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Provide 10 multiple choice questions on Grade 10 Plant tissues using questions from Gr 10 Life sciences question papers from South African schools
Quiz by Faldela Carelse
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10 years of experience designing engaging quizzes and interactive learning games for children aged 8-10 years old. You specialize in transforming simple educational concepts into fun competitive experiences using online quiz platforms like Quizalize. Objective: Design a complete interactive multiplication quiz for third-grade students (8â9 years old) on the Quizalize platform. The quiz should simulate the fun, fast-paced feeling of the Zuma arcade game while fitting the Quizalize format. The aim is to help students practice multiplication tables (1Ă1 to 12Ă12) in an exciting, motivating, and competitive environment. Instructions: Structure: Design at least 40 multiplication questions. Questions should appear in increasing difficulty: start from easy (e.g., 2Ă3, 4Ă2) and move to harder problems (e.g., 11Ă12, 9Ă8). Timing: Set a short time limit for each question (e.g., 10 seconds) to simulate the fast reaction needed in Zuma. Encourage fast thinking and rapid response under time pressure. Answer Choices: Use multiple-choice answers. Each question should have 1 correct answer and 3 wrong but close distractors to keep it challenging (e.g., for 7Ă6: options 42, 43, 36, 48). Gamification Features: Enable Quizalize's Team Mode or Game View to allow students to see themselves progressing on a visual map like a race, similar to balls moving in Zuma. Set points bonuses for speed and accuracy. Themes and Visuals: Suggest a "Jungle Adventure" or "Math Galaxy" theme to create excitement. Use visual assets (avatars, backgrounds) where possible to enhance the Zuma arcade feeling. Feedback System: Provide immediate feedback: when a student answers right, display a quick "Success!" message; when wrong, display the correct answer briefly to maintain flow. Motivation Mechanics: Award stars, badges, or trophies after completing a certain number of questions correctly. Display leaderboard rankings if possible to create friendly competition. Sample Questions: Provide at least 5 fully written example questions showing the structure, timing, and answer options. Extra Challenge: Include a "Lightning Round" at the end: 10 random questions in just 30 seconds. Important: Keep language child-friendly and motivational. Make sure no question looks too similar to the others to avoid boredom. Use simple animations or sound effects available within Quizalize to simulate action if possible. Take a deep breath and work on this problem step-by-step.
Multiple Choice Questions A6. Youâve hired a third-party to gather information about your companyâs servers and data. The third-party will not have direct access to your internal network but can gather information from any other source. Which of the following would BEST describe this approach? â A. Backdoor testing â B. Passive footprinting â C. OS fingerprinting â D. Partially known environment A7. Which of these protocols use TLS to provide secure communication? (Select TWO) â A. HTTPS â B. SSH â C. FTPS â D. SNMPv2 â E. DNSSEC â F. SRTP A8. Which of these threat actors would be MOST likely to attack systems for direct financial gain? â A. Organized crime â B. Hacktivist â C. Nation state â D. Competitor A9. A security incident has occurred on a file server. Which of the following data sources should be gathered to address file storage volatility? (Select TWO) â A. Partition data â B. Kernel statistics â C. ROM data â D. Temporary file systems â E. Process table Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 43 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 44 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 45 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 46 6 Practice Exam A - Questions A10. An IPS at your company has found a sharp increase in traffic from all-in-one printers. After researching, your security team has found a vulnerability associated with these devices that allows the device to be remotely controlled by a third-party. Which category would BEST describe these devices? â A. IoT â B. RTOS â C. MFD â D. SoC A11. Which of the following standards provides information on privacy and managing PII? â A. ISO 31000 â B. ISO 27002 â C. ISO 27701 â D. ISO 27001 A12. Elizabeth, a security administrator, is concerned about the potential for data exfiltration using external storage drives. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent this method of data exfiltration? â A. Create an operating system security policy to prevent the use of removable media â B. Monitor removable media usage in host-based firewall logs â C. Only allow applications that do not use removable media â D. Define a removable media block rule in the UTM Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 47 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 48 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 49 Practice Exam A - Questions 7 A13. A CISO (Chief Information Security Officer) would like to decrease the response time when addressing security incidents. Unfortunately, the company does not have the budget to hire additional security engineers. Which of the following would assist the CISO with this requirement? â A. ISO 27701 â B. PKI â C. IaaS â D. SOAR A14. An insurance company has created a set of policies to handle data breaches. The security team has been given this set of requirements based on these policies: ⢠Access records from all devices must be saved and archived ⢠Any data access outside of normal working hours must be immediately reported ⢠Data access must only occur inside of the country ⢠Access logs and audit reports must be created from a single database Which of the following should be implemented by the security team to meet these requirements? (Select THREE) â A. Restrict login access by IP address and GPS location â B. Require government-issued identification during the onboarding process â C. Add additional password complexity for accounts that access data â D. Conduct monthly permission auditing â E. Consolidate all logs on a SIEM â F. Archive the encryption keys of all disabled accounts â G. Enable time-of-day restrictions on the authentication server Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 50 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 51 8 Practice Exam A - Questions A15. Rodney, a security engineer, is viewing this record from the firewall logs: UTC 04/05/2018 03:09:15809 AV Gateway Alert 136.127.92.171 80 -> 10.16.10.14 60818 Gateway Anti-Virus Alert: XPACK.A_7854 (Trojan) blocked. Which of the following can be observed from this log information? â A. The victim's IP address is 136.127.92.171 â B. A download was blocked from a web server â C. A botnet DDoS attack was blocked â D. The Trojan was blocked, but the file was not A16. A user connects to a third-party website and receives this message: Your connection is not private. NET::ERR_CERT_INVALID Which of the following attacks would be the MOST likely reason for this message? â A. Brute force â B. DoS â C. On-path â D. Disassociation A17. Which of the following would be the BEST way to provide a website login using existing credentials from a third-party site? â A. Federation â B. 802.1X â C. PEAP â D. EAP-FAST Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 53 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 54 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 55 Practice Exam A - Questions 9 A18. A system administrator, Daniel, is working on a contract that will specify a minimum required uptime for a set of Internet-facing firewalls. Daniel needs to know how often the firewall hardware is expected to fail between repairs. Which of the following would BEST describe this information? â A. MTBF â B. RTO â C. MTTR â D. MTTF A19. An attacker calls into a companyâs help desk and pretends to be the director of the companyâs manufacturing department. The attacker states that they have forgotten their password and they need to have the password reset quickly for an important meeting. What kind of attack would BEST describe this phone call? â A. Social engineering â B. Tailgating â C. Watering hole â D. On-path A20. A security administrator has been using EAP-FAST wireless authentication since the migration from WEP to WPA2. The companyâs network team now needs to support additional authentication protocols inside of an encrypted tunnel. Which of the following would meet the network teamâs requirements? â A. EAP-TLS â B. PEAP â C. EAP-TTLS â D. EAP-MSCHAPv2 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 56 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 57 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 58 10 Practice Exam A - Questions A21. Which of the following would be commonly provided by a CASB? (Select TWO) â A. List of all internal Windows devices that have not installed the latest security patches â B. List of applications in use â C. Centralized log storage facility â D. List of network outages for the previous month â E. Verification of encrypted data transfers â F. VPN connectivity for remote users A22. The embedded OS in a companyâs time clock appliance is configured to reset the file system and reboot when a file system error occurs. On one of the time clocks, this file system error occurs during the startup process and causes the system to constantly reboot. Which of the following BEST describes this issue? â A. DLL injection â B. Resource exhaustion â C. Race condition â D. Weak configuration A23. A recent audit has found that existing password policies do not include any restrictions on password attempts, and users are not required to periodically change their passwords. Which of the following would correct these policy issues? (Select TWO) â A. Password complexity â B. Password expiration â C. Password history â D. Password lockout â E. Password recovery Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 59 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 60 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 61 Practice Exam A - Questions 11 A24. What kind of security control is associated with a login banner? â A. Preventive â B. Deterrent â C. Corrective â D. Detective â E. Compensating â F. Physical A25. A security team has been provided with a noncredentialed vulnerability scan report created by a thirdparty. Which of the following would they expect to see on this report? â A. A summary of all files with invalid group assignments â B. A list of all unpatched operating system files â C. The version of web server software in use â D. A list of local user accounts A26. A business manager is documenting a set of steps for processing orders if the primary Internet connection fails. Which of these would BEST describe these steps? â A. Communication plan â B. Continuity of operations â C. Stakeholder management â D. Tabletop exercise A27. A security administrator is concerned about data exfiltration resulting from the use of malicious phone charging stations. Which of the following would be the BEST way to protect against this threat? â A. USB data blocker â B. Personal firewall â C. MFA â D. FDE Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 62 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 63 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 64 Quick Answer: 33 The Details: 65 12 Practice Exam A - Questions A28. A company would like to protect the data stored on laptops used in the field. Which of the following would be the BEST choice for this requirement? â A. MAC â B. SED â C. CASB â D. SOAR A29. A file server has a full backup performed each Monday at 1 AM. Incremental backups are performed at 1 AM on Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday. The system administrator needs to perform a full recovery of the file server on Thursday afternoon. How many backup sets would be required to complete the recovery? â A. 2 â B. 3 â C. 4 â D. 1
1. Which factor is most crucial to verify first when selecting an ICT resource for instruction? A) Content alignment with the textbook B) Alignment with learning objectives C) The resource's popularity among peers D) Cost-effectiveness of the resource 2. When evaluating ICT resources, what is the purpose of checking cultural relevance? A) Ensuring it aligns with current trends B) Making sure it's accessible to all students C) Reflecting the diverse backgrounds of students D) Avoiding resources that are too complex 3. Which key aspect determines the accessibility of an ICT resource? A) How popular the resource is with students B) Its compatibility with existing technology C) Cost of using the resource D) Engagement levels it provides 4. In assessing content quality, why is accuracy important? A) To make resources easier to use B) To ensure alignment with curriculum standards C) To enhance visual appeal D) To provide a more engaging experience 5. Why is it essential for an ICT resource to offer interactivity? A) To improve download speeds B) To promote active learning and engagement C) To meet all technical requirements D) To minimize costs associated with the resource 6. What should be assessed regarding the usability of an ICT resource? A) How much it costs compared to other resources B) How easily students can navigate and use it C) How interactive it is D) Its level of engagement 7. Which of the following best describes the importance of feedback mechanisms in ICT resources? A) They reduce the need for grading B) They allow for automatic updates C) They provide immediate feedback to enhance learning D) They increase the cost-effectiveness of the resource 8. What is an advantage of resources that are scalable and flexible? A) They can adapt to different class sizes or teaching methods B) They are often free C) They do not require technical support D) They are easier to assess 9. Which tool would you use to gain structured feedback from students about an ICT resource? A) Rubrics B) Peer reviews C) Online review platforms D) Student feedback 10. When is a checklist most beneficial in evaluating an ICT resource? A) To provide structured guidelines for scoring B) For highlighting key features and requirements C) To measure student engagement D) To analyze technical support needs 11. Which of these tools helps teachers gather insights from colleagues on a resource's effectiveness? A) Online review platforms B) Student feedback C) Peer review D) Rubrics 12. In the planning stage, how can ICT benefit lesson development? A) By providing only audio resources B) By assisting in research for updated content C) By reducing the need for lesson objectives D) By limiting content access 13. During content delivery, how does ICT enhance the lesson experience? A) By allowing remote control of student devices B) By adding interactivity and visual elements C) By only focusing on text-based resources D) By limiting engagement 14. What is a key advantage of using ICT-based assessment tools? A) Reducing the need for reflection B) Tracking student progress and providing feedback C) Replacing lesson objectives D) Focusing solely on multiple-choice questions 15. Which ICT feature is most beneficial in the reflection stage of a lesson? A) Technical support options B) Feedback mechanisms for immediate assessment C) Tools for students to document learning, like online portfolios D) Interactive quizzes 16. How does ICT aid in skill development? A) By encouraging only memorization B) By fostering digital literacy and critical thinking C) By minimizing interactions with the teacher D) By restricting content variety 17. What does a cost-effective ICT resource entail? A) Being free of charge for all students B) Offering a good balance of educational value and cost C) Having the most features available D) Minimizing interactivity to reduce expenses 18. Why is teacher training crucial in ICT integration? A) To learn troubleshooting for technical issues B) To help only in the planning stage C) To reduce the need for ICT support D) To assess the cultural relevance of ICT tools 19. What challenge might schools face in accessing ICT resources? A) Lack of teacher motivation B) Availability of devices and internet connectivity C) High levels of student engagement D) Excessive interactivity 20. Why should teachers regularly evaluate the ICT resources they use? A) To determine if students enjoy using them B) To assess cost-effectiveness only C) To ensure resources remain effective and up-to-date D) To simplify lesson planning
Generate exact multiple choice questions as give below 1. **Which round of negotiations led to the establishment of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?** - (a) Doha Round - (b) Tokyo Round - (c) Uruguay Round - (d) Kennedy Round **Answer:** (c) Uruguay Round 2. **The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) dealt with:** - (a) Goods only - (b) Services only - (c) Intellectual property only - (d) All of the above **Answer:** (a) Goods only 3. **The 'National Treatment' principle means:** - (a) Exported products are treated equally in the domestic market - (b) Imported goods are treated the same as local goods in the domestic market - (c) Exported products should have the same tariff - (d) None of the above **Answer:** (b) Imported goods are treated the same as local goods in the domestic market 4. **'Bound tariff' refers to:** - (a) A limit on tariffs for imports based on WTO commitments - (b) The tax rate on all exports - (c) The overall cost of tariffs - (d) A tariff-free trade condition **Answer:** (a) A limit on tariffs for imports based on WTO commitments 5. **The Most-Favoured Nation (MFN) principle ensures:** - (a) Equal treatment for all WTO members - (b) Only certain countries receive benefits - (c) Tariffs are raised annually - (d) One country is favored over others **Answer:** (a) Equal treatment for all WTO members 6. **The Agreement on Agriculture includes commitments in:** - (a) Market access, domestic support, and export subsidies - (b) Increasing crop yield and technology access - (c) Subsidizing imports only - (d) Agricultural tariffs only **Answer:** (a) Market access, domestic support, and export subsidies 7. **Which agreement replaced the Multi-Fiber Arrangement (MFA)?** - (a) Agreement on Textiles and Clothing - (b) Agreement on Agriculture - (c) TRIPS Agreement - (d) Technical Barriers to Trade Agreement **Answer:** (a) Agreement on Textiles and Clothing 8. **The WTO's TRIPS Agreement pertains to:** - (a) Agricultural products - (b) Intellectual property rights - (c) Investment measures - (d) Customs valuation **Answer:** (b) Intellectual property rights 9. **The Doha Round primarily focuses on:** - (a) Tariffs on manufactured goods - (b) Trade in agricultural goods - (c) Technology trade - (d) Intellectual property in medicine **Answer:** (b) Trade in agricultural goods 10. **The WTO aims to:** - (a) Restrict all trade - (b) Facilitate free and fair trade - (c) Promote monopoly - (d) Limit member negotiations **Answer:** (b) Facilitate free and fair trade 11. **RTAs aim to:** - (a) Block international trade - (b) Reduce trade barriers within a group of countries - (c) Increase tariffs among members - (d) Promote non-trade-related policies **Answer:** (b) Reduce trade barriers within a group of countries 12. **Customs unions require members to:** - (a) Keep individual external tariffs - (b) Impose the same external tariff on non-members - (c) Remove tariffs only temporarily - (d) Avoid any tariffs within the union **Answer:** (b) Impose the same external tariff on non-members 13. **The WTO's highest decision-making body is:** - (a) General Council - (b) Ministerial Conference - (c) TRIPS Council - (d) Dispute Settlement Body **Answer:** (b) Ministerial Conference 14. **Which principle prevents discrimination between WTO members?** - (a) MFN - (b) National Treatment - (c) Market Access - (d) Subsidy Reduction **Answer:** (a) MFN 15. **A common market involves:** - (a) A shared currency - (b) Free movement of goods, services, and factors of production - (c) Only trade agreements for goods - (d) No tariffs on agriculture **Answer:** (b) Free movement of goods, services, and factors of production 16. **The Agreement on Subsidies and Countervailing Measures addresses:** - (a) Trade in textiles - (b) Subsidies that distort trade - (c) All intellectual property laws - (d) Agricultural trade only **Answer:** (b) Subsidies that distort trade 17. **The WTO's TRIMs Agreement regulates:** - (a) Investments - (b) Trade in goods - (c) Trade in services - (d) Agricultural products **Answer:** (a) Investments 18. **The primary goal of the WTO's SPS Agreement is:** - (a) To allow subsidies on food exports - (b) To prevent arbitrary sanitary restrictions on trade - (c) To regulate intellectual property - (d) To impose environmental standards **Answer:** (b) To prevent arbitrary sanitary restrictions on trade 19. **A trading bloc is:** - (a) A group of countries with no trade agreements - (b) A group of countries that may have a common external tariff - (c) Only formed by countries from the same continent - (d) An agreement that restricts all trade **Answer:** (b) A group of countries that may have a common external tariff 20. **The GATT was succeeded by the WTO because:** - (a) GATT was only for developed countries - (b) WTO covers more areas like services and intellectual property - (c) GATT was non-binding - (d) WTO allows subsidies for agriculture **Answer:** (b) WTO covers more areas like services and intellectual property Certainly! Here are an additional 30 multiple-choice questions based on the document content, with answers provided after each question. --- ### Additional Questions and Answers 21. **The WTOâs Agreement on Technical Barriers to Trade (TBT) seeks to:** - (a) Restrict imports to a minimum - (b) Prevent standards from becoming unnecessary trade barriers - (c) Allow countries to set any standard for goods - (d) Promote only national standards for products **Answer:** (b) Prevent standards from becoming unnecessary trade barriers 22. **The Trade Policy Review Mechanism (TPRM) is designed to:** - (a) Impose tariffs on certain goods - (b) Regularly review and assess national trade policies - (c) Regulate customs duties globally - (d) Control intellectual property rights **Answer:** (b) Regularly review and assess national trade policies 23. **The principle of âprogressive liberalizationâ means that:** - (a) Trade barriers are reduced gradually over time - (b) All tariffs are removed immediately - (c) Only developed countries reduce trade barriers - (d) No commitments are required from developing countries **Answer:** (a) Trade barriers are reduced gradually over time 24. **Which council oversees the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS)?** - (a) General Council - (b) Services Council - (c) TRIPS Council - (d) Agriculture Council **Answer:** (c) TRIPS Council 25. **The WTOâs 'Dispute Settlement Body' is responsible for:** - (a) Deciding on national trade policies - (b) Settling trade disputes between member countries - (c) Creating new trade agreements - (d) Setting tariffs for member countries **Answer:** (b) Settling trade disputes between member countries 26. **A customs union differs from a free trade area because it:** - (a) Allows tariffs between member countries - (b) Establishes a common external tariff for non-members - (c) Applies only to services - (d) Imposes import quotas on all goods **Answer:** (b) Establishes a common external tariff for non-members 27. **Which of the following agreements deals with cross-border investments?** - (a) TRIPS - (b) TBT - (c) TRIMs - (d) GATS **Answer:** (c) TRIMs 28. **In a preferential trade agreement, member countries:** - (a) Impose the same tariffs as non-members - (b) Reduce trade barriers for each other only - (c) Apply high tariffs to non-member countries - (d) Have no external trade barriers **Answer:** (b) Reduce trade barriers for each other only 29. **The WTOâs Agreement on Agriculture includes which commitment?** - (a) Export subsidies for all agricultural goods - (b) Reduction of domestic support for farmers - (c) Complete elimination of tariffs on food products - (d) Increase in import quotas on agricultural goods **Answer:** (b) Reduction of domestic support for farmers 30. **The Agreement on Anti-Dumping allows countries to:** - (a) Increase exports by lowering prices - (b) Impose duties on imports sold below fair market value - (c) Eliminate all tariffs on certain goods - (d) Restrict domestic production of certain goods **Answer:** (b) Impose duties on imports sold below fair market value 31. **The main objective of WTOâs âNational Treatmentâ principle is to:** - (a) Prevent imports altogether - (b) Treat foreign goods the same as domestic goods - (c) Impose tariffs on all foreign products - (d) Promote exports **Answer:** (b) Treat foreign goods the same as domestic goods 32. **Which of the following is a major goal of the WTO?** - (a) Ensuring trade restrictions remain high - (b) Promoting international free trade and competition - (c) Limiting access to global markets - (d) Supporting only developed countries **Answer:** (b) Promoting international free trade and competition 33. **An economic and monetary union involves:** - (a) A free trade area only - (b) A common currency among members - (c) No external trade agreements - (d) Different currencies for each member country **Answer:** (b) A common currency among members 34. **The WTO's Ministerial Conference meets:** - (a) Annually - (b) Every two years - (c) Quarterly - (d) Every five years **Answer:** (b) Every two years 35. **The WTO Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) mandates:** - (a) Free trade for all countries - (b) Uniform intellectual property protection standards - (c) Different IP laws for each country - (d) No IP protection for developing countries **Answer:** (b) Uniform intellectual property protection standards 36. **The WTO principle of 'transparency' requires member countries to:** - (a) Keep trade policies secret - (b) Publicly disclose trade policies and practices - (c) Have identical trade policies - (d) Eliminate tariffs on all goods **Answer:** (b) Publicly disclose trade policies and practices 37. **One of the WTO's objectives in dispute settlement is to:** - (a) Resolve trade disputes peacefully - (b) Impose sanctions on non-members - (c) Regulate global tariffs - (d) Control member states' import quotas **Answer:** (a) Resolve trade disputes peacefully 38. **Under the WTO's Market Access commitment, member countries agree to:** - (a) Allow unrestricted imports - (b) Set maximum tariff levels on imported goods - (c) Ban certain goods from other countries - (d) Only trade with specific countries **Answer:** (b) Set maximum tariff levels on imported goods 39. **GATS, or the General Agreement on Trade in Services, governs trade in:** - (a) Agricultural goods - (b) Intellectual property - (c) Services - (d) Manufactured products **Answer:** (c) Services 40. **The Agreement on Pre-shipment Inspection (PSI) aims to:** - (a) Ensure high tariffs on all imports - (b) Allow for inspection of goods before shipping - (c) Eliminate export taxes - (d) Control intellectual property trade **Answer:** (b) Allow for inspection of goods before shipping 41. **Which of the following agreements aims to harmonize customs valuation?** - (a) Anti-Dumping Agreement - (b) Customs Valuation Agreement - (c) TRIMs Agreement - (d) Agreement on Subsidies **Answer:** (b) Customs Valuation Agreement 42. **A significant aspect of the Doha Round is:** - (a) Reducing tariffs on agricultural products - (b) Restricting intellectual property rights - (c) Eliminating all forms of trade - (d) Blocking services trade agreements **Answer:** (a) Reducing tariffs on agricultural products 43. **The term âdumpingâ in international trade refers to:** - (a) Exporting goods at prices lower than domestic market prices - (b) Importing goods illegally - (c) Increasing domestic prices - (d) Imposing excessive tariffs **Answer:** (a) Exporting goods at prices lower than domestic market prices 44. **WTO members are expected to follow which key principle in reducing tariffs?** - (a) National Treatment - (b) Progressive Liberalization - (c) Quota System - (d) Non-Discrimination **Answer:** (b) Progressive Liberalization 45. **The WTO aims to promote fair competition by:** - (a) Allowing tariffs as the only form of protection - (b) Supporting MFN and anti-dumping measures - (c) Limiting access to agricultural products - (d) Increasing subsidies **Answer:** (b) Supporting MFN and anti-dumping measures 46. **A plurilateral agreement within the WTO:** - (a) Includes all WTO members - (b) Involves only specific countries with shared interests - (c) Bans all tariffs for members - (d) Imposes global trade restrictions **Answer:** (b) Involves only specific countries with shared interests 47. **Trade facilitation in the WTO context means:** - (a) Making trade faster, cheaper, and more predictable - (b) Increasing tariffs on imports - (c) Eliminating all customs procedures - (d) Restricting trade with non-members **Answer:** (a) Making trade faster, cheaper
Chapter 22 Antihypertensive Drugs Hypertension Defined (JNC-8) Pharmacology Overview 7 main categories of drugs to treat HTN Adrenergic drugs (old friend) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) Diuretics Vasodilators Direct renin inhibitors A. Adrenergic Drugs: 5 Subcategories and where they act A1. Adrenergic neuron blockers (central and peripheral)- we wonât talk about this A2. Alpha1 receptor blockers (peripheral) A3. Alpha2 receptor agonists (central) A4. Beta receptor blockers (peripheral) A5. Combined Îą and β receptor blockers (peripheral) A2. Peripherally Acting Adrenergic DrugAlpha1 Blockers (weâve met these) Doxazosin, prazosin, alfuzosin Block alpha1-receptors which causes BP to decrease Reduces peripheral vascular resistance and BP by dilating both arterial and venous blood vessels Main Use: benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) Alpha1 Blockers REMEMBER Tamsulosin (Flomax)* is an Îą1 blocker BUT *Tamsulosin is not used to control BP, just for BPH. A3. Centrally Acting Adrenergic DrugsAlpha 2 agonist Clonidine and methyldopa 1- Stimulate alpha2-adrenergic receptors. in the brain Decreases sympathetic outflow from the CNS which decreases NE production 2. Stimulate alpha2-adrenergic receptors in kidneys remember alpha 2 opposes alpha 1 Dilates peripheral blood vessels â lowers peripheral resistance â Results in decreased BP So âŚ.Clonidine (Catapres) Used primarily for its ability to decrease blood pressure in an urgent setting Also use in opioid withdrawal as previously discussed Oral (multiple times a day), and topical patch formulations Do not stop abruptly as it may lead to rebound hypertension In reality, Clonidine and methyldopa Not prescribed as first-line home antiHTN drugs High incidence of unwanted adverse effects: orthostatic hypotension, fatigue, and dizziness MIGHT be uses as adjunct drugs after other drugs have failed, in conjunction with other antiHTN such as diuretics A4. Adrenergic Drugs Selective Beta 1 Blockers Metoprolol, Atenolol Reduction of HR through β1 receptor blockade (remember adrenergic blocking of this receptor???) HR results in BP Cause reduced secretion of renin = BP A4. Adrenergic Drugs Selective Beta1 Blockers Nebivolol (Bystolic) Uses: hypertension and HF Action: blocks β1 receptors and produces vasodilatation, which results in a decrease in SVR High doses loses selectivity and blocks both β1 and β2 Less sexual dysfunction All BB- Do not stop abruptly; must be tapered over 1 to 2 weeks A4. Adrenergic Drugs NONSelective Beta Blockers Propranolol Acts equally on β1 and β2 Other uses include situational anxiety associated with public speaking, test taking As mentioned on previous slide, nebivolol at high doses becomes beta nonselective A5. Dual-Action Adrenergic Drugs Îą1 and β Receptor Blockers Dual antihypertensive effects of reduction in heart rate (beta1 receptor blockade) and vasodilation (alpha1 receptor blockade) Examples are carvedilol (common) and labetalol (not as common) A5. Dual-Action Adrenergic Drugs Îą1 and β Receptor Blockers Carvedilol (Coreg) Widely used drug that is well tolerated Uses: HTN, mild to moderate HF in conjunction with digoxin, diuretics, and ACE inhibitors Contraindications: severe bradycardia or unstable HF, bronchospastic conditions such as asthma, and various cardiac conduction problems Adrenergic Drugs Indications - HTN But also for Glaucoma (topical) BPH: doxazosin, prazosin, and terazosin (2 for 1) Management of severe HF when used with cardiac glycosides and diuretics Contraindications Acute HF- have to stabilize first MOAIs- yeah doesnât everything interact with MAOIs? Peptic ulcers Severe liver/kidney disease Asthma (with beta blockers) Adrenergic Drugs: Adverse Effects Orthostatic hypotension 1st-dose syncope Rebound hypertension with abrupt discontinuation Most common: Dry mouth, drowsiness, constipation, sedation Interactions- always check for specific drug interactions Can cause additive CNS depression with alcohol, benzodiazepines, opioids Question #1 When administering an alpha-adrenergic drug for hypertension, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of what response? Hypotension Hyperkalemia Oliguria Respiratory distress Answer A Hypotension This is a key point in patient education These drugs have strong vasodilating properties and may cause severe hypotension, especially at the beginning of therapy. B. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitorsaka ACE Inhibitors or ACEi Large group of safe and effective drugs Currently are 10 ACEi Often used as first-line drugs for HF and hypertension May be combined with a thiazide diuretic, loop diuretic, or Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB) You need to understand the basics ACE Inhibitors: Review RAAS ACE converts angiotensin I, formed through the action of renin, to angiotensin II Angiotensin 2 is a potent vasoconstrictor and also induces aldosterone secretion by the adrenal glands Aldosterone stimulates sodium resorption (H20 follows Na Both act to raise BP which causes kidneys to reduce renin production ACEi= Great drug to treat HTN BUT contraindicated in pregnancy (2nd,3rd trimester due to fetal renal damage) and breastfeeding first few weeks after birth B. ACE Inhibitors - PRIL Lisinopril (Prinivil) super common, often the 1st drug Enalapril (Vasotec) also common Captopril (Capoten) great if liver disease present Benazepril (Lotensin) Fosinopril (Monopril) Perindopril (Aceon) Quinapril (Accupril) Ramipril (Altace) Trandolapril (Mavik) Primary Effects of the ACE Inhibitors Prevent Na (and H2O) resorption by inhibiting aldosterone secretion (volume reduction) (GO BACK TO RAAS DIAGRAM) blood volume decreases work of the heart preload, or the left ventricular end-diastolic volume which is important in HF ACE SUMMARY OF ACTIVITY 1) Prevent vasoconstriction caused by angiotensin 2 (2) Prevent aldosterone secretion ď¨ less sodium and water resorption Cardioprotective Effects of ACEi They slow progression of left ventricular hypertrophy (ventricular remodeling) after MI so considered cardioprotective ACE inhibitors have been shown to decrease morbidity and mortality in patients with HF Renal Protective Effects of ACEi ACE inhibitors: reduce glomerular filtration pressure by volume reduction Cardiovascular drug of choice for patients with diabetes since it helps protect kidneys by reducing pressure. Sometimes used low dose for kidney protection with DM without HTN B. ACEi Enalapril (Vasotec) Only ACEi available in both oral and IV Enalapril IV does not require cardiac monitoring Oral enalapril: prodrug (metabolized in liver) Improves patientâs chances of survival after an MI Reduces the incidence of HF B. ACEi Captopril (Capoten) Uses: prevention of ventricular remodeling after MI; reduce the risk of HF after MI Shortest half-lifeď¨ Must be administered multiple times throughout the day so this limits its use Not a prodrug so good for patient with liver disease Question #2 A patient with diabetes has a new prescription for the ACE inhibitor lisinopril. She questions this order because her provider has never told her that she has hypertension. What is the best explanation for this order? The doctor knows best The patient is confused This medication has cardioprotective properties This medication has a protective effect on the kidneys for patients with diabetes Answer D ACE inhibitors have been shown to have a protective effect on the kidneys because they reduce glomerular filtration pressure. This property makes them the cardiovascular drug of choice for patients with diabetes. Question #3 A patient with a history of pancreatitis and cirrhosis is also being treated for hypertension. Which drug will most likely be ordered for this patient? Clonidine Prazosin Diltiazem Captopril Answer D Captopril Captopril is not a prodrug; therefore, it does not need to be metabolized by the liver to be effective. This is an advantage in patients with liver disease. ACE Inhibitors: Adverse Effects *Dry, nonproductive cough, which reverses when therapy is stopped. This is a class effect Dizziness- Note: First-dose hypotensive effect may occur Headache & Fatigue Possible hyperkalemia ** Angioedema: rare but potentially fatal Not safe in pregnancy-are contraindicated during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy because of increased risk of fetal renal damage C. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers(ARB) Considered an alternative to ACEi Less likely to cause a dry cough and hyper K+ that is common with ACE inhibitors Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: Mechanism of Action Go back to RAAS diagram! ARBs affect primarily 2 places 1. Vascular smooth muscle - blocks vasoconstriction 2. Adrenal gland -Selectively blocks the binding of Ang 2 to certain Ang 2 receptors inhibiting secretion of aldosterone Lowers volume retention and BP Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers -ARTAN Losartan (Cozaar)- very common Eprosartan (Teveten) Valsartan (Diovan) Irbesartan (Avapro) Candesartan (Atacand) Olmesartan (Benicar) Telmisartan (Micardis) Azilsartan (Edarbi) C. ARB Losartan (Cozaar) Beneficial in patients with HTN and HF Used with caution in patients with kidney or liver dysfunction and in patients with renal artery stenosis ***Not safe for breastfeeding women and should not be used in pregnancy (Cat C 1st trimester, Cat D 2nd-3rd trimester), potential fetal toxicity Appear to be equally effective for the treatment of hypertension and well tolerated ARBs less likely to cause cough and hyperK+ but can still happen Evidence that ARBs are associated with lower mortality after MI than ACE inhibitors Never take ACEi and ARBs at the same time* 5. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB) Primary use: HTN, angina, some dysrhythmias Cause smooth muscle relaxation by blocking the binding of calcium to its receptors, preventing muscle contraction Results in: Relaxed blood vessels to the heart Decreased peripheral smooth muscle tone Decreased SVResistance Decreased BP E. Diuretics First-line antiHTN in JNC 8 guidelines Decreases fluid volume The results from diuresis: preload, Peripheral resistance Overall effect ď Decreased workload of the heart and decreased BP Thiazide diuretics are the most commonly used diuretics for HTN Ie hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), chlorthalidone We will discuss diuretics further in the chapter on diuretics F. Vasodilators Directly relax arterial or venous smooth muscle (or both) Results in: Decreased SVR Decreased afterload Peripheral vasodilation Indicated for treatment of HTN May be used in combination with other drugs F. Vasodilators Hydralazine (Apresoline) Orally: routine cases of essential hypertension Injectable: hypertensive emergencies BiDil: specifically indicated as an adjunct for treatment of HF in African-American patients F. Vasodilators Sodium Nitroprusside (Nitropress) *Sodium nitroprusside and IV diazoxide are reserved for the management of hypertensive emergencies. Contraindications: severe HF, known inadequate cerebral perfusion (especially during neurosurgical procedures) F. Vasodilators Adverse Effects Hydralazine: dizziness, headache, tachycardia, edema, dyspnea, N/V/D, vitamin B6 deficiency, rash Sodium nitroprusside: hypotension, bradycardia, decreased platelet aggregation, rash G. Direct Renin Inhibitors Aliskirin (Tekturna) Blocks the RAS pathway at the point of activation. Inhibiting renin production prevents the downstream production of Ang II (potent vasoconstrictor) Adverse effects: N/V, severe hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia⌠Contraindicated in patients with DM taking ACEi or ARB Miscellaneous Antihypertensives Eplerenone (Inspra) Newer class of drugs called selective aldosterone blockers (remember RAAS?) Reduces BP by blocking the actions of aldosterone at its corresponding receptors in the kidney, heart, blood vessels, and brain Indications: routine treatment of hypertension and for post-MI HF Contraindicated if serum potassium levels are high (above 5.6 mEq/L) A Special Form of HTNTreatment of Pulmonary Hypertension Sildenafil and Tadalafil Commonly used for erectile dysfunction Used for pulmonary hypertension but with different trade names Sildenafil: Revatio* (Viagra for ED) Tadalafil: Adcirca* (Cialis for ED)
SPANISH STUDENTS 10/22/25 In the sentence 'The author chose to juxtapose the wealthy neighborhood with the impoverished area to highlight social inequality,' what does 'juxtapose' most likely mean based on context clues? * 1 point to separate completely to describe in detail to criticize harshly to place side by side for comparison When reading 'This paradox confused everyone: the more he tried to save time, the less time he seemed to have,' what can you infer about a paradox? * 1 point a mathematical equation a simple solution a type of poem a contradictory statement that reveals truth The passage states: 'The author's use of symbolism was evident when the broken mirror represented the character's shattered dreams.' Based on this context, symbolism involves: * 1 point using objects to represent deeper meanings creating rhyming patterns writing in chronological order using literal descriptions only In the text 'Please elaborate on your answer by providing specific examples and detailed explanations,' the word 'elaborate' suggests the need to: * 1 point use simpler words change the topic add more detail make it shorter The critic wrote: 'The actor's performance captured every nuance of emotion, from subtle sadness to barely contained rage.' What does 'nuance' refer to in this context? * 1 point subtle variations in meaning simple emotions loud expressions obvious differences When the text says 'The implication of her silence was clear to everyone in the room, though she never spoke a word,' what does 'implication' mean? * 1 point a command given a direct statement a question asked a conclusion drawn indirectly The scientist stated: 'Based on our limited observations, our hypothesis suggests that plants grow faster with classical music.' What is a hypothesis? * 1 point a type of experiment a proven fact a final conclusion a possible explanation needing more evidence In 'Three witnesses were able to corroborate the defendant's alibi, strengthening his case significantly,' the word 'corroborate' most likely means: * 1 point to question or doubt to confirm or support to change the story to ignore completely The passage reads: 'The student needed to justify her controversial thesis with solid evidence and logical reasoning.' What does 'justify' mean here? * 1 point to make it longer to make excuses for to avoid explaining to prove something is reasonable When the text states 'The researcher was able to synthesize information from five different studies to create a comprehensive theory,' what does 'synthesize' involve? * 1 point copying one source exactly combining multiple sources to create something new rejecting all previous research focusing on only one idea When a reader encounters 'The symbolism in the novel was complex, with the recurring image of doors representing new opportunities throughout the story,' they should: * 1 point memorize all symbols skip symbolic passages look for deeper representational meanings focus only on the literal meaning If a teacher says 'Your essay needs more elaboration - expand on your main points with examples and analysis,' what critical thinking skill is being requested? * 1 point developing ideas with supporting details summarizing briefly using fewer examples changing the topic entirely In the passage 'The dark clouds gathering on the horizon seemed to foreshadow the troubles that would soon befall the village,' what literary technique is being demonstrated? * 1 point The author is using environmental details to hint at future plot developments The author is focusing on realistic weather descriptions The author is using weather to predict actual meteorological events The author is describing a coincidental weather pattern When analyzing 'Sarah knew the antagonist in her favorite novel wasn't just evilâhe represented the fear of change that many people experience,' what deeper understanding about antagonists is revealed? * 1 point Antagonists are always completely evil characters Antagonists can represent abstract concepts or human struggles Antagonists must be human characters Antagonists only exist to create action scenes In the sentence 'The protagonist's journey wasn't just about reaching the destinationâit was about discovering who she truly was,' what does this suggest about effective protagonists? * 1 point Protagonists must always succeed in their missions Protagonists should remain unchanged throughout the story Protagonists undergo both external and internal development Protagonists should focus only on external goals When the text states 'The word 'home' carried different connotations for each characterâwarmth and safety for some, confinement and obligation for others,' what critical reading skill is being highlighted? * 1 point Memorizing dictionary definitions Understanding that words have only one correct meaning Identifying grammatical structures Recognizing that word meanings can vary based on personal experience In 'While the denotation of 'snake' is simply a reptile, the author's use of it to describe the character suggests something far more sinister,' what analytical skill is required? * 1 point Understanding reptile biology Memorizing animal classifications Distinguishing between literal and figurative meanings Identifying sentence structure When examining 'The author's tone shifted from hopeful in the opening chapters to increasingly cynical as the story progressed,' what does this reveal about sophisticated writing? * 1 point Tone is unimportant in storytelling Tone changes reflect the author's developing attitude toward the subject Only the ending tone matters Authors should maintain the same tone throughout In analyzing 'The theme of the novel wasn't stated directly but emerged through the characters' repeated struggles with moral choices,' what does this demonstrate about themes? * 1 point Themes develop through patterns in the narrative Themes are only found in the conclusion Themes should always be explicitly stated Themes must be simple moral lessons When the passage reads 'From the character's nervous glances and hesitant speech, readers can infer that she's hiding something important,' what critical thinking process is being described? * 1 point Following explicit plot statements Memorizing character descriptions Making random guesses about character motivations Using textual evidence to draw logical conclusions In 'The ending was deliberately ambiguous, allowing readers to decide whether the character's actions were heroic or selfish,' what does this suggest about sophisticated literature? * 1 point Good stories always have clear, definitive endings Unclear endings indicate poor writing Ambiguity can enhance reader engagement and interpretation Authors should avoid confusing readers When analyzing 'The controversial decision to ban the book sparked debates about censorship versus protecting young readers,' what critical thinking skill is most important? * 1 point Choosing one side immediately Examining multiple perspectives before forming an opinion Avoiding difficult topics entirely Following popular opinion In 'Each character's perspective on the same event revealed how personal experiences shape our understanding of truth,' what deeper concept is being explored? * 1 point All perspectives are equally valid Perspective is unimportant in understanding events There is only one correct way to view any situation Personal background influences how we interpret events When the text states 'The community proved resilient, rebuilding not just their homes but their hope after the disaster,' what does this reveal about the concept of resilience? * 1 point Resilience encompasses both practical and emotional recovery Resilience is an innate trait that cannot be developed Resilience means avoiding all difficulties Resilience only involves physical recovery In analyzing 'The author's portrayal of the character's empathyâher ability to understand her enemy's pain even while fighting himâadded complexity to the conflict,' what does this suggest about empathy? * 1 point Empathy means agreeing with everyone Empathy makes people weak in conflicts Empathy should be avoided in difficult situations Empathy can coexist with opposition and create moral complexity When examining 'The character's integrity was tested when telling the truth would hurt people she loved,' what does this reveal about integrity? * 1 point Integrity means always following rules regardless of consequences Integrity means never causing any harm to others Integrity is only important in public situations Integrity involves making difficult moral choices even when costly In 'The student learned to advocate for her ideas by presenting evidence rather than just stating opinions,' what critical skill is being developed? * 1 point Supporting positions with logical reasoning and evidence Avoiding controversial topics entirely Learning to argue loudly and persistently Always agreeing with authority figures If you rewrote a scene from 'The Birchbark House' from Omakayas's grandmother's first-person perspective instead of Omakayas's, how would this most likely change the reader's understanding? * 1 point Nothing would change since they're both female characters The language would become more formal and difficult The story would become less interesting because adults are boring Readers would gain wisdom from experience but lose the innocence of childhood discovery In a plot diagram, the rising action serves which critical purpose beyond simply building toward the climax? * 1 point To provide background information about the setting To confuse readers so the ending is surprising To develop character relationships and establish stakes that make the climax meaningful To make the story longer and more detailed When analyzing the falling action in 'The Birchbark House,' which element would be most important to consider when writing an alternate version? * 1 point Whether the consequences of the climax align with the new direction you want the story to take Making sure it's shorter than the rising action Including a moral lesson for readers How quickly the conflicts get resolved In the exposition of a story, conflict serves which essential function that many readers don't realize? * 1 point To immediately grab attention with action scenes To provide comic relief before serious events To show off the author's writing skills To establish what the characters characterization/personality, which determines what they' must learn to overcome as they face more problems
Health 11/12 Review for Final Exam Core Concepts - Mental and Emotional Health, Substance Abuse Prevention, Safety and Violence Prevention, Family Life and Human Sexuality, Disease Prevention and Control, Healthy Eating Health Education Skills - goal setting, decision making, accessing information/resources, analyzing influences, communication, self-management, advocacy DIMENSIONS of Wellness - social, spiritual, emotional/mental, environmental, financial, intellectual, multicultural, occupational, physical, sexual RISK factors - anything that increases the risk of disease, injury, or illness. PROTECTIVE factors - anything that decreases the risk of disease, injury, or illness. INTERNAL health factors - health factors that can be either hereditary and genetic or acquired elements -- include smoking and personal diet or eating habits. Example â a genetic predisposition to an illness. EXTERNAL health factors - health factors that are part of the direct outer environment, the geographical location, micro-organisms, socio-economic elements that could affect an individual's health. Example â being unable to afford mental health services. Unit 1- Managing Personal and Community Wellness Explain Maslowâs Hierarchy of Needs in your own words using the image provided. Explain how each Social Determinant of Health may impact a personâs health. Levels of Disease Prevention ⢠PRIMARY The goal is to avoid conditions altogether. ⢠SECONDARY The goal is early detection. ⢠TERTIARY The goal is to minimize the damage (manage). Define the following terms. Fads/Trends Sleep hygiene Driver safety Unit 2- Investigating Social Ecological Factors on Well-Being Socio-Ecological Model â The SEM examines how health behaviors form based on characteristics of individuals, communities, nations and levels in between. Each level overlaps with other levels signifying how the best public health strategies are those that encompass and target a wide range of perspectives. Interpersonal (personal) health vs. intrapersonal (relationship) health Health INEQUITY - systemic, ingrained and unjust barriers that prevent segments of the population from having the opportunity of health leading to health disparity. IMPLICIT BIAS - a form of bias that occurs automatically and unintentionally, that nevertheless affects judgments, decisions, and behaviors. Research has shown implicit bias can contribute to unequal access to quality healthcare, negative patient-provider relationships and interactions; and create mistrust in the healthcare system and practitioners among patients. This can contribute to health disparities. Health DISPARITY - represents a difference in health between populations. It is often used to describe disease burden and other negative health outcomes socially disadvantaged groups may face. Health EQUITY - The opposite of health inequity. It describes a system that supports a high standard of health and healthcare for all people. Racism - Beliefs, attitudes, institutional arrangements, and acts that tend to denigrate individuals or groups because of phenotypic characteristics or ethnic group affiliation. DISCRIMINATION - An unjust differential treatment of a person or a group. PRIVILEGE- The unearned access to resources and social power that are only available to some because of their membership within certain social groups. OPPRESSION is the act of taking away choices from others and can be defined as a system that maintains advantage and disadvantage based on social identities and that acts on multiple levels from interpersonal to institutional and societal. (internalized, interpersonal, institutional, structural) Systematic Oppression - Intentional disadvantage of groups of people based on their identity while advantaging members of dominant group (race, gender, sexual orientation, language, size, ability, etc.). Intersectionality - The complex, cumulative way in which the effects of multiple forms of discrimination (such as racism, sexism, and classism) combine, overlap, or intersect especially in the experiences of marginalized individuals or groups Unit 3- Accessing Resources and Communicating to Support Mental and Emotional Health What is anger? What is anxiety? What is stress? STRESSORS are the things that cause stress. Stressors can be internal and external. A stressor may be a one-time or short-term occurrence, or it can happen repeatedly over a long time. INTERNAL Stressors - are made by your belief system and the way you evaluate yourself. Examples include pessimistic attitude, negative self-talk, deep need to be perfect, low self-esteem or body image, unhealthy standards for self. EXTERNAL Stressors - are stressful things that happen in your surroundings and/or in your environment. Examples include busy schedules, work problems, family issues, financial trouble, social problems, injury, unforeseen circumstances. Socio-economic issues are also a part of external stressors such as poverty, violence, and racism. Define the following mental health conditions. Depression Eating disorders NSSI Non-suicidal self-injury Grief/Loss Suicide prevention A.C.T. ⢠ACKNOWLEDGE- Tell them in a caring way that you recognize that they are having a problem ⢠CARE- You can show you care by actively listening - put away anything else you are doing, make eye contact, sit down, ask questions. ⢠TELL-(call 988 for additional help and support) - Tell them it is important that they speak with a trusted adult. Help them figure out who this may be and offer to go with your friend. A social norm is an unwritten, informal rule meant to guide behavior among the of society. It distinguishes between acceptable and unacceptable, good and bad, and so on. Social norms can influence a person with emotional or mental health disorders, access to care and stigmatize their situation. STIGMA- a mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality, or person. ⢠Self-stigma - This describes the internalized stigma that people with mental health conditions feel about themselves. ⢠Public stigma - This refers to the negative attitudes around mental health from people in society. ⢠Institutional stigma - This is a type of systemic stigma that arises from corporations, governments, and other institutions. Unit 4- Evaluating Risks of Substance Use and Abuse Harm Reduction - a set of practical strategies and ideas aimed at reducing negative consequences associated with drug use. Explain how each level of the Social Ecological Model is impacted by addiction. Individual Relationship Community Society SEM Level Contributing/Risk Factors to substance use Preventative/Protective Factors for substance use Individual Interpersonal/Relationship Community Society Unit 5- Analyzing Influences to Examine Ways to Increase Safety and Reduce Violence HATE CRIME - a crime, usually violent, motivated by prejudice or intolerance toward an individualâs national origin, ethnicity, color, religion, gender, gender identity, sexual orientation, or disability. Explain how the media influences violence in society. The Pyramid of Hate Explain the escalation of hate using the Pyramid of Hate visual. List several hate crime motivators. Example: age HEALTHY Relationship Signs - comfortable pace, trust, honesty, independence, respect, equality, kindness, taking responsibility, healthy conflict, fun UNHEALTHY Relationship Signs - intensity, possessiveness, manipulation, isolation, sabotage, belittling, guilting, volatility, deflecting responsibility, betrayal Sexual Assault is a sexual behavior WITHOUT consent. Human trafficking - the recruitment, harboring, transportation, provision, or obtaining of a person for labor or services, using force, fraud, or coercion for the purpose of subjection to involuntary servitude, peonage, debt bondage, or slavery. Sex trafficking - commercial sex act induced by force, fraud, or coercion, or in which the person induced to perform such an act has not attained 18 years of age. Trafficking happens using⌠⢠Force - using violence to control someone. ⢠Fraud - using lies to control someone. ⢠Coercion - using threats to control someone. Unit 6- Family Life and Human Sexuality Agency - A belief about yourself and the extent to which you can act on that belief. ⢠The ability to choose freely oneâs own narrative. ⢠To embrace the idea that I am the cause (or agent) of my own thoughts and actions. ⢠Personal agency is a personal responsibility for who we are, what we experience, what we do about that experience, and how we shape our world to give us more of the experiences we want. SEXUAL Agency ⢠The ability to choose your own interests and desires vs. what we see in the media or othersâ perceptions ⢠The ability to identify, communicate, and negotiate oneâs sexual needs ⢠The ability to initiate behaviors that allow for the satisfaction of those needs Sexually Explicit Material - photographs, videos, films, magazines, and books whose primary themes, topics, or depictions involve sexuality that may cause sexual arousal. Sexual scripts - thoughts, patterns, or behavior that a person has about themselves in a romantic or sexual context. It is how people picture themselves or want to project themselves in front of others. Reproductive Rights of Teens - In Maryland, teens have the right to an abortion, keep their child, obtain and use birth control, paternity tests, adoption, give up custody of their child within 10 days of birth (Safe Haven Law). ⢠REPRODUCTIVE RIGHTS- legal rights and the freedom of the individual to control decisions regarding contraception, abortion, sterilization and childbirth. ⢠SAFE HAVEN LAW- a distressed parent who is unable or unwilling to care for their infant can safely give up custody of their baby, no questions asked. CONSENT is an agreement between participants to engage in sexual activity. ⢠It is clearly and freely communicated, verbal, and affirmative. Consent CANNOT be given if⌠⢠A person is underage, one or both partners is intoxicated or incapacitated by drugs or alcohol, one partner is asleep or unconscious, one partner feels pressured, threatened or intimidated, or one partner holds a position of power or authority over the other. Unit 7- Advocating for Enhanced Nutrition, Food Systems, and Health Outcomes Dietary Guidelines for Americans Guideline 1: Follow a Healthy Dietary Pattern at Every Life Stage Guideline 2: Customize and Enjoy Food and Beverage Choices to Reflect Personal Preferences, Cultural Traditions, and Budgetary Considerations Guideline 3: Focus on Meeting Food Group Needs with Nutrient-Dense Foods and Beverages, and Stay Within Calorie Limits Guideline 4: Limit Foods and Beverages Higher in Added Sugars, Saturated Fat, and Sodium, and Limit Alcoholic Beverages FOOD DESERT- a neighborhood where there is little or limited access to healthy and affordable food such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat milk and other foods that make up the full range of a healthy diet. FOOD INSEQURITY lack of access to a sufficient amount of food because of limited funds. More than 49 million American households are considered food insecure and are vulnerable to poor health as a result. PROCCESED FOODS- any raw agricultural commodities that have been washed, cleaned, milled, cut, chopped, heated, pasteurized, blanched, cooked, canned, frozen, dried, dehydrated, mixed or packaged â anything done to them that alters their natural state.
Make a multiple choice quiz for my year 8 science students based on the science in this transcript from a video: 3°C 0:04 It can be the difference between snow and sleet 0:08 Wearing a jacket or not 0:11 In your day-to-day life, it may not seem significant 0:15 But 3°C of global warming would be catastrophic 0:20 Heatwaves, droughts, extreme precipitation, even fire 0:25 3°C of warming is really disastrous 0:28 The scary thing is, the world is well on its way there 0:32 Since the industrial revolution, the Earth has warmed between 1.1°C and 1.3°C 0:40 This is a problem that babies you pass in the street will have to live with 0:46 Children born today... 0:47 ...are up to seven times more likely to face extreme weather than their grandparents 0:52 If global temperatures do rise by 3°C... 0:55 ...what would their world look like? Climate change is already having devastating effects 1:03 Rising sea levels 1:05 Desertification 1:07 Hollywood has always enjoyed imagining the end of the world 1:11 While blockbusters like this are clearly fiction... 1:14 ...this film will show the scenario we all face... 1:17 ...unless more drastic measures are taken to stop burning fossil fuels 1:30 In some parts of the world the effects of inaction are already clear 1:35 The slums of Bangladeshâs capital are filling up with climate migrants 1:41 Minara comes from Bhola District, an area in southern Bangladesh 1:46 There, like many other parts of the country... 1:49 ...rivers swollen by heavier rain and melting Himalayan glaciers... 1:53 ...are washing away peopleâs homes 1:56 Many, like her, have lost everything 2:00 Our home in Bhola had endless amounts of land 2:03 There was lots of space for farming, we had a spacious house 2:08 There were different types of fruits, vegetation and trees growing at home 2:12 We used to eat the fruit from our own trees 2:18 I canât eat them now because they don't exist anymore 2:21 Since the river flooded for the third time, I had to flee to Dhaka 2:26 Life was much better back home 2:29 It was unbearable to live through, truly intolerable 2:33 We didnât have the time to save anything at all 2:38 1.1°C to 1.3°C of global warming has already transformed Minaraâs life 2:45 Itâs one of the reasons why so many migrants like her... 2:47 ...are moving to the city each year... 2:50 ...nearly 400,000 according to the last estimate 2:53 And climate models show there could be much worse to come How climate modelling works 3:02 Climate scientist Joeri Rogelj... 3:04 ...has spent the last ten years modelling future climate scenarios... 3:08 ...for the United Nations 3:10 The models we use to carry out this exercise... 3:13 ...really represent the state of the art... 3:15 ...of our current knowledge of climate change and where we are heading 3:19 Joeriâs projections use data collected by hundreds of scientists around the world 3:26 Here this is the 3°C level... 3:28 ...and so there is at least a one-in-four chance that under current policies... 3:32 ...we would hit 3°C by the end of the century 3:36 This is just one of the scenarios Joeri looks at 3:40 Another one imagines that all policy promises are kept 3:44 The most optimistic assumes that all promises have been kept... 3:47 ...and net-zero targets are met 3:50 Where our best estimate ends up around 2°C at the end of the century... 3:54 ...there is still a one-in-20 chance that we end up with 3°C instead 3:59 One would not be entering a plane if there is a one-in-20 chance... 4:03 ...that the plane will crash Nowhere is safe from global warming 4:07 A rise of 3°C would affect everyone 4:10 Even wealthy cities in rich countries wouldnât be immune to the consequences 4:15 European capitals like Paris and Berlin... 4:18 ...would bake under more extreme heatwaves 4:22 Frequent storm-surges in New York could turn parts of the city desolate 4:27 In many ways, cities magnify, intensify climate events 4:33 Cities are hotter than the places around them... 4:36 ...they tend to be more vulnerable to flooding 4:39 And you can get a really bad event in a city in a way that you canât in the countryside 4:46 And because of their denser populations... 4:49 ...disasters in a city affect far more people 4:52 Some cities might be badly prepared for the changes coming 4:56 But they have the means to adapt 4:59 Cities tend to be wealthier than surrounding places 5:03 They have a lot of amenities 5:05 A city that has taken seriously the risks of a 3°C world... 5:08 âŚwouldnât necessarily be a worse place to be in a 3°C world 5:12 But a city that hasnât prepared for these sort of eventualities... 5:16 ...that might be a really nasty place The impact of prolonged droughts 5:20 So far, many developed cities have got off lightly... 5:24 ...but some rural parts of the world are suffering disproportionately 5:29 Smallholdersâsmall-scale farmersâare particularly vulnerable to climate change 5:35 And there are over 600 million around the world 5:38 Smallholders with farms under two hectares... 5:40 ...produce around a third of the global food supply 5:46 Central Americaâs âDry Corridorâ... 5:48 ...supports a mix of smallholdings and medium-sized farms 5:53 Sandwiched between the Pacific Ocean and the Caribbean Sea... 5:56 ...the area is prone to droughts 6:08 Israel RamĂrez Rivera is a smallholder in Guatemala 6:12 Here, climate change is making the dry seasons longer, and more severe 6:18 This is the biggest ear of maize that this plot could deliver 6:23 He depends on his crops of corn and beans 6:26 But theyâre getting harder to grow 6:30 The surrounding mountains... 6:32 ...used to provide us with native food... 6:38 ...and now that isnât an option anymore... 6:41 ...due to climate change and its effects 6:46 Nearly two-thirds of the smallholders in the Dry Corridor now live in poverty 6:52 The impact of all of this for us... 6:59 ...malnutrition among children 7:03 Weâve lost a few 7:07 For my crops especially, the midsummer heat is harder than before 7:16 The plant dries up and canât provide us... 7:19 ...with the necessary food provision 7:24 Severe droughts in Central America... 7:26 ...are now four times more likely than they were last century 7:30 Many families from here have gone to the States 7:37 The economic despair and debts... 7:44 ...have pushed many people from this community to do this journey 7:53 Migration from Guatemala to the United States has quadrupled since 1990 7:59 Not all of this has been due to climate change 8:02 But longer droughts would force even more to move 8:05 In a 3°C world, annual rainfall in this region... 8:09 ...could drop by up to 14% 8:12 At 3°C, over a quarter of the worldâs population... 8:16 ...could endure extreme droughts for at least a month of the year 8:19 Northern Africa could see droughts that last for years at a time Rising sea levels, storm surges and flooding 8:24 But for some, too much water will be the problem 8:29 10% of the worldâs population lives on a coastline... 8:32 ...thatâs less than 10 metres above sea level 8:35 For these coastal inhabitants, a 3°C world would spell disaster 8:40 By 2100, global sea levels could have climbed by half a metre from 2005 levels 8:46 Low-lying cities like Lagos would be especially vulnerable... 8:49 ...with up to up to a third of the population displaced 8:54 And in Fiji, rising waters are already upending lives 9:04 You can see the graveyard there, itâs all under water now... 9:08 ...due to this rising sea level and climate change 9:15 The village of Togoru in Fiji is being swallowed by the sea 9:19 Barney Dunn, the village headman, has seen over half the village disappear 9:24 Relativesâ houses have been abandoned, and family graves are now under water 9:29 We have been asked by the government to relocate... 9:32 ...but no one wants to relocate... 9:34 ...because we have our great-great-grandparents down there in the sea 9:39 This is the place weâve been brought up in 9:41 ...itâs not easy to leave 9:44 Past attempts to build a seawall havenât worked 9:48 But Barney sees building a new one as the villageâs only hope 9:52 If they do that, maybe we can save whatever is left 9:56 But if we donât have the seawall, then it will be keep eroding and time will come... 10:01 ...maybe in ten,15 years, Togoru will be all eroded 10:05 Rising seas also mean storms cause more floods 10:11 And many more countries could suffer 10:14 The Philippines and Myanmar are just two countries... 10:17 ...that will also see an increase in storm surges in a 3°C world 10:21 To escape, many will move⌠10:24 âŚoften, to urban areas Extreme heat and wet-bulb temperatures 10:27 Half the worldâs population already lives in cities... 10:31 ...almost a third in slums 10:36 For them, a 3°C world could be deadly 10:40 Minara has moved to Dhaka to escape the impact of climate change 10:44 But life could get even worse for her 10:47 Iâm struggling a lot nowadays 10:49 The heat during the day is unbearable 10:52 Even late at night it doesnât cool down 10:57 The heat is getting more intense every day 10:59 I mean, itâs going to get much worse 11:03 I can barely survive it now, how will I live through it in the future? 11:08 Dhaka is getting hotter 11:11 In the last 20 years the average daytime temperature... 11:13 ...has crept up by nearly half a degree 11:17 Days that approach 40°C are now being reported 11:20 And high so-called wet-bulb temperatures are on the rise 11:26 A wet-bulb temperature is a measure of heat and humidity 11:30 Humans cool themselves by sweating⌠11:32 But in these conditions, when relative humidity is near 100%... 11:36 ...sweat doesnât evaporate well 11:38 So people canât cool down⌠11:41 ...even if given unlimited shade and water 11:45 At a high wet-bulb temperature, the body canât lose heat... 11:49 ...and so it gets hotter and hotter... 11:51 ...and the body is designed to work at a given temperature 11:53 And if it gets too hot inside, you will die 11:58 The human limit for wet-bulb temperatures is 35°C... 12:02 ...around skin temperature 12:04 Dhaka will have a much higher chance... 12:05 ...of reaching dangerous wet-bulb temperatures... 12:07 ...if global warming reaches 3°C 12:12 You canât really adapt to that 12:14 You have to get out. If the temperature is so high that you canât work... 12:20 ...canât do hard manual labour outside for significant parts of the year... 12:25 ...then many places will become functionally no longer part of the economy 12:33 Jacobabad in Pakistan, and Ras al Khaimah, in the United Arab Emirates... 12:37 ...have already recorded deadly wet-bulb temperatures 12:40 More of the tropics and the Persian Gulf... 12:43 ...as well as parts of Mexico and the south-eastern United States... 12:47 ...could all get to this threshold by the end of the century 12:50 Climate modelling might show us the weather Increased migration and conflict 12:52 But it doesnât show us its other effects on society 12:56 Established migration patterns could change 12:59 Climate disasters may exacerbate reasons people cross borders 13:03 Within countries, more people will move to cities 13:07 In a 3°C world, tens of millions of people a year... 13:10 ...could be displaced by disasters made worse by climate change 13:15 When people are displaced by climate... 13:18 âŚthey may well go to cities... 13:19 ...because cities are the places that attract people from the countryside already 13:25 A lot of people who can get to the developed world... 13:28 ...not least because the developed world tends to be less hot, will give that a go 13:35 As migration around the world increases... 13:38 ...there could be more competition for fewer resources 13:42 Waterâalready a highly contested resourceâwill be a focal point 13:47 Turkeyâs new Ilisu dam has reduced the flow of water into Iraq 13:53 China lays claim to rivers vital to India and Pakistan 13:57 The prospect of a water-conflict makes people very uneasy 14:03 How national tensions would exacerbate those sorts of reactions... 14:08 ...in a 3°C world... 14:09 ...is the sort of thing that no one should really want to find out 14:14 I think youâd have to be incredibly sanguine... 14:16 ...not to think that the sort of climate extremes that we talk about... 14:19 ...in a 3°C world wouldnât lead some places... 14:22 ...to the brink of societal collapse 14:25 Those lucky enough to escape unrest... Adaptation and mitigation are crucial 14:28 ...would still have to adapt to a radically different world 14:32 People can adapt to climate change in all sorts of ways, one of the most obvious ones... 14:37 ...is air conditioning 14:39 But other ways to adapt at a local or regional level... 14:42 ...I mean, one of the most obvious is diversifying agriculture 14:47 There are physical things you can do, like seawalls 14:52 The fact that people can adapt and that adaptation will reduce suffering... 14:57 ...doesnât mean that it will eliminate suffering 15:00 Suffering is built into this whole process of heating up the planet 15:06 Adaptation will only get the world so far 15:09 The best way to deal with a 3°C world... 15:12 ...is not to go to a 3°C world 15:14 And thatâs why increasing efforts on mitigation are important 15:17 Itâs why working towards negative emissions... 15:20 ...that could bring down the temperature after it peaks are important 15:25 Once you get to a 3°C world, you are in real bad global trouble 15:33 The scale of change needed... 15:35 ...and the slow progress of governments so far... 15:38 ...means 3°C of warming is uncomfortably likely unless more is done 15:44 Despite existing pledges, greenhouse-gas emissions... 15:48 ...are still set to rise by 16% from 2010 levels by 2030 15:54 The need to act has never been clearer 15:57 Thereâs still time to reduce emissions, so that a 3°C world remains fiction... 16:02 ...rather than becoming fact