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Q 1/82
Score 0
Why is osteomyelitis so difficult to treat?
60
Too many WBC's can get into the infected site , Once pathogens are introduced to the infected site antibiotics won't work anymore.
The bone plate will not close completely causing future fractures to the patient, a deficet in calcium will cause pain to the patient.
Hard to get sufficient levels of antibiotics to the area, Bone breakdown from infection impairs bone strength, once pathogens are introduced, it is hard for WBC's to get to them.
It's difficult to treat due to their age, ethnicity and reason for the fracture, It's hard for osteoblasts to travel to the site of fracture and help in repair
Q 2/82
Score 0
What is the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis (OA)?
60
cartilage destruction from physical wear and tear
multiple fractures in the affected joint
excess joint fluid puts pressure on the joint tissues
autoimmune cartilage destruction
82 questions
Q.
Why is osteomyelitis so difficult to treat?
1
60 sec
Q.
What is the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis (OA)?
2
60 sec
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Joint involvement is usually bilateral
3
60 sec
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obesity can cause it due to stress on the joint
4
60 sec
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Most often affects the base of the great toe
5
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can be classified as a metabolic disorder since theres usually increased uric acid production or clearence
6
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what causes a stress fracture
7
30 sec
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Why are diabetics particularly prone to infections?
8
30 sec
Q.
Burn injuries make patients more prone to infections because:
9
30 sec
Q.
Which diabetics usually have enough insulin receptors but make little or no insulin?
10
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ncreased histamine production makes most skin irritations of an allergic origin feel itchy.
11
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Why do many with type 2 diabetes often have increased levels of insulin before they become diabetic?
12
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Small areas of erythema without openings/breaks, on the skin of someone at risk for a decubitus ulcer usually requires no attention or treatment.
13
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What could result if a displaced fracture isn't properly reduced?
14
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What is the most common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion?
15
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A 54-year-old patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is evaluated for syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH). Which electrolyte imbalance would be expected in this patient?
16
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A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with SIADH. What severe complication should the nurse assess for?
17
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While checking the lab results for a patient diagnosed with Graves’ disease, the nurse would expect the T3 level to be abnormally:
18
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A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with a closed head injury sustained in a motorcycle accident. The injury has caused severe damage to the posterior pituitary. Which of the following complications should the nurse anticipate?
19
60 sec
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Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus (DM), and SIADH share which of the following assessment manifestations?
20
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Which assessment result would the nurse expect to find associated with a patient diagnosed with Graves’ disease?
21
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A patient diagnosed with Graves’ disease is admitted to a medical-surgical unit. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find before treatment?
22
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Which hypothyroid diagnosis is supported by low levels of TSH?
23
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When considering hypothyroidism, the basal metabolic rate is unusually:
24
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A patient diagnosed with thyroid carcinoma would be expected to have T3 and T4 levels that are:
25
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A 45-year-old diagnosed with Graves’ disease underwent surgical removal of the thyroid gland. During the postoperative period, the patient’s serum calcium is low. The most probable reason for her low serum calcium is:
26
60 sec
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What causes the chronic microvascular and macrovascular complications of DM?
27
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Which condition is considered the ultimate cause of death in the patient with diabetes?
28
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A nurse checks lab results as both Cushing disease and Addison disease can manifest with elevated levels of:
29
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Which of the following alterations would the nurse expect to find in a patient with untreated Cushing disease or syndrome?
30
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Which physical feature supports the diagnosis of Cushing syndrome?
31
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A 35-year-old female took corticosteroid therapy for several months. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?
32
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What is the most common cause of Addison disease?
33
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Which symptom would the nurse expect in a patient diagnosed with hyperaldosteronism?
34
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Q.
The incidence of fractures of the pelvis is highest in:
35
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What is a pathologic fracture
36
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What's a comminuted fracture
37
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what do you do when a patients is getting pain, pallor, and no pulse down their cast?
38
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Q.
What term is used to describe a torn ligament?
39
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what term is used to describe a torn tendon
40
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Q.
A 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone:
41
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When a 70-year-old female presents with a hip fracture she is diagnosed with osteoporosis. One factor that most likely contributed to her condition is:
42
60 sec
Q.
Osteomalacia is a result of:
43
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Q.
A 56-year-old male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomalacia. History reveals that he underwent bariatric surgery 3 years earlier. What is the common link between the surgery and the development of osteomalacia?
44
60 sec
Q.
A disorder that occurs in growing bones of children is termed:
45
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Q.
What is the primary organism responsible for osteomyelitis?
46
60 sec
Q.
Osteoarthritis, a degenerative joint disease, is characterized by loss of:
47
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Q.
what kind of arthritis is rheumatoid arthritis ?
48
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A 34-year-old female was recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Physical examination revealed that inflammation is noted in various:
49
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Q.
Which of the following people is at highest risk for the development of gout?
50
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A 46-year-old male diagnosed with gouty arthritis is at high risk for developing:
51
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What is Gout
52
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What is the most common aggravating trigger of gouty arthritis attacks?
53
60 sec
Q.
Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by:
54
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Q.
What are rickets
55
60 sec
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If bones don't restructure correctly what disorder can occur
56
60 sec
Q.
Whats pagets disease
57
60 sec
Q.
What is the most common aggravating trigger of gouty arthritis attacks?
58
60 sec
Q.
Fibromyalgia is a chronic musculoskeletal disorder characterized by:
59
60 sec
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The most common cause of toxic myopathy is:
60
60 sec
Q.
A malignant tumor of striated muscle tissue origin commonly found on the neck is called a:
61
60 sec
Q.
Signs and symptoms of subluxation include: (select all that apply)
62
60 sec
Q.
What are some potential causes of osteoporosis
63
60 sec
Q.
What is the rule of nine
64
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Q.
To promote efficient wound healing, which dressing should be applied to a superficial ulcer?
65
60 sec
Q.
Individuals of which descent are more prone to developing keloids?
66
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A wound scar that is sharply elevated, irregularly shaped, and progressively enlarging is a result of excessive amounts of _____ accumulated during connective tissue repair.
67
60 sec
Q.
What is pruritus?
68
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Q.
A 25-year-old paralyzed male develops a dermal pressure ulcer. When assessing the patient’s skin, which finding is the first indication of this ulcer?
69
60 sec
Q.
result from any unrelieved pressure on the skin causing underlying tissue damage.
70
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whats a vesicles
71
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When assessing a patient diagnosed with localized scleroderma, which changes in the skin will be observed?
72
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Q.
A 13-year-old female is concerned about several pigmented skin lesions on her body. Her primary care provider tells her that these lesions must be monitored because of their ability to transform into malignant melanoma. These lesions are referred to as:
73
60 sec
Q.
A patient wants to know which malignant skin lesion is the most serious. The correct response is:
74
60 sec
Q.
Worse type of skin cancer that is very likely to spread
75
60 sec
Q.
A client is burned through all the dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact. This burn is classified as:
76
60 sec
Q.
Which of the following burns is most painful?
77
60 sec
Q.
A 10-year-old male is playing with matches and gets burned. His burn is waxy white in appearance. This burn is classified as:
78
60 sec
Q.
A 36-year-old male is experiencing frontotemporal hair recession. He is diagnosed with male pattern baldness, which is a form of:
79
60 sec
Q.
In burn injury patients, the rule of nines and the Lund and Browder chart are used to estimate:
80
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Q.
A 70-year-old male nursing home resident developed a dermal pressure ulcer. This condition is most often caused by :
81
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Q.
A 30-year-old female has a history of frequent candidiasis. The area most likely affected includes
