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Place value and different forms relationships

Quiz by Abeer Ahmed

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Q 1/17
Score 0
What is the expanded form of the number 4,582?
30
$4 + 5000 + 800 + 2$
$4000 + 50 + 82$
$4000 + 500 + 80 + 2$
$400 + 5000 + 80 + 2$
Q 2/17
Score 0
What is the value of the digit 6 in the number 36,482?
30
$6000$
$60$
$600$
$6$

17 questions

Q.

What is the expanded form of the number 4,582?

1

30 sec

Q.

What is the value of the digit 6 in the number 36,482?

2

30 sec

Q.

Which of the following represents the number 7,250 in word form?

3

30 sec

Q.

What is the standard form of the number given in words: 'Nine thousand five hundred sixteen'?

4

30 sec

Q.

What is the simplest form of the decimal 0.75 written as a fraction?

5

30 sec

Q.

What is the value of the digit 3 in the number 43,219?

6

30 sec

Q.

Which of the following is the correct place value of the digit 5 in the number 85,742?

7

30 sec

Q.

What is the word form of the number 12,403?

8

30 sec

Q.

What is the expanded form of the number 5,031?

9

30 sec

Q.

How do you write 6,804 in expanded form?

10

30 sec

Q.

What is the place value of the digit 6 in the number 3,654?

11

30 sec

Q.

What is 5,423 written in expanded form?

12

30 sec

Q.

In the number 7,205, what is the value of the digit 2?

13

30 sec

Q.

What is the value of the digit 8 in the number 48,376?

14

30 sec

Q.

What is the difference between the value of the digit 4 in 5,432 and the digit 4 in 4,987?

15

30 sec

Q.

Which of the following is the standard form of the number: 3,000 + 400 + 50 + 6?

16

30 sec

Q.

What is the value of the digit 5 in the number 5,931?

17

30 sec

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Quantitative risk analysis  C. Risk identification  D. Qualitative risk analysis Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #67 You are the project manager for your company and a new change request has been approved for your project. This change request, however, has introduced several new risks to the project. You have communicated these risk events and the project stakeholders understand the possible effects these risks could have on your project. You elect to create a mitigation response for the identified risk events. Where will you record the mitigation response?  A. Risk log  B. Risk management plan  C. Risk register  D. Project management plan Answer: C Question #68 Which positive risk response best describes a teaming agreement?  A. Enhance  B. Exploit  C. Share  D. Venture Answer: C Question #69 Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit youre your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response?  A. Exploiting  B. Positive  C. Opportunistic  D. Enhancing Answer: A Question #70 Which document refers to the steps that must be taken if there is a major gap in the projected delivery quality of a service and the actual delivery?  A. Service Improvement Plan  B. Service Quality Plan  C. Business Service Catalogue  D. Service Level Agreement https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following responsibilities are performed by the core team of IT governance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Provide service feedback to providers.  B. Undertake core tasks.  C. Define plan and deliverables.  D. Report on process. Answer: BCD Question #72 Which of the following IT governance frameworks provides governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI), and is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management?  A. VMM  B. Val IT  C. Risk IT  D. COBIT Answer: B Question #73 Which of the following roles in Service Design is responsible for delivering a particular service within the agreed service levels and also acts as the counterpart of the Service Level Manager when negotiating OLAs?  A. The Service Design Manager  B. The Service Level Manager  C. The Service Owner  D. The Service Catalogue Manager Answer: C Question #74 Harold is the project manager of a large project in his organization. He has been actively communicating and working with the project stakeholders. One of the outputs of the manage stakeholder expectations process can actually create new risk events for Harold's project. Which output of the manage stakeholder expectations process can create risks? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Project management plan updates  B. Project document updates  C. Change requests  D. Organizational process assets updates Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following concepts is the business practice of developing and implementing comprehensive risk management and security practices for a firm's entire value chain?  A. TOGAF  B. TQM  C. BSC  D. TSM Answer: D Question #76 Sensitivity analysis is a technique for systematically changing parameters in a model to determine the effects of such changes and is useful for computer modelers for a range of purposes. Which of the following purposes does the sensitivity analysis include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Decision making or the development of recommendations for decision makers  B. Model development  C. Estimating the average outcome  D. Increased understanding or quantification of the system Answer: ABD Question #77 Beth is an HR Professional for her organization and she's been alerted by management that the company will be outsourcing a large portion of operations. This outsourcing will likely cause several employees to lose employment with the organization. Which of the following is the best course of action that Beth can take in regard to communicating with the employees about the outsourcing change?  A. Be honest and truthful and do not hide the facts.  B. Refer all  C. Document all  D. Don't share the details of the outsourcing decision. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #78 Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Managing the IT workforce.  B. Correcting all risk issues.  C. Conducting IT risk assessments.  D. Developing a strategic plan. Answer: ACD Question #79 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT resources are centralized under a single reporting structure with centralized resource allocation (staffing), and the organizational structure is built around the resource pools?  A. Federated  B. Centralized  C. Project-based  D. Decentralized Answer: C Question #80 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk responses she has created?  A. The level of detail is set by historical information.  B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.  C. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.  D. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk. Answer: B Question #81 strategic plans with business strategic plans and the alignment of IT services with enterprise operations?  A. Risk Management  B. IT Governance Framework  C. Strategic Alignment  D. Value Delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #82 You are the project manager for the ABC organization. Your current project has 75 internal stakeholders and 245 external stakeholders. Many of the risks within your project will only affect the internal stakeholders, but several of the identified risk events will affect the external stakeholders. Management would like to know the total number of communication channels in the project. How many communication channels exist in this project?  A. 245  B. 102,080  C. 51,040  D. 320 Answer: C Question #83 Which of the following is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement and guides process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization?  A. Capability Maturity Model Integration  B. Service Portfolio  C. COBIT  D. Six Sigma Answer: A Question #84 Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project?  A. She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives.  B. She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule  C. She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much a possible.  D. She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule. Answer: D Question #85 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Della works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. She is working with the project stakeholders to begin the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following inputs will be needed for the quantitative risk analysis process in her project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Project scope statement  B. Risk management plan  C. Cost management plan  D. Risk register Answer: BCD Question #86 Which types of project tends to have more well-understood risks?  A. First-of-its kind technology projects  B. State-of-art technology projects  C. Recurrent projects  D. Operational work projects Answer: C Question #87 Marsha is the project manager of the NHQ Project. There's a risk that her project team has identified, which could cause the project to be late by more than a month. Marsha does not want this risk event to happen so she devises extra project activities to ensure that the risk event will not happen. The extra steps, however, will cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response is this approach?  A. Exploiting  B. Transference  C. Mitigation  D. Enhancing Answer: C Question #88 Which of the following frameworks describes a standard for processes within business information management at the strategy, management and operations level?  A. Val IT  B. BISL  C. COBIT  D. TOGAF https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #89 You are the project manager of a large construction project. You are evaluating the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats involved in a project. In which of the following processes are you on?  A. Define Scope  B. Identify Risks  C. Plan Risk Responses  D. Plan Risk Management Answer: B Question #90 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?  A. Repeatable level  B. Managed level  C. Defined level  D. Fundamental level Answer: D Question #91 A project manager must have certain interpersonal skills to communicate with stakeholders and manage their expectations of the project work. Which of the following interpersonal skills has been identified as one of the biggest reasons for project success or failure?  A. Motivation  B. Influencing  C. Political and cultural awareness  D. Communication Answer: D Question #92 TOGAF is based on four pillars, called architecture domains. Which of the following architecture domains provides a blueprint for the individual application systems to be deployed, the interactions between the application systems, and their relationships to the core business processes of the organization with the frameworks for services to be exposed as business functions for integration?  A. Business architecture  B. Applications architecture  C. Technical architecture https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Data architecture Answer: B Question #93 Which of the following external factors complicate the notion of business-IT for achieving strategic alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Resource limitations  B. Economic and regulatory changes  C. World region changes and events  D. Market changes Answer: BCD Question #94 You are hosting a collection of stakeholders from across the organization to identify the ideas and attitudes about your company's help desk. You want the stakeholders to honestly share their opinions about the help desk service so you can identify problems, solutions, and take actions to improve the service. What type of requirements elicitation activity is this?  A. Root cause analysis  B. Stakeholder analysis  C. Focus groups  D. Workshop Answer: C Question #95 Which of the following are the main objectives of the Performance measurement domain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. It satisfies the customer's need.  B. It defines value creation roles within IT.  C. It meets out the goals.  D. It statistically controls the process sequences. Answer: ACD Question #96 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! You work as a project manager for TechSoft Inc. You are working with the project stakeholders on the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. You have used all the tools to the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. Which of the following techniques is NOT used as a tool in qualitative risk analysis process?  A. Risk Data Quality Assessment  B. Risk Categorization  C. Risk Reassessment  D. Risk Urgency Assessment Answer: C Question #97 Paul has been asked to complete SWOT analysis for his solution scope. What does SWOT analysis mean?  A. Stakeholder Weaknesses, Organizational Threats  B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats  C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Time  D. Stakeholders Weaknesses, Organization, Threats Answer: B Volume B Question #1 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are about to complete the quantitative risk analysis process for your project. You can use three available tools and techniques to complete this process. Which one of the following is NOT a tool or technique that is appropriate for the quantitative risk analysis process?  A. Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques  B. Organizational process assets  C. Expert judgment  D. Data gathering and representation techniques Answer: B Question #2 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be known as what term?  A. Cost-benefits analysis  B. Benchmarking https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Cost of conformance to quality  D. Team development Answer: C Question #3 Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling?  A. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA)  B. Service-oriented architecture (SOA)  C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)  D. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) Answer: D Question #4 Which of the following processes involves choosing the alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan?  A. Scope Change control  B. Monitor and Control risk  C. Integrated Change control  D. Configuration Management Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following architecture domains for TOGAF describes the structure of an organization's logical and physical data assets and the associated data management resources?  A. Applications architecture  B. Technical architecture  C. Data architecture  D. Business architecture Answer: C Question #6 Which volume provides guidance on clarification and prioritization of service-provider investments in services?  A. Service Operation  B. Service Strategy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Service Design  D. Service Management Answer: B Question #7 Which of the following problems occur with performance measurement systems that limit their usefulness? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. It is dependent on gross aggregates, which tend to understate or ignore distributional contributions and consequences.  B. It is dependent on the timely occurrence of corrective action which is required for effective management control.  C. It is dependent on historical patterns and reluctant to accept new structural changes that are capable of generating different outcomes  D. It is dependent on summary data, which emphasizes averages and discounts outliers. Answer: ACD Question #8 You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?  A. Risk utility function  B. Mitigation-ready project management  C. Risk-reward mentality  D. Risk avoidance Answer: A Question #9 Which of the following techniques is used for understanding the "environment" in which a business operates?  A. Critical success factor analysis  B. PEST analysis  C. SWOT analysis  D. Market segmentation Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #10 Which of the following process groups is the most efficient at providing resources to the development of the procurement process?  A. Acquisition process  B. Contract management  C. Process management  D. Resource management Answer: A Question #11 You are working with your project stakeholders to identify risks within the JKP Project. You want to use an approach to engage the stakeholders to increase the breadth of the identified risks by including internally generated risk. Which risk identification approach is most suited for this goal?  A. Brainstorming  B. Assumptions analysis  C. SWOT analysis  D. Delphi Technique Answer: C Question #12 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders, some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?  A. Communications Management Plan  B. Risk Response Plan  C. Project Management Plan  D. Risk Management Plan Answer: A Question #13 As seen from the perspective of how the enterprise defines and executes business strategies to achieve its goals and objectives, which of the following elements does the ERM comprise of? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Enhancing risk response decisions  B. Providing integrated responses to few risks  C. Reducing operational surprises and losses https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Aligning risk appetite and strategy Answer: ACD Question #14 You work as the project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are monitoring the project performance. You want to make a decision to change the project plan to eliminate a risk in order to protect the project objectives. Which of the following strategies will you use to tackle the risk?  A. Risk mitigation  B. Risk avoidance  C. Risk acceptance  D. Risk transference Answer: B Question #15 Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?  A. RACI chart  B. Roles and responsibility matrix  C. Work breakdown structure  D. Resource breakdown structure Answer: D Question #16 You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?  A. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.  B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.  C. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.  D. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible. Answer: D Question #17 Lisa is the project manager of the FKN project for her organization. She is working with Sam, the CIO, to discuss a discount the vendor has offered the project based on the amount of materials that is ordered. Lisa and Sam review the offer and agree that while their project may qualify for the discounted materials the savings is nominal and they https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! would not necessarily pursue the savings. Lisa documents this positive risk response in the risk register. What risk response is this?  A. Share  B. Acceptance  C. Enhance  D. Transference Answer: B Question #18 You are the project manager of the GHY Project and would like to perform a review of your project from several different characteristics. You would like to review what worked in the project and what needed improvement. What type of analysis would be most appropriate for the end of project review?  A. Feasibility study  B. Product breakdown  C. Business case study  D. SWOT analysis Answer: D Question #19 Which of the following best describes the identification, analysis, and ranking of risks?  A. Plan Risk management  B. Design of experiments  C. Fixed-price contracts  D. Fast tracking Answer: A Question #20 There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?  A. Risk management plan  B. Risk register  C. Enterprise environmental factors  D. Cost management plan Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #21 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes is fully developed and optimized across the enterprise, and a well-built IT portfolio management process is put to ensure that all IT investment decisions are themselves optimized?  A. Stage 2-Fragmented  B. Stage 4-Best practices  C. Stage 3-Consistent  D. Stage 1-Ad hoc Answer: B Question #22 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would best help you?  A. Plan risk responses  B. Create a risk governance approach  C. Create the project risk register  D. Monitor and control project risks Answer: A Question #23 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project. Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project?  A. Acceptance  B. Enhance  C. Sharing  D. Exploiting Answer: A Question #24 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to perform at an agreed level over a period of time? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Reliability  B. Security  C. Recoverability  D. Serviceability  E. Resilience  F. Maintainability  G. Error control Answer: ABCDEF Question #25 Your project team has identified a project risk that must be responded to. The risk has been recorded in the risk register and the project team has been discussing potential risk responses for the risk event. The event is not likely to happen for several months but the probability of the event is high. Which one of the following is a valid response to the identified risk event?  A. Risk audit  B. Earned value management  C. Corrective action  D. Technical performance measurement Answer: C Question #26 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _________ provides investment management services to the firm and directs on how to take decisions on fund. Answer: fund manager Question #27 You are the business analyst for the YGT Organization. You have just completed a capabilities gap assessment and have determined that your organization does not have the necessary resources and technology to seize a business opportunity. What is the most likely course of action for the organization?  A. Hire contractors to complete the project work.  B. Move onto the next opportunity.  C. Launch a new project.  D. Hire additional resources. Answer: C Question #28 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Stephen is the project manager of the GBB project. He has worked with two subject matter experts and his project team to complete the risk assessment technique. There are approximately 47 risks that have a low probability and a low impact on the project. Which of the following answers best describes what Stephen should do with these risk events?  A. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to the risk register.  B. Because they are low probability and low impact, the risks can be dismissed.  C. Because they are low probability and low impact, Stephen should accept the risks.  D. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watch list for future monitoring. Answer: D Question #29 Which of the following is a continuous process of comparing performance with desired objectives to identify opportunities for improvement, and is conducted by individuals, groups, or organizations relating to their own work?  A. Management Assessment  B. Continuous improvement  C. Self Assessment  D. Control Answer: C Question #30 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _______ portion of the issue log records the previous pending issues that have been taken care of. Answer: resolved issues Question #31 In which of the following methods of risk mitigation does the senior management approve the implementation of the controls that are recommended by the risk management team, and that will lower the risk to an acceptable level?  A. Risk Avoidance  B. Risk Alleviation  C. Risk Limitation  D. Risk Transference Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #32 A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it'll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event?  A. Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart.  B. Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist.  C. Add the identified risk to the risk register.  D. Add the identified risk to the issues log. Answer: C Question #33 Which of the following are the tasks performed by the Management committee in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. To work on architectural design  B. To define value creation roles within IT  C. To balance sustain/growth proposals  D. To manage complex projects Answer: ACD Question #34 Which of the following steps are performed in the Planning phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Plan the risk-based assurance initiatives.  B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives.  C. Perform a quick risk assessment.  D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ACD Question #35 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management describes the ability to model the IT Portfolio with metrics most appropriate to the business such as ROI, Break- Even, Cost Avoidance, and Revenue Return?  A. Integrated Capability  B. Portfolio What-If Planning https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards  D. Highly Configurable Answer: D Question #36  A. Strategic Alignment  B. Risk Management  C. Value Delivery  D. IT Governance Framework Answer: D Question #37 Which of the following frameworks is for enterprise architecture, and provides a comprehensive approach to the design, planning, implementation, and governance of an enterprise information architecture?  A. TOGAF  B. Val IT  C. BISL  D. COBIT Answer: A Question #38 Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which of the following processes?  A. Change Management, Capacity Management, Event Management, and Service Request Management  B. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management  C. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release Management, and Request Fulfillment  D. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following processes is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships relating to components of the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure?  A. Service Catalogue Management  B. Service Level Management  C. ICT Operations Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Service Asset and Configuration Management Answer: D Question #40 You are the project manager of the GHG project for your company. You have identified the project risks, completed qualitative and quantitative analysis, and created risk responses. You also need to document how and when risk audits will be performed in the project. Where will you define the frequency of risk audits?  A. Schedule management plan  B. Risk management plan  C. Quality management plan  D. Risk response plan Answer: B Question #41 What stakeholder(s) must participate in the document elicitation result?  A. Business analyst and the key stakeholders  B. Business analyst and the business owner  C. Business analyst, business analysis team, and the key stakeholders  D. Business analyst Answer: D Question #42 You are the HR Professional for your organization and you're working with the management to define the role of contractors versus employees in your organization. According to the Internal Revenue Service, there are three categories of control that help determine whether a person is a contractor or an employee. Which one of the following is not one of the three levels of control as defined by the IRS for employee versus contractor?  A. Type of relationship  B. Locale of work performed  C. Behavioral control  D. Financial control Answer: B Question #43 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Holly and Gary are HR Professionals in their organization and they're working to develop the strategic plan for their organization. Holly and Gary are using SWOT analysis to help understand the needs of human, financial, technological, capital, and other aspects of their organization. What is SWOT?  A. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats an organization may face.  B. SWOT is an analysis to define the schedule, weaknesses, opportunities, and timetable of a project endeavor.  C. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, openness, and timeliness of an organization.  D. SWOT is an analysis to define the seriousness, weaknesses, openness, and timetable of organization development. Answer: A Question #44 DRAG DROP - COBIT stands for Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology. COBIT is a set of best practices (framework) for information technology (IT) management created by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI) in 1996. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Monitor and Evaluate') next to the IT processes defined by COBIT to support CSI. Select and Place: Answer: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #45 What is the key output handed over to Service Transition within Service Design?  A. Business Perspective  B. Service Portfolio Management  C. ITIL Small-Scale Implementation  D. Service Design Package Answer: D Question #46 Which of the following processes are covered by Service Strategy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Service Portfolio Management  B. IT Financial Management  C. Demand Management  D. IT Architecture Management  E. Supplier Management Answer: ABCE Question #47 Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?  A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)  B. Exposure Factor (EF)  C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)  D. Safeguard Answer: C Question #48 Which of the following concepts is used to reduce the errors produced during the manufacturing or service process, increase customer satisfaction, streamline supply chain management, aims for modernization of equipment and ensures workers have the highest level of training?  A. Balanced Scorecard (BSC)  B. Six Sigma  C. Total Quality Management  D. Total Security Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #49 Enterprise analysis provides many things for an organization. All of the following are tasks included in enterprise analysis except for which one?  A. Solution performance assessment  B. Define business need  C. Determine solution approach  D. Assess capability gaps Answer: A Question #50 Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?  A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.  B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.  C. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.  D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project. Answer: C Question #51 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?  A. Decision analysis  B. Alternative generation  C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints  D. Ranking of approaches Answer: B Question #52 Service Level Management provides for continual identification, monitoring and review of the levels of IT services specified in the service level agreements (SLAs). What are the responsibilities of Service Level Management? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Producing and maintaining a Service Catalog.  B. Liaising with Availability Management. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Ensuring that the agreed IT services are delivered.  D. Ensuring the primary functions of the Service Desk.  E. Ensuring that appropriate IT Service Continuity plans have been made. Answer: ABCE Question #53 You are the project manager of a computer upgrade project. You and the vendor are in dispute over the deliverables the vendor was to provide and configure. What document can best describe how you and the vendor are to proceed if there is a claim against the vendor?  A. Procurement management plan  B. Project cost management plan  C. Enterprise environmental factors  D. Contract Answer: D Question #54 Which of the following is a way of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcome that customers wish to get without the control of specific costs and risks?  A. Processes  B. Service Desk  C. Functions  D. Service Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following objectives can be the best coordinated with the Human resource management?  A. Increasing the automation of the business processes  B. Satisfying the business needs  C. Rewarding employee fairly  D. Focusing on the business improvements Answer: B Question #56 Which of the following steps are performed in the Scoping phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Customize control objectives.  B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives.  C. Select the control objectives for critical processes.  D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ABC Question #57 Which of the following frameworks describes an enterprise view of all project management activities and how these activities contribute to the success of the organization?  A. Casualty Actuarial Society framework  B. COSO ERM  C. Enterprise project management (EPM)  D. COBIT Answer: C Question #58 Which of the following planned and purposeful management processes are required by Strategic Alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Clarifying the role that IT should play  B. Aligning IT strategy with the business strategy  C. Evaluating, post implementation, benefits delivered by IT  D. Creating and sustaining awareness of the strategic role of IT at a top management level Answer: ACD Question #59 Which of the following terms includes performance objectives and criteria (POCs), performance indicators, and any other means that evaluate the success in achieving a specified goal?  A. Precision  B. Performance Measurement System  C. Performance Measure  D. Performance Measurement Category Answer: C Question #60 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! For the entire IT organizations to be agile, all members of the IT organizations need to understand the need for agility and be committed to this process. Which of the following working principles or activity loops are involved for the IT organizations to be agile? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Loop 2  B. Loop 4  C. Loop3  D. Loop 1 Answer: ACD Question #61 You are interviewing members of a project team to test their understanding of the assigned risk responses as risk owners. You and the project manager are working together to evaluate the risk responses to determine their effectiveness in the project. What project management technique are you performing with the project manager in this scenario?  A. Risk identification with the project team  B. Risk audits  C. Risk analysis  D. Stakeholder analysis as the project team is a stakeholder Answer: B Question #62 Which of the following domains of COBIT addresses the development of a maintenance plan that a company should adopt in order to prolong the life of an IT system and its components?  A. Plan and Organize  B. Acquire and Implement  C. Deliver and Support  D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: B Question #63 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as the discipline by which an organization in any industry assesses, controls, exploits, finances, and monitors risks from all sources for the purpose of increasing the organization's short- and long-term value to its stakeholders?  A. COSO ERM framework  B. COBIT  C. Val IT https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Casualty Actuarial Society framework Answer: D Question #64 Ned is the project manager of the HNN project for your company. Ned has asked you to help him complete some probability distributions for his project. What portion of the project will you most likely use for probability distributions?  A. Uncertainty in values such as duration of schedule activities  B. Risk probability and impact matrixes  C. Bias towards risk in new resources  D. Risk identification Answer: A Question #65 Walter is the project manager of a large construction project. He'll be working with several vendors on the project. Vendors will be providing materials and labor for several parts of the project. Some of the works in the project are very dangerous so Walter has implemented safety requirements for all of the vendors and his own project team. Stakeholders for the project have added new requirements, which have caused new risks in the project. A vendor has identified a new risk that could affect the project if it comes into fruition. Walter agrees with the vendor and has updated the risk register and created potential risk responses to mitigate the risk. What should Walter also update in this scenario considering the risk event?  A. Project contractual relationship with the vendor  B. Project communications plan  C. Project scope statement  D. Project management plan Answer: D Question #66 You are the project manager of the NGQQ Project for your company. To help you communicate project status to your stakeholders, you are going to create a stakeholder register. All of the following information should be included in the stakeholder register except for which one?  A. Stakeholder management strategy  B. Assessment information of the stakeholders' major requirements, expectations, and potential influence  C. Stakeholder classification of their role in the project  D. Identification information for each stakeholder https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #67 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model states that there are no proper IT governance processes, and it is not documented by management as a requirement?  A. Stage 3-Consistent  B. Stage 2-Fragmented  C. Stage 1-Ad hoc  D. Stage 4-Best practices Answer: C Question #68 Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management, and Request Fulfillment are part of which of the following stages of the Service Lifecycle?  A. Service Strategy  B. Service Transition  C. Continual Service Improvement  D. Service Operation Answer: D Question #69 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have to communicate the causes of risk events to the stakeholders. Which risk diagramming technique you will use to communicate the causes of risk events to project stakeholders?  A. Project network diagrams  B. Ishikawa diagrams  C. Process flow charts  D. Influence diagrams Answer: B Question #70 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _______are activities that are dangerous to complete and manage such as construction, electrical work, or manufacturing. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: Pure risks Question #71 What project management plan is most likely to direct the quantitative risk analysis process for a project in a matrix environment?  A. Risk management plan  B. Staffing management plan  C. Risk analysis plan  D. Human resource management plan Answer: A Question #72 The water sanitation project manager has determined that risks associated with handling certain chemicals are too high. He has therefore decided to allow someone else to complete this portion of the project by outsourcing the handling and installation of the chemicals and filter equipment to an experienced contractor. This is an example of which of the following?  A. Transference  B. Acceptance  C. Mitigation  D. Avoidance Answer: A Question #73 Which of the following outsourcing defines the performance objectives reached by negotiation between the user and the provider of a service, or between an outsourcer and an organization?  A. Service level Agreement (SLA)  B. Proposal  C. Contract  D. Outsource Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management seamlessly initiates the projects, and incorporates the asset and software development costs to improve the accuracy of ongoing portfolio assessment and project prioritization?  A. Portfolio Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Portfolio What-If Planning  C. Integrated Capability  D. Portfolio Planning Analysis Answer: C Question #75 Shawn is the project manager of the WHT Project for his company. In this project Shawn's team reports that they have found a way to complete the project work for less cost than what was originally planned. The project team presents a new software that will help to automate the project work. While the software and the associated training costs $25,000 it will save the project nearly $65,000 in total costs. Shawn agrees to the software and changes to the project management plan accordingly. What type of risk response has been used in this instance?  A. Enhancing  B. Accepting  C. Avoidance  D. Exploiting Answer: D Question #76 Which of the following sub-processes of Capacity Management is concerned with the management of the individual components of the IT Infrastructure?  A. Capacity Management Reporting  B. Business Capacity Management  C. Service Capacity Management  D. Resource Capacity Management Answer: D Question #77 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. You are working on NGQQ Project for your company. You have completed the risk analysis processes for the risk events. You and the project team have created risk responses for most of the identified project risks. Which of the following risk response planning techniques will you use to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the responses?  A. Risk transference  B. Risk avoidance  C. Risk acceptance  D. Risk mitigation https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #78 Which of the following are the advantages of IT Resource Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. It develops the IT service quality and effectiveness.  B. It reduces the IT project complexity.  C. It reduces the enterprise risks.  D. It provides customer organization to construct the Request for Proposal (RFP). Answer: ABC Question #79 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers the use of information & technology, and how best it can be used in a company to help achieve the company's goals and objectives?  A. Deliver and Support  B. Acquire and Implement  C. Plan and Organize  D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: C Question #80 Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management?  A. Planning meetings and analysis  B. Variance and trend analysis  C. Data gathering and representation techniques  D. Information gathering techniques Answer: A Question #81 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #82 You are the project manager of a large construction project. Part of the project involves the wiring of the electricity in the building your project is creating. You and the project team determine the electrical work is too dangerous to perform yourself so you hire an electrician to perform the work for the project. This is an example of what type of risk response?  A. Avoidance  B. Mitigation  C. Transference  D. Acceptance Answer: C Question #83 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Gary is the project manager of the MMQ project for his company. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for his project. Sarah, a project team member, does not understand the process that Gary is using to plan the risk responses. Which approach is the preferred method to address project risks and the risk responses?  A. Risks in the project should be addressed by their probability for creating risk responses.  B. Risks in the project should be addressed by the organization's risk tolerance for creating risk responses.  C. Risks in the project should be addressed by their priority for creating risk responses.  D. Risks in the project should be addressed by their impact for creating risk responses. Answer: C Question #84 Which of the following are the main benefits of using Information Services Procurement Library (ISPL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. The contract can be used as a control instrument.  B. The customer can take advantage of the competitive market.  C. The proposals of consumers become comparable.  D. The use of a strategy that really fits the situation. Answer: ABD Question #85 During qualitative risk analysis you want to define the risk urgency assessment. All of the following are indicators of risk priority except for which one?  A. Risk rating  B. Warning signs  C. Cost of the project  D. Symptoms Answer: C Question #86 What does the T in SWOT analysis mean?  A. Time  B. Trial  C. Threats  D. Test https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #87 Which of the following components work to support achievements of the enterprise's mission, strategies, and related business objectives in an internal control system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Control activities  B. Control environment  C. Strategic alignment  D. Risk assessment Answer: ABD Question #88 Which of the following are the objectives of Service Level Management (SLM)? 1. To negotiate SLAs with the customers and to design services in accordance with the agreed service level targets. 2. Defining, documenting, and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided. 3. Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in. 4. Monitoring, measuring, and reporting the actual level of services provided. 5. Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction.  A. 1, 2, and 3 only  B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only  C. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5  D. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only  E. 1 and 2 only Answer: B Question #89 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?  A. Risk management plan  B. Enterprise environmental factors  C. Risk probability and impact matrix  D. Organizational process assets Answer: D Question #90 Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below? System and data are validated. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements.  A. Evaluation and acceptance  B. Programming and training  C. Initiation  D. Definition Answer: A Question #91 Ben is the project manager of the CMH Project for his organization. He has identified a risk that has a low probability of happening, but the impact of the risk event could save the project and the organization with a significant amount of capital. Ben assigns Laura to the risk event and instructs her to research the time, cost, and method to improve the probability of the positive risk event. Ben then communicates the risk event and response to management. What risk response has been used here?  A. Enhance  B. Transference  C. Sharing  D. Exploit Answer: A Question #92 You are the project manager for ABC project. You are planning for when and how human resource requirements will be met. You are working on ____.  A. Scope management plan  B. Project organization chart  C. Staffing management plan  D. Resource calendar Answer: C Question #93 Jeff works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project. Which of the following are the inputs to the identify risks process that Jeff will use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Risk management plan  B. Activity cost estimates  C. Scope baseline https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Risk register Answer: ABC Question #94 Which of the following types of agreement creates a confidential relationship between the parties to protect any type of confidential and proprietary information or a trade secret?  A. CNC  B. NDA  C. SLA  D. Non-price competition Answer: B Question #95 Gary is the project manager for his organization. He is working with the project stakeholders on the project requirements and how risks may affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes risks in the project. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a project risk?  A. It is an unknown event that can affect the project scope.  B. It is an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective.  C. It is an uncertain event that can affect the project costs.  D. It is an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. Answer: B Question #96 Which of the following roles is used to ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)?  A. The Service Level Manager  B. The Configuration Manager  C. The IT Security Manager  D. The Change Manager Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #97 Which of the following are commonly used terms when discussing service improvement outcomes? 1) Improvements 2) Benefits 3) Return On Investment (ROI) 4) Value On Investment(VOI) 5) Resources  A. 2, 3, and 5 only  B. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only  C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only  D. 1, 2, and 4 only  E. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: C Question #98 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT identifies resource requirements?  A. PM5  B. PM3  C. PM2  D. PM4 Answer: C Volume C Question #1 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT establishes an investment threshold?  A. PM4  B. PM7  C. PM6  D. PM5 Answer: C Question #2 Which of the following ISO standards defines the corporate governance of IT?  A. ISO 9000 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. ISO 27001  C. ISO 20000  D. ISO 38500 Answer: D Question #3 Which of the following concepts aims to limit errors to 1 per million units produced?  A. TQM  B. BSC  C. Six Sigma  D. TSM Answer: A Question #4 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT establishes the organizational structures?  A. VG7  B. VG9  C. VG6  D. VG8 Answer: A Question #5 Which of the following activity loops describes improvement of the existing processes?  A. Loop 3  B. Loop 4  C. Loop 1  D. Loop 2 Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following strategies includes marketing strategies, new product development strategies, HR strategies and, financial strategies? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Operational strategy  B. Corporate strategy  C. Business strategy  D. Functional strategy Answer: D Question #7 Which of the following phases in SDLC transforms the detailed requirements into complete, detailed system design document?  A. Planning  B. Design  C. Development  D. Initiation Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following phases in SDLC provides the basis for acquiring the resources needed to achieve a solution?  A. Design  B. Planning  C. Development  D. Initiation Answer: B Question #9 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle occurs during the concept and idea stages of basic research?  A. IT asset phase  B. IT discovery phase  C. IT process phase  D. IT project phase Answer: B Question #10 Which of the following steps of development of business case describes the financial benefits analysis?  A. Step 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Step 3  C. Step 2  D. Step 4 Answer: B Question #11 Which of the following is a practice of forecasting possible risks to the organization and taking steps to mitigate their impact on operations?  A. Timekeeping  B. Enterprise risk management  C. Applicant tracking systems  D. HR audit Answer: B Question #12 Which of the following risk functions directs the Sarbanes-Oxley Section 302 and 404 assessments?  A. Operations management  B. Accounting / Financial compliance  C. Operational Quality Assurance  D. Compliance & Ethics Answer: B Question #13 Which of the following project management plans defines the risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring strategies?  A. Communications Management Plan  B. Resource Management Plan  C. Risk Management Plan  D. Stakeholder management strategy Answer: C Question #14 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for policy creation, policy communication, record creation, and HR information systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Compensation and benefit  B. Personnel policy  C. Analysis and design for work  D. Support for strategy Answer: B Question #15 Which of the following resource categories includes costs, productivity, availability, and change and configuration management?  A. Products  B. Processes  C. People  D. Partners Answer: B Question #16 What is the formula for measuring the "usage gap"?  A. Usage gap = market potential - existing usage  B. Usage gap = market potential * existing usage  C. Usage gap = market potential / existing usage  D. Usage gap = market potential + existing usage Answer: A Question #17 Which of the following individuals/team advises on infrastructure needs and architectural design?  A. Management committee  B. CEO  C. CIO  D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #18 In which of the following types of biases does the data collection itself interfere with the process it is measuring? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Interaction  B. Nonresponse  C. Perception  D. Operational Answer: A Question #19 Which of the following categories describes the value added by the process divided by the value of the labor and capital consumed?  A. Quality  B. Timeliness  C. Quantity  D. Productivity Answer: D Question #20 Which of the following processes uses statistical evidences to determine progress toward specific defined organizational objectives?  A. Resource management  B. Risk management  C. Value delivery  D. Performance measurement Answer: D Question #21 Which of the following has the tendency or inclination of outlook that is a troublesome source of error in human sensing?  A. Defect  B. Bias (of measurement)  C. Vulnerability  D. Risk Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following areas tracks the project delivery, and monitors the IT services? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Risk management  B. Performance measurement  C. Strategic alignment  D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #23 Which of the following individuals ensures that IT complies with policy, laws and regulations?  A. Project sponsor  B. Compliance officer  C. Supplier  D. Business partner Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following IT processes contained in the Deliver and Support domain of COBIT manages the operations?  A. DS10  B. DS13  C. DS9  D. DS8 Answer: B Question #25 Which of the following individuals supports and contributes to customer's governance approach?  A. User representatives  B. Supplier/Business partners  C. Compliance officers  D. Project sponsors Answer: B Question #26 Which of the following techniques builds various plausible views of possible futures for a business?  A. PEST analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Scenario Planning  C. SWOT Analysis  D. Market Segmentation Answer: B Question #27 Which of the following areas focuses on aligning with the business and collaborative solutions?  A. Risk management  B. Strategic alignment  C. Resource management  D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #28 Which of the following techniques seeks to identify the similarities and differences between the groups of customers or users?  A. Market Segmentation  B. PEST Analysis  C. SWOT Analysis  D. Scenario Planning Answer: A Question #29 Which of the following areas concentrates on optimizing expenses, and providing the value of IT?  A. Value delivery  B. Risk management  C. Resource management  D. Strategic alignment Answer: A Question #30 Which of the following is used as a tool that assists in risk identification?  A. Performance report  B. Status report https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Variance analysis  D. Issue log Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following is the amount of risk an enterprise is willing to except in pursuit of its mission?  A. Threats  B. Vulnerability  C. Risk Appetite  D. Inherent Risk Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following risks refers to the risk associated with an event in the absence of specific controls?  A. Financial reporting risk  B. Inherent risk  C. Operational risk  D. Compliance risk Answer: B Question #33 Which of the following types of risks includes liability torts, property damage, natural catastrophe and financial risk?  A. Asset risk  B. Hazard risk  C. Operational risk  D. Strategic risk Answer: B Question #34 Which of the following areas addresses the safeguarding of IT assets, disaster recovery and continuity of operations?  A. Performance measurement  B. Risk management  C. Value delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Strategic alignment Answer: B Question #35 Which of the following individuals/team allocates business resources for effective IT governance?  A. Business Executive  B. CEO  C. CIO  D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #36 Which of the following resource categories includes skill sets, certifications, productivity, and morale?  A. Partners  B. Processes  C. People  D. Products Answer: C Question #37 Which of the following attributes are the COBIT's generic maturity model attributes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Policies, plans and procedures  B. Tools and automation  C. Awareness and communication  D. Availability and accessibility Answer: ABC Question #38 Which of the following systems come under the category of linking systems to connect an enterprise with its customers and supplier? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Website and portal  B. Electronic data interchange (EDI)/extensible markup language (XML) data transfer systems https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Office productivity  D. E-mail, smartphone, instant messaging Answer: ABD Question #39 Which of the following steps of IT governance program establishes a balanced scorecard mechanism for measuring current performance that are related to the IT governance focus areas?  A. Define target areas  B. Develop improvement strategies  C. Understand and define the risks  D. Measure results Answer: D Question #40 objectives?  A. Strategic Alignment  B. Performance management  C. Value Delivery  D. Risk Management Answer: A Question #41 Which of the following steps of IT governance program decides on the highest priority projects that will help to improve the management and governance of the significant gap areas?  A. Define target areas  B. Develop improvement strategies  C. Measure results  D. Understand and define the risks Answer: B Question #42 In which of the following components of the COSO ERM are the policies and procedures established and implemented to help ensure that the risk responses are effectively carried out?  A. Control activity https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Risk assessment  C. Risk response  D. Event identification Answer: A Question #43 Which of the following factors influence the operating environment of an enterprise? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Mission, vision and values of an enterprise  B. Outcome measures  C. Stakeholders values  D. Industry practices Answer: ACD Question #44 You are using the IT BSC management tool to apply the practices of IT BSC to the IT function. You want to perform the following functions: ➡ Deliver value ➡ Manage cost ➡Manage risks ➡Achieve intercompany synergies Which process of the IT BSC Measurement tool will you use?  A. Future Orientation  B. Operational excellence  C. Corporate contribution  D. Customer Orientation Answer: C Question #45 Which of the following types of benefits are provided by the new IT-driven initiative for IT investment program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Cost avoidance benefit  B. Direct benefit  C. Indirect benefit  D. Incremental benefit https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: ABD Question #46 Which of the following components of COSO ERM framework encompasses the nature of an enterprise, and sets the basis for how risk is viewed and addressed by an organization people, including risk management philosophy and risk appetite, integrity and ethical values, and the environment in which it operates?  A. Risk response  B. Risk assessment  C. Control activity  D. Internal environment Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following are the categories of IT-related spending or investments defined by the META group? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Grow the business  B. Strategic investment  C. Transform the business  D. Run the business Answer: ACD Question #48 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of cost containment, predictability or reliability, continual unit cost improvement, and benchmarking for justification?  A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth)  B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth)  C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature)  D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) Answer: C Question #49 Which of the following functions are performed by the Future Orientation measure of the IT BSC management tool? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. It focuses on professional learning and development.  B. It attracts and retains people with key competencies.  C. It manages operational service performance.  D. It measures and rewards individual and team performance. Answer: ABD Question #50 Which of the following are the process control objectives for the process controls embedment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Process ownership  B. Process goals and objectives  C. Process repeatability  D. Process availability Answer: ABC Question #51 Which of the following guides provides risk and value statements to help identify and validate the need to execute each control objective?  A. IT assurance guide  B. IT control objectives for Basel II guide  C. COBIT control practices guide  D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: C Question #52 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of anticipation of business needs, service levels over cost, and business enablement and facilitation (removal of obstacles)?  A. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature)  B. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth)  C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature)  D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) Answer: B Question #53 Which of the following components of the COSO ERM identifies the required information, captures it, and communicates it in a form and time frame that enable people to carry out their responsibilities? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Information and communication  B. Internal environment  C. Monitoring  D. Objectives setting Answer: A Question #54 Which of the following statements explains the difference between the IT strategy committee and the IT steering committee?  A. The IT strategy committee assists the executive in the delivery of the IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee advises the board and management on IT strategy.  B. The IT strategy committee focuses on implementation, whereas the IT steering committee focuses on the current and future strategic IT issues.  C. The IT strategy committee aligns and approves the IT architecture, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority conflicts.  D. The IT strategy committee provides direction to management relative to IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following guides provides guidance on how COBIT is useful in supporting a variety of assurance tasks, along with the recommended testing steps that are aligned with the control practices?  A. COBIT control practices guide  B. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide  C. IT assurance guide  D. IT control objectives for Basel II guide Answer: C Question #56 Which of the following examples are included in the general controls embedded in IT processes and services? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Completeness  B. Change management  C. Systems development  D. Accuracy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: BC Question #57 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The ________ creates and delivers momentum in gaining executive support, and provides help to set up messaging that is constantly conveyed to motivate the team, and gives information to the stakeholders. Answer: communication plan Question #58 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to decrease costs or revenues?  A. Increasing production rates  B. Decreasing production and operating costs  C. Improving product quality  D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: ABC Question #59 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to increase costs or revenues? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Erecting barriers to entry by competitors  B. Increasing production rates  C. Improving product quality  D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: AD Question #60 The testing methods help in shaping opinion against assurance objectives by combining one or more of the test types. Which of the following are the test types used in this process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Observe  B. Inspect  C. Plan  D. Inquire Answer: ABD https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #61 Which of the following strategic issues in the IFAC report highlight the underlying success and failure of enterprises? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Ability to provide service feedback to providers  B. Strategy execution  C. Ability to undertake successful mergers and acquisitions  D. Clarity of strategy Answer: BCD Question #62 Which of the following guides emphasizes on the fundamental steps for implementing information security within the enterprise, and provides easy to follow guidance for addressing security aspects of IT governance?  A. COBIT security baseline guide  B. COBIT control practices guide  C. IT assurance guide  D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: A Question #63 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of working well with other functions, IT value realization over time rather than-just cost, and being business process- focused but solution driven?  A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth)  B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth)  C. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature)  D. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) Answer: C Question #64 Which of the following examples are included in the application controls embedded in business process applications? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Segregation of duties  B. Validity  C. Security  D. Computer operations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: AB Question #65 Which of the following individuals provides the funding, and want to see the return on their investment and strategic alignment with their strategic objectives?  A. Compliance officers  B. Internal auditors  C. Business partners  D. Product suppliers Answer: C Question #66 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT defines information requirements?  A. VG6  B. VG4  C. VG5  D. VG3 Answer: C Question #67 Which of the following is a family of ISO standards for Total Quality Management (TQM)?  A. ISO 20000  B. ISO 9000  C. ISO 38500  D. ISO 27001 Answer: B Question #68 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT creates an overall portfolio view?  A. PM8  B. PM7  C. PM9 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. PM10 Answer: C Question #69 Which of the following individuals provides service feedback to the providers?  A. Compliance officers  B. User representatives  C. Project sponsors  D. Suppliers Answer: B Question #70 Which of the following is a non repetitive set of tasks that lead to the achievement of a new objective?  A. Plan  B. Strategy  C. Techniques  D. Tactics Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following activity loops emphasizes on monitoring and deciding processes?  A. Loop 2  B. Loop 4  C. Loop 3  D. Loop 1 Answer: D Question #72 Which of the following activity loops describes creation of new processes?  A. Loop 3  B. Loop 2  C. Loop 4  D. Loop 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #73 In which of the following editions of COBIT was "Management Guidelines" added?  A. The third edition  B. The first edition  C. The fourth edition  D. The second edition Answer: D Question #74 Which of the following service delivery processes includes controls, document and record, as its sub processes?  A. Service level management  B. Service reporting  C. Information security management  D. Capacity management Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle is governed by a series of stages and gates for managing the lifecycle of projects?  A. IT project phase  B. IT process phase  C. IT asset phase  D. IT discovery phase Answer: A Question #76 Which of the following service delivery processes has the goal to produce, agreed on, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the effective communication?  A. Service level management  B. Service reporting  C. Information security management  D. Capacity management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #77 What is the major goal of risk management in the decision-making process?  A. To manage the clients  B. To manage the time  C. To manage the resources  D. To manage the uncertainty Answer: D Question #78 Which of the following types of risks includes currency risk, liquidity risk, and technology obsolescence?  A. Asset risk  B. Operational risk  C. Hazard risk  D. Strategic risk Answer: A Question #79 Which of the following risk functions ensures the product/service alignment with the customer requirements?  A. Accounting  B. Marketing  C. Strategic planning  D. Credit Answer: B Question #80 Which of the following is the process of identifying and assessing factors that may jeopardize the success of a project or the achievement of a goal?  A. Risk retention  B. Risk identification  C. Risk communication  D. Risk analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #81 Which of the following is the process of defining the way work is performed and the tasks that a given job requires?  A. Selection  B. Recruitment  C. Job design  D. Job analysis Answer: C Question #82 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for attitude surveys, labor relation, employee handbook, and labor law compliance?  A. Personnel policy  B. Employee relation  C. Compensation and benefit  D. Analysis and design for work Answer: B Question #83 Which of the following categories measures the health of the organization and the working environment of its employees?  A. Quantity  B. Safety  C. Effectiveness  D. Efficiency Answer: B Question #84 Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?  A. Continual Service Improvement  B. Service Support  C. Service Strategy  D. Governance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D More Questions. Question #1 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for an enterprise when prioritizing IT projects?  A. Results of IT performance benchmarks against competitors  B. Impact on the business due to expected project outcomes  C. Technical capability of the enterprise to execute the projects  D. Process owner expectations based on operational benefits Answer: B Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/3294993/prioritizing-projects.html Question #2 Senior management finds that too many projects are currently in-progress and all are experiencing expensive project overruns due to lack of resources. Many of the projects also appear to overlap in their objectives and expected outcomes. Which of the following would BEST streamline the process of evaluating and selecting funding priorities?  A. Portfolio management  B. Value governance  C. Project management  D. Business case development Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2016/ensuring-value-from-it-enabledinvestments Question #3 The CEO of a large enterprise has announced the commencement of a major business expansion that will double the size of the organization. IT will need to support the expected demand expansion. The CIO should FIRST:  A. update the IT strategic plan to align with the decision.  B. recruit IT resources based on the expansion decision.  C. review the resource utilization matrix.  D. embed IT personnel in the business units. Answer: C Question #4 Portfolio management in a large enterprise BEST enables which of the following? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Performance management  B. Risk reduction  C. Value creation  D. Human resource optimization Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following BEST defines the IT investment activities an enterprise will undertake when aligning to business goals?  A. Portfolio management  B. Procurement management  C. Project management  D. Risk management Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing IT governance in a small, newly established organization?  A. Approving enterprise architecture and standards  B. Defining IT project management methodology  C. Assigning a budget for IT governance applications  D. Assigning IT roles and responsibilities Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2017/using-cobit-in-governmentdepartments Question #7 Which of the following is the BEST method to monitor IT governance effectiveness?  A. Service level management  B. Balanced scorecard  C. Risk control self-assessment  D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis Answer: B Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-6/performance-measurement-metrics-for-itgovernance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #8 An internal auditor conducts an assessment of a two-year-old IT risk management program. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the CIO?  A. Organizational responsibility for IT risk management is not clearly defined.  B. IT risk training records are not properly retained in accordance with established schedules.  C. None of the members of the IT risk management team have risk management-related certifications.  D. Only a few key risk indicators identified by the IT risk management team are being monitored and the rest will be on a phased schedule. Answer: D Question #9 An enterprise has discovered that there is significant duplication of IT investments. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in addressing this issue?  A. Establishing an IT steering committee  B. Delegating IT investment decisions to centralized IT  C. Maintaining an inventory of IT investments  D. Increasing the frequency of IT investment audits Answer: A Question #10 A regulatory audit assessed an enterprise's main transactional application as noncompliant. In addition to fines and required corrections, an agreement was reached to implement a set of governance controls over IT. Accountability for these controls is BEST assigned to which of the following?  A. Internal audit director  B. CIO  C. The board of directors  D. Application users Answer: A Question #11 An enterprise is planning a change in business direction. As a result, IT risk will significantly increase. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST course of action?  A. Plan for the corresponding IT reorganization.  B. Recommend delaying the business change.  C. Report the risk to executive management.  D. Implement IT changes to align with the plan. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #12 Which of the following is the GREATEST expected strategic organizational benefit from the standardization of technical platforms?  A. Reduces IT operational training costs  B. Reduces response time  C. Meets regulatory compliance requirements  D. Optimizes infrastructure investments Answer: D Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=odC_AQAAQBAJ&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=enterprise+IT+expected+strat egic+organizational+benefit+from +the+standardization+of+technical +platforms&source=bl&ots=KnpTgkPPsb&sig=ACfU3U3fIFhOpMt81n2_xEoKhLtDFBmv8g&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKE wjegNiP6PfpAhWOh1wKHQB4AX8Q6AE wCXoECAcQAQ#v=onepage&q=enterprise%20IT%20expected%20strategic%20organizational%20benefit%20from% 20the%20standardization%20of% 20technical%20platforms&f=false Question #13 Which of the following would be the BEST way for an enterprise to address new legal and regulatory requirements applicable to IT?  A. Benchmark how other IT organizations are treating the new requirements.  B. Adopt a zero-tolerance approach for noncompliance with regulatory matters.  C. Treat as a risk to be assessed before developing a response.  D. Use a cost-benefit analysis to determine if compliance is warranted. Answer: D Question #14 Which of the following is MOST critical for sustaining a newly implemented IT governance program?  A. Launch an enterprise-wide IT governance awareness program.  B. Designate a board representative to sponsor the IT governance program.  C. Ensure that there are IT policies, procedures, and standards in place.  D. Benchmark the program periodically against industry peers. Answer: C Question #15 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise decides to accept the IT risk of a subsidiary located in another country even though it exceeds the enterprise's risk appetite. Which of the following would be the BEST justification for this decision?  A. Local market common practices  B. Risk framework alignment  C. Technical gaps among subsidiaries  D. Compliance with local regulations Answer: C Question #16 The board of directors of an enterprise has questioned whether the business is focused on optimizing value. The IT strategy committee's BEST action to address the board's concern is to:  A. initiate reporting and review of key IT performance metrics.  B. form a technology council to monitor the efficiency of project implementation.  C. conduct a portfolio review to assess the benefits realization of IT investments.  D. conduct a benchmark to assess IT value relative to competitors. Answer: A Question #17 Ð Ð¡Ð•Ðž determines the enterprise is lagging behind its competitors in consumer mobile offerings, and mandates an aggressive rollout of several new mobile services within the next 12 months. To ensure the IT organization is capable of supporting this business objective, the enterprise's CIO should FIRST:  A. procure contractors with experience in mobile application development.  B. task direct reports with creating training plans for their teams.  C. create a sense of urgency with the IT team that mobile knowledge is mandatory.  D. request an assessment of current in-house mobile technology skills. Answer: D Question #18 Following a merger of two major corporations, the new strategic goal is "One business function. One IT system." Which of the following should be the FIRST step to achieve this goal?  A. Form a combined IT steering committee.  B. Document requirements for each business function.  C. Create a standard enterprise architecture.  D. Define service level agreements with each business function. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #19 Which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure IT technical competencies support the enterprise?  A. Ensure there is adequate budget for IT technical training.  B. Determine training requirements from customer service satisfaction surveys.  C. Align training requirements to the capabilities needed to support the business strategy.  D. Hold annual job fairs targeting new graduates in IT technical fields. Answer: C Reference: https://www.mckinsey.com/~/media/McKinsey/Industries/Financial%20Services/Our%20Insights/Nextgen%20technology%20transformation%20in% 20financial%20services/Next-gen-technology-transformation-in-financial-services.ashx Question #20 A data governance strategy has been defined by the IT strategy committee which includes privacy objectives related to access controls, authorized use, and data collection. Which of the following should the committee do NEXT?  A. Mandate the creation of a data privacy policy.  B. Establish a data privacy budget.  C. Perform a data privacy impact assessment.  D. Mandate data privacy training for employees. Answer: A Question #21 Once an IT governance framework has been defined, which of the following is the MOST effective approach to align IT to business objectives?  A. Auditing the alignment of IT to business objectives regularly  B. Reviewing the return on investment of IT initiatives on a regular basis  C. Establishing a cross business unit committee to prioritize IT investment  D. Reporting IT investment and performance to senior management regularly Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=r2e7NmwoFGoC&pg=PA137&lpg=PA137&dq=Once+an+IT+governance+fra mework+has+been+defined, +which+of+the+following+is+the+MOST+effective+approach+to+align+IT+to+business +objectives&source=bl&ots=tz7jATmLvQ&sig=ACfU3U1dkpiL5L1JJLfyOORIf9gBtlFSDQ&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj Cqv7_- ffpAhXGN8AKHSOpDoAQ6AEwCnoECAkQAQ#v=onepage&q=Once%20an%20IT%20governance%20framework%20h as%20been%20defined%2C%20which% https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! 20of%20the%20following%20is%20the%20MOST%20effective%20approach%20to%20align%20IT%20to%20busines s%20objectives&f=false Question #22 An IT governance committee is defining a risk management policy for a portfolio of IT-enabled investments. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing the policy?  A. Risk appetite of the enterprise  B. Risk management framework  C. Value obtained with minimum risk  D. Possible investment failures Answer: B Question #23 A contracted company employs key IT systems operational personnel to oversee technology used to manage a critical line of business. Management is concerned that a mass resignation by many disgruntled personnel may lead to a shutdown of these key systems. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY responsibility of IT governance to address this risk?  A. Renegotiate employment agreements to lessen the likelihood of a mass resignation.  B. Cross train management to assume support of the technology.  C. Develop a resourcing strategy that quickly replaces staff.  D. Survey key support staff to determine what is causing them to be disgruntled. Answer: D Question #24 A CIO determines IT investment management processes are not fully realizing the benefits identified in business cases. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent this issue?  A. Document lessons learned throughout the investment life cycle.  B. Perform stage-gate reviews throughout the life cycle of each project.  C. Evaluate the delegation of investment approval authorities.  D. Establish a requirement for CIO review and approval of each business case. Answer: A Question #25 How does an enterprise benefit from implementing a set of key risk indicators (KRIs)?  A. The set of KRIs remains relevant over time.  B. Risk exposures are monitored to ensure they remain within risk appetite. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. The need for a formal risk and control assessment program is eliminated.  D. The frequency of risk data gathering and reporting is minimized. Answer: B Reference: https://www.metricstream.com/insights/Key-Risk-indicators-ERM.htm Question #26 A large retail chain realizes that while there has not been any loss of data, IT security has not been a priority and should become a key goal for the enterprise. What should be the FIRST high-level initiative for a newly created IT strategy committee in order to support this business goal?  A. Modernizing internal IT security practices  B. Identifying gaps in information asset protection  C. Recruiting and training qualified IT security staff  D. Defining data archiving and retrieval policies Answer: B Question #27 A multinational enterprise recently purchased a large company located in a different country. When introducing the concept of governance to the new acquisition, it is MOST important that executive management recognize:  A. the use of international standards.  B. language differences.  C. globally recognized good practices.  D. the impact of cultural changes. Answer: C Question #28 The MOST effective way to ensure that IT supports the agile needs of an enterprise is to:  A. implement open source systems.  B. outsource infrastructure management.  C. develop a robust enterprise architecture.  D. perform process modeling. Answer: D Question #29 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! From an IT governance perspective, which of the following would be the MOST significant impact of moving all IT applications to an external Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud provider?  A. The necessity to update key risk indicators (KRIs)  B. The integration of the IT department with business lines  C. The improvement of IT service alignment with business  D. The shift from service delivery to service management Answer: C Question #30 Which of the following is the MOST important driver of IT governance?  A. Management transparency  B. Technical excellence  C. Effective internal controls  D. Quality measurement Answer: A Question #31 When developing an IT strategic plan that supports an enterprise's business goals, which of the following should be done FIRST?  A. Understand the current vision.  B. Perform a business impact analysis.  C. Ensure that IT drives business goals.  D. Analyze benchmarking data. Answer: B Reference: https://www.infoentrepreneurs.org/en/guides/strategic-planning/ Question #32 Prior to decommissioning an IT system, it is MOST important to:  A. assess compliance with environmental regulations.  B. review the media disposal records.  C. assess compliance with the retention policy.  D. review the data sanitization records. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #33 An enterprise is trying to increase the maturity of its IT process from being ad hoc to being repeatable. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this change?  A. Required outcomes are more frequently achieved.  B. Process performance is measured in business terms.  C. Required outcomes are mapped to business objectives.  D. Process optimization is embedded across the organization. Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=1iZ3qWnLU0oC&pg=PA218&lpg=PA218&dq=increase+the+maturity+of+its+ IT+process+from+being+ad+hoc +to+being+repeatable&source=bl&ots=u6T_F9VL-V&sig=ACfU3U0bLAxWfJhgn10- z1Qk0syhD_HCFw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjhn43L2fnpAhVC_qQKHRagBNcQ6AEwD3oECAQQAQ#v=onepage&q =increase%20the%20maturity%20of% 20its%20IT%20process%20from%20being%20ad%20hoc%20to%20being%20repeatable&f=false Question #34 Which of the following entities is structured PRIMARILY to ensure goals and objectives are aligned between IT and the business?  A. Board of directors  B. Portfolio management committee  C. Change advisory board  D. IT strategy committee Answer: A Reference: https://courses.lumenlearning.com/boundless-management/chapter/principles-of-management/ Question #35 A recent audit of IT investments has found that while initial returns meet expectations, benefits realization declines more than expected over time. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this situation?  A. Standardize resource monitoring approaches.  B. Institute project quality and performance metrics.  C. Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).  D. Institute regular business case updates and reviews. Answer: D Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/guidelines-successful-benefits-realization-9909 Question #36 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise's IT department has been operating independently without regard to business concerns, leading to misalignment between business and IT. The BEST way to establish alignment would be to require:  A. business to help define IT goals.  B. IT to define business objectives.  C. business to fund IT services.  D. IT and business to define risks. Answer: A Question #37 Which of the following are the MOST critical enablers for implementing IT governance in an enterprise?  A. Involvement of IT strategy and steering committees  B. Assigning roles and responsibilities for IT governance  C. Commitment and promotion by senior management  D. Prioritizing IT projects and funding for IT governance Answer: C Reference: https://www3.pinkelephant.com/articles/The7EnablersandConstraintsofITSMv1.PDF Question #38 A business unit is planning to replace an existing IT legacy solution with a hosted Software as a Service (SaaS) solution. However, business management is concerned that stored data will be at risk. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to reduce the risk associated with the SaaS solution?  A. Include risk-related requirements in the SaaS contract.  B. Create key risk indicators for the SaaS solution.  C. Redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance.  D. Research the technology and identify potential security threats. Answer: A Question #39 Which of the following would be MOST helpful in gaining executive support for an IT-enabled business initiative?  A. Framing the in terms of impact to business value  B. Presenting a comprehensive risk management plan  C. Providing examples of risks realized by competitors for similar initiatives  D. Presenting key findings of a business impact analysis conducted by IT managers https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #40 An enterprise is planning to implement several strategic initiatives that will require the acquisition of new IT systems. Which of the following would BEST enable the IT steering committee to prioritize proposed initiatives based on business objectives?  A. IT strategic management  B. Project management  C. Enterprise architecture management  D. Project portfolio management Answer: C Question #41 An IT governance committee recently received a report indicating a scarcity of key IT skills in the marketplace to meet the core needs of the business. Reviewing which of the following would BEST help the committee respond to this situation?  A. IT balanced scorecard  B. Outsourcing strategy  C. IT strategic plan  D. Human resource strategy Answer: D Question #42 An enterprise has decided to create its first mobile application. The IT director is concerned about the potential impact of this initiative. Which of the following is the MOST important input for managing the risk associated with this initiative?  A. Business requirements  B. IT risk scorecard  C. Enterprise risk appetite  D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #43 Senior management has made a decision to automate a number of key controls due to concerns that current IT risk controls are overly cumbersome and adversely impacting IT agility. Which of the following should be required FIRST to facilitate this process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Control gap analysis  B. Control self-assessments  C. Controls optimization  D. Cost-benefit analysis Answer: D Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/itac-planning/#gref Question #44 The IT function received only 50% of the requested funding to support the IT strategy for new business initiatives. Which of the following is the CIO's MOST important course of action before considering alternative resource options?  A. Prioritize the portfolio.  B. Terminate less visible maintenance projects.  C. Develop a new balanced scorecard.  D. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. Answer: A Reference: https://hbr.org/1980/07/strategic-management-for-competitive-advantage Question #45 A business case indicates an enterprise would reduce costs by implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program allowing employees to use personal devices for e-mail. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance action?  A. Assess the enterprise architecture.  B. Update the BYOD policy.  C. Update the network infrastructure.  D. Assess the BYOD risk. Answer: A Question #46 An enterprise has decided to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system to achieve operating and cost efficiencies through global IT standardization. The business units are resistant because they are used to operating autonomously. The CEO has instructed the CIO to move quickly with the implementation to force acceptance with business unit leaders. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step?  A. Request funding from the CEO to hire ERP consultants.  B. Ask the CEO to be the sponsor of the program.  C. Engage a reluctant business unit to conduct a proof-of-concept pilot.  D. Build a governance framework for identifying non-standard processes. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following is MOST critical to have in place before management can establish an IT risk assessment and response approach?  A. A portfolio of IT investments  B. Defined roles and responsibilities  C. Historic data on risk events  D. A balanced scorecard Answer: B Question #48 An IT audit report indicates that a lack of IT employee risk awareness is creating serious security issues in application design and configuration. Which of the following would be the BEST key risk indicator (KRI) to show progress in IT employee behavior?  A. Results of application security testing  B. Results of application security awareness training quizzes  C. Number of reported security incidents  D. Number of IT employees attending security training sessions Answer: C Question #49 An enterprise can BEST assess the benefits of a new IT project through its life cycle by:  A. calculation of the total cost of ownership.  B. calculation of the net present value.  C. periodic review of the business case.  D. periodic measurement of the project slip rate. Answer: C Question #50 Which of the following is the MOST important objective of IT program portfolio management?  A. Reduced technology costs  B. Reduced project management costs  C. Improved IT service delivery  D. Appropriate investment mix https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Reference: https://www.northeastern.edu/graduate/blog/project-management-vs-portfolio-management-vs-programmanagement/ Question #51 Which of the following is the BEST way for the CIO to ensure senior business management understands the current IT risk profile?  A. Present an aggregated view of risk.  B. Present the updated risk register.  C. Present a detailed list of risk findings.  D. Present a list of scheduled risk mitigation actions. Answer: A Question #52 Besides the mitigation of IT risk, which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of IT governance?  A. Control of IT processes  B. Meeting of IT financial goals  C. Resolution of IT audit findings  D. Value delivery of IT to the business Answer: D Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/co/Documents/risk/InteligenciaFrentealRiesgo/No.6- RiskIntelligenceCIO.pdf Question #53 Despite an adequate training budget, IT staff are not keeping skills current with emerging technologies critical to the enterprise. The BEST way for the enterprise to address this situation would be to:  A. establish an agreed-upon skills development plan with each employee.  B. allow staff to attend technology conferences.  C. create a standard-setting center of excellence.  D. assign human resources (HR) to develop an IT skills matrix. Answer: D Question #54 The PRIMARY reason a CIO and IT senior management should stay aware of the business environment is to:  A. measure efficiency of IT resources.  B. revisit prioritization of IT projects. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. re-assess the IT investment portfolio.  D. adjust IT strategy as needed. Answer: A Question #55 Which of the following aspects of the transition from X-rays to digital images would be BEST addressed by implementing information security policy and procedures?  A. Establishing data retention procedures  B. Training technicians on acceptable use policy  C. Minimizing the impact of hospital operation disruptions on patient care  D. Protecting personal health information Answer: D Question #56 To enable consistent assessment of candidate program investments for inclusion into the IT portfolio, it is MOST important to identify:  A. an IT balanced scorecard.  B. the impact on enterprise architecture.  C. common selection criteria.  D. currently available resources. Answer: A Reference: http://businessit.biz/bit_share/VAL%20IT/VAL%20IT.pdf Question #57 What information is MOST important to include when reporting key risk indicators to the board of directors?  A. The effect of emerging risk trends on current risk exposure  B. Risk appetite, risk threshold and risk tolerance  C. Classification of current business risk  D. Costs and resource needs related to risk mitigation measures Answer: A Question #58 The board of directors of a major retail chain wants to know what capabilities are in place to prevent customer credit card data from being hacked. Which of the following should be established to provide useful information about a potential future event? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Risk tolerance  B. Lead indicators  C. Lag indicators  D. Performance indicators Answer: B Question #59 Several experienced IT resources have been hired away by a competitor. These individuals created and managed a business critical system that gave the enterprise a market advantage. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern of the system's business owner?  A. The impact on morale of the remaining IT employees  B. The competitor hiring additional IT employees from the enterprise  C. Whether access to the system and data has been adequately revoked  D. Whether remaining staff are able to maintain the quality of the system Answer: D Question #60 An enterprise has a large backlog of IT projects. The current strategy is to execute projects as they are submitted, but executive management does not believe this method is optimal. Which of the following is the MOST important action to address this concern?  A. Establish a performance dashboard that determines business value.  B. Create a combined business/IT committee to determine project prioritization.  C. Implement a methodology to prioritize projects based on resource availability.  D. Implement stage-gating to determine the value of each project. Answer: D Question #61 An enterprise's board of directors can BEST manage enterprise risk by:  A. mandating board-approved enterprise risk management (ERM) modifications.  B. requiring the establishment of an enterprise-wide program management office.  C. ensuring the cost-effectiveness of the internal control system.  D. requiring the establishment of an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework. Answer: D Reference: https://www.coso.org/documents/COSOBoardsERM4pager-FINALRELEASEVERSION82409_001.pdf https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #62 An IT investment review board wants to ensure that IT will be able to support business initiatives. Each initiative is comprised of several interrelated IT projects. Which of the following would help ensure that the initiatives meet their goals?  A. Verification of initiatives against the architecture  B. Review of the business case for each initiative  C. Establishment of portfolio management  D. Review of project management methodology Answer: C Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/proven-project-portfolio-management-process-8503 Question #63 Which of the following is MOST critical to support IT governance cultural changes within an organization?  A. IT governance process manuals  B. Regularly scheduled governance training  C. Demonstrated management commitment  D. Established IT monitoring and measuring Answer: D Question #64 An enterprise has decided to use third-party software for a business process which is hosted and supported by the same third party. The BEST way to provide quality of service oversight would be to establish a process:  A. to qualify service providers.  B. for enterprise architecture updates.  C. for robust change management.  D. for periodic service provider audits. Answer: A Question #65 In a successful enterprise that is profitable in its marketplace and consistently growing in size, the non-IT workforce has grown by 50% in the last two years. The demand for IT staff in the marketplace is more than the supply, and the enterprise is losing staff to rival organizations. Due to the rapid growth, IT has struggled to keep up with the enterprise, and IT procedures and associated job roles are not well-defined. The MOST critical activity for reducing the impact caused by IT staff turnover is to:  A. outsource the IT operation.  B. increase compensation for IT staff. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. hire temporary staff.  D. document processes and procedures. Answer: D Question #66 A business has outsourced IT operations to several third-party providers, but service level agreements (SLAs) are not clearly defined in all cases. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the business?  A. Third parties could provide overlapping services.  B. Quality of services is not enforceable.  C. The scope of work is not clearly defined.  D. Costs are not measurable. Answer: B Question #67 A large enterprise has been experiencing high turnover of skilled IT personnel, resulting in a significant loss of knowledge within the IT department. Which of the following should be done FIRST to address this problem?  A. Conduct a survey of current IT staff.  B. Revise the IT resource management plan.  C. Update human resources policies and practices.  D. Develop an incentive scheme for IT employees. Answer: A Question #68 A newly established IT steering committee is concerned whether or not a system is meeting availability objectives. Which of the following will provide the BEST information to make an assessment?  A. Critical success factors  B. Balanced scorecard  C. Performance indicators  D. Capability maturity levels Answer: D Question #69 Following a major IT incident that resulted in a loss to the enterprise, a CIO is preparing for a meeting with the board of directors to discuss what may have failed internally. Which of the following should the CIO do FIRST to provide assurance to the board? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Review the IT control environment.  B. Ensure IT and enterprise risk management alignment.  C. Review the incident response policy.  D. Verify continuous monitoring is being performed. Answer: B Question #70 A newly appointed CIO has issued a new IT strategic plan. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the CIO to ensure the IT management team is held accountable for the delivery of the plan?  A. Provide management training on IT strategic objectives.  B. Revise the managers' performance goals to include key objectives.  C. Enforce disciplinary action for managers if the plan is not delivered.  D. Update the IT balanced scorecard with key objectives. Answer: B Question #71 Which of the following is the PRIMARY ongoing responsibility of the IT governance function related to risk?  A. Responding to and controlling all IT risk events  B. Verifying that all business units have staff skilled at assessing risk  C. Communicating the enterprise risk management plan  D. Ensuring IT risk management is aligned with business risk appetite Answer: C Question #72 Which of the following is the BEST outcome measure to determine the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?  A. Time lag between when IT risk is identified and the enterprise's response  B. Percentage of business users satisfied with the quality of risk training  C. Frequency of updates to the IT risk register  D. Number of events impacting business processes due to delays in responding to risks Answer: A Question #73 The BEST way for a CIO to monitor the alignment between the business and IT strategy is to regularly review: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. IT services supporting business processes.  B. the balanced scorecard.  C. key risk indicators (KRIs).  D. the risk register. Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following is PRIMARILY achieved through performance measurement?  A. Process improvement  B. Benefit realization  C. Cost efficiency  D. Transparency Answer: A Question #75 While assessing the feasibility of introducing new IT practices and standards into the IT governance framework, it is CRITICAL to understand an organization's:  A. maturity of IT processes.  B. culture.  C. enterprise architecture.  D. level of outsourcing. Answer: C Question #76 A new IT initiative is delivered successfully. Which of the following should be updated to reflect the new technology?  A. Balanced scorecard  B. IT strategy  C. IT tactical plan  D. Enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #77 The MOST beneficial aspect of utilizing an IT risk management framework is that it:  A. addresses a lack of data in risk reporting. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. facilitates the identification of technologies posing the greatest risk to IT.  C. enables a consistent approach to risk management.  D. drives inclusion of the technology function in enterprise risk management. Answer: B Question #78 When defining an enterprise governance framework, the PRIMARY determination of the degree to which the framework is principle-based or policy-based is:  A. enterprise architecture framework.  B. organizational decision-making style.  C. IT process maturity.  D. organizational structure. Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/past-issues/2013/it-policy-framework-based-on-cobit-5 Question #79 A company is considering selling products online, and the CIO has been asked to advise the board of directors of potential problems with this strategy. Which of the following would be the CIO's BEST course of action?  A. Perform a risk assessment.  B. Review the security framework.  C. Conduct a return on investment analysis.  D. Review the enterprise architecture. Answer: B Question #80 After shifting from lease to purchase of IT infrastructure and software licenses, an enterprise has to pay for unexpected lease extensions causing significant cost overruns. The BEST direction for the IT steering committee would be to establish:  A. a program to annually review financial policy on overruns.  B. an end-of-life program to remove aging infrastructure from the environment.  C. budget cuts to compensate for the cost overruns.  D. a policy to consider total cost of ownership in investment decisions. Answer: D Question #81 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is evaluating a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) solution to support a core business process. There is no outsourcing governance or vendor management in place. The CEO's FIRST course of action should be to:  A. establish a contract with the SaaS solution provider.  B. instruct management to use the standard procurement process.  C. ensure the service level agreements for service providers are defined.  D. ensure the roles and responsibilities to manage service providers are defined. Answer: B Question #82 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure timely reporting on risk events and responses to appropriate levels of management?  A. Corporate directory  B. Key personnel interviews  C. Emergency response team  D. Escalation procedures Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=k_hgAwAAQBAJ&pg=PA43&lpg=PA43&dq=cobit+help+to+ensure+timely+re porting+on+risk+events+and +responses+to+appropriate+levels+of +management&source=bl&ots=f2MF7tvMQB&sig=ACfU3U1F_qwMA3wQlZ2tpcb8bvzR3eUTyw&hl=en&sa=X&ved= 2ahUKEwj4kajJq_zpAhUrDWMBHQu2BWoQ 6AEwB3oECAoQAQ#v=onepage&q=cobit%20help%20to%20ensure%20timely%20reporting%20on%20risk%20event s%20and%20responses%20to% 20appropriate%20levels%20of%20management&f=false Question #83 When developing an IT governance framework, it is MOST important for an enterprise to consider:  A. stakeholders' support.  B. information technology risk.  C. framework development cost.  D. information technology strategy. Answer: A Question #84 Which of the following would be MOST useful for prioritizing IT improvement initiatives to achieve desired business outcomes? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Portfolio management  B. Budget variance analysis  C. IT skills matrix  D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #85 Which of the following BEST supports an IT strategy committee's objective to align employee competencies with planned initiatives?  A. Set management goals to hire co-operative work experience students.  B. Specify minimum training hours required for continuing professional education.  C. Add achievement of competencies to employee performance goals.  D. Require balanced scorecard concepts training of all employees. Answer: C Question #86 The IT director of a large project-driven enterprise is concerned that all recently completed IT projects have exceeded their budgets. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this concern?  A. Implement portfolio management.  B. Require monitoring of budget utilization.  C. Assign business sponsors to active projects.  D. Implement agile project methodology. Answer: B Question #87 An enterprise is experiencing a pattern of sensitive data breaches. While each breach has been successfully remediated, leadership is concerned about recurrence. What should the leadership team do FIRST?  A. Require a root cause analysis be performed.  B. Contact the appropriate regulatory authorities.  C. Increase the amount of data breach insurance coverage.  D. Direct IT to research vulnerability management software solutions. Answer: A Question #88 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A government agency plans to use predictive analytics to improve the quality of its services. The IT director is confident they have selected the right tool and can acquire appropriate resources to support the business need. Which of the following should be the director's NEXT course of action?  A. Ensure job descriptions are available for newly-hired IT resources.  B. Ensure IT has the appropriate processes in place.  C. Implement a balanced scorecard to measure service quality.  D. Establish a data governance council that includes IT senior management. Answer: C Question #89 During a period of financial crisis, an enterprise is evaluating its IT service strategy. The board of directors recognizes the need to save money without sacrificing the quality of IT services provided. To achieve this objective, the IT strategy committee should FIRST:  A. re-design IT service management processes.  B. cancel discretionary IT projects.  C. reduce the total cost of ownership of IT services.  D. re-prioritize the IT investment portfolio. Answer: D Question #90 To successfully implement enterprise IT governance, which of the following should be the MAIN focus of IT policies?  A. Optimizing operational benefits  B. Enhancing organizational capability  C. Limiting IT costs  D. Providing business value Answer: A Question #91 A recent benchmarking analysis has indicated an IT organization is retaining more data and spending significantly more on data retention than its competitors. Which of the following would BEST ensure the optimization of retention costs?  A. Requiring that all business cases contain data deletion and retention plans  B. Revalidating the organization's risk tolerance and re-aligning the retention policy  C. Redefining the retention policy to align with industry best practices  D. Moving all high-risk and medium-risk data backups to cloud storage https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #92 An enterprise is undertaking a multi-year portfolio of IT initiatives to replace core accounting systems. The program management team has developed a business case and is defining a roadmap for the initiatives. Of the following, who should be responsible for defining the optimization criteria for the portfolio?  A. Project management office  B. Board of directors  C. Program management team  D. IT steering committee Answer: C Question #93 An enterprise has entered into a new market which brings additional regulatory compliance requirements. To address these new requirements, the enterprise should FIRST:  A. update the organization's risk profile.  B. have executive management monitor compliance.  C. outsource the compliance process.  D. appoint a compliance officer. Answer: B Question #94 An IT steering committee is preparing to review proposals for projects that implement emerging technologies. In anticipation of the review, the committee should FIRST:  A. require a review of the enterprise risk management framework.  B. understand how the emerging technologies will influence risk across the enterprise.  C. determine if the IT staff can support the emerging technologies.  D. require a capacity plan and framework review for the emerging technologies. Answer: A Question #95 The CIO of a large enterprise has taken the necessary steps to align IT objectives with business objectives. The BEST way for the CIO to ensure these objectives are delivered effectively by IT staff is to:  A. enhance the budget for training based on the IT objectives.  B. include the IT objectives in staff performance plans. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. include CIO sign-off of the objectives as part of the IT strategic plan.  D. map the IT objectives to an industry-accepted framework. Answer: D Question #96 An analysis of an organization's security breach is complete. The results indicate that the quality of the code used for updates to its primary customer-facing software has been declining and security flaws were introduced. The FIRST IT governance action to correct this problem should be to review:  A. the incident response plan.  B. the change management control framework.  C. compliance with the user testing process.  D. the qualifications of developers to write secure code. Answer: A Question #97 Senior leadership is concerned about a recent trend of excessive exceptions to existing controls. Which of the following should be implemented to address this concern?  A. Continuous monitoring  B. Independent audits  C. A control library  D. Risk awareness training Answer: A Question #98 It has been discovered that multiple business units across an enterprise are using duplicate IT applications and services to fulfill their individual needs. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to address this concern?  A. IT project roadmap  B. IT service management  C. Enterprise architecture  D. Enterprise risk framework Answer: C Question #99 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! When developing a business case for an enterprise resource planning (ERP) implementation, which of the following, if overlooked, causes the GREATEST impact to the enterprise?  A. Salvage value of legacy hardware  B. IT best practices  C. Interdependent systems  D. Vendor selection Answer: D Question #100 A regional business unit of a major financial institution is considering the use of a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud vendor to implement a new system. Which of the following should be performed FIRST?  A. Update the outsourcing policy.  B. Investigate on-premise software solutions.  C. Develop a business case.  D. Determine if the cloud vendor has a secure data center. Answer: D Question #101 During the implementation phase of a central ERP system, a project manager identifies a significant lack of human capabilities to support the system. The issue is reported to the project sponsor, and the sponsor sends a request for an increase in the budget to the IT steering committee. What should be the IT steering committee's FIRST action?  A. Require a revised business case.  B. Approve the budget request.  C. Provide appropriate training.  D. Refer back to the project sponsor for resolution. Answer: B Question #102 For a large enterprise, which of the following is the BEST indicator that IT governance has a poor reputation?  A. Regulatory noncompliance  B. Low attendance at strategy committee meetings  C. High turnover of IT staff  D. Data leakage Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #103 An enterprise has committed to the implementation of a new IT governance model. The BEST way to begin this implementation is to:  A. prioritize how much and where to invest in IT.  B. identify the role of IT in supporting the business.  C. define policies for data, applications, and organization of infrastructure.  D. identify IT services that currently support the enterprise's capability. Answer: C Question #104 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the CEO in IT governance?  A. Evaluating return on investment  B. Managing the risk governance process  C. Establishing enterprise strategic goals  D. Nominating IT steering committee membership Answer: C Reference: https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/careers/jobs/what-is-a-ceo-chief-executive-officer/ Question #105 Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the CIO when an enterprise plans to replace its enterprise resource applications?  A. Ensuring IT architecture requirements are considered  B. Selecting and vetting application vendors  C. Determining critical success factors for related projects  D. Establishing software quality criteria Answer: A Question #106 Upcoming IT-related regulations carry costly penalties for an enterprise. The issuing regulatory agency has a history of weak enforcement. The IT steering committee should FIRST direct management to:  A. update the enterprise architecture.  B. perform benchmarking activities.  C. evaluate the impact of the emerging risk.  D. develop mitigation plans for noncompliance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #107 When establishing a methodology for business cases, it would be MOST beneficial for an enterprise to include procedures for:  A. addressing required changes outside the business case.  B. updating the business case throughout its life cycle.  C. identifying metrics post-implementation to measure project success.  D. entering the business case into the enterprise architecture. Answer: D Question #108 The PRIMARY focus of a committee tasked with evaluating an IT project portfolio should be to ensure:  A. a consistent estimation methodology is leveraged.  B. the enterprise strategy is updated.  C. consistent selection criteria are applied.  D. an industry standard capability maturity model is used. Answer: D Question #109 Which of the following issues identified during an IT review is MOST important to address to improve the alignment between the business and IT?  A. Services in the IT portfolio are not traceable to the IT strategy.  B. IT strategy reviews are conducted only after business strategy changes.  C. Business satisfaction surveys are not conducted regularly.  D. IT dashboards have not been established. Answer: A Question #110 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for IT management to report to executive management regarding the value of IT?  A. IT process maturity level  B. Resource assessment  C. Balanced scorecard  D. Cost-benefit analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #111 When determining the desired maturity levels for IT governance processes, it is MOST important to:  A. ensure that maturity can be achieved at the lowest cost.  B. ensure target levels are in line with external competitor benchmarks.  C. agree on target levels in response to need.  D. focus on existing strengths as key drivers for the target levels. Answer: D Question #112 Which of the following is the MOST important reason for selecting IT key risk indicators (KRIs)?  A. Enabling comparison against similar IT KRIs  B. Increasing the probability of achieving IT goals  C. Assessing the current IT controls model  D. Demonstrating the effectiveness of IT risk policies Answer: B Question #113 Which of the following would BEST help a CIO enhance the competencies of an IT business analytics team?  A. Understanding current staff skill sets and identifying gaps  B. Defining the IT architecture and identifying training areas  C. Creating operational processes and identifying resources  D. Establishing team goals and identifying the proper structure Answer: C Question #114 The BEST way to ensure an IT steering committee meets enterprise objectives is to:  A. have key business stakeholders represented on the committee.  B. establish key performance indicators (KPIs).  C. require a member of the committee to have IT governance expertise.  D. benchmark against industry best practices. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #115 Which of the following is the MOST important input for the development of a human resources strategy to address IT skill gaps?  A. Technology direction of the enterprise  B. Training budget allocated for IT staff  C. A recent IT skills matrix  D. Training effectiveness reports Answer: C Question #116 A hospital's executive steering committee is concerned about the increasing number of cyber attacks on patient data systems across the industry. The committee has asked the CIO to provide regular reporting with information that will help provide better oversight of cyber-related risk to the hospital. Including which of the following in the report would be MOST helpful to the committee?  A. Status of key risk indicators  B. Current business impact levels  C. IT operations gap assessment  D. Cybersecurity risk benchmarks Answer: B Question #117 Which of the following is the BEST way to provide effective IT risk management?  A. Implementing a cost-effective mitigation program  B. Appointing a chief risk officer  C. Embedding risk management in operations  D. Establishing an incident management program Answer: A Question #118 Maintaining a list of all potential IT initiatives for implementing the business strategy should be the responsibility of the:  A. portfolio management function.  B. individual business units.  C. chief executive officer (CEO). https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. chief operating officer (COO). Answer: D Question #119 A large enterprise has decided to use an emerging technology that needs to be integrated with the current IT infrastructure. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent adverse effects to the enterprise resulting from the new technology?  A. Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).  B. Develop key performance indicators (KPIs).  C. Implement service level agreements (SLAs).  D. Update the risk appetite statement. Answer: B Question #120 An enterprise recognizes that a large percentage of its IT employees are eligible for retirement in the next five years. A significant amount of institutional knowledge resides with retirement-eligible staff. From the board's perspective, which of the following is the GREATEST concern for the enterprise in this situation?  A. Service delivery to the business  B. Loss of key IT personnel  C. Lack of timeline for succession plan  D. Lack of process documentation Answer: D Question #121 Which of the following groups would be MOST appropriate to decide whether to proceed with an IT-enabled investment at the individual program level?  A. Business sponsors  B. Program management office  C. IT steering committee  D. Board of directors Answer: C Question #122 Which of the following will BEST enable an enterprise to convey IT governance direction and objectives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Corporate culture  B. Business processes  C. Principles and policies  D. Skills and competencies Answer: C Question #123 A large enterprise's IT department has identified a new risk management solution that would significantly enhance IT risk monitoring processes. However, there is a business perception that the new solution would not provide a visible benefit to the enterprise. Which of the following is the BEST way to gain business support?  A. Articulate the business value of the new solution.  B. Promote the IT benefits and the streamlining of processes.  C. Provide real time risk reporting to the business.  D. Obtain sign-off on a reduced headcount over the next five years. Answer: B Question #124 When assessing the impact of a new regulatory requirement, which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?  A. Update affected IT policies.  B. Implement new regulatory requirements.  C. Assess the budget impact of the new regulation.  D. Map the regulation to business processes. Answer: D Question #125 Before establishing IT key risk indicators, which of the following should be defined FIRST?  A. IT risk and security framework  B. IT key performance indicators  C. IT goals and objectives  D. IT resource strategy Answer: C Reference: https://bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1515 Question #126 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Which of the following should be the FIRST step for executive management to take in communicating what is considered acceptable use with regard to personally owned devices for company business?  A. Post awareness messages throughout the facility.  B. Develop and disseminate an applicable policy.  C. Provide training on how to protect data on personal devices.  D. Require employees to read and sign a disclaimer. Answer: C Question #127 An enterprise's strategic change requires an IT strategic initiative re-evaluation. Which of the following BEST indicates that an established IT governance framework could handle the re-evaluation?  A. Creation of an IT steering committee to align the IT strategic initiatives to the recent change  B. Inclusion of IT portfolio management procedures with strategic change review activities  C. Development of a business case to evaluate the impact of the strategic change  D. Holding IT investments until an analysis of the strategic change impact was complete Answer: C Question #128 Which of the following BEST indicates that a change management process has been implemented successfully?  A. Degree of control  B. Outcome measures  C. Process performance  D. Maturity levels Answer: B Question #129 To meet the growing demands of a newly established business unit, IT senior management has been tasked with changing the current IT organization model to service-oriented. With significant growth expected of the IT organization, which of the following is the MOST important consideration when planning for long-term IT service delivery?  A. The IT organization is able to sustain business requirements.  B. IT is able to provide a comprehensive service catalog to the business.  C. The IT service delivery model is approved by the business.  D. An IT risk management process is in place. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #130 Which of the following BEST enables the alignment of IT and enterprise strategy?  A. Project portfolio management  B. IT resource planning  C. IT performance monitoring and reporting  D. Enterprise compliance audits Answer: B Question #131 Which of the following would provide the BEST input for prioritizing strategic IT improvement initiatives?  A. Business case evaluation  B. Business process analysis  C. Business impact analysis  D. Business dependency assessment Answer: C Question #132 An enterprise has decided to utilize a cloud vendor for the first time to provide email as a service, eliminating inhouse email capabilities. Which of the following IT strategic actions should be triggered by this decision?  A. Update and communicate data storage and transmission policies.  B. Develop a data protection awareness education training program.  C. Monitor outgoing email traffic for malware.  D. Implement a data classification and storage management tool. Answer: A Question #133 Which of the following is the BEST IT architecture concept to ensure consistency, interoperability, and agility for infrastructure capabilities?  A. Establishment of an IT steering committee  B. Standards-based reference architecture and design specifications  C. Design of policies and procedures  D. Establishment of standard vendor and technology designations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #134 An enterprise is implementing its FIRST mobile sales channel. Final approval for accepting the associated IT risk should be obtained from which of the following?  A. IT steering committee  B. Chief information officer  C. Business sponsor  D. Risk manager Answer: B Question #135 Who should be accountable for quantifying the business impact of a potential breach of a server containing retail transactions for the last year?  A. Information systems security officer  B. Head of retail  C. Chief risk officer  D. Chief information officer Answer: A Question #136 The use of an enterprise architecture framework BEST supports IT governance by providing:  A. key information for IT service level management.  B. IT standards for application development.  C. business information for IT capacity planning.  D. reference models to align IT with business. Answer: A Question #137 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate mechanism for measuring overall IT organizational performance?  A. IT balanced scorecard  B. Service level metrics  C. Maturity model  D. IT portfolio return on investment https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Reference: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/215879518_Measuring_the_Performance_of_IT_Service_Management Question #138 The PRIMARY reason for periodically evaluating IT resource staffing requirements is to:  A. ensure the enterprise has sufficient resources to address changing business and IT needs.  B. ascertain the IT function has sufficient skilled staff to maintain daily operations.  C. verify that human resource recruitment and retention processes meet enterprise IT objectives.  D. confirm IT-related responsibilities are defined for the enterprise's business and IT staff. Answer: A Question #139 Ð Ð¡Ð•Ðž wants to establish a governance framework to facilitate the alignment of IT and business strategies. Which of the following should be a KEY requirement of this framework?  A. A service delivery strategy  B. Defined resourcing levels  C. A defined enterprise architecture  D. An outsourcing strategy Answer: C Question #140 Reviewing which of the following should be the FIRST step when evaluating the possibility of outsourcing an IT system?  A. Outsourcing strategy  B. IT staff skill sets  C. Outsourced business processes  D. Service level agreements (SLAs) Answer: D Question #141 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of implementing service level agreements (SLAs) with an outsourcing vendor?  A. Establishing penalties for not meeting service levels  B. Complying with regulatory requirements  C. Achieving operational objectives https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Gaining a competitive advantage Answer: C Question #142 Of the following, the BEST response to the absence of a data security breach notification by a service provider is to contractually require that:  A. security incidents identified by the provider be reported.  B. security related key performance indicators be included in all service level agreements.  C. security incident information be shared only on a need-to-know basis.  D. a registry of all security breaches be maintained by the service provider. Answer: A Question #143 Which of the following should be the MOST essential consideration when outsourcing IT services?  A. Alignment with existing HR policies and practices  B. Adoption of a diverse vendor selection process  C. Identification of core and non-core business processes  D. Compliance with enterprise architecture Answer: C Question #144 A multinational enterprise is planning to migrate to cloud-based systems. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the risk management committee?  A. Resource alignment  B. Security breaches  C. Regulatory compliance  D. Cost considerations Answer: C Question #145 In a large enterprise, which of the following should be responsible for the implementation of an IT balanced scorecard?  A. IT steering committee https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Chief risk officer  C. Project management office  D. Chief information officer Answer: C Question #146 The approval of an enterprise risk management framework is the role of the:  A. chief information officer.  B. chief risk officer.  C. IT steering committee  D. board of directors. Answer: C Reference: https://www.clearrisk.com/risk-management-blog/bid/56487/Establishing-an-Enterprise-Risk-Management-ERMFramework-Enterprise Question #147 The BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an enterprise's IT governance framework is by assessing the:  A. value of IT contribution.  B. maturity of IT processes.  C. application of IT standards.  D. compliance to IT policy. Answer: B Question #148 A steering committee has been advised by the IT project management office that individual business units are building systems components that could be leveraged by other business units. Instead, identical components are being duplicated across the enterprise. Which of the following committee directives would be the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of this duplication?  A. Implement stage gate reviews to assess systems.  B. Establish an enterprise architecture.  C. Perform an assessment of change management processes.  D. Review IT system release management practices. Answer: C Question #149 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! To support the enterprise's digital transformation, the CIO has been asked to include an Internet of Things (IoT) component in the IT strategy. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration?  A. Ensuring IoT usage in the industry has been analyzed  B. Ensuring IoT can be used in current revenue streams  C. Ensuring solution providers and their IoT use cases have been researched  D. Ensuring initial approvals are limited to small IoT projects to gain experience Answer: A Question #150 A retail enterprise wants to leverage emerging technologies to create a new sales channel for its customers. However, IT has little experience with these technologies and is unsure if the proposed schedule can be met. Which of the following will BEST help to determine IT's ability to meet this need?  A. Conducting a resource gap assessment  B. Defining business benefits realization metrics  C. Reviewing the resource management policy  D. Developing a target state enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #151 Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when designing an implementation plan for IT governance?  A. Roles and responsibilities  B. Risk tolerance levels  C. Organization culture  D. Principle and policies Answer: A Question #152 Once the strategic vision has been established, which of the following would be the BEST activity for supporting the implementation of performance measures?  A. Document policy requirements.  B. Document strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.  C. Identify key performance indicators (KPIs).  D. Monitor service level performance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #153 Which of the following is MOST critical for the successful implementation of an IT process?  A. Objectives and metrics  B. IT process assessment  C. Process framework  D. Service delivery process model Answer: C Question #154 An enterprise has made a decision to move some business applications to the public cloud despite being very new to the cloud environment. What is MOST important for the CIO to do to help ensure the success of this initiative?  A. Review the vendor management framework.  B. Request a right-to-audit clause in the provider contract.  C. Require a vulnerability and threat assessment.  D. Ensure the cloud provider complies with international standards. Answer: D Question #155 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an enterprise architecture?  A. Improves transparency and compliance  B. Provides a visual perspective of information systems  C. Improves interoperability and scalability  D. Ensures continuous innovation Answer: A Question #156 When conducting a risk assessment in support of a new regulatory requirement, the IT risk committee should FIRST consider the:  A. cost burden to achieve compliance.  B. disruption to normal business operations.  C. readiness of IT systems to address the risk.  D. risk profile of the enterprise. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #157 An enterprise is planning to migrate its IT infrastructure to a cloud-based solution but does not have experience with this technology. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the risk of IT service disruptions when using this new technology?  A. Evaluate the sourcing options.  B. Reflect the change in the enterprise architecture (EA).  C. Implement key performance indicators (KPIs).  D. Engage an experienced IT consultant to perform the migration. Answer: C Question #158 Which of the following BEST reflects mature risk management in an enterprise?  A. A regularly updated risk register  B. Responsive risk awareness culture  C. Ongoing risk assessment  D. Ongoing investment in risk mitigation Answer: C Question #159 An IT strategy committee wants to evaluate how well the IT department supports the business strategy. Which of the following is the BEST method for making this determination?  A. Capability maturity assessment  B. IT balanced scorecard reporting  C. IT controls assurance program  D. Customer survey analysis Answer: A Question #160 From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to enhance in an enterprise undergoing rapid development of a cloud technology?  A. Change management processes to capture organizational and project changes.  B. Data restructuring plan to ensure the architecture supports future changes.  C. IT project dashboard reporting to capture new risk, threats, and scenarios. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Configuration management processes to ensure availability goals are maintained. Answer: D Question #161 A regulatory audit of an IT department has identified discrepancies between processes described in the procedures and what is actually done by system administrators. The discrepancies were caused by recent IT application changes. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent the recurrence of similar findings in the future?  A. Include the update of documentation within the change management framework.  B. Assign the responsibility for periodic revisions and changes to process owners.  C. Require each IT employee to confirm compliance with IT procedures on an annual basis.  D. Establish high-level procedures to minimize process changes. Answer: B Question #162 Which of the following is the MOST important input for designing a development program to help IT employees improve their ability to respond to business needs?  A. Skills competency assessment  B. Cost-benefit analysis  C. Annual performance evaluations  D. Capability maturity model Answer: A Question #163 The accountability for a business continuity program for business-critical systems is BEST assigned to the:  A. director of internal audit,  B. enterprise risk manager.  C. chief information officer.  D. chief executive officer. Answer: C Question #164 Which of the following should occur FIRST in the IT investment process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Analyze the risks and benefits of the investment for each IT project.  B. Assess each project's impact on the enterprise's investment plan.  C. Select IT projects that will best support the enterprise's mission.  D. Analyze IT investments based on past data. Answer: B Question #165 To ensure IT risk is managed in a consistent manner, it is MOST important for IT governance to establish a:  A. risk management reporting tool to ensure compliance.  B. balanced scorecard that includes IT risks.  C. risk management committee to identify IT-related risks.  D. risk management framework. Answer: C Question #166 An independent consultant has been hired to conduct an ad hoc audit of an enterprise's information security office with results reported to the IT governance committee and the board. Which of the following is MOST important to provide to the consultant before the audit begins?  A. The scope and stakeholders of the audit  B. The organizational structure of the security office  C. The polices and framework used by the security office  D. Acceptance of the audit risks and opportunities Answer: A Question #167 The PRIMARY reason for using quantitative criteria in developing business cases for IT projects is to:  A. benchmark project success with similar enterprises.  B. learn lessons from errors made in past projects.  C. improve the process of evaluating returns after implementation.  D. apply other corporate standards to the development project. Answer: C Question #168 A CIO is planning to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system at the request of the business. Of the following, who is accountable for providing sponsorship for the IT-enabled change across the enterprise? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. CIO  B. CEO  C. IT strategy committee  D. Human resource director Answer: C Question #169 Which of the following would a CIO use to present the overall view of IT performance to the board of directors?  A. Maturity model  B. Balanced scorecard  C. Key performance indicators (KPIs)  D. Key risk indicators (KRIS) Answer: A Question #170 An enterprise wants to implement an IT governance framework to ensure enterprise expectations of IT are met. Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial outcome of implementing the framework?  A. Optimization of IT performance  B. Development of IT policies  C. Creation of an IT balanced scorecard  D. Establishment of key IT risk indicators Answer: D Question #171 The PRIMARY reason for implementing an IT governance program in an enterprise is to:  A. comply with regulatory requirements.  B. balance the demand for information and the ability to deliver.  C. decrease the scale of investment in information systems due to budgetary controls.  D. reduce risks due to improved compensating controls. Answer: B Question #172 To help ensure that an IT dashboard effectively conveys the current state of IT to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to establish? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Key performance indicators (KPIs)  B. Emerging threat analysis reporting  C. An IT risk awareness program  D. IT spend against budget Answer: A Question #173 An enterprise has a zero-tolerance policy regarding security. This policy is causing a large number of email attachments to be blocked and is a disruption to the enterprise. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance step to address this email issue?  A. Obtain senior management input based on identified risk.  B. Direct the development of an email usage policy.  C. Recommend business sign-off on the zero-tolerance policy.  D. Introduce an exception process. Answer: B Question #174 Which of the following is a CIO's BEST approach to ensure IT executes against an approved strategy?  A. Request IT senior leaders to collectively plan tactics for execution.  B. Ask project management to define the IT activities for accomplishing the strategy.  C. Provide specific direction for execution of the tasks across IT.  D. Have IT leaders independently develop goals for their teams. Answer: B Question #175 Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a formal, documented IT policy?  A. Alignment with IT service management  B. Communication of IT management intent  C. Mapping of business objectives  D. Resource optimization for enterprise initiatives Answer: C Question #176 Senior management is concerned about an increase in cybersecurity risk to the enterprise. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in establishing an early warning system to determine which potential threats should be escalated to senior management? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Agreed-upon risk thresholds  B. A risk appetite statement  C. Key performance indicators (KPIs)  D. Patch management logs Answer: A Question #177 An enterprise learns that a new privacy regulation was recently published to protect customers in the event of a breach involving personally identifiable information (PII). The IT risk management team's FIRST course of action should be to:  A. evaluate the risk appetite for the new regulation.  B. determine if the new regulation introduces new risk.  C. assign a risk owner for the new regulation.  D. define the risk tolerance for the new regulation. Answer: C Question #178 When designing an IT governance framework, the PRIMARY consideration should be to:  A. comply with external monitoring standards.  B. ensure stakeholders receive value from IT.  C. require cost-benefit analysis before implementing controls.  D. benchmark controls against industry best practices. Answer: C Question #179 The PRIMARY objective of IT resource planning within an enterprise should be to:  A. maximize value received from IT.  B. determine risk associated with IT resources.  C. determine IT outsourcing options.  D. finalize service level agreements for IT. Answer: A Question #180 A global enterprise is experiencing an economic downturn and is rapidly losing market share. IT senior management is reassessing the core activities of the business, including IT, and the associated resource implications. Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! has decided to focus on its local market and to close international operations. A critical issue from a resource management perspective is to retain the most capable staff. This is BEST achieved by:  A. reviewing current goals-based performance appraisals across the enterprise.  B. retaining capable staff exclusively from the local market.  C. ranking employees across the enterprise based on length of service.  D. ranking employees across the enterprise based on their compensation. Answer: C Question #181 An enterprise developed a new e-business web application designed to broaden its sales base. Internal project management guidelines were followed, but indicators for key goals were not established. Which of the following should be the MAIN concern of the IT steering committee?  A. It may be difficult to align IT objectives with performance.  B. Benefits realization may not be properly assessed.  C. Resources may not be optimally utilized.  D. Return on investment may be difficult to evaluate. Answer: B Question #182 An IT security team identified a significant weakness in the enterprise's Internet-facing infrastructure. The exposure requires immediate corrective action that is both cost and resource intensive. Which of the following is the MAIN reason why accountability for this risk should be assigned to the board of directors?  A. The exploit can cause serious disruptions to the enterprise's reputation and profitability.  B. The board should be aware of risks concerning organizational operations.  C. Risk ownership at the highest level will ensure risk awareness throughout the enterprise.  D. The IT organization cannot take ownership for self-identified risks concerning infrastructure security. Answer: C Question #183 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to assess the consistency of IT processes against industry benchmarks to determine where to focus improvement initiatives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Utilizing a capability maturity model  B. Reviewing key performance measures  C. Reviewing IT process audit results  D. Evaluating the current balanced scorecard Answer: C Question #184 An organization requires updates to their IT infrastructure to meet business needs. Which of the following will provide the MOST useful information when planning for the necessary IT investments?  A. Audit findings  B. Business user satisfaction metrics  C. Enterprise architecture  D. Risk assessment report Answer: A Question #185 As part of the implementation of IT governance, the board of an enterprise should establish an IT strategy committee to:  A. ensure IT risks inherent in the enterprise strategy implementation are managed.  B. drive IT strategy development and take responsibility for implementing the IT strategy.  C. assume governance accountability for the business strategy on behalf of the board.  D. provide input to and ensure alignment of the enterprise and IT strategies. Answer: C Question #186 A root-cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly-hired IT system administrators. Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?  A. HR training director  B. Chief information officer  C. HR recruitment manager  D. Business process owner Answer: C Question #187 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT team is having difficulty meeting new demands placed on the department as a result of a major and radical shift in enterprise business strategy. Which of the following the CIO's BEST course of action to address this situation?  A. Review the current IT strategy.  B. Utilize third parties for non-value-added processes.  C. Align the business strategy with the IT strategy.  D. Review the IT risk appetite. Answer: C Question #188 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure an IT steering committee is informed of newly emerging risks in critical IT projects?  A. Requiring regular updates of the risk register for each project  B. Requiring a summarized report of relevant risks  C. Reviewing the response for each risk in the log  D. Conducting periodic reviews of project performance Answer: A Question #189 Which of the following MOST effectively demonstrates operational readiness to address information security risk issues?  A. Executive management has announced an information security risk initiative.  B. Procedures have been established for assessing and mitigating information security risks.  C. IT management has communicated the need for information security risk management to the business.  D. A policy has been communicated stating enterprise commitment and readiness to address information security risk. Answer: B Question #190 Which of the following should be the CIO's GREATEST consideration when making changes to the IT strategy?  A. Have key stakeholders been consulted?  B. Have IT risk metrics been adjusted?  C. Has the investment portfolio been revised?  D. Has the impact to the enterprise architecture been assessed? Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #191 Senior management wants to promote investment in IT, but is uncertain that associated risks are being properly identified. The BEST way to address this concern is to:  A. ensure business cases are developed by IT.  B. engage an external consultant to develop risk scenarios.  C. assign an IT cost controller to the finance department.  D. appoint an IT representative to the business risk committee. Answer: D Question #192 An enterprise is contracting with an outsourcing partner for a long-term engagement. The BEST time for the enterprise to plan for the event of contract termination:  A. developing the initial contract.  B. either party decides to terminate the contract.  C. issues surface in the contractual relationship.  D. planning for the contract as part of business continuity. Answer: C Question #193 The MOST important aspect of an IT governance framework to ensure that IT supports repeatable business processes is:  A. resource management.  B. quality management.  C. risk management.  D. earned value management. Answer: B Question #194 Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to ensure IT capabilities are appropriately aligned with business requirements for specific business processes?  A. Issuing a management mandate that IT and business process stakeholders work together  B. Requiring architecture and design reviews with business process stakeholders  C. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)  D. Requiring internal IT architecture and design reviews https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #195 For the first time, the procurement department has requested that IT grant remote access to third-party suppliers. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for IT in responding to the request?  A. Analyze risks and propose a solution.  B. Implement a remote access architecture.  C. Develop a remote access policy.  D. Issue log-on credentials to third-party suppliers. Answer: A Question #196 Which of the following would BEST help to improve an enterprise's ability to manage large IT investment projects?  A. Reviewing and evaluating existing business cases  B. Creating a change management board  C. Publishing the IT approval process online for wider scrutiny  D. Implementing a review and approval process for each phase Answer: C Question #197 Which of the following is the BEST approach to assist an enterprise in planning for IT-enabled investments?  A. Enterprise architecture  B. Service level management  C. Task management  D. IT process mapping Answer: D Question #198 To measure the value of IT-enabled investments, an enterprise needs to identify its drivers as defined by its:  A. value statements.  B. service level agreements (SLAs).  C. business strategy.  D. technology strategy. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #199 Which of the following is the BEST way to address concerns associated with outsourcing an IT process?  A. Implement a business continuity plan.  B. Perform a risk assessment.  C. Review the IT governance framework.  D. Manage service levels. Answer: D Question #200 A CIO has recently been made aware of a new regulatory requirement which may affect IT-enabled business activities. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step in deciding the appropriate response to the new requirement?  A. Consult with legal and risk experts to understand the requirements.  B. Confirm there are adequate resources to mitigate compliance requirements.  C. Consult with the board for guidance on the new requirement.  D. Revise initiatives that are active to reflect the new requirements. Answer: B Question #201 The risk committee is overwhelmed by the number of false positives included in risk reports. What action would BEST address this situation?  A. Evaluate key risk indicators.  B. Adjust IT balanced scorecard.  C. Conduct a risk assessment.  D. Change the reporting format. Answer: C Question #202 An enterprise has recently experienced an excessive number of exceptions due to outdated control frameworks. What should the leadership team do FIRST?  A. Mandate a reassessment of the current control frameworks.  B. Review the IT control standards.  C. Mandate strict adherence to control frameworks. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Update the exception review and approval process. Answer: B Question #203 In an effort to reduce operation costs, an enterprise is switching from all internally-hosted applications to a mixture of internally- and externally-hosted applications. Of the following, the risk appetite for this decision would BEST be defined by the:  A. vendor oversight committee.  B. board of directors.  C. chief information security officer.  D. chief information officer. Answer: C Question #204 IT senior management has just received a survey report indicating that more than one third of the organization's key IT staff plan to retire within the next 12 months. Which of the following is the MOST important governance action to prepare for this possibility?  A. Request the development of a succession plan.  B. Engage HR for recruitment of new staff.  C. Evaluate lower-level staff as succession candidates.  D. Review motivation drivers for key IT staff. Answer: C Question #205 A CEO of a large enterprise is concerned that risk events are not regularly addressed at the C-suite level unless related to emergency incidents. Which of the following is the BEST way for the CEO to ensure risk events are given sufficient time and attention?  A. Instruct managers to take ownership for their department's identified risks.  B. Issue performance objectives that target the elimination of enterprise risks.  C. Include the of key enterprise risk as an agenda item at board meetings.  D. Require the development of a risk procedure on how to capture risks. Answer: C Question #206 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is assessing whether to utilize wearable technology. The enterprise has no prior experience with this technology and has asked the chief technology officer (CTO) to assess the impact to the enterprise. The CTO should FIRST:  A. prioritize wearable technology risk.  B. understand the enterprise's risk tolerance.  C. map the business goals to IT risk processes.  D. create an IT risk scorecard. Answer: B Question #207 An enterprise has an overarching enterprise architecture document. The CIO is concerned that EA is not leveraged in recent IT-enabled investments. Which of the following would BEST help to address these concerns and enforce the leveraging of enterprise architecture?  A. Require enterprise architecture review at key milestones.  B. Publish and train on the enterprise architecture document.  C. Form a team to update enterprise architecture regularly.  D. Adopt a globally-recognized enterprise architecture framework. Answer: B Question #208 After performing a gap analysis of IT risks and controls capability, the MOST important consideration for the associated risk responses is that they are:  A. added to the IT balanced scorecard.  B. approved by executive management.  C. assessed for severity of impact.  D. submitted to the audit committee. Answer: C Question #209 A new CEO is made aware of a lack of cooperation between IT and business units and needs to take action to enable more efficient IT delivery of solutions to support the business. What should be the FIRST step to address this concern?  A. Introduce IT related key performance indicators (KPIs).  B. Establish business user group training for increased collaboration.  C. Clarify roles and assign accountabilities for results.  D. Implement a continuous auditing policy for IT initiatives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #210 An IT steering committee is presented with an audit finding that new software applications are delivered on time but consistently have unacceptable levels of defects. Which of the following would be the BEST direction from the committee?  A. Establish code peer reviews.  B. Evaluate the change management process.  C. Implement performance indicators.  D. Evaluate the quality assurance process. Answer: D Question #211 Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT governance in an enterprise?  A. Project delivery  B. Value delivery  C. Residual risk  D. Resource utilization Answer: B Question #212 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to enhance security risk management alignment between IT and business?  A. Facilitate joint workshops for IT and the business on risk assessment techniques.  B. Analyze benchmark reports to understand the organization's security investments against competitors.  C. Establish a process in which IT and the business collaborate on risk assessment and mitigation prioritization.  D. Perform a trend analysis based on security investment levels and business initiatives. Answer: C Question #213 An IT steering committee is concerned that enterprise technologies have grown stagnant and are outdated. Which of the following is the BEST strategy to invest in modem technology?  A. Redefine the target architecture to define new technologies that can be incorporated into the infrastructure.  B. Create a new investment category for innovation that becomes a new way for tracking investment decisions/ https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Update the IT human resource management plan to requite training and development for emerging technologies.  D. Decrease spending on steady state and increase spending on modernization and enhancements. Answer: A Question #214 An enterprise makes an acquisition of a similar entity offering related services. A consequence of the acquisition is a reduction of IT workforce. When addressing human resource allocation, the MOST important IT governance consideration is to:  A. manage organizational change.  B. assess 7 skill sets.  C. monitor team expenditures.  D. cross-train IT resources. Answer: D Question #215 An enterprise's board of directors has asked the CIO to implement ways to make the IT function more environmentally responsible. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step to ensure continued alignment of IT needs with the requirements of the board?  A. Create a staff awareness education plan focused on IT environmental responsibility.  B. Incorporate new environmentally responsible objectives into existing IT goals.  C. Assess potential environmentally responsible IT initiatives.  D. Write a business case for an environmentally responsible initiative for IT. Answer: A Question #216 An enterprise has an ongoing issue of corporate applications not delivering the expected benefits due to missing key functionality. As a result, many groups are using spreadsheets and databases instead of approved enterprise applications to store and manipulate information. Which of the following will BEST improve the success rate of future IT initiatives?  A. Engage the business user community in acceptance testing of acquired applications.  B. Prohibit the use of non-approved alternate software solutions.  C. Establish a process for risk and value management.  D. Engage stakeholders to identify and validate business requirements. Answer: D Question #217 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT strategy committee has reviewed an audit report indicating sales employees are using personal smartphones to conduct corporate business. Although the committee appreciates the business benefits, it is also concerned with the security risk. To deliver the business benefit, the committee's FIRST recommendation should be to:  A. update the corporate security policy to include personal devices.  B. document procedures for securing personal devices.  C. improve training courses on securing corporate information.  D. perform a risk assessment on personal device data protection. Answer: D Question #218 Which of the following is the BEST way to implement effective IT risk management?  A. Minimize the number of IT risk management decision points.  B. Adopt risk management processes.  C. Establish a risk management function.  D. Align with business risk management processes. Answer: B Question #219 Which of the following characteristics would BEST indicate that an IT process is a good candidate for outsourcing?  A. Operational processes that are well-defined  B. Non-strategic processes that are not documented  C. Strategic processes that require expert professionals  D. Processes with higher risk to the enterprise Answer: B Question #220 Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an effective set of key risk indicators (KRIs)?  A. Identifying possible future adverse impacts on the enterprise  B. Evaluating existing technology for risk monitoring capabilities  C. Establishing executive level buy-in of the risk program  D. Quantifying the productivity of the risk management team Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #221 A large bank has completed several acquisitions in the last few years that have resulted in redundant IT applications. To align with the strategic initiative of providing integrated services to customers, the IT steering committee has decided to share data and integrate applications. Which of the following would be MOST important to review in this situation?  A. IT risk register  B. Balanced scorecard measures  C. Enterprise architecture  D. IT strategic plan Answer: C Question #222 To evaluate IT resource management, it is MOST important to define:  A. principles for the IT strategy.  B. responsibilities for executing resource management.  C. applicable key goals.  D. IT resource utilization reporting procedures. Answer: B Question #223 Which of the following is the MOST effective measure to assist in the evaluation of IT value delivery?  A. Actual benefits derived from the achievement of business objectives  B. Increase in user productivity  C. Trends in service capacity and availability metrics  D. Increase in customer satisfaction survey results Answer: A Question #224 Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that the governance of enterprise IT is consistently executed?  A. Regular review of IT policies and procedures  B. Defined key risk indicators  C. Established and monitored IT management processes  D. Experienced and skilled IT leadership https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #225 The BEST time to identify metrics to measure the performance of an IT-enabled investment is during:  A. investment feasibility analysis.  B. system implementation.  C. project initiation.  D. business case development. Answer: D Question #226 An enterprise is concerned that ongoing maintenance costs are not being considered when prioritizing IT-enabled business investments. Which of the following should be the enterprise's FIRST course of action?  A. Require business cases to have product life cycle information.  B. Establish a portfolio manager role to monitor and control the IT projects.  C. Mandate an enterprise architecture review with business stakeholders.  D. Implement a balanced scorecard for the IT project portfolio. Answer: C Question #227 The IT program manager does not see the value of conducting risk assessments for a new major IT project. The manager is reluctant to cooperate with internal auditors and the newly formed steering committee. Midway through the project, program requirements were changed because the CEO is a friend of a vendor and wants to implement this vendor's new technology. This decision will cause the current IT program budget to be insufficient and will be shown as overspending, After the requirement change request, the IT program manager should FIRST:  A. report the matter to internal audit as a program deviation to be reviewed.  B. obtain confirmation from the business and a decision by the steering committee.  C. align IT with the business and agree to the business request.  D. request additional funding from the business owner to cover the additional scope. Answer: B Question #228 A business unit within an enterprise has directly contracted with a cloud service provider to process sensitive customer information. The CIO later identifies a serious risk of potential data compromise due to the vendor's insufficient segregation of environments and lack of strong access controls. The FIRST course of action should be to:  A. immediately suspend sending of data to the cloud service provider. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. notify internal audit of the risk.  C. discuss the risk with the vendor to determine mitigation actions.  D. inform the business process owner of the risk. Answer: B Question #229 Which of the following would BEST align an enterprise's IT investments with its strategic objectives?  A. High process maturity score  B. IT budget and financial statements  C. Control self-assessment  D. Portfolio management Answer: A Question #230 To ensure that the process of developing a business case for IT-enabled investments continually supports benefits realization, the benefits expected from investment programs must be actively managed through:  A. the system development life cycle.  B. the economic life cycle.  C. obsolescence planning.  D. project life cycle. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!
The outdoor recreation industry represents a new economy. The leaders of this economy will need to have a deep understanding of our local natural resources and integrate the components of innovation, health, and wellness into a vision for what comes next. Everyone wins when you do the right things for the environment, the community, and the venture. We want to offer the young generation a chance to be part of the foundation we are building for adventure tourism in the emirates and the region. Adventure Tourism Is the Fastest-Growing Global Niche. What does this mean? It means that there’s plenty of room for young experts to enter the field. It’s not just the "guides" that the adventure tourism industry needs. It’s everything that goes with it, from adventure tourism accommodations to trip planners, event managers, marketing and finance directors, advertising, public relations, and communications. We want to highlight that adventure tourism requires more than just guides, and various careers within adventure tourism play a big role in attracting high-value customers, supporting local economies, and encouraging sustainable practices. The continued growth of this sector creates net positive impacts not only for tourism, but also for destination economies, their people, and their environment. 1) Understanding Tourism Tourism is one of the world’s fastest-growing industries and a major foreign exchange and employment generation for many countries. It is one of the most remarkable economic and social phenomena. 2) Understanding Adventure Tourism Adventure tourism is defined as the movement of the people from one to another place outside their comfort zone for exploration or travel to remote areas, exotic and possibly hostile areas. Adventure tourism is a type of tourism in which tourists engage in adventure activities such as trekking, climbing, rafting, scuba diving, or the likes. Adventure tourism gains much of its excitement by allowing the tourist to step outside their comfort zone. This may be from experiencing culture shock or through the performance of acts that required some degree of risk whether real or perceived. It is also about connecting with a new culture or a new landscape and being physically active at the same time. It is not only about being risky or pushing your boundaries. In fact, it is especially important to know and respect your limits while you are in an unfamiliar area. Adventure travel is a leisure activity that takes place in an unusual, exotic, remote, or wilderness destination. It tends to be associated with high levels of activity by the participant, most of it outdoors. Adventure tourists expect to experience various levels of risk, excitement, and tranquillity and be personally tested. In particular, they are explorers of unspoiled, exotic parts of the planet and also seek personal challenges. The main factor distinguishing adventure tourism from all other forms of tourism is the planning and preparation involved. 3) Definitions of Adventure Tourism Adventure tourism is a new concept in the tourism industry. The tourism industry adopted adventure tourism, but there is not any specific definition of adventure tourism. Most commentators concur that adventure tourism is a niche sector of the tourism industry, but there are many other niche sectors in tourism that have the same characteristics that overlap with adventure tourism such as ecotourism, activity tourism, or adventure travel. One of them can confuse. Adventure tourism is a complicated and ambiguous topic. Some important definitions of adventure tourism are as following: A) According to the Adventure Travel Trade Association (ATTA): “adventure tourism is a tourist activity that includes physical activity, cultural exchange, or activities in nature.” B) According to Muller and Cleaver: “Adventure tourism is characterized by its ability to provide the tourist with relatively high levels of sensory stimulation, usually achieved by including physically challenging experiential components with the tourist experience.” C) The Canadian Tourism Commission in 1995 defines adventure tourism as: “an outdoor leisure activity that takes place in an unusual, exotic, remote or wilderness destination, involves some form of unconventional means of transportation, and tends to be associated with low or high levels of activity.” D) According to Sung et al: “adventure tourism is the sum of the phenomena and relationships arising from the interactions of adventure touristic activities with the natural environment away from the participant’s usual place of residence area and containing elements of risk in which the outcome is influenced by the participation, setting, and the organizer of the tourist’s experience.” E) According to UNWTO: ” adventure tourism can be domestic or international, and like all travel, it must include an overnight stay, but not last longer than one year.” 4) Types of Adventure Tourism Adventure tourism has grown exponentially all over the world in recent years with tourists visiting destinations previously undiscovered. This allows for new destinations to market themselves as truly unique, appealing to those travellers looking for a rare, incomparable experience. Adventure tourism includes various activities like caving, hiking, sailing, trekking, etc. Adventure tourism is categorized into two categories: • Hard Adventure • Soft Adventure Hard Adventure Hard adventure refers to activities with high levels of risk, requiring intense commitment and advanced skills. Hard tourism includes the activities like climbing mountains/rock/ice, trekking, caving, etc. Hard adventure activities are highly risked in nature. Professional guides and advanced levels of skills are required to perform these activities. Many tourists died during climbing mountains, caving every day. Soft Adventure Soft adventure refers to activities with a perceived risk but low levels of risk, requiring minimal commitment and beginner skills; experienced guides lead most of these activities. Soft tourism includes the activities like backpacking, camping, hiking, kayaking, etc. Soft adventure activities are low-risk in nature. Professional guides lead these activities. Soft adventure is a popular category in adventure tourism as it caters to a wider audience. 5) Adventure Tourism Activities Adventure travellers are early adopters by nature, meaning they are generally more willing to try new destinations, activities, and travel products. Popular activities change rapidly, and it seems there is a new twist on an existing sport every year. Some activities have low risk and some have high. Adventure tourism activities are classified into two types: • Hard Adventure Activities • Soft Adventure Activities Hard Adventure Activities Hard adventure activities are highly risky and dangerous in nature. These activities are as the following: • Caving • Mountain Climbing • Rock Climbing • Ice Climbing • Trekking • Sky Diving Soft Adventure Activities These activities are less dangerous and risk as compared to hard adventure activities. These activities are mostly lead by professional guides. An example of these activities are: • Backpacking • Bird watching • Camping • Canoeing • Eco-tourism • Fishing • Hiking • Horseback riding • Hunting • Kayaking/sea/whitewater • Orienteering • Safaris • Scuba Diving • Snorkeling • Skiing • Snowboarding • Surfing Adventure tourism activities sit well with the environment because the natural world provides us with the resources for many of the activities that provide risk, challenge, sensory stimulus, novelty, discovery, and so on. 6) Characteristics and Features of Adventure Tourism The threefold combination of activity, nature, and culture marks adventure travel as an all-around challenge. Some unique characteristics and features of adventure tourism are as the following: • Physical activity, like involving physical exertion or psychomotor skills • Contact with nature, activities bringing contact with the natural world in general, or with specific wildlife • Contact with different cultures, i.e. people, faith, lifestyles • Journeys for example vehicle, animal, or human power • Uncertain outcomes • Danger and risk • Challenges • Anticipated rewards • Novelty • Stimulation and excitement • Exploration and discovery • Contrasting emotions 7) Adventure Tourism Supplier A tourism supply chain is the system of people, products, activities, and materials that get a product or service from its raw state through production and distribution to the consumer. As with any sector, volume discounts drive the mass price point, so major retailers primarily market select trips that sell in high volume. The supply chain for these mass tourism products is often very simple, comprising only transportation and accommodation elements. The adventure tourism supply chain is more complex. Niche products often require specializes in knowledge and operations. Adventure tourism’s supply chain linkages go very deep, and this is one of the key reasons that adventure tourism delivers greater benefits at the local level. Supply chains vary from destination to destination. Without a proper supply chain, the tourism sector cannot survive. Tourism suppliers are the backbone of the tourism industry. Adventure tourism suppliers work at a different, different level like as domestic as well international level. 8) Adventure Tourism Importance and Benefits Adventure tourism is one of the fastest-growing sectors of the tourism sector, attracting high-value customers, supporting local economies, and encouraging sustainable practices. The continued growth of this sector creates net positive impacts not only for tourism, but also for destination economies, their people, and their environment. Some importance and benefits of adventure tourism are: A) Employment Generation Adventure tourism generates jobs. Adventure tourism generates directs jobs to accommodation, transportation sector, and travel agencies or tour operators. Adventure tourism also provides indirect jobs to tourism suppliers. Adventure tourism plays an important role in the generation of employment in the economy. B) Foreign Exchange Adventure tourism attracts foreign tourists on a large scale, as a result, it helps in foreign exchange generation. When tourists travel to another country, they spend a large amount of money on accommodation, transportation, and shopping. Adventure tourism generates foreign exchange and supports the economy of the host country. C) Economy Development Adventure tourism helps in the development of the host country’s economy. Adventure tourism activities directly support the economy in various forms. The more tourists, the more economic growth. D) Support Local Communities Adventure tourism helps in the development of infrastructure and supports local communities. Adventure tourism activities directly contributed to the local economy of the communities and increase local people's living standards. E) Conservation of Natural Resources Adventure tourism activities are nature-based activities. Leaders in the adventure tourism industry are dedicated to making this tourism segment as sustainable as possible. They help in the conservation of natural resources as well as culture. F) Creating Business Opportunities Adventure tourism activities create new business opportunities. Several companies specialize in helping emerging adventure tourism operators market their products. Each new adventure tourism activity creates a new business opportunity. G) Local and Foreign Investment Adventure tourism creates business opportunities; as a result, it attracts local as well as international investors. Investors invest their money in accommodation, transportation, and travel trade organization. Adventure tourism plays an important role in the economy of the host country.
Chapter One: Management Today The challenges of working in the new economy recognize: 1.1 Working Today Talent Talented people- What they know, what they learn and what they can achive The source of organisational performance Develop skills and improve What is intellectual capital The combined brain power and shared knowledge of an organization's employees TO orginzations: Intellectual capital resents a strategic asset as human creativity, insight and decision making can be converted into superior performance To individuals: Intellectual capital is a personal asset, one to be nurtured and continually updated Things evolve, make sure we keep updated Intellectual capital: The package on intellect skills and capabilities that set us apart making us valable to potential employers Maintaining your talent: There is no escaping the fact that your career success will require a lot of initiative, self awareness and continuous learning Technology Tech is in our everyday lives Latest developments Smart phone, smart apparel, smart cars, smart homes We struggle to keep up with social media ana staying connected with messaging, full of email and voicemail What happenings as younger workers advance into management Flexibility Work ethic It is critical to build and maintain a high Tech IQ! What is Tech IQ: The ability to use current technologies at work and in your personal life, combined with the commitment to keep yourself updated as technology continues to evolve Intellectual capi5la is a combination of: Commitment x Competency = Intellectual capital How to make the world a better place Globalisation The worldwide interdependence of resources flows, product markets and business competition Under the influence, government leaders worry and about the competitiveness of nations just as corporate leaders worry about business competitiveness Emerging markets will power global growth over the next 20 years. By 2025 overall global consumption is forecast to reach $62 trillion, twice its 2013 level and fully half of this increase will come from the emerging world Consequence: Going to fast in uses resources, inflation, corporate greed It's cheaper to have things made in different countries (wages are low and going down) Shamrock organization 1 leaf - full time employees- standard career paths 2 leaf - “freelancers” 3 leaf - Part times without benefits (first to lose their jobs when employers face economic difficulties) The rising of emerging markets Now account for 60% of all low and medium technology manufacturing worldwide Total value add in high tech manufacturing from a low 26% in the 1970s to 48% at present China strategy to upgrade its industries and move the manufacturing value ching by prioritising 10 sectors Information technology, robotic, aerospace, maritime equipment, modern railway equipment, alternative energy vehicles, power equipment, agriculture equipment, advanced materials, biopharma and medical products Ethics A code of moral principa;s that sets standards for conduct that is “good” and “right” as well as “bad” and “wrong” Enron company huge corruption even in elections same thing happened with The Mechanism 1.2 - Organizations Organizational Purpose An orgnizations is a collection of people working together to achieve a common purpose Unique social phenomenon that enables its members to perform tasks far beyond the reach of individual accomplishment (synergy) The broad purpose of any orginzation is to provide goods or services of value to customers and clients A clear sense of purpose tied to: Quality of products and services Customer satisfaction Social responsibility Can be an important source of organisational strength and performance advantage All organisations are open systems (Systems that interact with its environment for renewal and growth) Organizations as systems All organizations are open systems that interact with their environment Continual process of obtaining resource inputs-people, information, resources and capital- and transforming them into outputs in the form of finished goods and services for customers One simple way to assess the impact of any organisation is to ask the question: How is the world different because it existed Value Creation: Organisations create value when they use resources well to produce good products and take care of their customers One simple way to assess the impact of any organization is to ask the questions: How is the world different because it existed? The 3 Ps of organizational performance Profit - is the decision economically sound? People - Does the decision treat people with respect and dignity? Planet - Is the decision good for the environment? Productivity: An overall measure of the quantity and quality of work performance with recourse utilisation taken into account Performance effectiveness: An output measure of task or goal accomplishment Performance efficiency: An input measure of the resource costs associated with goal accomplishment. Workplace changes that impact management Focus on valuing human capital Demise of “Command and control” Emphasis on teamwork Pre-eminence of technology New workforce expectations Importance of networking Concern for sustainability 1.3 Managers Importance of human resources and manger People are not ‘costs to be controlled’ High performing organizations treat people as valuable strategic assets Three takeaways 1. Give leaders broad authority 2. Encourage them to think like CEO 3. Challenge strong performers ealy with big opportunities Direct support, supervise and help activate the work efforts of others The people who managers help are the ones whose contributions represent the real work of the organisation Types of managers Line managers are responsible for work activities that directly affect organization’s output Staff managers use technical expertise to advise and support the efforts of line workers Functional managers are responsible for a single area of activity Quality of work life (QWL) An indicator of the overall quality of human experiences in the workplace QWL Indicators Respect Fair pay Safe working conditions Opportunities to learn and use new skills Room to grow and progress in a career Protection of individuals rights The organization as an upside-down pyramid A manager’s job is to support worker’s efforts The best managers are known for helping and supporting Customers at the top served by worker who are supported by managers 1.4 The management Process Managers achieve high performance for their organizations by best utilizing its humans and material resources Management is the process of planning, organizing, leading and controlling the use of resources to accomplish performance goals All managers are responsible for the four functions The functions are carried on continually Characteristics of managerial work Long hours Intense pace Fragmented and varied tasks Many communication media Filled with interpersonal relationships Managerial agendas and networks Agenda setting Develops action priorities for accomplishing goals and plans Networking Process of building and maintaining positive relationships with people who can help advance agendas Social Capital Capacity to attract support and help from others Learning The change in a behaviour that results from experience Lifelong learning The process of continuously learning from daily experiences and opportunities
The challenges of working in the new economy recognize: 1.1 Working Today Talent Talented people- What they know, what they learn and what they can achive The source of organisational performance Develop skills and improve What is intellectual capital The combined brain power and shared knowledge of an organization's employees TO orginzations: Intellectual capital resents a strategic asset as human creativity, insight and decision making can be converted into superior performance To individuals: Intellectual capital is a personal asset, one to be nurtured and continually updated Things evolve, make sure we keep updated Intellectual capital: The package on intellect skills and capabilities that set us apart making us valable to potential employers Maintaining your talent: There is no escaping the fact that your career success will require a lot of initiative, self awareness and continuous learning Technology Tech is in our everyday lives Latest developments Smart phone, smart apparel, smart cars, smart homes We struggle to keep up with social media ana staying connected with messaging, full of email and voicemail What happenings as younger workers advance into management Flexibility Work ethic It is critical to build and maintain a high Tech IQ! What is Tech IQ: The ability to use current technologies at work and in your personal life, combined with the commitment to keep yourself updated as technology continues to evolve Intellectual capi5la is a combination of: Commitment x Competency = Intellectual capital How to make the world a better place Globalisation The worldwide interdependence of resources flows, product markets and business competition Under the influence, government leaders worry and about the competitiveness of nations just as corporate leaders worry about business competitiveness Emerging markets will power global growth over the next 20 years. By 2025 overall global consumption is forecast to reach $62 trillion, twice its 2013 level and fully half of this increase will come from the emerging world Consequence: Going to fast in uses resources, inflation, corporate greed It's cheaper to have things made in different countries (wages are low and going down) Shamrock organization 1 leaf - full time employees- standard career paths 2 leaf - “freelancers” 3 leaf - Part times without benefits (first to lose their jobs when employers face economic difficulties) The rising of emerging markets Now account for 60% of all low and medium technology manufacturing worldwide Total value add in high tech manufacturing from a low 26% in the 1970s to 48% at present China strategy to upgrade its industries and move the manufacturing value ching by prioritising 10 sectors Information technology, robotic, aerospace, maritime equipment, modern railway equipment, alternative energy vehicles, power equipment, agriculture equipment, advanced materials, biopharma and medical products Ethics A code of moral principa;s that sets standards for conduct that is “good” and “right” as well as “bad” and “wrong” Enron company huge corruption even in elections same thing happened with The Mechanism 1.2 - Organizations Organizational Purpose An orgnizations is a collection of people working together to achieve a common purpose Unique social phenomenon that enables its members to perform tasks far beyond the reach of individual accomplishment (synergy) The broad purpose of any orginzation is to provide goods or services of value to customers and clients A clear sense of purpose tied to: Quality of products and services Customer satisfaction Social responsibility Can be an important source of organisational strength and performance advantage All organisations are open systems (Systems that interact with its environment for renewal and growth) Organizations as systems All organizations are open systems that interact with their environment Continual process of obtaining resource inputs-people, information, resources and capital- and transforming them into outputs in the form of finished goods and services for customers One simple way to assess the impact of any organisation is to ask the question: How is the world different because it existed Michal Porter - Value Chain Value Creation: Organisations create value when they use resources well to produce good products and take care of their customers One simple way to assess the impact of any organization is to ask the questions: How is the world different because it existed? Triple Bottom Line The 3 Ps of organizational performance Profit - is the decision economically sound? People - Does the decision treat people with respect and dignity? Planet - Is the decision good for the environment? Organizational Performance Productivity: An overall measure of the quantity and quality of work performance with recourse utilisation taken into account Performance effectiveness: An output measure of task or goal accomplishment Performance efficiency: An input measure of the resource costs associated with goal accomplishment. Workplace changes that impact management Focus on valuing human capital Demise of “Command and control” Emphasis on teamwork Pre-eminence of technology New workforce expectations Importance of networking Concern for sustainability 1.3 Managers Importance of human resources and manger People are not ‘costs to be controlled’ High performing organizations treat people as valuable strategic assets Three takeaways 1. Give leaders broad authority 2. Encourage them to think like CEO 3. Challenge strong performers easily with big opportunities Direct support, supervise and help activate the work efforts of others The people who managers help are the ones whose contributions represent the real work of the organisation Levels of management Types of managers Line managers are responsible for work activities that directly affect organization’s output Staff managers use technical expertise to advise and support the efforts of line workers Functional managers are responsible for a single area of activity Quality of work life (QWL) An indicator of the overall quality of human experiences in the workplace QWL Indicators Respect Fair pay Safe working conditions Opportunities to learn and use new skills Room to grow and progress in a career Protection of individuals rights The organization as an upside-down pyramid A manager’s job is to support worker’s efforts The best managers are known for helping and supporting Customers at the top served by worker who are supported by managers 1.4 The management Process Managers achieve high performance for their organizations by best utilizing its humans and material resources Management is the process of planning, organizing, leading and controlling the use of resources to accomplish performance goals All managers are responsible for the four functions The functions are carried on continually Four functions: Planning,organizing, leading and controlling Mintzberg’s 10 Managerial Roles Characteristics of managerial work Long hours Intense pace Fragmented and varied tasks Many communication media Filled with interpersonal relationships Managerial agendas and networks Agenda setting Develops action priorities for accomplishing goals and plans Networking Process of building and maintaining positive relationships with people who can help advance agendas Social Capital Capacity to attract support and help from others Learning The change in a behaviour that results from experience Lifelong learning The process of continuously learning from daily experiences and opportunities Katz’ Essential Managerial Skills
The advantage of direct method is that the teacher can control the class and fit in a lot of activity into a short class period. This leaves plenty of opportunities for the students to hone their skills, especially new ones. On the other hand, because the class is centered around the teacher, some students may not receive proper feedback, and creativity is limited. Also, the lesser talented athletes often tend to get lost in the shuffle while the great athletes shine. However, there are now a multitude of various teaching strategies that can be employed in addition to that method. Ex: Announcements, Module/Unit introductions, Descriptions/modeling of assignments and learning activities, Written or video lectures, Demonstration videos, Presentations, Discussions moderated by instructors, Interactive tutorials. Indirect Method The Indirect Teaching Style allows students to be involved in their own learning through experience and other peer’s knowledge. Students can use critical thinking to expand their learning capabilities by seeing what others may be doing correct and adjusting this to their own knowledge. The Indirect approach is the opposite of what the direct style suggests, but they are both strictly related, meaning you can’t have one without the other. Direct teaching: The instructor stands in front of the class or group and lectures or advises. Indirect teaching: The instructor assumes a more passive role and guides the student interactions. Movement exploration: Incorporates the use of equipment that involves movement. Movement Exploration The movement exploration class is founded on developing a strong, positive association to physical activity. Classes are aimed at developing movement skills and foundational strength through fun and engaging activities. The activities are age appropriate and include games, challenges, and exploration that positively challenge children’s competency while improving their physical capabilities. Skills such as the ability to climb, hold animal shapes, gymnastic style activities, and the introduction to athletic motor skill competencies are the foundations to youth training. This class provides the introduction to strength training to give children the opportunity to learn the skills required to safely and confidently engage in resistance training. Cooperative Skills Cooperative activities teach students to work together for their group's common good. By participating in these activities, students can learn the skills of listening, discussing, thinking as a group, group decision making, and sacrificing individual wants for the common good. There are two primary objectives guiding the teaching of cooperative activities. First, cooperative activities allow students to apply a variety of fundamental motor skills in a unique setting. Students are typically asked to perform motor skills in a specific way, such as “skip in general space” or “balance on one foot and one elbow.” Cooperative activities ask students to perform different activities such as skip with their hands on the shoulders of someone in front of them, walk with big steps while placing their feet on small spots, or walk across an area blindfolded while someone directs their moves. Due to the uniqueness of such experiences, students often find cooperative activities exciting and motivating. Second, cooperative activities are a wonderful medium for teaching social and emotional learning (SEL). SEL offers students an opportunity to understand and manage their emotions. In addition, such activities offer an opportunity to show empathy for others and develop positive relationships. Cooperative activities demand that all students play a role in completing the task or solving the movement problem. Every student, regardless of ability level, is important and contributes to group goals. 9 traits a PE teacher often needs Here are nine essential traits of an effective PE teacher: 1. Athletic ability Athletic ability is an essential trait for a PE teacher because they're often showing kids how to perform exercises. To demonstrate proper form and encourage the kids to continue their fitness education, it's important they can perform the exercises themselves. Having experience with fitness training can enhance a PE teacher's lesson planning because they're familiar with how each exercise affects a person's body. Athletic ability can also refer to an aptitude for sports and games. PE teachers can instruct students on how to play these games or lead after-school activities involving them, like soccer or basketball. An aptitude for sports and games can help a PE teacher encourage students to participate in the activities during class. If the PE teacher enjoys physical activity, they may make the lessons more enjoyable for the student. 2. Teaching ability A PE teacher is a member of a school faculty, so it's essential they have the teaching ability that allows them to communicate lessons to students. There are various skills involved in teaching, including the technical capabilities associated with each professional's particular field. Learning these skills can help PE teacher plan their lessons effectively and connect with their students, meaning they can encourage students to practice fitness skills in optimal ways for their health. Here are some important teaching skills for PE teachers: Having an engaging classroom presence  Real-world learning  Project building  Lesson planning  Technology 3. Interpersonal skills PE coaches are part of faculty teams, so working alongside other teachers is an essential part of their job. They often collaborate with a student's general education teacher to address any behavioral issues that arise. They can also team up with other classes to plan activities for students, like field days and special field trips. Communicating with peers can ensure these interactions remain productive and create opportunities for more fulfilling lessons. Teachers can also model emotional skills for their students by displaying positive social interactions. Interpersonal skills can also help PE teachers interact with students and their families. If a student can make a student feel comfortable expressing their needs and preferences, they can often perform physical exercises or play games to the best of their individual capacities. Understanding how to soothe nerves and support students' emotional needs are important examples of interpersonal skills. When interacting with family members, you may use some of these same techniques to communicate effectively and best uplift students. 4. Written and verbal communication Both verbal and written communication is important for PE teachers because they often communicate with students, families and various personnel on a day-to-day basis. For example, a PE teacher uses their communication skills in a lesson plan to describe any student assignments or expectations accurately. They may also write instructions in a document, then explain them in a classroom lecture. They also use communication skills to share their lesson plans with other PE teachers during conferences or classroom development exercises. Many teachers continue to learn their trade even after working as a teacher for many years. They may share tips with each other or special lessons they've developed if they feel another teacher may benefit from it. Creating a community can help PE teachers continue to expand their teaching methodology and receive feedback on their lessons. 5. Patience and adaptability Working with children can require patience and adaptability because they're encountering many new concepts at the same time and learning how to regulate their emotions. As a result, it's important to treat them with patience and care while they're in your class so they can feel comfortable and feel motivated to complete assignments. As children become teenagers, they may require patience and adaptability to account for their changing bodies and attention spans. Like any job where you perform tasks in real-time, certain circumstances may occur that require you to adapt lesson plans. For example, if the weather turns from sunshine to rain on a day you planned for students to run a mile outside, you may need to adapt the lesson plan so they can practice endurance sports inside a gymnasium instead. 6. Organization PE teachers can use organization skills to improve their lesson planning sessions. For example, they can keep their plans in one place, and determine which parts of a semester or quarter to introduce new concepts. Throughout the year, these objectives may change because of unforeseen setbacks, but organizational skills can help PE teachers control the trajectory of their class curriculum. PE teachers can also use organizational skills to maintain their classroom space. Physical education frequently requires balls, equipment and tools to play games that may be on a lesson plan. They also organize equipment and decide where to store it within their classroom or storage space. 7. Creativity Creativity can help a PE teacher develop fun ways to introduce new material to their students or reinforce previous lessons. They can teach new games or devise interesting ideas to change the rules of a game to help keep students engaged. To find inspiration for their lesson plans, they can turn to personal hobbies or media aspects they enjoy, like movie scenes, songs or dances. A varied lesson plan can foster more engagement among students who prefer action- based learning activities, rather than lectures. 8. Focus Focus is an essential trait of a PE teacher because students often require their full attention during class, especially if they're learning a complicated physical task. You can focus your lesson plans around specific elements of physical education you believe are essential for students of a certain age group or skill level. If students require mentorship, you can also focus on each student's needs to supply them with a steady support system. Focusing on your students can help guide your career purpose. It can give you a core value system that informs your lesson plans and mentorship activities. This passion for your student's well-being can also help you become an advocate for each student in your class. You can also help organize funding for different field trips or establish after-school activities to support their interests. 9. Enthusiasm for teaching sports and fitness Enthusiasm is essential for a PE teacher. Many physical education activities require high energy and may suit someone who enjoys teaching them to others. Being an effective PE teacher also requires an enthusiasm for working with kids and making a positive impact on their lives.
Earlier in 2019 there was a lot of femicide uh girls being killed by their boyfriends because they did one or two things there are also cultures of if there is violence in terms of a marital relationship that that is fine if there's a marital rape that that is fine so you find such situations being normalized and it being also a taboo to speak about those issues the 2030 agenda for sustainable development is grounded in respect for human rights and the power of people to change the world every individual on the planet has the right to health and well-being in all aspects of their sexuality their body and their reproductive choices ensuring these rights is integral to addressing poverty education violence against women and gender equality sexual and reproductive health rights are agreed in international law they were fought for by courageous women's rights activists and advocates across a broad range of professional fields and frontline experiences by movements of all ages levels and backgrounds they are still being fought for while progress has been made globally many barriers remain especially for those most marginalized excluded or discriminated against human rights are central to delivering the 17 sustainable development goals in the sustainable development agenda indeed each sdg target is simultaneously a metric and a claim for human rights the interplay between these political commitments and human rights obligations is particularly important when it comes to achieving sexual and reproductive health rights for decades human rights-based tactics have been used to drive progress in this episode of right to a better world experts share challenges they have faced and tactics they have used to address them the challenges they describe occur in settings all around the world the strategies used are ones that they have found to be successful in their own settings viewers are encouraged to learn from these experiences and consider how tactics could be adapted to their own context when sexual and reproductive health begins with equality the discussions decisions programs and policies which follow can build towards a future where every individual is not only born free but lives free and equal in dignity and rights without violence or discrimination the time to take action is now violence against women is any act that results in or is likely to result in physical sexual or psychological harm or suffering to women this includes threats of such acts coercion or arbitrary deprivation of liberty in public or private life it happens everywhere in every country in the home in communities at work and at school crises including health and humanitarian crises frequently contribute to higher rates of violence against women violence against women is directed at women because of their status as women the consequences are dire jeopardizing women's health including sexual and reproductive health and mental health hampering their ability to participate fully in society causing tremendous physical and psychological suffering for both women and their children the majority of women survivors of violence do not disclose or seek any type of services efforts to address violence against women must recognize the many different contexts in which it occurs and the many different forms it can take the majority of violence against women is committed by an intimate partner her current or previous boyfriend or husband globally around 30 of women have experienced physical and or sexual violence by an intimate partner in their lifetime this increases the risk of acquiring an sti or in some regions hiv by 1.5 fold when a woman is experiencing violence especially from her partner she's really unable to keep safe from hiv men have power to decide how when and where sex should be done and the woman is at risk of being infected because she cannot say no schools are another setting where violence against girls can take place assault and harassment during their commute bullying sexual harassment and mental or physical abuse on school property are all challenges across various country contexts this has a direct impact on girls access to inclusive quality education a target of sdg4 and an indirect impact on many of their other human rights young girls are taking advantage of at a very young age and they do not understand the choices and the avenues whereby they can exercise their rights when it comes to sexual productive health and rights and so you find a lot of dropouts and a lot of girls also going through a lot of traumatic experiences that would be avoided if they had guidance promoting a safe and secure working environment for all is a cornerstone of sdg 8. this includes a workplace free from sexual harassment and violence but for many women especially women migrant workers and others in precarious employment this is far from reality so we went to naivasha which is a flower farm and we've met the informal workers the casual liberals working for the flower farms when for example the sexual violence cases are reported companies don't take them very seriously a wide range of tactics have been used to prevent and address violence against women and girls and to recognize it as a fundamental violation of human rights prevention of intimate partner violence is possible when interventions are informed by evidence of what works we started out by describing the problem we've now moved to research on what works what are the kinds of interventions that are successful both for preventing the problem from happening in the first place and also from interventions to respond the respect women framework on preventing violence against women developed by the who un women ohchr and other international agencies promotes seven strategies which focus on relationship skills strengthening empowerment of women services for health justice police and social sector poverty reduction environments made safer including schools workplaces and public spaces child and adolescence abuse prevented and transformation of gender attitudes beliefs and norms this action-oriented framework can enable policy makers and health implementers to design plan implement monitor and evaluate interventions and programs to prevent violence against women we have come a long way for sure we still have some ways to go and we need to do more to stop this violence from happening in the first place this involves addressing the social norms that still prevail in many settings that make this form of violence acceptable women are not exposed to gender-based violence by accident all because of an inbuilt vulnerability violence against women is rooted in discriminatory social norms and power dynamics dismantling these underlying causes of violence against women and girls is at the heart of achieving gender equality and empowering all women and girls as set out in the targets and indicators of sdg 5 ensuring healthy lives in sdg3 and reducing inequalities in sdg 10. women and men are valued differently society has heap privileges on the men while the women are looked at as subordinate power is not only the problem but also the solution to preventing violence against women we are making it personal everyone connects with power every day people living with power or grappling with power they find themselves within this whole conversation if you're working to create gnome change there has to be change at all levels strategies to raise awareness in communities about violence against women and girls are critical as there is still a lot of stigma and shame which inhibits many women and girls from talking about it intervention is like a big complicated word sometimes it's just about talking about dialogue i mean the fact that we went into schools and just began a conversation with parents um bringing them together in the school along with the school personnel and then having the conversation start from there and we also sort of train providers within schools to appropriately refer children to health facilities for care what we found was that this dialogue began to spark other conversations in the community and i guess they just felt that oh it's actually okay to talk about this openly rather than pretend that nothing is going on sassa is a community mobilization approach to prevent violence against women and hiv and aids it is activist led it's not workshop heavy based it comes away from the traditional programming of organizations going to do things themselves instead they support activists who do the activities with their friends and neighbors health systems play a critical role in responding to violence wherever it occurs supporting health workers to respond appropriately to violence as well as ensuring their work environment enables them to provide safe effective and quality survivor centred care are important strategies for better addressing violence against women and girls um we came to learn not to ask direct questions not to give our opinion or our judgment on them and let her speak and once with that flow starts once that connection is established that doctor-patient relationship emotionally is established she will actually tell you the whole history legal frameworks to promote enforce and monitor equality and non-discrimination on the basis of sex are an important sdg 5 indicator but putting laws in place does not automatically make them effective there are existing protections for women in the workplace or for individuals in the workplace in relation to harassment but we know from our call for evidence that they are not actually addressing the problem the recommendations that we developed included government implementing a mandatory duty for employers to take preventative steps to address harassment in the workplace so what we would like to see is government implement a much stronger legislative duty it has taken decades of struggle by the women's rights movement to persuade the international community to view violence against women as a human rights concern and a sustainable development priority not a private matter governments have obligations to respect protect and fulfill the right to a life free of violence and to provide for sanctions when they fail when seeking accountability the priority consideration must always be the safety and well-being of survivors respecting their wishes and autonomy and supporting them to make informed choices about the type of justice they want context is vitally important there are many strategies to hold perpetrators accountable including strategic litigation and public campaigns when the teachers impregnate the girls that means the system has failed and okay what they do is they blacklist the teachers and they are always removed from the payroll but we think that is not enough the case that was quite interesting is where one of the judges she did find a ruling against the teacher service commission the commission that is responsible for hiring teachers asking them that they must take responsibility and they were ordered to pay compensation to the girls who had gotten pregnant while in school the justice police issue came about a few years back when a young girl was raped and the punishment for her being ripped was that harappa she was gang-ripped and therapists were told to slash grass feminist organizations and young women organizations came back to the police and the police commissioner to ask and request that the people who are found to be perpetrators should be punished according to our constitution and according to the laws of the land and those are very big campaigns to get better justice so consequently they were jailed but also it was a sign that the system the police system had to be checked in terms of when someone reports a case any case of violence what happens and how is it followed through the maria pedra is another example of litigation that became a political mobilizer so this was a case from the inter-american commission that really galvanized a change in public policy a huge change because it was a case that addressed gender-based violence intimate partner violence it called on responsibility of brazil also for not having prevented this kind of violence the reality of a case that says you have the right to not be bruised you have the right to be free of physical psychological violence it's powerful it can change women's lives investing in autonomous women's movements has been one of the most important drivers of changes in laws and policies to address violence against women over the past 40 years according to data from over 70 countries women organizing to advance women's status define the very concept of violence against women raised awareness of the issue and put it on national and global policy agendas often we thought that it takes generations or centuries to change working intensely with the communities we can actually see change coming violence against women and girls is a violation of fundamental human rights to life and to physical and psychological integrity not to be tortured or treated in an inhuman and degrading way to respect for private and family life and the right not to be discriminated against this understanding is more than theoretical human rights-based tactics can offer a practical route to addressing systemic challenges across all the circumstances where violence against women and girls occurs including but not limited to at the hands of their partners at school and in the workplace by using evidence-informed prevention strategies addressing power relations and social norms community mobilizing and dialogue supporting health systems and professionals putting in place strong legal frameworks accessing justice and ending impunity feminist organizing and mobilizing every individual can help to deliver the 2030 agenda for sustainable development building a world in which women and girls are free from all forms of violence and discrimination [Music] you
Understanding Quantum Theory of Electrons in Atoms The goal of this section is to understand the electron orbitals (location of electrons in atoms), their different energies, and other properties. The use of quantum theory provides the best understanding to these topics. This knowledge is a precursor to chemical bonding. As was described previously, electrons in atoms can exist only on discrete energy levels but not between them. It is said that the energy of an electron in an atom is quantized, that is, it can be equal only to certain specific values and can jump from one energy level to another but not transition smoothly or stay between these levels. The energy levels are labeled with an n value, where n = 1, 2, 3, …. Generally speaking, the energy of an electron in an atom is greater for greater values of n. This number, n, is referred to as the principal quantum number. The principal quantum number defines the location of the energy level. It is essentially the same concept as the n in the Bohr atom description. Another name for the principal quantum number is the shell number. The shells of an atom can be thought of concentric circles radiating out from the nucleus. The electrons that belong to a specific shell are most likely to be found within the corresponding circular area. The further we proceed from the nucleus, the higher the shell number, and so the higher the energy level (Figure 9.4.1). The positively charged protons in the nucleus stabilize the electronic orbitals by electrostatic attraction between the positive charges of the protons and the negative charges of the electrons. So the further away the electron is from the nucleus, the greater the energy it has. This quantum mechanical model for where electrons reside in an atom can be used to look at electronic transitions, the events when an electron moves from one energy level to another. If the transition is to a higher energy level, energy is absorbed, and the energy change has a positive value. To obtain the amount of energy necessary for the transition to a higher energy level, a photon is absorbed by the atom. A transition to a lower energy level involves a release of energy, and the energy change is negative. This process is accompanied by emission of a photon by the atom. The following equation summarizes these relationships and is based on the hydrogen atom: The values nf and ni are the final and initial energy states of the electron. The principal quantum number is one of three quantum numbers used to characterize an orbital. An atomic orbital, which is distinct from an orbit, is a general region in an atom within which an electron is most probable to reside. The quantum mechanical model specifies the probability of finding an electron in the three-dimensional space around the nucleus and is based on solutions of the Schrödinger equation. In addition, the principal quantum number defines the energy of an electron in a hydrogen or hydrogen-like atom or an ion (an atom or an ion with only one electron) and the general region in which discrete energy levels of electrons in a multi-electron atoms and ions are located. Another quantum number is l, the angular momentum quantum number. It is an integer that defines the shape of the orbital, and takes on the values, l = 0, 1, 2, …, n – 1. This means that an orbital with n = 1 can have only one value of l, l = 0, whereas n = 2 permits l = 0 and l = 1, and so on. The principal quantum number defines the general size and energy of the orbital. The l value specifies the shape of the orbital. Orbitals with the same value of l form a subshell. In addition, the greater the angular momentum quantum number, the greater is the angular momentum of an electron at this orbital. Orbitals with l = 0 are called s orbitals (or the s subshells). The value l = 1 corresponds to the p orbitals. For a given n, p orbitals constitute a p subshell (e.g., 3p if n = 3). The orbitals with l = 2 are called the d orbitals, followed by the f-, g-, and h-orbitals for l = 3, 4, 5, and there are higher values we will not consider. There are certain distances from the nucleus at which the probability density of finding an electron located at a particular orbital is zero. In other words, the value of the wavefunction ψ is zero at this distance for this orbital. Such a value of radius r is called a radial node. The number of radial nodes in an orbital is n – l – 1. Consider the examples in Figure 9.4.2. The orbitals depicted are of the s type, thus l = 0 for all of them. It can be seen from the graphs of the probability densities that there are 1 – 0 – 1 = 0 places where the density is zero (nodes) for 1s (n = 1), 2 – 0 – 1 = 1 node for 2s, and 3 – 0 – 1 = 2 nodes for the 3s orbitals. The s subshell electron density distribution is spherical and the p subshell has a dumbbell shape. The d and f orbitals are more complex. These shapes represent the three-dimensional regions within which the electron is likely to be found. Principal quantum number (n) & Orbital angular momentum (l): The Orbital Subshell: https://youtu.be/ms7WR149fAY If an electron has an angular momentum (l ≠ 0), then this vector can point in different directions. In addition, the z component of the angular momentum can have more than one value. This means that if a magnetic field is applied in the z direction, orbitals with different values of the z component of the angular momentum will have different energies resulting from interacting with the field. The magnetic quantum number, called ml, specifies the z component of the angular momentum for a particular orbital. For example, for an s orbital, l = 0, and the only value of ml is zero. For p orbitals, l = 1, and ml can be equal to –1, 0, or +1. Generally speaking, ml can be equal to –l, –(l – 1), …, –1, 0, +1, …, (l – 1), l. The total number of possible orbitals with the same value of l (a subshell) is 2l + 1. Thus, there is one s-orbital for ml = 0, there are three p-orbitals for ml = 1, five d-orbitals for ml = 2, seven f-orbitals for ml = 3, and so forth. The principal quantum number defines the general value of the electronic energy. The angular momentum quantum number determines the shape of the orbital. And the magnetic quantum number specifies orientation of the orbital in space, as can be seen in Figure 9.4.3. Figure 9.4.4 illustrates the energy levels for various orbitals. The number before the orbital name (such as 2s, 3p, and so forth) stands for the principal quantum number, n. The letter in the orbital name defines the subshell with a specific angular momentum quantum number l = 0 for s orbitals, 1 for p orbitals, 2 for d orbitals. Finally, there are more than one possible orbitals for l ≥ 1, each corresponding to a specific value of ml. In the case of a hydrogen atom or a one-electron ion (such as He+, Li2+, and so on), energies of all the orbitals with the same n are the same. This is called a degeneracy, and the energy levels for the same principal quantum number, n, are called degenerate energy levels. However, in atoms with more than one electron, this degeneracy is eliminated by the electron–electron interactions, and orbitals that belong to different subshells have different energies. Orbitals within the same subshell (for example ns, np, nd, nf, such as 2p, 3s) are still degenerate and have the same energy. While the three quantum numbers discussed in the previous paragraphs work well for describing electron orbitals, some experiments showed that they were not sufficient to explain all observed results. It was demonstrated in the 1920s that when hydrogen-line spectra are examined at extremely high resolution, some lines are actually not single peaks but, rather, pairs of closely spaced lines. This is the so-called fine structure of the spectrum, and it implies that there are additional small differences in energies of electrons even when they are located in the same orbital. These observations led Samuel Goudsmit and George Uhlenbeck to propose that electrons have a fourth quantum number. They called this the spin quantum number, or ms. The other three quantum numbers, n, l, and ml, are properties of specific atomic orbitals that also define in what part of the space an electron is most likely to be located. Orbitals are a result of solving the Schrödinger equation for electrons in atoms. The electron spin is a different kind of property. It is a completely quantum phenomenon with no analogues in the classical realm. In addition, it cannot be derived from solving the Schrödinger equation and is not related to the normal spatial coordinates (such as the Cartesian x, y, and z). Electron spin describes an intrinsic electron “rotation” or “spinning.” Each electron acts as a tiny magnet or a tiny rotating object with an angular momentum, even though this rotation cannot be observed in terms of the spatial coordinates. The magnitude of the overall electron spin can only have one value, and an electron can only “spin” in one of two quantized states. One is termed the α state, with the z component of the spin being in the positive direction of the z axis. This corresponds to the spin quantum number ms=12. The other is called the β state, with the z component of the spin being negative and ms=−12. Any electron, regardless of the atomic orbital it is located in, can only have one of those two values of the spin quantum number. The energies of electrons having ms=−12 and ms=12 are different if an external magnetic field is applied. Figure 9.4.5 illustrates this phenomenon. An electron acts like a tiny magnet. Its moment is directed up (in the positive direction of the z axis) for the 12 spin quantum number and down (in the negative z direction) for the spin quantum number of −12. A magnet has a lower energy if its magnetic moment is aligned with the external magnetic field (the left electron) and a higher energy for the magnetic moment being opposite to the applied field. This is why an electron with ms=12 has a slightly lower energy in an external field in the positive z direction, and an electron with ms=−12 has a slightly higher energy in the same field. This is true even for an electron occupying the same orbital in an atom. A spectral line corresponding to a transition for electrons from the same orbital but with different spin quantum numbers has two possible values of energy; thus, the line in the spectrum will show a fine structure splitting. The Pauli Exclusion Principle An electron in an atom is completely described by four quantum numbers: n, l, ml, and ms. The first three quantum numbers define the orbital and the fourth quantum number describes the intrinsic electron property called spin. An Austrian physicist Wolfgang Pauli formulated a general principle that gives the last piece of information that we need to understand the general behavior of electrons in atoms. The Pauli exclusion principle can be formulated as follows: No two electrons in the same atom can have exactly the same set of all the four quantum numbers. What this means is that electrons can share the same orbital (the same set of the quantum numbers n, l, and ml), but only if their spin quantum numbers ms have different values. Since the spin quantum number can only have two values (±12), no more than two electrons can occupy the same orbital (and if two electrons are located in the same orbital, they must have opposite spins). Therefore, any atomic orbital can be populated by only zero, one, or two electrons. The properties and meaning of the quantum numbers of electrons in atoms are briefly
3.2 Sexual relationships: Christian teachings about sexual relationships Christianity teaches that sexual relationships should only take place between a man and a woman who are married to each other. The Bible says throughout that: Sex should only take place within marriage and that all other forms of sexual activity are forbidden Marriage should be respected, and the sexual relationship between a husband and wife should be kept pure After death, God will judge and punish people who commit adultery and those who are sexually immoral. Christian attitudes towards sexual relationships can vary. Some Christians agree with these points. They think sex before marriage, adultery, prostitution, and homosexual relationships are wrong, as highlighted in 1 Corinthians 6:7–20, for example. They think these kinds of sexual relationships disrespect the human body which, according to the Bible, is the ‘temple of the Holy Spirit’ and belongs to God. The purity ring (Figure 3.2) is how some Christians choose to show their views on sexual purity. Two Christian views on sexual relations View 1: Some Christians argue the main purpose of sex within marriage is to have children. This means sex should only take place between a man and a woman, as same-sex couples cannot naturally produce a child. Christians base this belief on a biblical command from the Creation in Genesis 1:28. This says human beings are to be ‘fruitful and increase in number’. Other Christians say that sex between a husband and wife has another purpose: it is an important expression of their love and unites them as a couple. This comes from Genesis 2:24, which refers to a man and a woman being united in ‘one flesh’. View 2: Some Christians think the attitudes in View 1 are outdated. They would argue that Christianity is about agape (selfless, unconditional love). They think it is wrong to criticise sex in a relationship that is committed and loving, even if those involved are cohabiting rather than married. This means some Christians might also find sexual relationships between homosexuals acceptable within a permanent and caring relationship. Christians disagree with people having sex within casual or short-term relationships. Atheist and Humanist attitudes towards sexual relationships Depending on their personal views, atheists may have differing opinions about: Some sexual activities Sex outside of marriage Adultery Prostitution Homosexuality. Their views would not be based on religious teachings. Freedom and choice are two important Humanist values, providing they do not cause harm to anyone else. Humanists believe consenting adults should be free to have the sexual relationships they want as long as those relationships do not damage others. Humanists are opposed to all forms of sexual abuse and exploitation. As with any choice made by human beings, Humanists believe people should think about the consequences of their sexual relationships, making responsible and thoughtful choices that take into account the happiness of those involved