry blood back to the heart. Flashcard 14 Q: What do capillaries do? A: Exchange oxygen, nutrients, and waste with tissues. Flashcard 15 Q: What are the 4 main components of blood? A: Plasma Red blood cells White blood cells Platelets Flashcard 16 Q: Name 3 circulatory diseases. A: Arteriosclerosis Hypertension (high blood pressure) Coronary heart disease Flashcard 17 Q: What lifestyle choices increase circulatory disease risk? A: Tobacco use Alcohol use Poor nutrition Physical inactivity Obesity Stem Cells Flashcard 18 Q: What are stem cells? A: Cells that can develop into many different specialized cell types. Flashcard 19 Q: Why is embryonic stem cell research controversial? A: Because it involves destroying embryos, which some believe is destroying human life. pH and Indicators Flashcard 20 Q: What pH number is an acid? A: Below 7. Flashcard 21 Q: What pH number is neutral? A: 7. Flashcard 22 Q: What pH number is a base? A: Above 7. Flashcard 23 Q: Examples of pH indicators? A: Litmus paper Red cabbage indicator Anthocyanins Hydrogels Flashcard 24 Q: What is a hydrogel? A: A material made of polymer chains that can hold large amounts of water. Flashcard 25 Q: Examples of hydrogels? A: Gelatin Collagen Alginate Fireworks Flashcard 26 Q: What are the 4 main parts of fireworks? A: Oxidizer, fuel, binder, metal salt. Flashcard 27 Q: What color does Barium produce? A: Light green. Flashcard 28 Q: What color does Copper produce? A: Blue-green. Flashcard 29 Q: What color does Strontium produce? A: Dark red. Flashcard 30 Q: What color does Potassium produce? A: Light purple. Flashcard 31 Q: What color does Lithium produce? A: Orange-red. Flashcard 32 Q: What effect does Iron produce in fireworks? A: Sparks.LESSON 3 Characteristics of Living Things Learning Objectives âĸ Describe each characteristic of life âĸ Relate each characteristic of life with how first forms of life evolved What sets living things apart from nonliving things? Organisms are equipped with different characteristics that allow them to grow, adapt, survive, and perpetuate. These include the ability to metabolize, respond to stimuli, interact, and reproduce, among others What are the characteristics of life? Try to look at your surroundings and identify the living things that you see. You have probably identified a lot. Many scientists believe that there are more than 10 million kinds of living things that exist on Earth today. But the question is, how can something be considered living? There are certain characteristics that all living things exhibit: the characteristics of life. Living things are made up of cells. They metabolize, grow and develop, respond to stimulus, adapt to their environment, and reproduce. Living Things Are Made up of Cells All living things are made up of cells. Cells are the basic building blocks of all living things. Each cell contains materials that carry out basic life processes such as respiration. In the 1600s, an argument against the theory of spontaneous generation was made. Italian physician and biologist Francesco Redi disproved the theory that all living things come from nonliving things. Cells have different properties and characteristics. The cell theory describes the properties of all cells. There are three tenets of the cell theory: 1. The cell is the basic unit of life. 2. All living things are composed of one or more cells. 3. All cells arise from preexisting cells. The discovery of the cell is largely attributed to Robert Hooke. Upon examining a piece of cork using a microscope that he built, Hooke observed tiny compartments that he called "cells" (from the Latin word cella, meaning "little room"). Matthias Schleiden suggested that all structural parts of plants are made up of cells. In 1839, Theodore Schwann stated that along with plants, all animals were composed of cells. From these conclusions about plants and animals, advancement on the study of animal parts and functions began. In 1855, Rudolf Virchow included the idea that all cells came from preexisting cells. Some living things are made up of only single cells. Single-celled or unicellular organisms include bacteria, some protists, and some fungi. Even though composed of single cells, these organisms carry out all the functions necessary for life. Most living things such as animals and plants, are multicellular organisms. They are composed of many cells, which are grouped together and perform specific tasks in the body. In different organisms, cells also vary in sizes, shapes, parts, and functions. There are two kinds of organisms according to their cell structure, the prokaryotes and eukaryotes (figure 5-3). Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that lack a membrane-bound nucleus, mitochondria, and all other organelles. Its name comes from the Greek words pro, which means "before," and karyon, which means "nut or kernel." Eukaryotes are organisms with cells that contain membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. The nucleus of a eukaryotic cell contains the genetic material (DNA), enclosed by a nuclear envelope. Other membrane-bound organelles are mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, and chloroplast found in photosynthetic organisms such as algae and plants. There are also unicellular eukaryotes known as protozoa. All other eukaryotes are multicellular organisms, such as plants, animals, and fungi. Living Things Metabolize Essential chemical reactions in life can be best described as building up (anabolism) and breaking down (catabolism) processes. In anabolism, the substances needed by organisms to grow, store energy, and repair tissues are synthesized. In contrast in catabolism, some complex substances are broken down, releasing the energy stored in their molecules. This happens in food digestion. This chemical building up and breaking down processes are collectively called metabolism. Metabolism, from the Greek word metabole meaning "change," is the sum total of all the life-sustaining chemical reactions in living things. It allows living things to grow, maintain their structures and functions, and respond to stimuli. Living Things Grow and Develop Growth and development are not new concepts to many. In all living things, growth involves the increase in one's size or height. However, growth is not just an increase in physical structure. It also involves complex changes in an organism. Growth and development occur rapidly from younger stages of life to maturity. In humans, animals, and plants, distinct changes brought by growth and development can be dearly identified. Microorganisms such as bacteria also undergo growth and development until they reach their maximum size and maturity. A life span is the average length of time a aving thing can live. Living things have different life spans. Humans have average life spectancy of 60 to 70 years, while some plants, such as the narra trees, can live for more than 100. Living Things Respond to Stimuli All living things respond to stimuli the environment. This responsiveness Increases survivability. Stimulus (plural: uli) is any signal or change in he environment of an organism that produces a response or reaction from that organism. Responses to stimuli depend on an organism's need. Responding to stimuli also maintains homeostasis in living things. Homeostasis is the internal balance of a body system. This balance is needed for the proper function and regulation of the living thing's body. For example, when a person is in a warmer environment, the body sweats, keeping the body maintain a temperature suited for the normal function of the body. Living Things Interact No living thing can live alone. Interaction among organisms is simultaneously happening on Earth. From the smallest microorganisms to the biggest organism, and from the North Pole to the South Pole of Earth, all are connected in one living system. An ecosystem is formed when a community of organisms interacts with another community and with their environment. Many processes and interactions, such as in a feeding relationship, life cycle, and the exchange of gases between plants and animals, occur in the ecosystem. These are some of the important processes needed to maintain life on Earth. Living Things Reproduce The ability of living things to produce offspring of their kind is called reproduction. Reproduction is not an individual organism's need, rather, it is for the species' perpetuation. In some cases, animals become extinct because of their inability to reproduce their kind. Higher forms of plants and animals reproduce through sexual reproduction. Sexual reproduction involves the union of sex cells or gametes-the egg cell from a female organism and the sperm cell from a male organism. This union gives rise to a new individual with characteristics or traits from both parents. Other simple organisms, such as bacteria and plants, can reproduce asexually. These organisms give rise to a new individual from their body. A bacterial cell divided in two through asexual reproduction gives rise to new bacteria, as shown in figure 5-5. A yeast can form buds that later on become separate individual. Plants grow new plants using their stem, leaf, and roots. Both sexual and asexual reproductions have important functions. In both cases, the genetic material (DNA) is passed on from one generation to the next, ensuring the survival of the species on Earth. 1. Bacteria copy their DNA by starting at any point on the circular chromosomes. 2. The two copies of DNA attach to the inside wall of the bacterial cell. 3. The cell starts to divide, forming a new membrane and cell wall. 4. The bacterial cell splits into two separate cells, each with their own DNA. Living Things Adapt and Evolve All living things can adapt to their environment. This adaptation is necessary for rvival. Adaptation depends on the need of an individual. A polar bear, for example, would not be able to survive in an extremely cold environment without its capacity adapt. Adaptation is any response or reaction toward a stimulus that helps in the survival of an organism. A seed-eating bird will eventually eat a worm when there are seeds to be found. This change in food choice is therefore its adapting mechanism. Prolonged adaptation to certain environments may lead to the gradual evolution of the succeeding generations. Evolution is the gradual change in organisms over a long period in response to changing environment. Living Things Are Organized Life on Earth exhibits organization. The atom is the smallest unit of matter, lowed by molecules, which are combinations of atoms. When these molecules are grouped together, they form a cell. The cell is the basic unit of life. In multicellular organisms, such as plants and animals, cells are grouped as tissues to perform specific Functions. Different tissues can be grouped further and form organs. Organs in animals include the heart, brain, and lungs, among others. The organs form organ systems that makes the function of the body more complex and efficient. Organ systems form the whole organism. All living things exhibit organization, whether they are unicellular or multicellular organisms.. Introduction to Free Fall A free-falling object is an object that is falling under the sole influence of gravity. Any object that is being acted upon only by the force of gravity is said to be in a state of free fall. There are two important motion characteristics that are true of free-falling objects: âĸ Free-falling objects do not encounter air resistance. âĸ All free-falling objects (on Earth) accelerate downwards at a rate of 9.8 m/s/s (often approximated as 10 m/s/s for back-of-the-envelope calculations) Because free-falling objects are accelerating downwards at a rate of 9.8 m/s/s, a ticker tape trace or dot diagram of its motion would depict an acceleration. The dot diagram at the right depicts the acceleration of a free-falling object. The position of the object at regular time intervals - say, every 0.1 second - is shown. The fact that the distance that the object travels every interval of time is increasing is a sure sign that the ball is speeding up as it falls downward. Recall from an earlier lesson, that if an object travels downward and speeds up, then its acceleration is downward. Free-fall acceleration is often witnessed in a physics classroom by means of an ever-popular strobe light demonstration. The room is darkened and a jug full of water is connected by a tube to a medicine dropper. The dropper drips water and the strobe illuminate the falling droplets at a regular rate - say once every 0.2 seconds. Instead of seeing a stream of water free-falling from the medicine dropper, several consecutive drops with increasing separation distance are seen. The pattern of drops resembles the dot diagram shown in the graphic at the right. The Acceleration of Gravity It was learned in the previous part of this lesson that a free-falling object is an object that is falling under the sole influence of gravity. A free-falling object has an acceleration of 9.8 m/s/s, downward (on Earth). This numerical value for the acceleration of a free-falling object is such an important value that it is given a special name. It is known as the acceleration of gravity - the acceleration for any object moving under the sole influence of gravity. A matter of fact, this quantity known as the acceleration of gravity is such an important quantity that physicists have a special symbol to denote it - the symbol g. The numerical value for the acceleration of gravity is most accurately known as 9.8 m/s2. There are slight variations in this numerical value (to the second decimal place) that are dependent primarily upon on altitude. We will occasionally use the approximated value of 10 m/s2 in order to reduce the complexity of the many mathematical tasks that we will perform with this number. By so doing, we will be able to better focus on the conceptual nature of physics without too much of a sacrifice in numerical accuracy. g = 9.8 m/s2, downward Look It Up! Even on the surface of the Earth, there are local variations in the value of the acceleration of gravity (g). These variations are due to latitude, altitude and the local geological structure of the region. Recall from an earlier lesson that acceleration is the rate at which an object changes its velocity. It is the ratio of velocity change to time between any two points in an object's path. To accelerate at 9.8 m/s2 means to change the velocity by 9.8 m/s each second. If the velocity and time for a free-falling object being dropped from a position of rest were tabulated, then one would note the following pattern. Time (s) Velocity (m/s) 0 0 1 - 9.8 2 - 19.6 3 - 29.4 4 - 39.2 5 - 49.0 . Observe that the velocity-time data above reveal that the object's velocity is changing by 9.8 m/s each consecutive second. That is, the free-falling object has an acceleration of approximately 9.8 m/s2. Another way to represent this acceleration of 9.8 m/s2 is to add numbers to our dot diagram that we saw earlier in this lesson. The velocity of the ball is seen to increase as depicted in the diagram at the right. (NOTE: The diagram is not drawn to scale - in two seconds, the object would drop considerably further than the distance from shoulder to toes.) Representing Free Fall by Graphs âĸ Early in Lesson 1 it was mentioned that there are a variety of means of describing the motion of objects. One such means of describing the motion of objects is through the use of graphs - position versus time and velocity vs. time graphs. In this part of Lesson 5, the motion of a free-falling motion will be represented using these two basic types of graphs. Representing Free Fall by Position-Time Graphs A position versus time graph for a free-falling object is shown below. Observe that the line on the graph curves. As learned earlier, a curved line on a position versus time graph signifies an accelerated motion. Since a free-falling object is undergoing an acceleration (g = 9.8 m/s/s), it would be expected that its position-time graph would be curved. A further look at the position-time graph reveals that the object starts with a small velocity (slow) and finishes with a large velocity (fast). Since the slope of any position vs. time graph is the velocity of the object (as learned in Lesson 3), the small initial slope indicates a small initial velocity and the large final slope indicates a large final velocity. Finally, the negative slope of the line indicates a negative (i.e., downward) velocity. Representing Free Fall by Velocity-Time Graphs A velocity versus time graph for a free-falling object is shown below. Observe that the line on the graph is a straight, diagonal line. As learned earlier, a diagonal line on a velocity versus time graph signifies an accelerated motion. Since a free-falling object is undergoing an acceleration (g = 9,8 m/s/s, downward), it would be expected that its velocity-time graph would be diagonal. A further look at the velocity-time graph reveals that the object starts with a zero velocity (as read from the graph) and finishes with a large, negative velocity; that is, the object is moving in the negative direction and speeding up. An object that is moving in the negative direction and speeding up is said to have a negative acceleration (if necessary, review the vector nature of acceleration). Since the slope of any velocity versus time graph is the acceleration of the object (as learned in Lesson 4), the constant, negative slope indicates a constant, negative acceleration. This analysis of the slope on the graph is consistent with the motion of a free-falling object - an object moving with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s/s in the downward direction. The Kinematic Equations The goal of this first unit has been to investigate the variety of means by which the motion of objects can be described. The variety of representations that we have investigated includes verbal representations, pictorial representations, numerical representations, and graphical representations (position-time graphs and velocity-time graphs). In Lesson 6, we will investigate the use of equations to describe and represent the motion of objects. These equations are known as kinematic equations. There are a variety of quantities associated with the motion of objects - displacement (and distance), velocity (and speed), acceleration, and time. Knowledge of each of these quantities provides descriptive information about an object's motion. For example, if a car is known to move with a constant velocity of 22.0 m/s, North for 12.0 seconds for a northward displacement of 264 meters, then the motion of the car is fully described. And if a second car is known to accelerate from a rest position with an eastward acceleration of 3.0 m/s2 for a time of 8.0 seconds, providing a final velocity of 24 m/s, East and an eastward displacement of 96 meters, then the motion of this car is fully described. These two statements provide a complete description of the motion of an object. However, such completeness is not always known. It is often the case that only a few parameters of an object's motion are known, while the rest are unknown. For example as you approach the stoplight, you might know that your car has a velocity of 22 m/s, East and is capable of a skidding acceleration of 8.0 m/s2, West. However you do not know the displacement that your car would experience if you were to slam on your brakes and skid to a stop; and you do not know the time required to skid to a stop. In such an instance as this, the unknown parameters can be determined using physics principles and mathematical equations (the kinematic equations). The BIG 4 The kinematic equations are a set of four equations that can be utilized to predict unknown information about an object's motion if other information is known. The equations can be utilized for any motion that can be described as being either a constant velocity motion (an acceleration of 0 m/s/s) or a constant acceleration motion. They can never be used over any time period during which the acceleration is changing. Each of the kinematic equations include four variables. If the values of three of the four variables are known, then the value of the fourth variable can be calculated. In this manner, the kinematic equations provide a useful means of predicting information about an object's motion if other information is known. For example, if the acceleration value and the initial and final velocity values of a skidding car is known, then the displacement of the car and the time can be predicted using the kinematic equations. Lesson 6 of this unit will focus upon the use of the kinematic equations to predict the numerical values of unknown quantities for an object's motion. The four kinematic equations that describe an object's motion are: There are a variety of symbols used in the above equations. Each symbol has its own specific meaning. The symbol d stands for the displacement of the object. The symbol t stands for the time for which the object moved. The symbol a stands for the acceleration of the object. And the symbol v stands for the velocity of the object; a subscript of i after the v (as in vi) indicates that the velocity value is the initial velocity value and a subscript of f (as in vf) indicates that the velocity value is the final velocity value. Each of these four equations appropriately describes the mathematical relationship between the parameters of an object's motion. As such, they can be used to predict unknown information about an object's motion if other information is known. In the next part of Lesson 6 we will investigate the process of doing this. Kinematic Equations and Problem-Solving The four kinematic equations that describe the mathematical relationship between the parameters that describe an object's motion were introduced in the previous part of Lesson 6. The four kinematic equations are: In the above equations, the symbol d stands for the displacement of the object. The symbol t stands for the time for which the object moved. The symbol a stand for the acceleration of the object. And the symbol v stands for the instantaneous velocity of the object; a subscript of i after the v (as in vi) indicates that the velocity value is the initial velocity value and a subscript of f (as in vf) indicates that the velocity value is the final velocity value. Problem-Solving Strategy In this part of Lesson 6 we will investigate the process of using the equations to determine unknown information about an object's motion. The process involves the use of a problem-solving strategy that will be used throughout the course. The strategy involves the following steps: 1. Construct an informative diagram of the physical situation. 2. Identify and list the given information in variable form. 3. Identify and list the unknown information in variable form. 4. Identify and list the equation that will be used to determine unknown information from known information. 5. Substitute known values into the equation and use appropriate algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. 6. Check your answer to ensure that it is reasonable and mathematically correct. The use of this problem-solving strategy in the solution of the following problem is modeled in Examples A and B below. Example Problem A . Ima Hurryin is approaching a stoplight moving with a velocity of +30.0 m/s. The light turns yellow, and Ima applies the brakes and skids to a stop. If Ima's acceleration is -8.00 m/s2, then determine the displacement of the car during the skidding process. (Note that the direction of the velocity and the acceleration vectors are denoted by a + and a - sign.) The solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. Note that the vf value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since Ima's car comes to a stop. The initial velocity (vi) of the car is +30.0 m/s since this is the velocity at the beginning of the motion (the skidding motion). And the acceleration (a) of the car is given as - 8.00 m/s2. (Always pay careful attention to the + and - signs for the given quantities.) The next step of the strategy involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the displacement of the car. So d is the unknown quantity. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = +30.0 m/s vf = 0 m/s a = - 8.00 m/s2 d = ?? The next step of the strategy involves identifying a kinematic equation that would allow you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. In general, you will always choose the equation that contains the three known and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are vf, vi, a, and d. Thus, you will look for an equation that has these four variables listed in it. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top right contains all four variables. vf2 = vi2 + 2 âĸ a âĸ d Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step of the strategy involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. (0 m/s)2 = (30.0 m/s)2 + 2 âĸ (-8.00 m/s2) âĸ d 0 m2/s2 = 900 m2/s2 + (-16.0 m/s2) âĸ d (16.0 m/s2) âĸ d = 900 m2/s2 - 0 m2/s2 (16.0 m/s2)*d = 900 m2/s2 d = (900 m2/s2)/ (16.0 m/s2) d = (900 m2/s2)/ (16.0 m/s2) d = 56.3 m The solution above reveals that the car will skid a distance of 56.3 meters. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. It takes a car a considerable distance to skid from 30.0 m/s (approximately 65 mi/hr) to a stop. The calculated distance is approximately one-half a football field, making this a very reasonable skidding distance. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for displacement and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed it is! Example Problem B Ben Rushin is waiting at a stoplight. When it finally turns green, Ben accelerated from rest at a rate of a 6.00 m/s2 for a time of 4.10 seconds. Determine the displacement of Ben's car during this time period. Once more, the solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step of the strategy involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. Note that the vi value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since Ben's car is initially at rest. The acceleration (a) of the car is 6.00 m/s2. And the time (t) is given as 4.10 s. The next step of the strategy involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the displacement of the car. So d is the unknown information. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = 0 m/s t = 4.10 s a = 6.00 m/s2 d = ?? The next step of the strategy involves identifying a kinematic equation that would allow you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. Again, you will always search for an equation that contains the three known variables and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are t, vi, a, and d. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top left contains all four variables. d = vi âĸ t + ÂŊ âĸ a âĸ t2 Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step of the strategy involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. d = (0 m/s) âĸ (4.1 s) + ÂŊ âĸ (6.00 m/s2) âĸ (4.10 s)2 d = (0 m) + ÂŊ âĸ (6.00 m/s2) âĸ (16.81 s2) d = 0 m + 50.43 m d = 50.4 m The solution above reveals that the car will travel a distance of 50.4 meters. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. A car with an acceleration of 6.00 m/s/s will reach a speed of approximately 24 m/s (approximately 50 mi/hr) in 4.10 s. The distance over which such a car would be displaced during this time period would be approximately one-half a football field, making this a very reasonable distance. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for displacement and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed, it is! The two example problems above illustrate how the kinematic equations can be combined with a simple problem-solving strategy to predict unknown motion parameters for a moving object. Provided that three motion parameters are known, any of the remaining values can be determined. In the next part of Lesson 6, we will see how this strategy can be applied to free fall situations. Or if interested, you can try some practice problems and check your answer against the given solutions. Kinematic Equations and Free Fall As mentioned in Lesson 5, a free-falling object is an object that is falling under the sole influence of gravity. That is to say that any object that is moving and being acted upon only be the force of gravity is said to be "in a state of free fall." Such an object will experience a downward acceleration of 9.8 m/s/s. Whether the object is falling downward or rising upward towards its peak, if it is under the sole influence of gravity, then its acceleration value is 9.8 m/s/s. Like any moving object, the motion of an object in free fall can be described by four kinematic equations. The kinematic equations that describe any object's motion are: The symbols in the above equation have a specific meaning: the symbol d stands for the displacement; the symbol t stands for the time; the symbol a stands for the acceleration of the object; the symbol vi stands for the initial velocity value; and the symbol vf stands for the final velocity. Applying Free Fall Concepts to Problem-Solving There are a few conceptual characteristics of free fall motion that will be of value when using the equations to analyze free fall motion. These concepts are described as follows: âĸ An object in free fall experiences an acceleration of -9.8 m/s/s. (The - sign indicates a downward acceleration.) Whether explicitly stated or not, the value of the acceleration in the kinematic equations is -9.8 m/s/s for any freely falling object. âĸ If an object is merely dropped (as opposed to being thrown) from an elevated height, then the initial velocity of the object is 0 m/s. âĸ If an object is projected upwards in a perfectly vertical direction, then it will slow down as it rises upward. The instant at which it reaches the peak of its trajectory, its velocity is 0 m/s. This value can be used as one of the motion parameters in the kinematic equations; for example, the final velocity (vf) after traveling to the peak would be assigned a value of 0 m/s. âĸ If an object is projected upwards in a perfectly vertical direction, then the velocity at which it is projected is equal in magnitude and opposite in sign to the velocity that it has when it returns to the same height. That is, a ball projected vertically with an upward velocity of +30 m/s will have a downward velocity of -30 m/s when it returns to the same height. These four principles and the four kinematic equations can be combined to solve problems involving the motion of free-falling objects. The two examples below illustrate application of free fall principles to kinematic problem-solving. In each example, the problem solving strategy that was introduced earlier in this lesson will be utilized. Example Problem A Luke Autbeloe drops a pile of roof shingles from the top of a roof located 8.52 meters above the ground. Determine the time required for the shingles to reach the ground. The solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. You might note that in the statement of the problem, there is only one piece of numerical information explicitly stated: 8.52 meters. The displacement (d) of the shingles is -8.52 m. (The - sign indicates that the displacement is downward). The remaining information must be extracted from the problem statement based upon your understanding of the above principles. For example, the vi value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since the shingles are dropped (released from rest; see note above). And the acceleration (a) of the shingles can be inferred to be -9.8 m/s2 since the shingles are free-falling (see note above). (Always pay careful attention to the + and - signs for the given quantities.) The next step of the solution involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the time of fall. So t is the unknown quantity. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = 0.0 m/s d = -8.52 m a = - 9.8 m/s2 t = ?? The next step involves identifying a kinematic equation that allows you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. In general, you will always choose the equation that contains the three known and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are d, vi, a, and t. Thus, you will look for an equation that has these four variables listed in it. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top left contains all four variables. d = vi âĸ t + ÂŊ âĸ a âĸ t2 Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. -8.52 m = (0 m/s) âĸ (t) + ÂŊ âĸ (-9.8 m/s2) âĸ (t)2 -8.52 m = (0 m) *(t) + (-4.9 m/s2) âĸ (t)2 -8.52 m = (-4.9 m/s2) âĸ (t)2 (-8.52 m)/(-4.9 m/s2) = t2 1.739 s2 = t2 t = 1.32 s The solution above reveals that the shingles will fall for a time of 1.32 seconds before hitting the ground. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. The shingles are falling a distance of approximately 10 yards (1 meter is pretty close to 1 yard); it seems that an answer between 1 and 2 seconds would be highly reasonable. The calculated time easily falls within this range of reasonability. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for time and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed it is! Example Problem B Rex Things throws his mother's crystal vase vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 26.2 m/s. Determine the height to which the vase will rise above its initial height. Once more, the solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. You might note that in the statement of the problem, there is only one piece of numerical information explicitly stated: 26.2 m/s. The initial velocity (vi) of the vase is +26.2 m/s. (The + sign indicates that the initial velocity is an upwards velocity). The remaining information must be extracted from the problem statement based upon your understanding of the above principles. Note that the vf value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since the final state of the vase is the peak of its trajectory (see note above). The acceleration (a) of the vase is -9.8 m/s2 (see note above). The next step involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the displacement of the vase (the height to which it rises above its starting height). So d is the unknown information. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = 26.2 m/s vf = 0 m/s a = -9.8 m/s2 d = ?? The next step involves identifying a kinematic equation that would allow you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. Again, you will always search for an equation that contains the three known variables and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are vi, vf, a, and d. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top right contains all four variables. vf2 = vi2 + 2 âĸ a âĸ d Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. (0 m/s)2 = (26.2 m/s)2 + 2 âĸ(-9.8m/s2) âĸd 0 m2/s2 = 686.44 m2/s2 + (-19.6 m/s2) âĸd (-19.6 m/s2) âĸ d = 0 m2/s2 -686.44 m2/s2 (-19.6 m/s2) âĸ d = -686.44 m2/s2 d = (-686.44 m2/s2)/ (-19.6 m/s2) d = 35.0 m The solution above reveals that the vase will travel upwards for a displacement of 35.0 meters before reaching its peak. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. The vase is thrown with a speed of approximately 50 mi/hr (merely approximate 1 m/s to be equivalent to 2 mi/hr). Such a throw will never make it further than one football field in height (approximately 100 m), yet will surely make it past the 10-yard line (approximately 10 meters). The calculated answer certainly falls within this range of reasonability. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for displacement and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed, it is! Kinematic equations provide a useful means of determining the value of an unknown motion parameter if three motion parameters are known. In the case of a free-fall motion, the acceleration is often known. And in many cases, another motion parameter can be inferred through a solid knowledge of some basic kinematic principles.