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Simulation in education

Quiz by Dr S Kavitha GRGSMS

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Q 1/5
Score 0
What types of skills can be developed using simulation in education?
30
Neither technical nor soft skills.
Both technical and soft skills.
Technical skills only.
Soft skills only.
Q 2/5
Score 0
What are some examples of simulation in education?
30
Reading textbooks, listening to lectures, taking multiple-choice tests.
Playing video games, participating in group discussions, practicing meditation.
Flight simulators, medical simulators, virtual reality simulations.
Watching documentaries, going on field trips, doing independent research.

5 questions

Q.

What types of skills can be developed using simulation in education?

1

30 sec

Q.

What are some examples of simulation in education?

2

30 sec

Q.

Which of the following is an advantage of simulation-based learning?

3

30 sec

Q.

What is the goal of simulation-based training?

4

30 sec

Q.

What is simulation in education?

5

30 sec

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You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit youre your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response?  A. Exploiting  B. Positive  C. Opportunistic  D. Enhancing Answer: A Question #70 Which document refers to the steps that must be taken if there is a major gap in the projected delivery quality of a service and the actual delivery?  A. Service Improvement Plan  B. Service Quality Plan  C. Business Service Catalogue  D. Service Level Agreement https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following responsibilities are performed by the core team of IT governance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Provide service feedback to providers.  B. Undertake core tasks.  C. Define plan and deliverables.  D. Report on process. Answer: BCD Question #72 Which of the following IT governance frameworks provides governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI), and is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management?  A. VMM  B. Val IT  C. Risk IT  D. COBIT Answer: B Question #73 Which of the following roles in Service Design is responsible for delivering a particular service within the agreed service levels and also acts as the counterpart of the Service Level Manager when negotiating OLAs?  A. The Service Design Manager  B. The Service Level Manager  C. The Service Owner  D. The Service Catalogue Manager Answer: C Question #74 Harold is the project manager of a large project in his organization. He has been actively communicating and working with the project stakeholders. One of the outputs of the manage stakeholder expectations process can actually create new risk events for Harold's project. Which output of the manage stakeholder expectations process can create risks? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Project management plan updates  B. Project document updates  C. Change requests  D. Organizational process assets updates Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following concepts is the business practice of developing and implementing comprehensive risk management and security practices for a firm's entire value chain?  A. TOGAF  B. TQM  C. BSC  D. TSM Answer: D Question #76 Sensitivity analysis is a technique for systematically changing parameters in a model to determine the effects of such changes and is useful for computer modelers for a range of purposes. Which of the following purposes does the sensitivity analysis include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Decision making or the development of recommendations for decision makers  B. Model development  C. Estimating the average outcome  D. Increased understanding or quantification of the system Answer: ABD Question #77 Beth is an HR Professional for her organization and she's been alerted by management that the company will be outsourcing a large portion of operations. This outsourcing will likely cause several employees to lose employment with the organization. Which of the following is the best course of action that Beth can take in regard to communicating with the employees about the outsourcing change?  A. Be honest and truthful and do not hide the facts.  B. Refer all  C. Document all  D. Don't share the details of the outsourcing decision. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #78 Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Managing the IT workforce.  B. Correcting all risk issues.  C. Conducting IT risk assessments.  D. Developing a strategic plan. Answer: ACD Question #79 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT resources are centralized under a single reporting structure with centralized resource allocation (staffing), and the organizational structure is built around the resource pools?  A. Federated  B. Centralized  C. Project-based  D. Decentralized Answer: C Question #80 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk responses she has created?  A. The level of detail is set by historical information.  B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking.  C. The level of detail is set of project risk governance.  D. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk. Answer: B Question #81 strategic plans with business strategic plans and the alignment of IT services with enterprise operations?  A. Risk Management  B. IT Governance Framework  C. Strategic Alignment  D. Value Delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #82 You are the project manager for the ABC organization. Your current project has 75 internal stakeholders and 245 external stakeholders. Many of the risks within your project will only affect the internal stakeholders, but several of the identified risk events will affect the external stakeholders. Management would like to know the total number of communication channels in the project. How many communication channels exist in this project?  A. 245  B. 102,080  C. 51,040  D. 320 Answer: C Question #83 Which of the following is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement and guides process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization?  A. Capability Maturity Model Integration  B. Service Portfolio  C. COBIT  D. Six Sigma Answer: A Question #84 Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project?  A. She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives.  B. She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule  C. She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much a possible.  D. She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule. Answer: D Question #85 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Della works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. She is working with the project stakeholders to begin the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following inputs will be needed for the quantitative risk analysis process in her project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Project scope statement  B. Risk management plan  C. Cost management plan  D. Risk register Answer: BCD Question #86 Which types of project tends to have more well-understood risks?  A. First-of-its kind technology projects  B. State-of-art technology projects  C. Recurrent projects  D. Operational work projects Answer: C Question #87 Marsha is the project manager of the NHQ Project. There's a risk that her project team has identified, which could cause the project to be late by more than a month. Marsha does not want this risk event to happen so she devises extra project activities to ensure that the risk event will not happen. The extra steps, however, will cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response is this approach?  A. Exploiting  B. Transference  C. Mitigation  D. Enhancing Answer: C Question #88 Which of the following frameworks describes a standard for processes within business information management at the strategy, management and operations level?  A. Val IT  B. BISL  C. COBIT  D. TOGAF https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #89 You are the project manager of a large construction project. You are evaluating the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats involved in a project. In which of the following processes are you on?  A. Define Scope  B. Identify Risks  C. Plan Risk Responses  D. Plan Risk Management Answer: B Question #90 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)?  A. Repeatable level  B. Managed level  C. Defined level  D. Fundamental level Answer: D Question #91 A project manager must have certain interpersonal skills to communicate with stakeholders and manage their expectations of the project work. Which of the following interpersonal skills has been identified as one of the biggest reasons for project success or failure?  A. Motivation  B. Influencing  C. Political and cultural awareness  D. Communication Answer: D Question #92 TOGAF is based on four pillars, called architecture domains. Which of the following architecture domains provides a blueprint for the individual application systems to be deployed, the interactions between the application systems, and their relationships to the core business processes of the organization with the frameworks for services to be exposed as business functions for integration?  A. Business architecture  B. Applications architecture  C. Technical architecture https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Data architecture Answer: B Question #93 Which of the following external factors complicate the notion of business-IT for achieving strategic alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Resource limitations  B. Economic and regulatory changes  C. World region changes and events  D. Market changes Answer: BCD Question #94 You are hosting a collection of stakeholders from across the organization to identify the ideas and attitudes about your company's help desk. You want the stakeholders to honestly share their opinions about the help desk service so you can identify problems, solutions, and take actions to improve the service. What type of requirements elicitation activity is this?  A. Root cause analysis  B. Stakeholder analysis  C. Focus groups  D. Workshop Answer: C Question #95 Which of the following are the main objectives of the Performance measurement domain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. It satisfies the customer's need.  B. It defines value creation roles within IT.  C. It meets out the goals.  D. It statistically controls the process sequences. Answer: ACD Question #96 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! You work as a project manager for TechSoft Inc. You are working with the project stakeholders on the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. You have used all the tools to the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. Which of the following techniques is NOT used as a tool in qualitative risk analysis process?  A. Risk Data Quality Assessment  B. Risk Categorization  C. Risk Reassessment  D. Risk Urgency Assessment Answer: C Question #97 Paul has been asked to complete SWOT analysis for his solution scope. What does SWOT analysis mean?  A. Stakeholder Weaknesses, Organizational Threats  B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats  C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Time  D. Stakeholders Weaknesses, Organization, Threats Answer: B Volume B Question #1 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are about to complete the quantitative risk analysis process for your project. You can use three available tools and techniques to complete this process. Which one of the following is NOT a tool or technique that is appropriate for the quantitative risk analysis process?  A. Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques  B. Organizational process assets  C. Expert judgment  D. Data gathering and representation techniques Answer: B Question #2 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be known as what term?  A. Cost-benefits analysis  B. Benchmarking https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Cost of conformance to quality  D. Team development Answer: C Question #3 Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling?  A. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA)  B. Service-oriented architecture (SOA)  C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA)  D. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) Answer: D Question #4 Which of the following processes involves choosing the alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan?  A. Scope Change control  B. Monitor and Control risk  C. Integrated Change control  D. Configuration Management Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following architecture domains for TOGAF describes the structure of an organization's logical and physical data assets and the associated data management resources?  A. Applications architecture  B. Technical architecture  C. Data architecture  D. Business architecture Answer: C Question #6 Which volume provides guidance on clarification and prioritization of service-provider investments in services?  A. Service Operation  B. Service Strategy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Service Design  D. Service Management Answer: B Question #7 Which of the following problems occur with performance measurement systems that limit their usefulness? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. It is dependent on gross aggregates, which tend to understate or ignore distributional contributions and consequences.  B. It is dependent on the timely occurrence of corrective action which is required for effective management control.  C. It is dependent on historical patterns and reluctant to accept new structural changes that are capable of generating different outcomes  D. It is dependent on summary data, which emphasizes averages and discounts outliers. Answer: ACD Question #8 You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project?  A. Risk utility function  B. Mitigation-ready project management  C. Risk-reward mentality  D. Risk avoidance Answer: A Question #9 Which of the following techniques is used for understanding the "environment" in which a business operates?  A. Critical success factor analysis  B. PEST analysis  C. SWOT analysis  D. Market segmentation Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #10 Which of the following process groups is the most efficient at providing resources to the development of the procurement process?  A. Acquisition process  B. Contract management  C. Process management  D. Resource management Answer: A Question #11 You are working with your project stakeholders to identify risks within the JKP Project. You want to use an approach to engage the stakeholders to increase the breadth of the identified risks by including internally generated risk. Which risk identification approach is most suited for this goal?  A. Brainstorming  B. Assumptions analysis  C. SWOT analysis  D. Delphi Technique Answer: C Question #12 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders, some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders?  A. Communications Management Plan  B. Risk Response Plan  C. Project Management Plan  D. Risk Management Plan Answer: A Question #13 As seen from the perspective of how the enterprise defines and executes business strategies to achieve its goals and objectives, which of the following elements does the ERM comprise of? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Enhancing risk response decisions  B. Providing integrated responses to few risks  C. Reducing operational surprises and losses https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Aligning risk appetite and strategy Answer: ACD Question #14 You work as the project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are monitoring the project performance. You want to make a decision to change the project plan to eliminate a risk in order to protect the project objectives. Which of the following strategies will you use to tackle the risk?  A. Risk mitigation  B. Risk avoidance  C. Risk acceptance  D. Risk transference Answer: B Question #15 Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?  A. RACI chart  B. Roles and responsibility matrix  C. Work breakdown structure  D. Resource breakdown structure Answer: D Question #16 You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis?  A. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis.  B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances.  C. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances.  D. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible. Answer: D Question #17 Lisa is the project manager of the FKN project for her organization. She is working with Sam, the CIO, to discuss a discount the vendor has offered the project based on the amount of materials that is ordered. Lisa and Sam review the offer and agree that while their project may qualify for the discounted materials the savings is nominal and they https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! would not necessarily pursue the savings. Lisa documents this positive risk response in the risk register. What risk response is this?  A. Share  B. Acceptance  C. Enhance  D. Transference Answer: B Question #18 You are the project manager of the GHY Project and would like to perform a review of your project from several different characteristics. You would like to review what worked in the project and what needed improvement. What type of analysis would be most appropriate for the end of project review?  A. Feasibility study  B. Product breakdown  C. Business case study  D. SWOT analysis Answer: D Question #19 Which of the following best describes the identification, analysis, and ranking of risks?  A. Plan Risk management  B. Design of experiments  C. Fixed-price contracts  D. Fast tracking Answer: A Question #20 There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process?  A. Risk management plan  B. Risk register  C. Enterprise environmental factors  D. Cost management plan Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #21 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes is fully developed and optimized across the enterprise, and a well-built IT portfolio management process is put to ensure that all IT investment decisions are themselves optimized?  A. Stage 2-Fragmented  B. Stage 4-Best practices  C. Stage 3-Consistent  D. Stage 1-Ad hoc Answer: B Question #22 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would best help you?  A. Plan risk responses  B. Create a risk governance approach  C. Create the project risk register  D. Monitor and control project risks Answer: A Question #23 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project. Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project?  A. Acceptance  B. Enhance  C. Sharing  D. Exploiting Answer: A Question #24 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to perform at an agreed level over a period of time? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Reliability  B. Security  C. Recoverability  D. Serviceability  E. Resilience  F. Maintainability  G. Error control Answer: ABCDEF Question #25 Your project team has identified a project risk that must be responded to. The risk has been recorded in the risk register and the project team has been discussing potential risk responses for the risk event. The event is not likely to happen for several months but the probability of the event is high. Which one of the following is a valid response to the identified risk event?  A. Risk audit  B. Earned value management  C. Corrective action  D. Technical performance measurement Answer: C Question #26 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _________ provides investment management services to the firm and directs on how to take decisions on fund. Answer: fund manager Question #27 You are the business analyst for the YGT Organization. You have just completed a capabilities gap assessment and have determined that your organization does not have the necessary resources and technology to seize a business opportunity. What is the most likely course of action for the organization?  A. Hire contractors to complete the project work.  B. Move onto the next opportunity.  C. Launch a new project.  D. Hire additional resources. Answer: C Question #28 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Stephen is the project manager of the GBB project. He has worked with two subject matter experts and his project team to complete the risk assessment technique. There are approximately 47 risks that have a low probability and a low impact on the project. Which of the following answers best describes what Stephen should do with these risk events?  A. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to the risk register.  B. Because they are low probability and low impact, the risks can be dismissed.  C. Because they are low probability and low impact, Stephen should accept the risks.  D. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watch list for future monitoring. Answer: D Question #29 Which of the following is a continuous process of comparing performance with desired objectives to identify opportunities for improvement, and is conducted by individuals, groups, or organizations relating to their own work?  A. Management Assessment  B. Continuous improvement  C. Self Assessment  D. Control Answer: C Question #30 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _______ portion of the issue log records the previous pending issues that have been taken care of. Answer: resolved issues Question #31 In which of the following methods of risk mitigation does the senior management approve the implementation of the controls that are recommended by the risk management team, and that will lower the risk to an acceptable level?  A. Risk Avoidance  B. Risk Alleviation  C. Risk Limitation  D. Risk Transference Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #32 A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it'll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event?  A. Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart.  B. Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist.  C. Add the identified risk to the risk register.  D. Add the identified risk to the issues log. Answer: C Question #33 Which of the following are the tasks performed by the Management committee in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. To work on architectural design  B. To define value creation roles within IT  C. To balance sustain/growth proposals  D. To manage complex projects Answer: ACD Question #34 Which of the following steps are performed in the Planning phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Plan the risk-based assurance initiatives.  B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives.  C. Perform a quick risk assessment.  D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ACD Question #35 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management describes the ability to model the IT Portfolio with metrics most appropriate to the business such as ROI, Break- Even, Cost Avoidance, and Revenue Return?  A. Integrated Capability  B. Portfolio What-If Planning https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards  D. Highly Configurable Answer: D Question #36  A. Strategic Alignment  B. Risk Management  C. Value Delivery  D. IT Governance Framework Answer: D Question #37 Which of the following frameworks is for enterprise architecture, and provides a comprehensive approach to the design, planning, implementation, and governance of an enterprise information architecture?  A. TOGAF  B. Val IT  C. BISL  D. COBIT Answer: A Question #38 Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which of the following processes?  A. Change Management, Capacity Management, Event Management, and Service Request Management  B. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management  C. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release Management, and Request Fulfillment  D. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following processes is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships relating to components of the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure?  A. Service Catalogue Management  B. Service Level Management  C. ICT Operations Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Service Asset and Configuration Management Answer: D Question #40 You are the project manager of the GHG project for your company. You have identified the project risks, completed qualitative and quantitative analysis, and created risk responses. You also need to document how and when risk audits will be performed in the project. Where will you define the frequency of risk audits?  A. Schedule management plan  B. Risk management plan  C. Quality management plan  D. Risk response plan Answer: B Question #41 What stakeholder(s) must participate in the document elicitation result?  A. Business analyst and the key stakeholders  B. Business analyst and the business owner  C. Business analyst, business analysis team, and the key stakeholders  D. Business analyst Answer: D Question #42 You are the HR Professional for your organization and you're working with the management to define the role of contractors versus employees in your organization. According to the Internal Revenue Service, there are three categories of control that help determine whether a person is a contractor or an employee. Which one of the following is not one of the three levels of control as defined by the IRS for employee versus contractor?  A. Type of relationship  B. Locale of work performed  C. Behavioral control  D. Financial control Answer: B Question #43 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Holly and Gary are HR Professionals in their organization and they're working to develop the strategic plan for their organization. Holly and Gary are using SWOT analysis to help understand the needs of human, financial, technological, capital, and other aspects of their organization. What is SWOT?  A. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats an organization may face.  B. SWOT is an analysis to define the schedule, weaknesses, opportunities, and timetable of a project endeavor.  C. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, openness, and timeliness of an organization.  D. SWOT is an analysis to define the seriousness, weaknesses, openness, and timetable of organization development. Answer: A Question #44 DRAG DROP - COBIT stands for Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology. COBIT is a set of best practices (framework) for information technology (IT) management created by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI) in 1996. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Monitor and Evaluate') next to the IT processes defined by COBIT to support CSI. Select and Place: Answer: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #45 What is the key output handed over to Service Transition within Service Design?  A. Business Perspective  B. Service Portfolio Management  C. ITIL Small-Scale Implementation  D. Service Design Package Answer: D Question #46 Which of the following processes are covered by Service Strategy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Service Portfolio Management  B. IT Financial Management  C. Demand Management  D. IT Architecture Management  E. Supplier Management Answer: ABCE Question #47 Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur?  A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)  B. Exposure Factor (EF)  C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)  D. Safeguard Answer: C Question #48 Which of the following concepts is used to reduce the errors produced during the manufacturing or service process, increase customer satisfaction, streamline supply chain management, aims for modernization of equipment and ensures workers have the highest level of training?  A. Balanced Scorecard (BSC)  B. Six Sigma  C. Total Quality Management  D. Total Security Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #49 Enterprise analysis provides many things for an organization. All of the following are tasks included in enterprise analysis except for which one?  A. Solution performance assessment  B. Define business need  C. Determine solution approach  D. Assess capability gaps Answer: A Question #50 Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management?  A. Project risk management happens at every milestone.  B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning.  C. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item.  D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project. Answer: C Question #51 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?  A. Decision analysis  B. Alternative generation  C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints  D. Ranking of approaches Answer: B Question #52 Service Level Management provides for continual identification, monitoring and review of the levels of IT services specified in the service level agreements (SLAs). What are the responsibilities of Service Level Management? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Producing and maintaining a Service Catalog.  B. Liaising with Availability Management. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Ensuring that the agreed IT services are delivered.  D. Ensuring the primary functions of the Service Desk.  E. Ensuring that appropriate IT Service Continuity plans have been made. Answer: ABCE Question #53 You are the project manager of a computer upgrade project. You and the vendor are in dispute over the deliverables the vendor was to provide and configure. What document can best describe how you and the vendor are to proceed if there is a claim against the vendor?  A. Procurement management plan  B. Project cost management plan  C. Enterprise environmental factors  D. Contract Answer: D Question #54 Which of the following is a way of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcome that customers wish to get without the control of specific costs and risks?  A. Processes  B. Service Desk  C. Functions  D. Service Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following objectives can be the best coordinated with the Human resource management?  A. Increasing the automation of the business processes  B. Satisfying the business needs  C. Rewarding employee fairly  D. Focusing on the business improvements Answer: B Question #56 Which of the following steps are performed in the Scoping phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Customize control objectives.  B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives.  C. Select the control objectives for critical processes.  D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ABC Question #57 Which of the following frameworks describes an enterprise view of all project management activities and how these activities contribute to the success of the organization?  A. Casualty Actuarial Society framework  B. COSO ERM  C. Enterprise project management (EPM)  D. COBIT Answer: C Question #58 Which of the following planned and purposeful management processes are required by Strategic Alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Clarifying the role that IT should play  B. Aligning IT strategy with the business strategy  C. Evaluating, post implementation, benefits delivered by IT  D. Creating and sustaining awareness of the strategic role of IT at a top management level Answer: ACD Question #59 Which of the following terms includes performance objectives and criteria (POCs), performance indicators, and any other means that evaluate the success in achieving a specified goal?  A. Precision  B. Performance Measurement System  C. Performance Measure  D. Performance Measurement Category Answer: C Question #60 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! For the entire IT organizations to be agile, all members of the IT organizations need to understand the need for agility and be committed to this process. Which of the following working principles or activity loops are involved for the IT organizations to be agile? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Loop 2  B. Loop 4  C. Loop3  D. Loop 1 Answer: ACD Question #61 You are interviewing members of a project team to test their understanding of the assigned risk responses as risk owners. You and the project manager are working together to evaluate the risk responses to determine their effectiveness in the project. What project management technique are you performing with the project manager in this scenario?  A. Risk identification with the project team  B. Risk audits  C. Risk analysis  D. Stakeholder analysis as the project team is a stakeholder Answer: B Question #62 Which of the following domains of COBIT addresses the development of a maintenance plan that a company should adopt in order to prolong the life of an IT system and its components?  A. Plan and Organize  B. Acquire and Implement  C. Deliver and Support  D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: B Question #63 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as the discipline by which an organization in any industry assesses, controls, exploits, finances, and monitors risks from all sources for the purpose of increasing the organization's short- and long-term value to its stakeholders?  A. COSO ERM framework  B. COBIT  C. Val IT https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Casualty Actuarial Society framework Answer: D Question #64 Ned is the project manager of the HNN project for your company. Ned has asked you to help him complete some probability distributions for his project. What portion of the project will you most likely use for probability distributions?  A. Uncertainty in values such as duration of schedule activities  B. Risk probability and impact matrixes  C. Bias towards risk in new resources  D. Risk identification Answer: A Question #65 Walter is the project manager of a large construction project. He'll be working with several vendors on the project. Vendors will be providing materials and labor for several parts of the project. Some of the works in the project are very dangerous so Walter has implemented safety requirements for all of the vendors and his own project team. Stakeholders for the project have added new requirements, which have caused new risks in the project. A vendor has identified a new risk that could affect the project if it comes into fruition. Walter agrees with the vendor and has updated the risk register and created potential risk responses to mitigate the risk. What should Walter also update in this scenario considering the risk event?  A. Project contractual relationship with the vendor  B. Project communications plan  C. Project scope statement  D. Project management plan Answer: D Question #66 You are the project manager of the NGQQ Project for your company. To help you communicate project status to your stakeholders, you are going to create a stakeholder register. All of the following information should be included in the stakeholder register except for which one?  A. Stakeholder management strategy  B. Assessment information of the stakeholders' major requirements, expectations, and potential influence  C. Stakeholder classification of their role in the project  D. Identification information for each stakeholder https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #67 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model states that there are no proper IT governance processes, and it is not documented by management as a requirement?  A. Stage 3-Consistent  B. Stage 2-Fragmented  C. Stage 1-Ad hoc  D. Stage 4-Best practices Answer: C Question #68 Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management, and Request Fulfillment are part of which of the following stages of the Service Lifecycle?  A. Service Strategy  B. Service Transition  C. Continual Service Improvement  D. Service Operation Answer: D Question #69 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have to communicate the causes of risk events to the stakeholders. Which risk diagramming technique you will use to communicate the causes of risk events to project stakeholders?  A. Project network diagrams  B. Ishikawa diagrams  C. Process flow charts  D. Influence diagrams Answer: B Question #70 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _______are activities that are dangerous to complete and manage such as construction, electrical work, or manufacturing. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: Pure risks Question #71 What project management plan is most likely to direct the quantitative risk analysis process for a project in a matrix environment?  A. Risk management plan  B. Staffing management plan  C. Risk analysis plan  D. Human resource management plan Answer: A Question #72 The water sanitation project manager has determined that risks associated with handling certain chemicals are too high. He has therefore decided to allow someone else to complete this portion of the project by outsourcing the handling and installation of the chemicals and filter equipment to an experienced contractor. This is an example of which of the following?  A. Transference  B. Acceptance  C. Mitigation  D. Avoidance Answer: A Question #73 Which of the following outsourcing defines the performance objectives reached by negotiation between the user and the provider of a service, or between an outsourcer and an organization?  A. Service level Agreement (SLA)  B. Proposal  C. Contract  D. Outsource Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management seamlessly initiates the projects, and incorporates the asset and software development costs to improve the accuracy of ongoing portfolio assessment and project prioritization?  A. Portfolio Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Portfolio What-If Planning  C. Integrated Capability  D. Portfolio Planning Analysis Answer: C Question #75 Shawn is the project manager of the WHT Project for his company. In this project Shawn's team reports that they have found a way to complete the project work for less cost than what was originally planned. The project team presents a new software that will help to automate the project work. While the software and the associated training costs $25,000 it will save the project nearly $65,000 in total costs. Shawn agrees to the software and changes to the project management plan accordingly. What type of risk response has been used in this instance?  A. Enhancing  B. Accepting  C. Avoidance  D. Exploiting Answer: D Question #76 Which of the following sub-processes of Capacity Management is concerned with the management of the individual components of the IT Infrastructure?  A. Capacity Management Reporting  B. Business Capacity Management  C. Service Capacity Management  D. Resource Capacity Management Answer: D Question #77 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. You are working on NGQQ Project for your company. You have completed the risk analysis processes for the risk events. You and the project team have created risk responses for most of the identified project risks. Which of the following risk response planning techniques will you use to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the responses?  A. Risk transference  B. Risk avoidance  C. Risk acceptance  D. Risk mitigation https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #78 Which of the following are the advantages of IT Resource Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. It develops the IT service quality and effectiveness.  B. It reduces the IT project complexity.  C. It reduces the enterprise risks.  D. It provides customer organization to construct the Request for Proposal (RFP). Answer: ABC Question #79 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers the use of information & technology, and how best it can be used in a company to help achieve the company's goals and objectives?  A. Deliver and Support  B. Acquire and Implement  C. Plan and Organize  D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: C Question #80 Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management?  A. Planning meetings and analysis  B. Variance and trend analysis  C. Data gathering and representation techniques  D. Information gathering techniques Answer: A Question #81 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #82 You are the project manager of a large construction project. Part of the project involves the wiring of the electricity in the building your project is creating. You and the project team determine the electrical work is too dangerous to perform yourself so you hire an electrician to perform the work for the project. This is an example of what type of risk response?  A. Avoidance  B. Mitigation  C. Transference  D. Acceptance Answer: C Question #83 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Gary is the project manager of the MMQ project for his company. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for his project. Sarah, a project team member, does not understand the process that Gary is using to plan the risk responses. Which approach is the preferred method to address project risks and the risk responses?  A. Risks in the project should be addressed by their probability for creating risk responses.  B. Risks in the project should be addressed by the organization's risk tolerance for creating risk responses.  C. Risks in the project should be addressed by their priority for creating risk responses.  D. Risks in the project should be addressed by their impact for creating risk responses. Answer: C Question #84 Which of the following are the main benefits of using Information Services Procurement Library (ISPL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. The contract can be used as a control instrument.  B. The customer can take advantage of the competitive market.  C. The proposals of consumers become comparable.  D. The use of a strategy that really fits the situation. Answer: ABD Question #85 During qualitative risk analysis you want to define the risk urgency assessment. All of the following are indicators of risk priority except for which one?  A. Risk rating  B. Warning signs  C. Cost of the project  D. Symptoms Answer: C Question #86 What does the T in SWOT analysis mean?  A. Time  B. Trial  C. Threats  D. Test https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #87 Which of the following components work to support achievements of the enterprise's mission, strategies, and related business objectives in an internal control system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Control activities  B. Control environment  C. Strategic alignment  D. Risk assessment Answer: ABD Question #88 Which of the following are the objectives of Service Level Management (SLM)? 1. To negotiate SLAs with the customers and to design services in accordance with the agreed service level targets. 2. Defining, documenting, and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided. 3. Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in. 4. Monitoring, measuring, and reporting the actual level of services provided. 5. Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction.  A. 1, 2, and 3 only  B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only  C. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5  D. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only  E. 1 and 2 only Answer: B Question #89 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?  A. Risk management plan  B. Enterprise environmental factors  C. Risk probability and impact matrix  D. Organizational process assets Answer: D Question #90 Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below? System and data are validated. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements.  A. Evaluation and acceptance  B. Programming and training  C. Initiation  D. Definition Answer: A Question #91 Ben is the project manager of the CMH Project for his organization. He has identified a risk that has a low probability of happening, but the impact of the risk event could save the project and the organization with a significant amount of capital. Ben assigns Laura to the risk event and instructs her to research the time, cost, and method to improve the probability of the positive risk event. Ben then communicates the risk event and response to management. What risk response has been used here?  A. Enhance  B. Transference  C. Sharing  D. Exploit Answer: A Question #92 You are the project manager for ABC project. You are planning for when and how human resource requirements will be met. You are working on ____.  A. Scope management plan  B. Project organization chart  C. Staffing management plan  D. Resource calendar Answer: C Question #93 Jeff works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project. Which of the following are the inputs to the identify risks process that Jeff will use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Risk management plan  B. Activity cost estimates  C. Scope baseline https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Risk register Answer: ABC Question #94 Which of the following types of agreement creates a confidential relationship between the parties to protect any type of confidential and proprietary information or a trade secret?  A. CNC  B. NDA  C. SLA  D. Non-price competition Answer: B Question #95 Gary is the project manager for his organization. He is working with the project stakeholders on the project requirements and how risks may affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes risks in the project. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a project risk?  A. It is an unknown event that can affect the project scope.  B. It is an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective.  C. It is an uncertain event that can affect the project costs.  D. It is an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. Answer: B Question #96 Which of the following roles is used to ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)?  A. The Service Level Manager  B. The Configuration Manager  C. The IT Security Manager  D. The Change Manager Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #97 Which of the following are commonly used terms when discussing service improvement outcomes? 1) Improvements 2) Benefits 3) Return On Investment (ROI) 4) Value On Investment(VOI) 5) Resources  A. 2, 3, and 5 only  B. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only  C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only  D. 1, 2, and 4 only  E. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: C Question #98 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT identifies resource requirements?  A. PM5  B. PM3  C. PM2  D. PM4 Answer: C Volume C Question #1 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT establishes an investment threshold?  A. PM4  B. PM7  C. PM6  D. PM5 Answer: C Question #2 Which of the following ISO standards defines the corporate governance of IT?  A. ISO 9000 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. ISO 27001  C. ISO 20000  D. ISO 38500 Answer: D Question #3 Which of the following concepts aims to limit errors to 1 per million units produced?  A. TQM  B. BSC  C. Six Sigma  D. TSM Answer: A Question #4 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT establishes the organizational structures?  A. VG7  B. VG9  C. VG6  D. VG8 Answer: A Question #5 Which of the following activity loops describes improvement of the existing processes?  A. Loop 3  B. Loop 4  C. Loop 1  D. Loop 2 Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following strategies includes marketing strategies, new product development strategies, HR strategies and, financial strategies? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Operational strategy  B. Corporate strategy  C. Business strategy  D. Functional strategy Answer: D Question #7 Which of the following phases in SDLC transforms the detailed requirements into complete, detailed system design document?  A. Planning  B. Design  C. Development  D. Initiation Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following phases in SDLC provides the basis for acquiring the resources needed to achieve a solution?  A. Design  B. Planning  C. Development  D. Initiation Answer: B Question #9 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle occurs during the concept and idea stages of basic research?  A. IT asset phase  B. IT discovery phase  C. IT process phase  D. IT project phase Answer: B Question #10 Which of the following steps of development of business case describes the financial benefits analysis?  A. Step 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Step 3  C. Step 2  D. Step 4 Answer: B Question #11 Which of the following is a practice of forecasting possible risks to the organization and taking steps to mitigate their impact on operations?  A. Timekeeping  B. Enterprise risk management  C. Applicant tracking systems  D. HR audit Answer: B Question #12 Which of the following risk functions directs the Sarbanes-Oxley Section 302 and 404 assessments?  A. Operations management  B. Accounting / Financial compliance  C. Operational Quality Assurance  D. Compliance & Ethics Answer: B Question #13 Which of the following project management plans defines the risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring strategies?  A. Communications Management Plan  B. Resource Management Plan  C. Risk Management Plan  D. Stakeholder management strategy Answer: C Question #14 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for policy creation, policy communication, record creation, and HR information systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Compensation and benefit  B. Personnel policy  C. Analysis and design for work  D. Support for strategy Answer: B Question #15 Which of the following resource categories includes costs, productivity, availability, and change and configuration management?  A. Products  B. Processes  C. People  D. Partners Answer: B Question #16 What is the formula for measuring the "usage gap"?  A. Usage gap = market potential - existing usage  B. Usage gap = market potential * existing usage  C. Usage gap = market potential / existing usage  D. Usage gap = market potential + existing usage Answer: A Question #17 Which of the following individuals/team advises on infrastructure needs and architectural design?  A. Management committee  B. CEO  C. CIO  D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #18 In which of the following types of biases does the data collection itself interfere with the process it is measuring? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Interaction  B. Nonresponse  C. Perception  D. Operational Answer: A Question #19 Which of the following categories describes the value added by the process divided by the value of the labor and capital consumed?  A. Quality  B. Timeliness  C. Quantity  D. Productivity Answer: D Question #20 Which of the following processes uses statistical evidences to determine progress toward specific defined organizational objectives?  A. Resource management  B. Risk management  C. Value delivery  D. Performance measurement Answer: D Question #21 Which of the following has the tendency or inclination of outlook that is a troublesome source of error in human sensing?  A. Defect  B. Bias (of measurement)  C. Vulnerability  D. Risk Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following areas tracks the project delivery, and monitors the IT services? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Risk management  B. Performance measurement  C. Strategic alignment  D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #23 Which of the following individuals ensures that IT complies with policy, laws and regulations?  A. Project sponsor  B. Compliance officer  C. Supplier  D. Business partner Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following IT processes contained in the Deliver and Support domain of COBIT manages the operations?  A. DS10  B. DS13  C. DS9  D. DS8 Answer: B Question #25 Which of the following individuals supports and contributes to customer's governance approach?  A. User representatives  B. Supplier/Business partners  C. Compliance officers  D. Project sponsors Answer: B Question #26 Which of the following techniques builds various plausible views of possible futures for a business?  A. PEST analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Scenario Planning  C. SWOT Analysis  D. Market Segmentation Answer: B Question #27 Which of the following areas focuses on aligning with the business and collaborative solutions?  A. Risk management  B. Strategic alignment  C. Resource management  D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #28 Which of the following techniques seeks to identify the similarities and differences between the groups of customers or users?  A. Market Segmentation  B. PEST Analysis  C. SWOT Analysis  D. Scenario Planning Answer: A Question #29 Which of the following areas concentrates on optimizing expenses, and providing the value of IT?  A. Value delivery  B. Risk management  C. Resource management  D. Strategic alignment Answer: A Question #30 Which of the following is used as a tool that assists in risk identification?  A. Performance report  B. Status report https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Variance analysis  D. Issue log Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following is the amount of risk an enterprise is willing to except in pursuit of its mission?  A. Threats  B. Vulnerability  C. Risk Appetite  D. Inherent Risk Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following risks refers to the risk associated with an event in the absence of specific controls?  A. Financial reporting risk  B. Inherent risk  C. Operational risk  D. Compliance risk Answer: B Question #33 Which of the following types of risks includes liability torts, property damage, natural catastrophe and financial risk?  A. Asset risk  B. Hazard risk  C. Operational risk  D. Strategic risk Answer: B Question #34 Which of the following areas addresses the safeguarding of IT assets, disaster recovery and continuity of operations?  A. Performance measurement  B. Risk management  C. Value delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Strategic alignment Answer: B Question #35 Which of the following individuals/team allocates business resources for effective IT governance?  A. Business Executive  B. CEO  C. CIO  D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #36 Which of the following resource categories includes skill sets, certifications, productivity, and morale?  A. Partners  B. Processes  C. People  D. Products Answer: C Question #37 Which of the following attributes are the COBIT's generic maturity model attributes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Policies, plans and procedures  B. Tools and automation  C. Awareness and communication  D. Availability and accessibility Answer: ABC Question #38 Which of the following systems come under the category of linking systems to connect an enterprise with its customers and supplier? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Website and portal  B. Electronic data interchange (EDI)/extensible markup language (XML) data transfer systems https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Office productivity  D. E-mail, smartphone, instant messaging Answer: ABD Question #39 Which of the following steps of IT governance program establishes a balanced scorecard mechanism for measuring current performance that are related to the IT governance focus areas?  A. Define target areas  B. Develop improvement strategies  C. Understand and define the risks  D. Measure results Answer: D Question #40 objectives?  A. Strategic Alignment  B. Performance management  C. Value Delivery  D. Risk Management Answer: A Question #41 Which of the following steps of IT governance program decides on the highest priority projects that will help to improve the management and governance of the significant gap areas?  A. Define target areas  B. Develop improvement strategies  C. Measure results  D. Understand and define the risks Answer: B Question #42 In which of the following components of the COSO ERM are the policies and procedures established and implemented to help ensure that the risk responses are effectively carried out?  A. Control activity https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Risk assessment  C. Risk response  D. Event identification Answer: A Question #43 Which of the following factors influence the operating environment of an enterprise? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Mission, vision and values of an enterprise  B. Outcome measures  C. Stakeholders values  D. Industry practices Answer: ACD Question #44 You are using the IT BSC management tool to apply the practices of IT BSC to the IT function. You want to perform the following functions: ➡ Deliver value ➡ Manage cost ➡Manage risks ➡Achieve intercompany synergies Which process of the IT BSC Measurement tool will you use?  A. Future Orientation  B. Operational excellence  C. Corporate contribution  D. Customer Orientation Answer: C Question #45 Which of the following types of benefits are provided by the new IT-driven initiative for IT investment program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Cost avoidance benefit  B. Direct benefit  C. Indirect benefit  D. Incremental benefit https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: ABD Question #46 Which of the following components of COSO ERM framework encompasses the nature of an enterprise, and sets the basis for how risk is viewed and addressed by an organization people, including risk management philosophy and risk appetite, integrity and ethical values, and the environment in which it operates?  A. Risk response  B. Risk assessment  C. Control activity  D. Internal environment Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following are the categories of IT-related spending or investments defined by the META group? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Grow the business  B. Strategic investment  C. Transform the business  D. Run the business Answer: ACD Question #48 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of cost containment, predictability or reliability, continual unit cost improvement, and benchmarking for justification?  A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth)  B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth)  C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature)  D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) Answer: C Question #49 Which of the following functions are performed by the Future Orientation measure of the IT BSC management tool? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. It focuses on professional learning and development.  B. It attracts and retains people with key competencies.  C. It manages operational service performance.  D. It measures and rewards individual and team performance. Answer: ABD Question #50 Which of the following are the process control objectives for the process controls embedment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Process ownership  B. Process goals and objectives  C. Process repeatability  D. Process availability Answer: ABC Question #51 Which of the following guides provides risk and value statements to help identify and validate the need to execute each control objective?  A. IT assurance guide  B. IT control objectives for Basel II guide  C. COBIT control practices guide  D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: C Question #52 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of anticipation of business needs, service levels over cost, and business enablement and facilitation (removal of obstacles)?  A. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature)  B. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth)  C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature)  D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) Answer: B Question #53 Which of the following components of the COSO ERM identifies the required information, captures it, and communicates it in a form and time frame that enable people to carry out their responsibilities? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Information and communication  B. Internal environment  C. Monitoring  D. Objectives setting Answer: A Question #54 Which of the following statements explains the difference between the IT strategy committee and the IT steering committee?  A. The IT strategy committee assists the executive in the delivery of the IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee advises the board and management on IT strategy.  B. The IT strategy committee focuses on implementation, whereas the IT steering committee focuses on the current and future strategic IT issues.  C. The IT strategy committee aligns and approves the IT architecture, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority conflicts.  D. The IT strategy committee provides direction to management relative to IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following guides provides guidance on how COBIT is useful in supporting a variety of assurance tasks, along with the recommended testing steps that are aligned with the control practices?  A. COBIT control practices guide  B. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide  C. IT assurance guide  D. IT control objectives for Basel II guide Answer: C Question #56 Which of the following examples are included in the general controls embedded in IT processes and services? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Completeness  B. Change management  C. Systems development  D. Accuracy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: BC Question #57 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The ________ creates and delivers momentum in gaining executive support, and provides help to set up messaging that is constantly conveyed to motivate the team, and gives information to the stakeholders. Answer: communication plan Question #58 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to decrease costs or revenues?  A. Increasing production rates  B. Decreasing production and operating costs  C. Improving product quality  D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: ABC Question #59 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to increase costs or revenues? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Erecting barriers to entry by competitors  B. Increasing production rates  C. Improving product quality  D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: AD Question #60 The testing methods help in shaping opinion against assurance objectives by combining one or more of the test types. Which of the following are the test types used in this process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Observe  B. Inspect  C. Plan  D. Inquire Answer: ABD https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #61 Which of the following strategic issues in the IFAC report highlight the underlying success and failure of enterprises? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Ability to provide service feedback to providers  B. Strategy execution  C. Ability to undertake successful mergers and acquisitions  D. Clarity of strategy Answer: BCD Question #62 Which of the following guides emphasizes on the fundamental steps for implementing information security within the enterprise, and provides easy to follow guidance for addressing security aspects of IT governance?  A. COBIT security baseline guide  B. COBIT control practices guide  C. IT assurance guide  D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: A Question #63 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of working well with other functions, IT value realization over time rather than-just cost, and being business process- focused but solution driven?  A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth)  B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth)  C. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature)  D. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) Answer: C Question #64 Which of the following examples are included in the application controls embedded in business process applications? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.  A. Segregation of duties  B. Validity  C. Security  D. Computer operations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: AB Question #65 Which of the following individuals provides the funding, and want to see the return on their investment and strategic alignment with their strategic objectives?  A. Compliance officers  B. Internal auditors  C. Business partners  D. Product suppliers Answer: C Question #66 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT defines information requirements?  A. VG6  B. VG4  C. VG5  D. VG3 Answer: C Question #67 Which of the following is a family of ISO standards for Total Quality Management (TQM)?  A. ISO 20000  B. ISO 9000  C. ISO 38500  D. ISO 27001 Answer: B Question #68 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT creates an overall portfolio view?  A. PM8  B. PM7  C. PM9 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. PM10 Answer: C Question #69 Which of the following individuals provides service feedback to the providers?  A. Compliance officers  B. User representatives  C. Project sponsors  D. Suppliers Answer: B Question #70 Which of the following is a non repetitive set of tasks that lead to the achievement of a new objective?  A. Plan  B. Strategy  C. Techniques  D. Tactics Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following activity loops emphasizes on monitoring and deciding processes?  A. Loop 2  B. Loop 4  C. Loop 3  D. Loop 1 Answer: D Question #72 Which of the following activity loops describes creation of new processes?  A. Loop 3  B. Loop 2  C. Loop 4  D. Loop 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #73 In which of the following editions of COBIT was "Management Guidelines" added?  A. The third edition  B. The first edition  C. The fourth edition  D. The second edition Answer: D Question #74 Which of the following service delivery processes includes controls, document and record, as its sub processes?  A. Service level management  B. Service reporting  C. Information security management  D. Capacity management Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle is governed by a series of stages and gates for managing the lifecycle of projects?  A. IT project phase  B. IT process phase  C. IT asset phase  D. IT discovery phase Answer: A Question #76 Which of the following service delivery processes has the goal to produce, agreed on, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the effective communication?  A. Service level management  B. Service reporting  C. Information security management  D. Capacity management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #77 What is the major goal of risk management in the decision-making process?  A. To manage the clients  B. To manage the time  C. To manage the resources  D. To manage the uncertainty Answer: D Question #78 Which of the following types of risks includes currency risk, liquidity risk, and technology obsolescence?  A. Asset risk  B. Operational risk  C. Hazard risk  D. Strategic risk Answer: A Question #79 Which of the following risk functions ensures the product/service alignment with the customer requirements?  A. Accounting  B. Marketing  C. Strategic planning  D. Credit Answer: B Question #80 Which of the following is the process of identifying and assessing factors that may jeopardize the success of a project or the achievement of a goal?  A. Risk retention  B. Risk identification  C. Risk communication  D. Risk analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #81 Which of the following is the process of defining the way work is performed and the tasks that a given job requires?  A. Selection  B. Recruitment  C. Job design  D. Job analysis Answer: C Question #82 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for attitude surveys, labor relation, employee handbook, and labor law compliance?  A. Personnel policy  B. Employee relation  C. Compensation and benefit  D. Analysis and design for work Answer: B Question #83 Which of the following categories measures the health of the organization and the working environment of its employees?  A. Quantity  B. Safety  C. Effectiveness  D. Efficiency Answer: B Question #84 Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency?  A. Continual Service Improvement  B. Service Support  C. Service Strategy  D. Governance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D More Questions. Question #1 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for an enterprise when prioritizing IT projects?  A. Results of IT performance benchmarks against competitors  B. Impact on the business due to expected project outcomes  C. Technical capability of the enterprise to execute the projects  D. Process owner expectations based on operational benefits Answer: B Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/3294993/prioritizing-projects.html Question #2 Senior management finds that too many projects are currently in-progress and all are experiencing expensive project overruns due to lack of resources. Many of the projects also appear to overlap in their objectives and expected outcomes. Which of the following would BEST streamline the process of evaluating and selecting funding priorities?  A. Portfolio management  B. Value governance  C. Project management  D. Business case development Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2016/ensuring-value-from-it-enabledinvestments Question #3 The CEO of a large enterprise has announced the commencement of a major business expansion that will double the size of the organization. IT will need to support the expected demand expansion. The CIO should FIRST:  A. update the IT strategic plan to align with the decision.  B. recruit IT resources based on the expansion decision.  C. review the resource utilization matrix.  D. embed IT personnel in the business units. Answer: C Question #4 Portfolio management in a large enterprise BEST enables which of the following? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Performance management  B. Risk reduction  C. Value creation  D. Human resource optimization Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following BEST defines the IT investment activities an enterprise will undertake when aligning to business goals?  A. Portfolio management  B. Procurement management  C. Project management  D. Risk management Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing IT governance in a small, newly established organization?  A. Approving enterprise architecture and standards  B. Defining IT project management methodology  C. Assigning a budget for IT governance applications  D. Assigning IT roles and responsibilities Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2017/using-cobit-in-governmentdepartments Question #7 Which of the following is the BEST method to monitor IT governance effectiveness?  A. Service level management  B. Balanced scorecard  C. Risk control self-assessment  D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis Answer: B Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-6/performance-measurement-metrics-for-itgovernance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #8 An internal auditor conducts an assessment of a two-year-old IT risk management program. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the CIO?  A. Organizational responsibility for IT risk management is not clearly defined.  B. IT risk training records are not properly retained in accordance with established schedules.  C. None of the members of the IT risk management team have risk management-related certifications.  D. Only a few key risk indicators identified by the IT risk management team are being monitored and the rest will be on a phased schedule. Answer: D Question #9 An enterprise has discovered that there is significant duplication of IT investments. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in addressing this issue?  A. Establishing an IT steering committee  B. Delegating IT investment decisions to centralized IT  C. Maintaining an inventory of IT investments  D. Increasing the frequency of IT investment audits Answer: A Question #10 A regulatory audit assessed an enterprise's main transactional application as noncompliant. In addition to fines and required corrections, an agreement was reached to implement a set of governance controls over IT. Accountability for these controls is BEST assigned to which of the following?  A. Internal audit director  B. CIO  C. The board of directors  D. Application users Answer: A Question #11 An enterprise is planning a change in business direction. As a result, IT risk will significantly increase. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST course of action?  A. Plan for the corresponding IT reorganization.  B. Recommend delaying the business change.  C. Report the risk to executive management.  D. Implement IT changes to align with the plan. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #12 Which of the following is the GREATEST expected strategic organizational benefit from the standardization of technical platforms?  A. Reduces IT operational training costs  B. Reduces response time  C. Meets regulatory compliance requirements  D. Optimizes infrastructure investments Answer: D Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=odC_AQAAQBAJ&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=enterprise+IT+expected+strat egic+organizational+benefit+from +the+standardization+of+technical +platforms&source=bl&ots=KnpTgkPPsb&sig=ACfU3U3fIFhOpMt81n2_xEoKhLtDFBmv8g&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKE wjegNiP6PfpAhWOh1wKHQB4AX8Q6AE wCXoECAcQAQ#v=onepage&q=enterprise%20IT%20expected%20strategic%20organizational%20benefit%20from% 20the%20standardization%20of% 20technical%20platforms&f=false Question #13 Which of the following would be the BEST way for an enterprise to address new legal and regulatory requirements applicable to IT?  A. Benchmark how other IT organizations are treating the new requirements.  B. Adopt a zero-tolerance approach for noncompliance with regulatory matters.  C. Treat as a risk to be assessed before developing a response.  D. Use a cost-benefit analysis to determine if compliance is warranted. Answer: D Question #14 Which of the following is MOST critical for sustaining a newly implemented IT governance program?  A. Launch an enterprise-wide IT governance awareness program.  B. Designate a board representative to sponsor the IT governance program.  C. Ensure that there are IT policies, procedures, and standards in place.  D. Benchmark the program periodically against industry peers. Answer: C Question #15 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise decides to accept the IT risk of a subsidiary located in another country even though it exceeds the enterprise's risk appetite. Which of the following would be the BEST justification for this decision?  A. Local market common practices  B. Risk framework alignment  C. Technical gaps among subsidiaries  D. Compliance with local regulations Answer: C Question #16 The board of directors of an enterprise has questioned whether the business is focused on optimizing value. The IT strategy committee's BEST action to address the board's concern is to:  A. initiate reporting and review of key IT performance metrics.  B. form a technology council to monitor the efficiency of project implementation.  C. conduct a portfolio review to assess the benefits realization of IT investments.  D. conduct a benchmark to assess IT value relative to competitors. Answer: A Question #17 Ð Ð¡Ð•Ðž determines the enterprise is lagging behind its competitors in consumer mobile offerings, and mandates an aggressive rollout of several new mobile services within the next 12 months. To ensure the IT organization is capable of supporting this business objective, the enterprise's CIO should FIRST:  A. procure contractors with experience in mobile application development.  B. task direct reports with creating training plans for their teams.  C. create a sense of urgency with the IT team that mobile knowledge is mandatory.  D. request an assessment of current in-house mobile technology skills. Answer: D Question #18 Following a merger of two major corporations, the new strategic goal is "One business function. One IT system." Which of the following should be the FIRST step to achieve this goal?  A. Form a combined IT steering committee.  B. Document requirements for each business function.  C. Create a standard enterprise architecture.  D. Define service level agreements with each business function. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #19 Which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure IT technical competencies support the enterprise?  A. Ensure there is adequate budget for IT technical training.  B. Determine training requirements from customer service satisfaction surveys.  C. Align training requirements to the capabilities needed to support the business strategy.  D. Hold annual job fairs targeting new graduates in IT technical fields. Answer: C Reference: https://www.mckinsey.com/~/media/McKinsey/Industries/Financial%20Services/Our%20Insights/Nextgen%20technology%20transformation%20in% 20financial%20services/Next-gen-technology-transformation-in-financial-services.ashx Question #20 A data governance strategy has been defined by the IT strategy committee which includes privacy objectives related to access controls, authorized use, and data collection. Which of the following should the committee do NEXT?  A. Mandate the creation of a data privacy policy.  B. Establish a data privacy budget.  C. Perform a data privacy impact assessment.  D. Mandate data privacy training for employees. Answer: A Question #21 Once an IT governance framework has been defined, which of the following is the MOST effective approach to align IT to business objectives?  A. Auditing the alignment of IT to business objectives regularly  B. Reviewing the return on investment of IT initiatives on a regular basis  C. Establishing a cross business unit committee to prioritize IT investment  D. Reporting IT investment and performance to senior management regularly Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=r2e7NmwoFGoC&pg=PA137&lpg=PA137&dq=Once+an+IT+governance+fra mework+has+been+defined, +which+of+the+following+is+the+MOST+effective+approach+to+align+IT+to+business +objectives&source=bl&ots=tz7jATmLvQ&sig=ACfU3U1dkpiL5L1JJLfyOORIf9gBtlFSDQ&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj Cqv7_- ffpAhXGN8AKHSOpDoAQ6AEwCnoECAkQAQ#v=onepage&q=Once%20an%20IT%20governance%20framework%20h as%20been%20defined%2C%20which% https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! 20of%20the%20following%20is%20the%20MOST%20effective%20approach%20to%20align%20IT%20to%20busines s%20objectives&f=false Question #22 An IT governance committee is defining a risk management policy for a portfolio of IT-enabled investments. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing the policy?  A. Risk appetite of the enterprise  B. Risk management framework  C. Value obtained with minimum risk  D. Possible investment failures Answer: B Question #23 A contracted company employs key IT systems operational personnel to oversee technology used to manage a critical line of business. Management is concerned that a mass resignation by many disgruntled personnel may lead to a shutdown of these key systems. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY responsibility of IT governance to address this risk?  A. Renegotiate employment agreements to lessen the likelihood of a mass resignation.  B. Cross train management to assume support of the technology.  C. Develop a resourcing strategy that quickly replaces staff.  D. Survey key support staff to determine what is causing them to be disgruntled. Answer: D Question #24 A CIO determines IT investment management processes are not fully realizing the benefits identified in business cases. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent this issue?  A. Document lessons learned throughout the investment life cycle.  B. Perform stage-gate reviews throughout the life cycle of each project.  C. Evaluate the delegation of investment approval authorities.  D. Establish a requirement for CIO review and approval of each business case. Answer: A Question #25 How does an enterprise benefit from implementing a set of key risk indicators (KRIs)?  A. The set of KRIs remains relevant over time.  B. Risk exposures are monitored to ensure they remain within risk appetite. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. The need for a formal risk and control assessment program is eliminated.  D. The frequency of risk data gathering and reporting is minimized. Answer: B Reference: https://www.metricstream.com/insights/Key-Risk-indicators-ERM.htm Question #26 A large retail chain realizes that while there has not been any loss of data, IT security has not been a priority and should become a key goal for the enterprise. What should be the FIRST high-level initiative for a newly created IT strategy committee in order to support this business goal?  A. Modernizing internal IT security practices  B. Identifying gaps in information asset protection  C. Recruiting and training qualified IT security staff  D. Defining data archiving and retrieval policies Answer: B Question #27 A multinational enterprise recently purchased a large company located in a different country. When introducing the concept of governance to the new acquisition, it is MOST important that executive management recognize:  A. the use of international standards.  B. language differences.  C. globally recognized good practices.  D. the impact of cultural changes. Answer: C Question #28 The MOST effective way to ensure that IT supports the agile needs of an enterprise is to:  A. implement open source systems.  B. outsource infrastructure management.  C. develop a robust enterprise architecture.  D. perform process modeling. Answer: D Question #29 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! From an IT governance perspective, which of the following would be the MOST significant impact of moving all IT applications to an external Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud provider?  A. The necessity to update key risk indicators (KRIs)  B. The integration of the IT department with business lines  C. The improvement of IT service alignment with business  D. The shift from service delivery to service management Answer: C Question #30 Which of the following is the MOST important driver of IT governance?  A. Management transparency  B. Technical excellence  C. Effective internal controls  D. Quality measurement Answer: A Question #31 When developing an IT strategic plan that supports an enterprise's business goals, which of the following should be done FIRST?  A. Understand the current vision.  B. Perform a business impact analysis.  C. Ensure that IT drives business goals.  D. Analyze benchmarking data. Answer: B Reference: https://www.infoentrepreneurs.org/en/guides/strategic-planning/ Question #32 Prior to decommissioning an IT system, it is MOST important to:  A. assess compliance with environmental regulations.  B. review the media disposal records.  C. assess compliance with the retention policy.  D. review the data sanitization records. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #33 An enterprise is trying to increase the maturity of its IT process from being ad hoc to being repeatable. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this change?  A. Required outcomes are more frequently achieved.  B. Process performance is measured in business terms.  C. Required outcomes are mapped to business objectives.  D. Process optimization is embedded across the organization. Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=1iZ3qWnLU0oC&pg=PA218&lpg=PA218&dq=increase+the+maturity+of+its+ IT+process+from+being+ad+hoc +to+being+repeatable&source=bl&ots=u6T_F9VL-V&sig=ACfU3U0bLAxWfJhgn10- z1Qk0syhD_HCFw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjhn43L2fnpAhVC_qQKHRagBNcQ6AEwD3oECAQQAQ#v=onepage&q =increase%20the%20maturity%20of% 20its%20IT%20process%20from%20being%20ad%20hoc%20to%20being%20repeatable&f=false Question #34 Which of the following entities is structured PRIMARILY to ensure goals and objectives are aligned between IT and the business?  A. Board of directors  B. Portfolio management committee  C. Change advisory board  D. IT strategy committee Answer: A Reference: https://courses.lumenlearning.com/boundless-management/chapter/principles-of-management/ Question #35 A recent audit of IT investments has found that while initial returns meet expectations, benefits realization declines more than expected over time. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this situation?  A. Standardize resource monitoring approaches.  B. Institute project quality and performance metrics.  C. Establish key risk indicators (KRIs).  D. Institute regular business case updates and reviews. Answer: D Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/guidelines-successful-benefits-realization-9909 Question #36 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise's IT department has been operating independently without regard to business concerns, leading to misalignment between business and IT. The BEST way to establish alignment would be to require:  A. business to help define IT goals.  B. IT to define business objectives.  C. business to fund IT services.  D. IT and business to define risks. Answer: A Question #37 Which of the following are the MOST critical enablers for implementing IT governance in an enterprise?  A. Involvement of IT strategy and steering committees  B. Assigning roles and responsibilities for IT governance  C. Commitment and promotion by senior management  D. Prioritizing IT projects and funding for IT governance Answer: C Reference: https://www3.pinkelephant.com/articles/The7EnablersandConstraintsofITSMv1.PDF Question #38 A business unit is planning to replace an existing IT legacy solution with a hosted Software as a Service (SaaS) solution. However, business management is concerned that stored data will be at risk. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to reduce the risk associated with the SaaS solution?  A. Include risk-related requirements in the SaaS contract.  B. Create key risk indicators for the SaaS solution.  C. Redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance.  D. Research the technology and identify potential security threats. Answer: A Question #39 Which of the following would be MOST helpful in gaining executive support for an IT-enabled business initiative?  A. Framing the in terms of impact to business value  B. Presenting a comprehensive risk management plan  C. Providing examples of risks realized by competitors for similar initiatives  D. Presenting key findings of a business impact analysis conducted by IT managers https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #40 An enterprise is planning to implement several strategic initiatives that will require the acquisition of new IT systems. Which of the following would BEST enable the IT steering committee to prioritize proposed initiatives based on business objectives?  A. IT strategic management  B. Project management  C. Enterprise architecture management  D. Project portfolio management Answer: C Question #41 An IT governance committee recently received a report indicating a scarcity of key IT skills in the marketplace to meet the core needs of the business. Reviewing which of the following would BEST help the committee respond to this situation?  A. IT balanced scorecard  B. Outsourcing strategy  C. IT strategic plan  D. Human resource strategy Answer: D Question #42 An enterprise has decided to create its first mobile application. The IT director is concerned about the potential impact of this initiative. Which of the following is the MOST important input for managing the risk associated with this initiative?  A. Business requirements  B. IT risk scorecard  C. Enterprise risk appetite  D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #43 Senior management has made a decision to automate a number of key controls due to concerns that current IT risk controls are overly cumbersome and adversely impacting IT agility. Which of the following should be required FIRST to facilitate this process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Control gap analysis  B. Control self-assessments  C. Controls optimization  D. Cost-benefit analysis Answer: D Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/itac-planning/#gref Question #44 The IT function received only 50% of the requested funding to support the IT strategy for new business initiatives. Which of the following is the CIO's MOST important course of action before considering alternative resource options?  A. Prioritize the portfolio.  B. Terminate less visible maintenance projects.  C. Develop a new balanced scorecard.  D. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. Answer: A Reference: https://hbr.org/1980/07/strategic-management-for-competitive-advantage Question #45 A business case indicates an enterprise would reduce costs by implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program allowing employees to use personal devices for e-mail. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance action?  A. Assess the enterprise architecture.  B. Update the BYOD policy.  C. Update the network infrastructure.  D. Assess the BYOD risk. Answer: A Question #46 An enterprise has decided to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system to achieve operating and cost efficiencies through global IT standardization. The business units are resistant because they are used to operating autonomously. The CEO has instructed the CIO to move quickly with the implementation to force acceptance with business unit leaders. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step?  A. Request funding from the CEO to hire ERP consultants.  B. Ask the CEO to be the sponsor of the program.  C. Engage a reluctant business unit to conduct a proof-of-concept pilot.  D. Build a governance framework for identifying non-standard processes. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following is MOST critical to have in place before management can establish an IT risk assessment and response approach?  A. A portfolio of IT investments  B. Defined roles and responsibilities  C. Historic data on risk events  D. A balanced scorecard Answer: B Question #48 An IT audit report indicates that a lack of IT employee risk awareness is creating serious security issues in application design and configuration. Which of the following would be the BEST key risk indicator (KRI) to show progress in IT employee behavior?  A. Results of application security testing  B. Results of application security awareness training quizzes  C. Number of reported security incidents  D. Number of IT employees attending security training sessions Answer: C Question #49 An enterprise can BEST assess the benefits of a new IT project through its life cycle by:  A. calculation of the total cost of ownership.  B. calculation of the net present value.  C. periodic review of the business case.  D. periodic measurement of the project slip rate. Answer: C Question #50 Which of the following is the MOST important objective of IT program portfolio management?  A. Reduced technology costs  B. Reduced project management costs  C. Improved IT service delivery  D. Appropriate investment mix https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Reference: https://www.northeastern.edu/graduate/blog/project-management-vs-portfolio-management-vs-programmanagement/ Question #51 Which of the following is the BEST way for the CIO to ensure senior business management understands the current IT risk profile?  A. Present an aggregated view of risk.  B. Present the updated risk register.  C. Present a detailed list of risk findings.  D. Present a list of scheduled risk mitigation actions. Answer: A Question #52 Besides the mitigation of IT risk, which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of IT governance?  A. Control of IT processes  B. Meeting of IT financial goals  C. Resolution of IT audit findings  D. Value delivery of IT to the business Answer: D Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/co/Documents/risk/InteligenciaFrentealRiesgo/No.6- RiskIntelligenceCIO.pdf Question #53 Despite an adequate training budget, IT staff are not keeping skills current with emerging technologies critical to the enterprise. The BEST way for the enterprise to address this situation would be to:  A. establish an agreed-upon skills development plan with each employee.  B. allow staff to attend technology conferences.  C. create a standard-setting center of excellence.  D. assign human resources (HR) to develop an IT skills matrix. Answer: D Question #54 The PRIMARY reason a CIO and IT senior management should stay aware of the business environment is to:  A. measure efficiency of IT resources.  B. revisit prioritization of IT projects. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. re-assess the IT investment portfolio.  D. adjust IT strategy as needed. Answer: A Question #55 Which of the following aspects of the transition from X-rays to digital images would be BEST addressed by implementing information security policy and procedures?  A. Establishing data retention procedures  B. Training technicians on acceptable use policy  C. Minimizing the impact of hospital operation disruptions on patient care  D. Protecting personal health information Answer: D Question #56 To enable consistent assessment of candidate program investments for inclusion into the IT portfolio, it is MOST important to identify:  A. an IT balanced scorecard.  B. the impact on enterprise architecture.  C. common selection criteria.  D. currently available resources. Answer: A Reference: http://businessit.biz/bit_share/VAL%20IT/VAL%20IT.pdf Question #57 What information is MOST important to include when reporting key risk indicators to the board of directors?  A. The effect of emerging risk trends on current risk exposure  B. Risk appetite, risk threshold and risk tolerance  C. Classification of current business risk  D. Costs and resource needs related to risk mitigation measures Answer: A Question #58 The board of directors of a major retail chain wants to know what capabilities are in place to prevent customer credit card data from being hacked. Which of the following should be established to provide useful information about a potential future event? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Risk tolerance  B. Lead indicators  C. Lag indicators  D. Performance indicators Answer: B Question #59 Several experienced IT resources have been hired away by a competitor. These individuals created and managed a business critical system that gave the enterprise a market advantage. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern of the system's business owner?  A. The impact on morale of the remaining IT employees  B. The competitor hiring additional IT employees from the enterprise  C. Whether access to the system and data has been adequately revoked  D. Whether remaining staff are able to maintain the quality of the system Answer: D Question #60 An enterprise has a large backlog of IT projects. The current strategy is to execute projects as they are submitted, but executive management does not believe this method is optimal. Which of the following is the MOST important action to address this concern?  A. Establish a performance dashboard that determines business value.  B. Create a combined business/IT committee to determine project prioritization.  C. Implement a methodology to prioritize projects based on resource availability.  D. Implement stage-gating to determine the value of each project. Answer: D Question #61 An enterprise's board of directors can BEST manage enterprise risk by:  A. mandating board-approved enterprise risk management (ERM) modifications.  B. requiring the establishment of an enterprise-wide program management office.  C. ensuring the cost-effectiveness of the internal control system.  D. requiring the establishment of an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework. Answer: D Reference: https://www.coso.org/documents/COSOBoardsERM4pager-FINALRELEASEVERSION82409_001.pdf https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #62 An IT investment review board wants to ensure that IT will be able to support business initiatives. Each initiative is comprised of several interrelated IT projects. Which of the following would help ensure that the initiatives meet their goals?  A. Verification of initiatives against the architecture  B. Review of the business case for each initiative  C. Establishment of portfolio management  D. Review of project management methodology Answer: C Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/proven-project-portfolio-management-process-8503 Question #63 Which of the following is MOST critical to support IT governance cultural changes within an organization?  A. IT governance process manuals  B. Regularly scheduled governance training  C. Demonstrated management commitment  D. Established IT monitoring and measuring Answer: D Question #64 An enterprise has decided to use third-party software for a business process which is hosted and supported by the same third party. The BEST way to provide quality of service oversight would be to establish a process:  A. to qualify service providers.  B. for enterprise architecture updates.  C. for robust change management.  D. for periodic service provider audits. Answer: A Question #65 In a successful enterprise that is profitable in its marketplace and consistently growing in size, the non-IT workforce has grown by 50% in the last two years. The demand for IT staff in the marketplace is more than the supply, and the enterprise is losing staff to rival organizations. Due to the rapid growth, IT has struggled to keep up with the enterprise, and IT procedures and associated job roles are not well-defined. The MOST critical activity for reducing the impact caused by IT staff turnover is to:  A. outsource the IT operation.  B. increase compensation for IT staff. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. hire temporary staff.  D. document processes and procedures. Answer: D Question #66 A business has outsourced IT operations to several third-party providers, but service level agreements (SLAs) are not clearly defined in all cases. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the business?  A. Third parties could provide overlapping services.  B. Quality of services is not enforceable.  C. The scope of work is not clearly defined.  D. Costs are not measurable. Answer: B Question #67 A large enterprise has been experiencing high turnover of skilled IT personnel, resulting in a significant loss of knowledge within the IT department. Which of the following should be done FIRST to address this problem?  A. Conduct a survey of current IT staff.  B. Revise the IT resource management plan.  C. Update human resources policies and practices.  D. Develop an incentive scheme for IT employees. Answer: A Question #68 A newly established IT steering committee is concerned whether or not a system is meeting availability objectives. Which of the following will provide the BEST information to make an assessment?  A. Critical success factors  B. Balanced scorecard  C. Performance indicators  D. Capability maturity levels Answer: D Question #69 Following a major IT incident that resulted in a loss to the enterprise, a CIO is preparing for a meeting with the board of directors to discuss what may have failed internally. Which of the following should the CIO do FIRST to provide assurance to the board? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Review the IT control environment.  B. Ensure IT and enterprise risk management alignment.  C. Review the incident response policy.  D. Verify continuous monitoring is being performed. Answer: B Question #70 A newly appointed CIO has issued a new IT strategic plan. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the CIO to ensure the IT management team is held accountable for the delivery of the plan?  A. Provide management training on IT strategic objectives.  B. Revise the managers' performance goals to include key objectives.  C. Enforce disciplinary action for managers if the plan is not delivered.  D. Update the IT balanced scorecard with key objectives. Answer: B Question #71 Which of the following is the PRIMARY ongoing responsibility of the IT governance function related to risk?  A. Responding to and controlling all IT risk events  B. Verifying that all business units have staff skilled at assessing risk  C. Communicating the enterprise risk management plan  D. Ensuring IT risk management is aligned with business risk appetite Answer: C Question #72 Which of the following is the BEST outcome measure to determine the effectiveness of IT risk management processes?  A. Time lag between when IT risk is identified and the enterprise's response  B. Percentage of business users satisfied with the quality of risk training  C. Frequency of updates to the IT risk register  D. Number of events impacting business processes due to delays in responding to risks Answer: A Question #73 The BEST way for a CIO to monitor the alignment between the business and IT strategy is to regularly review: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. IT services supporting business processes.  B. the balanced scorecard.  C. key risk indicators (KRIs).  D. the risk register. Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following is PRIMARILY achieved through performance measurement?  A. Process improvement  B. Benefit realization  C. Cost efficiency  D. Transparency Answer: A Question #75 While assessing the feasibility of introducing new IT practices and standards into the IT governance framework, it is CRITICAL to understand an organization's:  A. maturity of IT processes.  B. culture.  C. enterprise architecture.  D. level of outsourcing. Answer: C Question #76 A new IT initiative is delivered successfully. Which of the following should be updated to reflect the new technology?  A. Balanced scorecard  B. IT strategy  C. IT tactical plan  D. Enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #77 The MOST beneficial aspect of utilizing an IT risk management framework is that it:  A. addresses a lack of data in risk reporting. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. facilitates the identification of technologies posing the greatest risk to IT.  C. enables a consistent approach to risk management.  D. drives inclusion of the technology function in enterprise risk management. Answer: B Question #78 When defining an enterprise governance framework, the PRIMARY determination of the degree to which the framework is principle-based or policy-based is:  A. enterprise architecture framework.  B. organizational decision-making style.  C. IT process maturity.  D. organizational structure. Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/past-issues/2013/it-policy-framework-based-on-cobit-5 Question #79 A company is considering selling products online, and the CIO has been asked to advise the board of directors of potential problems with this strategy. Which of the following would be the CIO's BEST course of action?  A. Perform a risk assessment.  B. Review the security framework.  C. Conduct a return on investment analysis.  D. Review the enterprise architecture. Answer: B Question #80 After shifting from lease to purchase of IT infrastructure and software licenses, an enterprise has to pay for unexpected lease extensions causing significant cost overruns. The BEST direction for the IT steering committee would be to establish:  A. a program to annually review financial policy on overruns.  B. an end-of-life program to remove aging infrastructure from the environment.  C. budget cuts to compensate for the cost overruns.  D. a policy to consider total cost of ownership in investment decisions. Answer: D Question #81 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is evaluating a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) solution to support a core business process. There is no outsourcing governance or vendor management in place. The CEO's FIRST course of action should be to:  A. establish a contract with the SaaS solution provider.  B. instruct management to use the standard procurement process.  C. ensure the service level agreements for service providers are defined.  D. ensure the roles and responsibilities to manage service providers are defined. Answer: B Question #82 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure timely reporting on risk events and responses to appropriate levels of management?  A. Corporate directory  B. Key personnel interviews  C. Emergency response team  D. Escalation procedures Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=k_hgAwAAQBAJ&pg=PA43&lpg=PA43&dq=cobit+help+to+ensure+timely+re porting+on+risk+events+and +responses+to+appropriate+levels+of +management&source=bl&ots=f2MF7tvMQB&sig=ACfU3U1F_qwMA3wQlZ2tpcb8bvzR3eUTyw&hl=en&sa=X&ved= 2ahUKEwj4kajJq_zpAhUrDWMBHQu2BWoQ 6AEwB3oECAoQAQ#v=onepage&q=cobit%20help%20to%20ensure%20timely%20reporting%20on%20risk%20event s%20and%20responses%20to% 20appropriate%20levels%20of%20management&f=false Question #83 When developing an IT governance framework, it is MOST important for an enterprise to consider:  A. stakeholders' support.  B. information technology risk.  C. framework development cost.  D. information technology strategy. Answer: A Question #84 Which of the following would be MOST useful for prioritizing IT improvement initiatives to achieve desired business outcomes? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Portfolio management  B. Budget variance analysis  C. IT skills matrix  D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #85 Which of the following BEST supports an IT strategy committee's objective to align employee competencies with planned initiatives?  A. Set management goals to hire co-operative work experience students.  B. Specify minimum training hours required for continuing professional education.  C. Add achievement of competencies to employee performance goals.  D. Require balanced scorecard concepts training of all employees. Answer: C Question #86 The IT director of a large project-driven enterprise is concerned that all recently completed IT projects have exceeded their budgets. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this concern?  A. Implement portfolio management.  B. Require monitoring of budget utilization.  C. Assign business sponsors to active projects.  D. Implement agile project methodology. Answer: B Question #87 An enterprise is experiencing a pattern of sensitive data breaches. While each breach has been successfully remediated, leadership is concerned about recurrence. What should the leadership team do FIRST?  A. Require a root cause analysis be performed.  B. Contact the appropriate regulatory authorities.  C. Increase the amount of data breach insurance coverage.  D. Direct IT to research vulnerability management software solutions. Answer: A Question #88 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A government agency plans to use predictive analytics to improve the quality of its services. The IT director is confident they have selected the right tool and can acquire appropriate resources to support the business need. Which of the following should be the director's NEXT course of action?  A. Ensure job descriptions are available for newly-hired IT resources.  B. Ensure IT has the appropriate processes in place.  C. Implement a balanced scorecard to measure service quality.  D. Establish a data governance council that includes IT senior management. Answer: C Question #89 During a period of financial crisis, an enterprise is evaluating its IT service strategy. The board of directors recognizes the need to save money without sacrificing the quality of IT services provided. To achieve this objective, the IT strategy committee should FIRST:  A. re-design IT service management processes.  B. cancel discretionary IT projects.  C. reduce the total cost of ownership of IT services.  D. re-prioritize the IT investment portfolio. Answer: D Question #90 To successfully implement enterprise IT governance, which of the following should be the MAIN focus of IT policies?  A. Optimizing operational benefits  B. Enhancing organizational capability  C. Limiting IT costs  D. Providing business value Answer: A Question #91 A recent benchmarking analysis has indicated an IT organization is retaining more data and spending significantly more on data retention than its competitors. Which of the following would BEST ensure the optimization of retention costs?  A. Requiring that all business cases contain data deletion and retention plans  B. Revalidating the organization's risk tolerance and re-aligning the retention policy  C. Redefining the retention policy to align with industry best practices  D. Moving all high-risk and medium-risk data backups to cloud storage https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #92 An enterprise is undertaking a multi-year portfolio of IT initiatives to replace core accounting systems. The program management team has developed a business case and is defining a roadmap for the initiatives. Of the following, who should be responsible for defining the optimization criteria for the portfolio?  A. Project management office  B. Board of directors  C. Program management team  D. IT steering committee Answer: C Question #93 An enterprise has entered into a new market which brings additional regulatory compliance requirements. To address these new requirements, the enterprise should FIRST:  A. update the organization's risk profile.  B. have executive management monitor compliance.  C. outsource the compliance process.  D. appoint a compliance officer. Answer: B Question #94 An IT steering committee is preparing to review proposals for projects that implement emerging technologies. In anticipation of the review, the committee should FIRST:  A. require a review of the enterprise risk management framework.  B. understand how the emerging technologies will influence risk across the enterprise.  C. determine if the IT staff can support the emerging technologies.  D. require a capacity plan and framework review for the emerging technologies. Answer: A Question #95 The CIO of a large enterprise has taken the necessary steps to align IT objectives with business objectives. The BEST way for the CIO to ensure these objectives are delivered effectively by IT staff is to:  A. enhance the budget for training based on the IT objectives.  B. include the IT objectives in staff performance plans. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. include CIO sign-off of the objectives as part of the IT strategic plan.  D. map the IT objectives to an industry-accepted framework. Answer: D Question #96 An analysis of an organization's security breach is complete. The results indicate that the quality of the code used for updates to its primary customer-facing software has been declining and security flaws were introduced. The FIRST IT governance action to correct this problem should be to review:  A. the incident response plan.  B. the change management control framework.  C. compliance with the user testing process.  D. the qualifications of developers to write secure code. Answer: A Question #97 Senior leadership is concerned about a recent trend of excessive exceptions to existing controls. Which of the following should be implemented to address this concern?  A. Continuous monitoring  B. Independent audits  C. A control library  D. Risk awareness training Answer: A Question #98 It has been discovered that multiple business units across an enterprise are using duplicate IT applications and services to fulfill their individual needs. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to address this concern?  A. IT project roadmap  B. IT service management  C. Enterprise architecture  D. Enterprise risk framework Answer: C Question #99 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! When developing a business case for an enterprise resource planning (ERP) implementation, which of the following, if overlooked, causes the GREATEST impact to the enterprise?  A. Salvage value of legacy hardware  B. IT best practices  C. Interdependent systems  D. Vendor selection Answer: D Question #100 A regional business unit of a major financial institution is considering the use of a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud vendor to implement a new system. Which of the following should be performed FIRST?  A. Update the outsourcing policy.  B. Investigate on-premise software solutions.  C. Develop a business case.  D. Determine if the cloud vendor has a secure data center. Answer: D Question #101 During the implementation phase of a central ERP system, a project manager identifies a significant lack of human capabilities to support the system. The issue is reported to the project sponsor, and the sponsor sends a request for an increase in the budget to the IT steering committee. What should be the IT steering committee's FIRST action?  A. Require a revised business case.  B. Approve the budget request.  C. Provide appropriate training.  D. Refer back to the project sponsor for resolution. Answer: B Question #102 For a large enterprise, which of the following is the BEST indicator that IT governance has a poor reputation?  A. Regulatory noncompliance  B. Low attendance at strategy committee meetings  C. High turnover of IT staff  D. Data leakage Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #103 An enterprise has committed to the implementation of a new IT governance model. The BEST way to begin this implementation is to:  A. prioritize how much and where to invest in IT.  B. identify the role of IT in supporting the business.  C. define policies for data, applications, and organization of infrastructure.  D. identify IT services that currently support the enterprise's capability. Answer: C Question #104 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the CEO in IT governance?  A. Evaluating return on investment  B. Managing the risk governance process  C. Establishing enterprise strategic goals  D. Nominating IT steering committee membership Answer: C Reference: https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/careers/jobs/what-is-a-ceo-chief-executive-officer/ Question #105 Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the CIO when an enterprise plans to replace its enterprise resource applications?  A. Ensuring IT architecture requirements are considered  B. Selecting and vetting application vendors  C. Determining critical success factors for related projects  D. Establishing software quality criteria Answer: A Question #106 Upcoming IT-related regulations carry costly penalties for an enterprise. The issuing regulatory agency has a history of weak enforcement. The IT steering committee should FIRST direct management to:  A. update the enterprise architecture.  B. perform benchmarking activities.  C. evaluate the impact of the emerging risk.  D. develop mitigation plans for noncompliance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #107 When establishing a methodology for business cases, it would be MOST beneficial for an enterprise to include procedures for:  A. addressing required changes outside the business case.  B. updating the business case throughout its life cycle.  C. identifying metrics post-implementation to measure project success.  D. entering the business case into the enterprise architecture. Answer: D Question #108 The PRIMARY focus of a committee tasked with evaluating an IT project portfolio should be to ensure:  A. a consistent estimation methodology is leveraged.  B. the enterprise strategy is updated.  C. consistent selection criteria are applied.  D. an industry standard capability maturity model is used. Answer: D Question #109 Which of the following issues identified during an IT review is MOST important to address to improve the alignment between the business and IT?  A. Services in the IT portfolio are not traceable to the IT strategy.  B. IT strategy reviews are conducted only after business strategy changes.  C. Business satisfaction surveys are not conducted regularly.  D. IT dashboards have not been established. Answer: A Question #110 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for IT management to report to executive management regarding the value of IT?  A. IT process maturity level  B. Resource assessment  C. Balanced scorecard  D. Cost-benefit analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #111 When determining the desired maturity levels for IT governance processes, it is MOST important to:  A. ensure that maturity can be achieved at the lowest cost.  B. ensure target levels are in line with external competitor benchmarks.  C. agree on target levels in response to need.  D. focus on existing strengths as key drivers for the target levels. Answer: D Question #112 Which of the following is the MOST important reason for selecting IT key risk indicators (KRIs)?  A. Enabling comparison against similar IT KRIs  B. Increasing the probability of achieving IT goals  C. Assessing the current IT controls model  D. Demonstrating the effectiveness of IT risk policies Answer: B Question #113 Which of the following would BEST help a CIO enhance the competencies of an IT business analytics team?  A. Understanding current staff skill sets and identifying gaps  B. Defining the IT architecture and identifying training areas  C. Creating operational processes and identifying resources  D. Establishing team goals and identifying the proper structure Answer: C Question #114 The BEST way to ensure an IT steering committee meets enterprise objectives is to:  A. have key business stakeholders represented on the committee.  B. establish key performance indicators (KPIs).  C. require a member of the committee to have IT governance expertise.  D. benchmark against industry best practices. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #115 Which of the following is the MOST important input for the development of a human resources strategy to address IT skill gaps?  A. Technology direction of the enterprise  B. Training budget allocated for IT staff  C. A recent IT skills matrix  D. Training effectiveness reports Answer: C Question #116 A hospital's executive steering committee is concerned about the increasing number of cyber attacks on patient data systems across the industry. The committee has asked the CIO to provide regular reporting with information that will help provide better oversight of cyber-related risk to the hospital. Including which of the following in the report would be MOST helpful to the committee?  A. Status of key risk indicators  B. Current business impact levels  C. IT operations gap assessment  D. Cybersecurity risk benchmarks Answer: B Question #117 Which of the following is the BEST way to provide effective IT risk management?  A. Implementing a cost-effective mitigation program  B. Appointing a chief risk officer  C. Embedding risk management in operations  D. Establishing an incident management program Answer: A Question #118 Maintaining a list of all potential IT initiatives for implementing the business strategy should be the responsibility of the:  A. portfolio management function.  B. individual business units.  C. chief executive officer (CEO). https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. chief operating officer (COO). Answer: D Question #119 A large enterprise has decided to use an emerging technology that needs to be integrated with the current IT infrastructure. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent adverse effects to the enterprise resulting from the new technology?  A. Develop key risk indicators (KRIs).  B. Develop key performance indicators (KPIs).  C. Implement service level agreements (SLAs).  D. Update the risk appetite statement. Answer: B Question #120 An enterprise recognizes that a large percentage of its IT employees are eligible for retirement in the next five years. A significant amount of institutional knowledge resides with retirement-eligible staff. From the board's perspective, which of the following is the GREATEST concern for the enterprise in this situation?  A. Service delivery to the business  B. Loss of key IT personnel  C. Lack of timeline for succession plan  D. Lack of process documentation Answer: D Question #121 Which of the following groups would be MOST appropriate to decide whether to proceed with an IT-enabled investment at the individual program level?  A. Business sponsors  B. Program management office  C. IT steering committee  D. Board of directors Answer: C Question #122 Which of the following will BEST enable an enterprise to convey IT governance direction and objectives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Corporate culture  B. Business processes  C. Principles and policies  D. Skills and competencies Answer: C Question #123 A large enterprise's IT department has identified a new risk management solution that would significantly enhance IT risk monitoring processes. However, there is a business perception that the new solution would not provide a visible benefit to the enterprise. Which of the following is the BEST way to gain business support?  A. Articulate the business value of the new solution.  B. Promote the IT benefits and the streamlining of processes.  C. Provide real time risk reporting to the business.  D. Obtain sign-off on a reduced headcount over the next five years. Answer: B Question #124 When assessing the impact of a new regulatory requirement, which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?  A. Update affected IT policies.  B. Implement new regulatory requirements.  C. Assess the budget impact of the new regulation.  D. Map the regulation to business processes. Answer: D Question #125 Before establishing IT key risk indicators, which of the following should be defined FIRST?  A. IT risk and security framework  B. IT key performance indicators  C. IT goals and objectives  D. IT resource strategy Answer: C Reference: https://bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1515 Question #126 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Which of the following should be the FIRST step for executive management to take in communicating what is considered acceptable use with regard to personally owned devices for company business?  A. Post awareness messages throughout the facility.  B. Develop and disseminate an applicable policy.  C. Provide training on how to protect data on personal devices.  D. Require employees to read and sign a disclaimer. Answer: C Question #127 An enterprise's strategic change requires an IT strategic initiative re-evaluation. Which of the following BEST indicates that an established IT governance framework could handle the re-evaluation?  A. Creation of an IT steering committee to align the IT strategic initiatives to the recent change  B. Inclusion of IT portfolio management procedures with strategic change review activities  C. Development of a business case to evaluate the impact of the strategic change  D. Holding IT investments until an analysis of the strategic change impact was complete Answer: C Question #128 Which of the following BEST indicates that a change management process has been implemented successfully?  A. Degree of control  B. Outcome measures  C. Process performance  D. Maturity levels Answer: B Question #129 To meet the growing demands of a newly established business unit, IT senior management has been tasked with changing the current IT organization model to service-oriented. With significant growth expected of the IT organization, which of the following is the MOST important consideration when planning for long-term IT service delivery?  A. The IT organization is able to sustain business requirements.  B. IT is able to provide a comprehensive service catalog to the business.  C. The IT service delivery model is approved by the business.  D. An IT risk management process is in place. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #130 Which of the following BEST enables the alignment of IT and enterprise strategy?  A. Project portfolio management  B. IT resource planning  C. IT performance monitoring and reporting  D. Enterprise compliance audits Answer: B Question #131 Which of the following would provide the BEST input for prioritizing strategic IT improvement initiatives?  A. Business case evaluation  B. Business process analysis  C. Business impact analysis  D. Business dependency assessment Answer: C Question #132 An enterprise has decided to utilize a cloud vendor for the first time to provide email as a service, eliminating inhouse email capabilities. Which of the following IT strategic actions should be triggered by this decision?  A. Update and communicate data storage and transmission policies.  B. Develop a data protection awareness education training program.  C. Monitor outgoing email traffic for malware.  D. Implement a data classification and storage management tool. Answer: A Question #133 Which of the following is the BEST IT architecture concept to ensure consistency, interoperability, and agility for infrastructure capabilities?  A. Establishment of an IT steering committee  B. Standards-based reference architecture and design specifications  C. Design of policies and procedures  D. Establishment of standard vendor and technology designations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #134 An enterprise is implementing its FIRST mobile sales channel. Final approval for accepting the associated IT risk should be obtained from which of the following?  A. IT steering committee  B. Chief information officer  C. Business sponsor  D. Risk manager Answer: B Question #135 Who should be accountable for quantifying the business impact of a potential breach of a server containing retail transactions for the last year?  A. Information systems security officer  B. Head of retail  C. Chief risk officer  D. Chief information officer Answer: A Question #136 The use of an enterprise architecture framework BEST supports IT governance by providing:  A. key information for IT service level management.  B. IT standards for application development.  C. business information for IT capacity planning.  D. reference models to align IT with business. Answer: A Question #137 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate mechanism for measuring overall IT organizational performance?  A. IT balanced scorecard  B. Service level metrics  C. Maturity model  D. IT portfolio return on investment https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Reference: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/215879518_Measuring_the_Performance_of_IT_Service_Management Question #138 The PRIMARY reason for periodically evaluating IT resource staffing requirements is to:  A. ensure the enterprise has sufficient resources to address changing business and IT needs.  B. ascertain the IT function has sufficient skilled staff to maintain daily operations.  C. verify that human resource recruitment and retention processes meet enterprise IT objectives.  D. confirm IT-related responsibilities are defined for the enterprise's business and IT staff. Answer: A Question #139 Ð Ð¡Ð•Ðž wants to establish a governance framework to facilitate the alignment of IT and business strategies. Which of the following should be a KEY requirement of this framework?  A. A service delivery strategy  B. Defined resourcing levels  C. A defined enterprise architecture  D. An outsourcing strategy Answer: C Question #140 Reviewing which of the following should be the FIRST step when evaluating the possibility of outsourcing an IT system?  A. Outsourcing strategy  B. IT staff skill sets  C. Outsourced business processes  D. Service level agreements (SLAs) Answer: D Question #141 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of implementing service level agreements (SLAs) with an outsourcing vendor?  A. Establishing penalties for not meeting service levels  B. Complying with regulatory requirements  C. Achieving operational objectives https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Gaining a competitive advantage Answer: C Question #142 Of the following, the BEST response to the absence of a data security breach notification by a service provider is to contractually require that:  A. security incidents identified by the provider be reported.  B. security related key performance indicators be included in all service level agreements.  C. security incident information be shared only on a need-to-know basis.  D. a registry of all security breaches be maintained by the service provider. Answer: A Question #143 Which of the following should be the MOST essential consideration when outsourcing IT services?  A. Alignment with existing HR policies and practices  B. Adoption of a diverse vendor selection process  C. Identification of core and non-core business processes  D. Compliance with enterprise architecture Answer: C Question #144 A multinational enterprise is planning to migrate to cloud-based systems. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the risk management committee?  A. Resource alignment  B. Security breaches  C. Regulatory compliance  D. Cost considerations Answer: C Question #145 In a large enterprise, which of the following should be responsible for the implementation of an IT balanced scorecard?  A. IT steering committee https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. Chief risk officer  C. Project management office  D. Chief information officer Answer: C Question #146 The approval of an enterprise risk management framework is the role of the:  A. chief information officer.  B. chief risk officer.  C. IT steering committee  D. board of directors. Answer: C Reference: https://www.clearrisk.com/risk-management-blog/bid/56487/Establishing-an-Enterprise-Risk-Management-ERMFramework-Enterprise Question #147 The BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an enterprise's IT governance framework is by assessing the:  A. value of IT contribution.  B. maturity of IT processes.  C. application of IT standards.  D. compliance to IT policy. Answer: B Question #148 A steering committee has been advised by the IT project management office that individual business units are building systems components that could be leveraged by other business units. Instead, identical components are being duplicated across the enterprise. Which of the following committee directives would be the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of this duplication?  A. Implement stage gate reviews to assess systems.  B. Establish an enterprise architecture.  C. Perform an assessment of change management processes.  D. Review IT system release management practices. Answer: C Question #149 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! To support the enterprise's digital transformation, the CIO has been asked to include an Internet of Things (IoT) component in the IT strategy. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration?  A. Ensuring IoT usage in the industry has been analyzed  B. Ensuring IoT can be used in current revenue streams  C. Ensuring solution providers and their IoT use cases have been researched  D. Ensuring initial approvals are limited to small IoT projects to gain experience Answer: A Question #150 A retail enterprise wants to leverage emerging technologies to create a new sales channel for its customers. However, IT has little experience with these technologies and is unsure if the proposed schedule can be met. Which of the following will BEST help to determine IT's ability to meet this need?  A. Conducting a resource gap assessment  B. Defining business benefits realization metrics  C. Reviewing the resource management policy  D. Developing a target state enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #151 Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when designing an implementation plan for IT governance?  A. Roles and responsibilities  B. Risk tolerance levels  C. Organization culture  D. Principle and policies Answer: A Question #152 Once the strategic vision has been established, which of the following would be the BEST activity for supporting the implementation of performance measures?  A. Document policy requirements.  B. Document strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.  C. Identify key performance indicators (KPIs).  D. Monitor service level performance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #153 Which of the following is MOST critical for the successful implementation of an IT process?  A. Objectives and metrics  B. IT process assessment  C. Process framework  D. Service delivery process model Answer: C Question #154 An enterprise has made a decision to move some business applications to the public cloud despite being very new to the cloud environment. What is MOST important for the CIO to do to help ensure the success of this initiative?  A. Review the vendor management framework.  B. Request a right-to-audit clause in the provider contract.  C. Require a vulnerability and threat assessment.  D. Ensure the cloud provider complies with international standards. Answer: D Question #155 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an enterprise architecture?  A. Improves transparency and compliance  B. Provides a visual perspective of information systems  C. Improves interoperability and scalability  D. Ensures continuous innovation Answer: A Question #156 When conducting a risk assessment in support of a new regulatory requirement, the IT risk committee should FIRST consider the:  A. cost burden to achieve compliance.  B. disruption to normal business operations.  C. readiness of IT systems to address the risk.  D. risk profile of the enterprise. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #157 An enterprise is planning to migrate its IT infrastructure to a cloud-based solution but does not have experience with this technology. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the risk of IT service disruptions when using this new technology?  A. Evaluate the sourcing options.  B. Reflect the change in the enterprise architecture (EA).  C. Implement key performance indicators (KPIs).  D. Engage an experienced IT consultant to perform the migration. Answer: C Question #158 Which of the following BEST reflects mature risk management in an enterprise?  A. A regularly updated risk register  B. Responsive risk awareness culture  C. Ongoing risk assessment  D. Ongoing investment in risk mitigation Answer: C Question #159 An IT strategy committee wants to evaluate how well the IT department supports the business strategy. Which of the following is the BEST method for making this determination?  A. Capability maturity assessment  B. IT balanced scorecard reporting  C. IT controls assurance program  D. Customer survey analysis Answer: A Question #160 From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to enhance in an enterprise undergoing rapid development of a cloud technology?  A. Change management processes to capture organizational and project changes.  B. Data restructuring plan to ensure the architecture supports future changes.  C. IT project dashboard reporting to capture new risk, threats, and scenarios. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Configuration management processes to ensure availability goals are maintained. Answer: D Question #161 A regulatory audit of an IT department has identified discrepancies between processes described in the procedures and what is actually done by system administrators. The discrepancies were caused by recent IT application changes. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent the recurrence of similar findings in the future?  A. Include the update of documentation within the change management framework.  B. Assign the responsibility for periodic revisions and changes to process owners.  C. Require each IT employee to confirm compliance with IT procedures on an annual basis.  D. Establish high-level procedures to minimize process changes. Answer: B Question #162 Which of the following is the MOST important input for designing a development program to help IT employees improve their ability to respond to business needs?  A. Skills competency assessment  B. Cost-benefit analysis  C. Annual performance evaluations  D. Capability maturity model Answer: A Question #163 The accountability for a business continuity program for business-critical systems is BEST assigned to the:  A. director of internal audit,  B. enterprise risk manager.  C. chief information officer.  D. chief executive officer. Answer: C Question #164 Which of the following should occur FIRST in the IT investment process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Analyze the risks and benefits of the investment for each IT project.  B. Assess each project's impact on the enterprise's investment plan.  C. Select IT projects that will best support the enterprise's mission.  D. Analyze IT investments based on past data. Answer: B Question #165 To ensure IT risk is managed in a consistent manner, it is MOST important for IT governance to establish a:  A. risk management reporting tool to ensure compliance.  B. balanced scorecard that includes IT risks.  C. risk management committee to identify IT-related risks.  D. risk management framework. Answer: C Question #166 An independent consultant has been hired to conduct an ad hoc audit of an enterprise's information security office with results reported to the IT governance committee and the board. Which of the following is MOST important to provide to the consultant before the audit begins?  A. The scope and stakeholders of the audit  B. The organizational structure of the security office  C. The polices and framework used by the security office  D. Acceptance of the audit risks and opportunities Answer: A Question #167 The PRIMARY reason for using quantitative criteria in developing business cases for IT projects is to:  A. benchmark project success with similar enterprises.  B. learn lessons from errors made in past projects.  C. improve the process of evaluating returns after implementation.  D. apply other corporate standards to the development project. Answer: C Question #168 A CIO is planning to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system at the request of the business. Of the following, who is accountable for providing sponsorship for the IT-enabled change across the enterprise? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. CIO  B. CEO  C. IT strategy committee  D. Human resource director Answer: C Question #169 Which of the following would a CIO use to present the overall view of IT performance to the board of directors?  A. Maturity model  B. Balanced scorecard  C. Key performance indicators (KPIs)  D. Key risk indicators (KRIS) Answer: A Question #170 An enterprise wants to implement an IT governance framework to ensure enterprise expectations of IT are met. Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial outcome of implementing the framework?  A. Optimization of IT performance  B. Development of IT policies  C. Creation of an IT balanced scorecard  D. Establishment of key IT risk indicators Answer: D Question #171 The PRIMARY reason for implementing an IT governance program in an enterprise is to:  A. comply with regulatory requirements.  B. balance the demand for information and the ability to deliver.  C. decrease the scale of investment in information systems due to budgetary controls.  D. reduce risks due to improved compensating controls. Answer: B Question #172 To help ensure that an IT dashboard effectively conveys the current state of IT to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to establish? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Key performance indicators (KPIs)  B. Emerging threat analysis reporting  C. An IT risk awareness program  D. IT spend against budget Answer: A Question #173 An enterprise has a zero-tolerance policy regarding security. This policy is causing a large number of email attachments to be blocked and is a disruption to the enterprise. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance step to address this email issue?  A. Obtain senior management input based on identified risk.  B. Direct the development of an email usage policy.  C. Recommend business sign-off on the zero-tolerance policy.  D. Introduce an exception process. Answer: B Question #174 Which of the following is a CIO's BEST approach to ensure IT executes against an approved strategy?  A. Request IT senior leaders to collectively plan tactics for execution.  B. Ask project management to define the IT activities for accomplishing the strategy.  C. Provide specific direction for execution of the tasks across IT.  D. Have IT leaders independently develop goals for their teams. Answer: B Question #175 Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a formal, documented IT policy?  A. Alignment with IT service management  B. Communication of IT management intent  C. Mapping of business objectives  D. Resource optimization for enterprise initiatives Answer: C Question #176 Senior management is concerned about an increase in cybersecurity risk to the enterprise. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in establishing an early warning system to determine which potential threats should be escalated to senior management? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Agreed-upon risk thresholds  B. A risk appetite statement  C. Key performance indicators (KPIs)  D. Patch management logs Answer: A Question #177 An enterprise learns that a new privacy regulation was recently published to protect customers in the event of a breach involving personally identifiable information (PII). The IT risk management team's FIRST course of action should be to:  A. evaluate the risk appetite for the new regulation.  B. determine if the new regulation introduces new risk.  C. assign a risk owner for the new regulation.  D. define the risk tolerance for the new regulation. Answer: C Question #178 When designing an IT governance framework, the PRIMARY consideration should be to:  A. comply with external monitoring standards.  B. ensure stakeholders receive value from IT.  C. require cost-benefit analysis before implementing controls.  D. benchmark controls against industry best practices. Answer: C Question #179 The PRIMARY objective of IT resource planning within an enterprise should be to:  A. maximize value received from IT.  B. determine risk associated with IT resources.  C. determine IT outsourcing options.  D. finalize service level agreements for IT. Answer: A Question #180 A global enterprise is experiencing an economic downturn and is rapidly losing market share. IT senior management is reassessing the core activities of the business, including IT, and the associated resource implications. Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! has decided to focus on its local market and to close international operations. A critical issue from a resource management perspective is to retain the most capable staff. This is BEST achieved by:  A. reviewing current goals-based performance appraisals across the enterprise.  B. retaining capable staff exclusively from the local market.  C. ranking employees across the enterprise based on length of service.  D. ranking employees across the enterprise based on their compensation. Answer: C Question #181 An enterprise developed a new e-business web application designed to broaden its sales base. Internal project management guidelines were followed, but indicators for key goals were not established. Which of the following should be the MAIN concern of the IT steering committee?  A. It may be difficult to align IT objectives with performance.  B. Benefits realization may not be properly assessed.  C. Resources may not be optimally utilized.  D. Return on investment may be difficult to evaluate. Answer: B Question #182 An IT security team identified a significant weakness in the enterprise's Internet-facing infrastructure. The exposure requires immediate corrective action that is both cost and resource intensive. Which of the following is the MAIN reason why accountability for this risk should be assigned to the board of directors?  A. The exploit can cause serious disruptions to the enterprise's reputation and profitability.  B. The board should be aware of risks concerning organizational operations.  C. Risk ownership at the highest level will ensure risk awareness throughout the enterprise.  D. The IT organization cannot take ownership for self-identified risks concerning infrastructure security. Answer: C Question #183 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to assess the consistency of IT processes against industry benchmarks to determine where to focus improvement initiatives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  A. Utilizing a capability maturity model  B. Reviewing key performance measures  C. Reviewing IT process audit results  D. Evaluating the current balanced scorecard Answer: C Question #184 An organization requires updates to their IT infrastructure to meet business needs. Which of the following will provide the MOST useful information when planning for the necessary IT investments?  A. Audit findings  B. Business user satisfaction metrics  C. Enterprise architecture  D. Risk assessment report Answer: A Question #185 As part of the implementation of IT governance, the board of an enterprise should establish an IT strategy committee to:  A. ensure IT risks inherent in the enterprise strategy implementation are managed.  B. drive IT strategy development and take responsibility for implementing the IT strategy.  C. assume governance accountability for the business strategy on behalf of the board.  D. provide input to and ensure alignment of the enterprise and IT strategies. Answer: C Question #186 A root-cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly-hired IT system administrators. Who should be accountable for resolving the situation?  A. HR training director  B. Chief information officer  C. HR recruitment manager  D. Business process owner Answer: C Question #187 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT team is having difficulty meeting new demands placed on the department as a result of a major and radical shift in enterprise business strategy. Which of the following the CIO's BEST course of action to address this situation?  A. Review the current IT strategy.  B. Utilize third parties for non-value-added processes.  C. Align the business strategy with the IT strategy.  D. Review the IT risk appetite. Answer: C Question #188 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure an IT steering committee is informed of newly emerging risks in critical IT projects?  A. Requiring regular updates of the risk register for each project  B. Requiring a summarized report of relevant risks  C. Reviewing the response for each risk in the log  D. Conducting periodic reviews of project performance Answer: A Question #189 Which of the following MOST effectively demonstrates operational readiness to address information security risk issues?  A. Executive management has announced an information security risk initiative.  B. Procedures have been established for assessing and mitigating information security risks.  C. IT management has communicated the need for information security risk management to the business.  D. A policy has been communicated stating enterprise commitment and readiness to address information security risk. Answer: B Question #190 Which of the following should be the CIO's GREATEST consideration when making changes to the IT strategy?  A. Have key stakeholders been consulted?  B. Have IT risk metrics been adjusted?  C. Has the investment portfolio been revised?  D. Has the impact to the enterprise architecture been assessed? Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #191 Senior management wants to promote investment in IT, but is uncertain that associated risks are being properly identified. The BEST way to address this concern is to:  A. ensure business cases are developed by IT.  B. engage an external consultant to develop risk scenarios.  C. assign an IT cost controller to the finance department.  D. appoint an IT representative to the business risk committee. Answer: D Question #192 An enterprise is contracting with an outsourcing partner for a long-term engagement. The BEST time for the enterprise to plan for the event of contract termination:  A. developing the initial contract.  B. either party decides to terminate the contract.  C. issues surface in the contractual relationship.  D. planning for the contract as part of business continuity. Answer: C Question #193 The MOST important aspect of an IT governance framework to ensure that IT supports repeatable business processes is:  A. resource management.  B. quality management.  C. risk management.  D. earned value management. Answer: B Question #194 Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to ensure IT capabilities are appropriately aligned with business requirements for specific business processes?  A. Issuing a management mandate that IT and business process stakeholders work together  B. Requiring architecture and design reviews with business process stakeholders  C. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs)  D. Requiring internal IT architecture and design reviews https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #195 For the first time, the procurement department has requested that IT grant remote access to third-party suppliers. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for IT in responding to the request?  A. Analyze risks and propose a solution.  B. Implement a remote access architecture.  C. Develop a remote access policy.  D. Issue log-on credentials to third-party suppliers. Answer: A Question #196 Which of the following would BEST help to improve an enterprise's ability to manage large IT investment projects?  A. Reviewing and evaluating existing business cases  B. Creating a change management board  C. Publishing the IT approval process online for wider scrutiny  D. Implementing a review and approval process for each phase Answer: C Question #197 Which of the following is the BEST approach to assist an enterprise in planning for IT-enabled investments?  A. Enterprise architecture  B. Service level management  C. Task management  D. IT process mapping Answer: D Question #198 To measure the value of IT-enabled investments, an enterprise needs to identify its drivers as defined by its:  A. value statements.  B. service level agreements (SLAs).  C. business strategy.  D. technology strategy. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #199 Which of the following is the BEST way to address concerns associated with outsourcing an IT process?  A. Implement a business continuity plan.  B. Perform a risk assessment.  C. Review the IT governance framework.  D. Manage service levels. Answer: D Question #200 A CIO has recently been made aware of a new regulatory requirement which may affect IT-enabled business activities. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step in deciding the appropriate response to the new requirement?  A. Consult with legal and risk experts to understand the requirements.  B. Confirm there are adequate resources to mitigate compliance requirements.  C. Consult with the board for guidance on the new requirement.  D. Revise initiatives that are active to reflect the new requirements. Answer: B Question #201 The risk committee is overwhelmed by the number of false positives included in risk reports. What action would BEST address this situation?  A. Evaluate key risk indicators.  B. Adjust IT balanced scorecard.  C. Conduct a risk assessment.  D. Change the reporting format. Answer: C Question #202 An enterprise has recently experienced an excessive number of exceptions due to outdated control frameworks. What should the leadership team do FIRST?  A. Mandate a reassessment of the current control frameworks.  B. Review the IT control standards.  C. Mandate strict adherence to control frameworks. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  D. Update the exception review and approval process. Answer: B Question #203 In an effort to reduce operation costs, an enterprise is switching from all internally-hosted applications to a mixture of internally- and externally-hosted applications. Of the following, the risk appetite for this decision would BEST be defined by the:  A. vendor oversight committee.  B. board of directors.  C. chief information security officer.  D. chief information officer. Answer: C Question #204 IT senior management has just received a survey report indicating that more than one third of the organization's key IT staff plan to retire within the next 12 months. Which of the following is the MOST important governance action to prepare for this possibility?  A. Request the development of a succession plan.  B. Engage HR for recruitment of new staff.  C. Evaluate lower-level staff as succession candidates.  D. Review motivation drivers for key IT staff. Answer: C Question #205 A CEO of a large enterprise is concerned that risk events are not regularly addressed at the C-suite level unless related to emergency incidents. Which of the following is the BEST way for the CEO to ensure risk events are given sufficient time and attention?  A. Instruct managers to take ownership for their department's identified risks.  B. Issue performance objectives that target the elimination of enterprise risks.  C. Include the of key enterprise risk as an agenda item at board meetings.  D. Require the development of a risk procedure on how to capture risks. Answer: C Question #206 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is assessing whether to utilize wearable technology. The enterprise has no prior experience with this technology and has asked the chief technology officer (CTO) to assess the impact to the enterprise. The CTO should FIRST:  A. prioritize wearable technology risk.  B. understand the enterprise's risk tolerance.  C. map the business goals to IT risk processes.  D. create an IT risk scorecard. Answer: B Question #207 An enterprise has an overarching enterprise architecture document. The CIO is concerned that EA is not leveraged in recent IT-enabled investments. Which of the following would BEST help to address these concerns and enforce the leveraging of enterprise architecture?  A. Require enterprise architecture review at key milestones.  B. Publish and train on the enterprise architecture document.  C. Form a team to update enterprise architecture regularly.  D. Adopt a globally-recognized enterprise architecture framework. Answer: B Question #208 After performing a gap analysis of IT risks and controls capability, the MOST important consideration for the associated risk responses is that they are:  A. added to the IT balanced scorecard.  B. approved by executive management.  C. assessed for severity of impact.  D. submitted to the audit committee. Answer: C Question #209 A new CEO is made aware of a lack of cooperation between IT and business units and needs to take action to enable more efficient IT delivery of solutions to support the business. What should be the FIRST step to address this concern?  A. Introduce IT related key performance indicators (KPIs).  B. Establish business user group training for increased collaboration.  C. Clarify roles and assign accountabilities for results.  D. Implement a continuous auditing policy for IT initiatives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #210 An IT steering committee is presented with an audit finding that new software applications are delivered on time but consistently have unacceptable levels of defects. Which of the following would be the BEST direction from the committee?  A. Establish code peer reviews.  B. Evaluate the change management process.  C. Implement performance indicators.  D. Evaluate the quality assurance process. Answer: D Question #211 Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT governance in an enterprise?  A. Project delivery  B. Value delivery  C. Residual risk  D. Resource utilization Answer: B Question #212 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to enhance security risk management alignment between IT and business?  A. Facilitate joint workshops for IT and the business on risk assessment techniques.  B. Analyze benchmark reports to understand the organization's security investments against competitors.  C. Establish a process in which IT and the business collaborate on risk assessment and mitigation prioritization.  D. Perform a trend analysis based on security investment levels and business initiatives. Answer: C Question #213 An IT steering committee is concerned that enterprise technologies have grown stagnant and are outdated. Which of the following is the BEST strategy to invest in modem technology?  A. Redefine the target architecture to define new technologies that can be incorporated into the infrastructure.  B. Create a new investment category for innovation that becomes a new way for tracking investment decisions/ https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  C. Update the IT human resource management plan to requite training and development for emerging technologies.  D. Decrease spending on steady state and increase spending on modernization and enhancements. Answer: A Question #214 An enterprise makes an acquisition of a similar entity offering related services. A consequence of the acquisition is a reduction of IT workforce. When addressing human resource allocation, the MOST important IT governance consideration is to:  A. manage organizational change.  B. assess 7 skill sets.  C. monitor team expenditures.  D. cross-train IT resources. Answer: D Question #215 An enterprise's board of directors has asked the CIO to implement ways to make the IT function more environmentally responsible. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step to ensure continued alignment of IT needs with the requirements of the board?  A. Create a staff awareness education plan focused on IT environmental responsibility.  B. Incorporate new environmentally responsible objectives into existing IT goals.  C. Assess potential environmentally responsible IT initiatives.  D. Write a business case for an environmentally responsible initiative for IT. Answer: A Question #216 An enterprise has an ongoing issue of corporate applications not delivering the expected benefits due to missing key functionality. As a result, many groups are using spreadsheets and databases instead of approved enterprise applications to store and manipulate information. Which of the following will BEST improve the success rate of future IT initiatives?  A. Engage the business user community in acceptance testing of acquired applications.  B. Prohibit the use of non-approved alternate software solutions.  C. Establish a process for risk and value management.  D. Engage stakeholders to identify and validate business requirements. Answer: D Question #217 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT strategy committee has reviewed an audit report indicating sales employees are using personal smartphones to conduct corporate business. Although the committee appreciates the business benefits, it is also concerned with the security risk. To deliver the business benefit, the committee's FIRST recommendation should be to:  A. update the corporate security policy to include personal devices.  B. document procedures for securing personal devices.  C. improve training courses on securing corporate information.  D. perform a risk assessment on personal device data protection. Answer: D Question #218 Which of the following is the BEST way to implement effective IT risk management?  A. Minimize the number of IT risk management decision points.  B. Adopt risk management processes.  C. Establish a risk management function.  D. Align with business risk management processes. Answer: B Question #219 Which of the following characteristics would BEST indicate that an IT process is a good candidate for outsourcing?  A. Operational processes that are well-defined  B. Non-strategic processes that are not documented  C. Strategic processes that require expert professionals  D. Processes with higher risk to the enterprise Answer: B Question #220 Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an effective set of key risk indicators (KRIs)?  A. Identifying possible future adverse impacts on the enterprise  B. Evaluating existing technology for risk monitoring capabilities  C. Establishing executive level buy-in of the risk program  D. Quantifying the productivity of the risk management team Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #221 A large bank has completed several acquisitions in the last few years that have resulted in redundant IT applications. To align with the strategic initiative of providing integrated services to customers, the IT steering committee has decided to share data and integrate applications. Which of the following would be MOST important to review in this situation?  A. IT risk register  B. Balanced scorecard measures  C. Enterprise architecture  D. IT strategic plan Answer: C Question #222 To evaluate IT resource management, it is MOST important to define:  A. principles for the IT strategy.  B. responsibilities for executing resource management.  C. applicable key goals.  D. IT resource utilization reporting procedures. Answer: B Question #223 Which of the following is the MOST effective measure to assist in the evaluation of IT value delivery?  A. Actual benefits derived from the achievement of business objectives  B. Increase in user productivity  C. Trends in service capacity and availability metrics  D. Increase in customer satisfaction survey results Answer: A Question #224 Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that the governance of enterprise IT is consistently executed?  A. Regular review of IT policies and procedures  B. Defined key risk indicators  C. Established and monitored IT management processes  D. Experienced and skilled IT leadership https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #225 The BEST time to identify metrics to measure the performance of an IT-enabled investment is during:  A. investment feasibility analysis.  B. system implementation.  C. project initiation.  D. business case development. Answer: D Question #226 An enterprise is concerned that ongoing maintenance costs are not being considered when prioritizing IT-enabled business investments. Which of the following should be the enterprise's FIRST course of action?  A. Require business cases to have product life cycle information.  B. Establish a portfolio manager role to monitor and control the IT projects.  C. Mandate an enterprise architecture review with business stakeholders.  D. Implement a balanced scorecard for the IT project portfolio. Answer: C Question #227 The IT program manager does not see the value of conducting risk assessments for a new major IT project. The manager is reluctant to cooperate with internal auditors and the newly formed steering committee. Midway through the project, program requirements were changed because the CEO is a friend of a vendor and wants to implement this vendor's new technology. This decision will cause the current IT program budget to be insufficient and will be shown as overspending, After the requirement change request, the IT program manager should FIRST:  A. report the matter to internal audit as a program deviation to be reviewed.  B. obtain confirmation from the business and a decision by the steering committee.  C. align IT with the business and agree to the business request.  D. request additional funding from the business owner to cover the additional scope. Answer: B Question #228 A business unit within an enterprise has directly contracted with a cloud service provider to process sensitive customer information. The CIO later identifies a serious risk of potential data compromise due to the vendor's insufficient segregation of environments and lack of strong access controls. The FIRST course of action should be to:  A. immediately suspend sending of data to the cloud service provider. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!  B. notify internal audit of the risk.  C. discuss the risk with the vendor to determine mitigation actions.  D. inform the business process owner of the risk. Answer: B Question #229 Which of the following would BEST align an enterprise's IT investments with its strategic objectives?  A. High process maturity score  B. IT budget and financial statements  C. Control self-assessment  D. Portfolio management Answer: A Question #230 To ensure that the process of developing a business case for IT-enabled investments continually supports benefits realization, the benefits expected from investment programs must be actively managed through:  A. the system development life cycle.  B. the economic life cycle.  C. obsolescence planning.  D. project life cycle. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed!
HEALTH EDUCATION 3. SPECIFIC OBJECTIVES: Students should able to know about_______ 1. definition of health education 2. aims of health education 3. objectives of health education 4. principles of health education 5. scope of health education 6. planning of health education 7. steps in planning health education 8. levels of health education 9. doctors s responsibility 4. INTRODUCTION: Health education is a term frequently used by health care professional. its aims at individual and community health. Health education is the translation of what is known about health into desirable individual and community behaviour pattern by means of an education process. Definition: “A process aimed at encouraging people to want to be healthy , to know how to stay healthy, to do what they can individually and collectively to maintain health And seek help when needed”. OBJECTIVES - To inform people or disseminate scientific knowledge about prevention of disease and promotion of health - To motivate people to change their habits and lifestyle that are harmful to their health also motivate people to adopt habits and ways of living conducive to healthy living. - To guide the people who need help to adapt and maintain healthy practices and lifestyle by showing proper community resources. --- PRINCIPLES OF HEALTH EDUCATION - Credibility Of Message: It is the degree to which the message to be communicated is perceived as trustworthy by the receiver. - Creating interest among participants: It is a psychological principle that people are unlikely to listen to things that are not of their interest. If a health programme is based on the felt needs, people will participate in the programme willingly. - Motivating the participants: Motivation is like a petrol engine that drives the mental engine. It is the fundamental desire in every person to learn. Motivation is contagious; one motivated person may spread motivation throughout the group. 13. - Enhance comprehension of content: It means health education should be based on the level of understanding, education and literacy of people at whom the teaching is directed. Teaching should be within the mental capacity of the audience. - Ensure reinforcement: Repetition at intervals is necessary to promote learning. Without reinforcement and feedback, students can go back to the pre-awareness stage. - Encourage active participation: Health education should aim at encouraging people to work actively with health workers and others in identifying their own health problems and also in developing solutions. 14. - Learning by doing: Teaching is effective when individuals actively participate in health education. Learning becomes active and quicker if the individuals are made active physically as well as psychologically. - Known to unknown: The people in a community know something and the health educator enlarges this knowledge. If the health educator links new knowledge with the old knowledge, it can enhance learning. - Maintaining good human relations: Sharing of information, ideas and feelings happens most easily between people who have a good relationship. 15. - Setting an example: The health educators should set a good example in the topic they are dealing with as it fosters better understanding. - Regular feedback: Feedback is one of the key concepts of the system approach. The health educator can modify the elements of the system in light of the feedback from his audience. For effective communication, feedback is of paramount importance - Efficient leadership: Leaders are agents of change and they can be made use of in health education work. Psychologists have shown and established that we learn best from people we respect and regard. 16. The essential attributes of a leader are as follows - Understands the needs of the community. - Provides proper guidance. - Takes initiative. - Is receptive to the views and suggestions of people. - Identifies himself with the community. Is selfless, honest, impartial, considerate and sincere. - Is easily accessible to people. 17. SCOPE OF HEALTH EDUCATION 1. Nutrition 2. Hygiene 3. Family health 4. Disease prevention and cantrol 5. Psychological health 6. Prevention of accident 7. Use of health services 8. Human biology 19. - Nutrition: The aim of nutrition education is to guide people to choose optimum and balanced diets, remove prejudices and promote good dietary habits. nutrition education is a major intervention for the prevention of malnutrition, promotion of health and improving the quality of life. 20. - Hygiene: This has two aspects: personal and environmental. Personal: The aim of personal hygiene is to promote standards of personal cleanliness . Environmental: Has two aspects: Domestic and community. All environmental sanitation programmes should include health education 21. - Family health: The family is the first defence as well as the chief reliance for the well-being of its members. One of the main tasks of health education is to promote family self-reliance, especially regarding the family's responsibilities in child bearing, child rearing, self-care and in influencing their children to adopt a healthy lifestyle. 22. - Disease prevention and control: Drugs alone will not solve health problems. Without health education, a person may fall sick again and again from the same disease. Educating the people about the prevention and control of locally endemic diseases is the first of the eight essential activities in primary health care. 23. - Psychological health: Psychological health problem can occur everywhere. There is a tendency to an increase in the prevalence of psychological diseases when there is a change in society from agriculture to an industrial economy and when people move from the warm intimacy of a village. 24. - Prevention of accidents: Accidents are a feature of the complexity of modern life. Accidents can occur in home, road and place of work. The predominant factor in accidents is carelessness that can be tackled by health education. 25. - Use of health services: Many people, particularly in rural areas, do not know what health services are available and many more do not know. There is a communication gap between the public and state health administration in the form of feedback for further improvement of health services. One of the declared aims of health education is to inform people about the health services available in their community. 26. PLANNING FOR HEALTH EDUCATION planning: is the process of making thoughtful and systemic decision about what needs to be done , how it has to be done, by whom And with what sources. 27. Principles of planning health education 1) Focus on actual current needs and context of community: It is important that plans are made with the needs and context of the community in mind. Health education should try to understand what is currently happening in the community one works in. 2) Plan for basic needs and interest of the community: Consider the basic needs and interests of the community. If the local needs and interests are not kept under consideration, the plans may not be effective. 28. 3) Planning with actual beneficiaries of health education: Plan with the people involved in the implementation of an activity. If people are included in planning, they will be more likely to participate and the plan will be more likely to succeed. 4) Identify and use all relevant community resources: It is essential that the health educator identify all the relevant resources that are locally available which could be used for benefit of people receiving the health education. 29. 5) Follow principle of flexibility: Planning should be flexible, not rigid. One should be able to modify the plans when necessary. For example, you would have to change your priorities if a new problem needing an urgent response arose. 6) A realistic plan not hypothetical: The planned activity should be achievable and take into consideration the financial, personal resources available and time constraints. Planning must be realistic; do not plan unachievable activities. 30. Steps in planning health education Planning is a continuous process. It does not just happen at the start of project . Health education must be well planned to actually improve and promote individual, family and community health 31. - Needs assessment: Conducting needs assessment is the first and probably the most important step in any successful planning process. assessment is the process of identifying and understanding the health problems of the community and their possible causes. - Identify priorities: After identifying the needs and resources of the community, the next is to identify their priorities because each community may have several problems but the urgent have to be given top priority in health education. For example: goitre 32. - Set the goals and objectives: In planning the process of health education, setting goals and objectives is the third and most essential step because these goals and objectives serve as consciously thought baseline parameters to be achieved during health education. - Develop strategies: Prior to the implementation of the health education intervention one must plan, develop and evaluate the several alternative strategies to achieve the set goals and objectives of health education because each problem and target community is quite unique. 33. - Implementation: This is the core phase of the health education process which includes carrying out the planned strategies so that the set goals and objectives of health education may be achieved. - Monitor and evaluation: This is the final step of the planning process of health education where continuous monitoring as well as end evaluation is carried out to ensure the degree to which stated goals and objectives have been achieved. 34. LEVELS/APPROACH OF HEALTH EDUCATION 35. INDIVIDUAL LEVEL - Individual Approach: The health education must first create an atmosphere of friendship and allow the individual to talk as much as possible. In this individual teaching we can discuss, argue and persuade the individual to change his behaviour. But by this we can reach to a small population and who come in contact with us. Methods of individual health education 1) Home visit 2) Personal contact/ counselling 3) Personnel letters 36. 1) Home visit: A home visit is one of the best approaches for individual health education because it can become one of the best opportunities for health education with individuals and their families. Home visits are important to understand the real background of families, their living conditions and the environment in which they live. 37. 2) Personal contact/counseling : Personal contacts or counselling (one-to-one communication) is a helping process where one person explicitly and purposefully gives his or her time to assist people explore their situations and act on a solution. After this the counsellor needs to work together with the person to find solutions that are appropriate to their situation. 38. 3) personal letters: Personal letters may also be used for individual health education, where health educators may get an opportunity to dispatch letters or printed education material to the people in a target community. 39. GROUP LEVEL Group health education may be useful way to deliver health education massages in efficient manner. A well organized group permits sharing of experiences and skills so that people are able to learn from each other. 40. Methods of group discussion 1)Lecture method: (Chalk & Talk ) A lecture may be defined as carefully prepared oral presentation of facts organized thoughts and ideas by a qualified person. The group should not be more than 30 and talk should not exceed 15-20 minutes. By using suitable audiovisual aids. 2) Group discussion: A group is an aggregation of people interacting in a face to face situation. It is a very effective method of health communication. 41. 3) Demonstration: A demonstration is a carefully prepared presentation to show how to perform a skill. This procedure is carried out step by step before an audience. 4) Panel discussion: In a panel discussion 4-8 qualified persons talk about the topic. Sit and discuss a given topic in front of a large group/audience. The chairman opens the meeting. Panel comprises of a chair person and 4-8 speakers. After the main aspect of the subject are explored, the audience is invited to take part. 42. 5) Symposium: It is a series of speeches on a selected subject. Each expert person present it briefly and at the end of session the chair person make a comprehensive summary. Audience are allowed to raise question. 6) Workshops : It consists of series of meetings usually 4 or more with emphasis on an individual work, within the group and with the help of consultants and response personnel. 7) Role play: This is a brief acting out of an actual situation for the benefit of the audience for better understanding. 43. 8) Conference and seminars: This programmes are usually held on a regional, state/national level. Where several experts from different disciplines meet to deliberate on a particular theme, to appraise others of latest knowledge and research in a particular field. 9) Open forum: It refers to the public meeting which are held for various purposes in the community, for example: gram sabha 44. COMMUNITY LEVEL It is meant for a defined community and is not only to create awareness but also to help people understand their health problems and needs, find alternatives solutions to their problems and needs , implement them, evaluate and get feedback and accordingly do the needful. For health education at the community level, it is better to approach local leaders who are influential and who have the people’s confidence. These may include local officers such as gramsevak, panchayat sarpanch ,police officer or block development officer etc . 45. HOSPITAL LEVEL 1) Health Education in OPD/Outdoor: The patient and his attendants have to spend a lot of time in the outpatient department for health check-up, treatment, registration, diagnosis, admission procedure etc. This period can be utilised for health education. For this, the following means/devices can be used: - Exhibiting pictures, posters, charts, bulletin board and models in the waiting hall. - Arranging group discussion, slide show, or documentary film in a proper place and on a proper topic. - Giving health education on a personal level in the consulting room. This mainly includes nutrition clinic, family planning clinic, psychiatric clinic etc. 46. - Distributing pamphlets. - Arranging street plays or nukkad naatak in the outpatient department or its neighbourhood. 47. 2) Health Education in wards/ IPD: While taking care of the patients the indoor patients, doctors s have the opportunities to educate them. This period can be fully utilised to give health education to the patients. For this the following methods can be effective: - Conversation with the patient and motivating him for change in his behaviour. - Imparting health education by arranging live demonstration for nutrition, treatment, diagnosis etc. - Providing clinical or bedside teaching. - Providing incidental teaching to patient and his attendants. 48. - Presenting examples. To describe the gains of health education in an individual suffering from the same health education in an individual suffering from the same disease and arranging a meeting between the patient and the cured old patients.
ILLINOIS PROFESSIONAL TEACHING STANDARDS (2013) Standard 1 - Teaching Diverse Students – The competent teacher understands the diverse characteristics and abilities of each student and how individuals develop and learn within the context of their social, economic, cultural, linguistic, and academic experiences. The teacher uses these experiences to create instructional opportunities that maximize student learning. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 1A) understands the spectrum of student diversity (e.g., race and ethnicity, socioeconomic status, special education, gifted, English language learners (ELL), sexual orientation, gender, gender identity) and the assets that each student brings to learning across the curriculum; 1B) understands how each student constructs knowledge, acquires skills, and develops effective and efficient critical thinking and problem-solving capabilities; 1C) understands how teaching and student learning are influenced by development (physical, social and emotional, cognitive, linguistic), past experiences, talents, prior knowledge, economic circumstances and diversity within the community; 1D) understands the impact of cognitive, emotional, physical, and sensory disabilities on learning and communication pursuant to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (also referred to as “IDEA”) (20 USC 1400 et seq.), its implementing regulations (34 CFR 300; 2006), Article 14 of the School Code [105 ILCS 5/Art.14] and 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 (Special Education); 1E) understands the impact of linguistic and cultural diversity on learning and communication; 1F) understands his or her personal perspectives and biases and their effects on one’s teaching; and 1G) understands how to identify individual needs and how to locate and access technology, services, and resources to address those needs. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 1H) analyzes and uses student information to design instruction that meets the diverse needs of students and leads to ongoing growth and achievement; 1I) stimulates prior knowledge and links new ideas to already familiar ideas and experiences; 1J) differentiates strategies, materials, pace, levels of complexity, and language to introduce concepts and principles so that they are meaningful to students at varying levels of development and to students with diverse learning needs; 1K) facilitates a learning community in which individual differences are respected; and 1L) uses information about students’ individual experiences, families, cultures, and communities to create meaningful learning opportunities and enrich instruction for all students. Standard 2 - Content Area and Pedagogical Knowledge – The competent teacher has in-depth understanding of content area knowledge that includes central concepts, methods of inquiry, structures of the disciplines, and content area literacy. The teacher creates meaningful learning experiences for each student based upon interactions among content area and pedagogical knowledge, and evidence-based practice. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 2A) understands theories and philosophies of learning and human development as they relate to the range of students in the classroom; 2B) understands major concepts, assumptions, debates, and principles; processes of inquiry; and theories that are central to the disciplines; 2C) understands the cognitive processes associated with various kinds of learning (e.g., critical and creative thinking, problem-structuring and problem-solving, invention, memorization, and recall) 2 and ensures attention to these learning processes so that students can master content standards; 2D) understands the relationship of knowledge within the disciplines to other content areas and to life applications; 2E) understands how diverse student characteristics and abilities affect processes of inquiry and influence patterns of learning; 2F) knows how to access the tools and knowledge related to latest findings (e.g., research, practice, methodologies) and technologies in the disciplines; 2G) understands the theory behind and the process for providing support to promote learning when concepts and skills are first being introduced; and 2H) understands the relationship among language acquisition (first and second), literacy development, and acquisition of academic content and skills. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 2I) evaluates teaching resources and materials for appropriateness as related to curricular content and each student’s needs; 2J) uses differing viewpoints, theories, and methods of inquiry in teaching subject matter concepts; 2K) engages students in the processes of critical thinking and inquiry and addresses standards of evidence of the disciplines; 2L) demonstrates fluency in technology systems, uses technology to support instruction and enhance student learning, and designs learning experiences to develop student skills in the application of technology appropriate to the disciplines; 2M) uses a variety of explanations and multiple representations of concepts that capture key ideas to help each student develop conceptual understanding and address common misunderstandings; 2N) facilitates learning experiences that make connections to other content areas and to life experiences; 2O) designs learning experiences and utilizes assistive technology and digital tools to provide access to general curricular content to individuals with disabilities; 2P) adjusts practice to meet the needs of each student in the content areas; and 2Q) applies and adapts an array of content area literacy strategies to make all subject matter accessible to each student. Standard 3 - Planning for Differentiated Instruction – The competent teacher plans and designs instruction based on content area knowledge, diverse student characteristics, student performance data, curriculum goals, and the community context. The teacher plans for ongoing student growth and achievement. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 3A) understands the Illinois Learning Standards (23 Ill. Adm. Code 1.Appendix D), curriculum development process, content, learning theory, assessment, and student development and knows how to incorporate this knowledge in planning differentiated instruction; 3B) understands how to develop short- and long-range plans, including transition plans, consistent with curriculum goals, student diversity, and learning theory; 3C) understands cultural, linguistic, cognitive, physical, and social and emotional differences, and considers the needs of each student when planning instruction; 3D) understands when and how to adjust plans based on outcome data, as well as student needs, goals, and responses; 3E) understands the appropriate role of technology, including assistive technology, to address student needs, as well as how to incorporate contemporary tools and resources to maximize student learning; 3 3F) understands how to co-plan with other classroom teachers, parents or guardians, paraprofessionals, school specialists, and community representatives to design learning experiences; and 3G) understands how research and data guide instructional planning, delivery, and adaptation. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 3H) establishes high expectations for each student’s learning and behavior; 3I) creates short-term and long-term plans to achieve the expectations for student learning; 3J) uses data to plan for differentiated instruction to allow for variations in individual learning needs; 3K) incorporates experiences into instructional practices that relate to a student’s current life experiences and to future life experiences; 3L) creates approaches to learning that are interdisciplinary and that integrate multiple content areas; 3M) develops plans based on student responses and provides for different pathways based on student needs; 3N) accesses and uses a wide range of information and instructional technologies to enhance a student’s ongoing growth and achievement; 3O) when planning instruction, addresses goals and objectives contained in plans developed under Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 USC 794), individualized education programs (IEP) (see 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 (Special Education)) or individual family service plans (IFSP) (see 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 and 34 CFR 300.24; 2006); 3P) works with others to adapt and modify instruction to meet individual student needs; and 3Q) develops or selects relevant instructional content, materials, resources, and strategies (e.g., project-based learning) for differentiating instruction. Standard 4 - Learning Environment – The competent teacher structures a safe and healthy learning environment that facilitates cultural and linguistic responsiveness, emotional well-being, self-efficacy, positive social interaction, mutual respect, active engagement, academic risk-taking, self-motivation, and personal goal-setting. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 4A) understands principles of and strategies for effective classroom and behavior management; 4B) understands how individuals influence groups and how groups function in society; 4C) understands how to help students work cooperatively and productively in groups; 4D) understands factors (e.g., self-efficacy, positive social interaction) that influence motivation and engagement; 4E) knows how to assess the instructional environment to determine how best to meet a student’s individual needs; 4F) understands laws, rules, and ethical considerations regarding behavior intervention planning and behavior management (e.g., bullying, crisis intervention, physical restraint); 4G) knows strategies to implement behavior management and behavior intervention planning to ensure a safe and productive learning environment; and 4H) understands the use of student data (formative and summative) to design and implement behavior management strategies. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 4I) creates a safe and healthy environment that maximizes student learning; 4J) creates clear expectations and procedures for communication and behavior and a physical setting conducive to achieving classroom goals; 4K) uses strategies to create a smoothly functioning learning community in which students assume responsibility for themselves and one another, participate in decision-making, work collaboratively and independently, use appropriate technology, and engage in purposeful learning activities; 4 4L) analyzes the classroom environment and makes decisions to enhance cultural and linguistic responsiveness, mutual respect, positive social relationships, student motivation, and classroom engagement; 4M) organizes, allocates, and manages time, materials, technology, and physical space to provide active and equitable engagement of students in productive learning activities; 4N) engages students in and monitors individual and group-learning activities that help them develop the motivation to learn; 4O) uses a variety of effective behavioral management techniques appropriate to the needs of all students that include positive behavior interventions and supports; 4P) modifies the learning environment (including the schedule and physical arrangement) to facilitate appropriate behaviors and learning for students with diverse learning characteristics; and 4Q) analyzes student behavior data to develop and support positive behavior. Standard 5 - Instructional Delivery – The competent teacher differentiates instruction by using a variety of strategies that support critical and creative thinking, problem-solving, and continuous growth and learning. This teacher understands that the classroom is a dynamic environment requiring ongoing modification of instruction to enhance learning for each student. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 5A) understands the cognitive processes associated with various kinds of learning; 5B) understands principles and techniques, along with advantages and limitations, associated with a wide range of evidence-based instructional practices; 5C) knows how to implement effective differentiated instruction through the use of a wide variety of materials, technologies, and resources; 5D) understands disciplinary and interdisciplinary instructional approaches and how they relate to life and career experiences; 5E) knows techniques for modifying instructional methods, materials, and the environment to facilitate learning for students with diverse learning characteristics; 5F) knows strategies to maximize student attentiveness and engagement; 5G) knows how to evaluate and use student performance data to adjust instruction while teaching; and 5H) understands when and how to adapt or modify instruction based on outcome data, as well as student needs, goals, and responses. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 5I) uses multiple teaching strategies, including adjusted pacing and flexible grouping, to engage students in active learning opportunities that promote the development of critical and creative thinking, problem-solving, and performance capabilities; 5J) monitors and adjusts strategies in response to feedback from the student; 5K) varies his or her role in the instructional process as instructor, facilitator, coach, or audience in relation to the content and purposes of instruction and the needs of students; 5L) develops a variety of clear, accurate presentations and representations of concepts, using alternative explanations to assist students’ understanding and presenting diverse perspectives to encourage critical and creative thinking; 5M) uses strategies and techniques for facilitating meaningful inclusion of individuals with a range of abilities and experiences; 5N) uses technology to accomplish differentiated instructional objectives that enhance learning for each student; 5O) models and facilitates effective use of current and emerging digital tools to locate, analyze, evaluate, and use information resources to support research and learning; 5P) uses student data to adapt the curriculum and implement instructional strategies and materials according to the characteristics of each student; 5 5Q) uses effective co-planning and co-teaching techniques to deliver instruction to all students; 5R) maximizes instructional time (e.g., minimizes transitional time); and 5S) implements appropriate evidence-based instructional strategies. Standard 6 - Reading, Writing, and Oral Communication – The competent teacher has foundational knowledge of reading, writing, and oral communication within the content area and recognizes and addresses student reading, writing, and oral communication needs to facilitate the acquisition of content knowledge. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 6A) understands appropriate and varied instructional approaches used before, during, and after reading, including those that develop word knowledge, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and strategy use in the content areas; 6B) understands that the reading process involves the construction of meaning through the interactions of the reader's background knowledge and experiences, the information in the text, and the purpose of the reading situation; 6C) understands communication theory, language development, and the role of language in learning; 6D) understands writing processes and their importance to content learning; 6E) knows and models standard conventions of written and oral communications; 6F) recognizes the relationships among reading, writing, and oral communication and understands how to integrate these components to increase content learning; 6G) understands how to design, select, modify, and evaluate a wide range of materials for the content areas and the reading needs of the student; 6H) understands how to use a variety of formal and informal assessments to recognize and address the reading, writing, and oral communication needs of each student; and 6I) knows appropriate and varied instructional approaches, including those that develop word knowledge, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and strategy use in the content areas. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 6J) selects, modifies, and uses a wide range of printed, visual, or auditory materials, and online resources appropriate to the content areas and the reading needs and levels of each student (including ELLs, and struggling and advanced readers); 6K) uses assessment data, student work samples, and observations from continuous monitoring of student progress to plan and evaluate effective content area reading, writing, and oral communication instruction; 6L) facilitates the use of appropriate word identification and vocabulary strategies to develop each student’s understanding of content; 6M) teaches fluency strategies to facilitate comprehension of content; 6N) uses modeling, explanation, practice, and feedback to teach students to monitor and apply comprehension strategies independently, appropriate to the content learning; 6O) teaches students to analyze, evaluate, synthesize, and summarize information in single texts and across multiple texts, including electronic resources; 6P) teaches students to develop written text appropriate to the content areas that utilizes organization (e.g., compare/contrast, problem/solution), focus, elaboration, word choice, and standard conventions (e.g., punctuation, grammar); 6Q) integrates reading, writing, and oral communication to engage students in content learning; 6R) works with other teachers and support personnel to design, adjust, and modify instruction to meet students’ reading, writing, and oral communication needs; and 6S) stimulates discussion in the content areas for varied instructional and conversational purposes. Standard 7 - Assessment – The competent teacher understands and uses appropriate formative and summative assessments for determining student needs, monitoring student progress, measuring student 6 growth, and evaluating student outcomes. The teacher makes decisions driven by data about curricular and instructional effectiveness and adjusts practices to meet the needs of each student. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 7A) understands the purposes, characteristics, and limitations of different types of assessments, including standardized assessments, universal screening, curriculum-based assessment, and progress monitoring tools; 7B) understands that assessment is a means of evaluating how students learn and what they know and are able to do in order to meet the Illinois Learning Standards; 7C) understands measurement theory and assessment-related issues, such as validity, reliability, bias, and appropriate and accurate scoring; 7D) understands current terminology and procedures necessary for the appropriate analysis and interpretation of assessment data; 7E) understands how to select, construct, and use assessment strategies and instruments for diagnosis and evaluation of learning and instruction; 7F) knows research-based assessment strategies appropriate for each student; 7G) understands how to make data-driven decisions using assessment results to adjust practices to meet the needs of each student; 7H) knows legal provisions, rules, and guidelines regarding assessment and assessment accommodations for all student populations; and 7I) knows assessment and progress monitoring techniques to assess the effectiveness of instruction for each student. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 7J) uses assessment results to determine student performance levels, identify learning targets, select appropriate research-based instructional strategies, and implement instruction to enhance learning outcomes; 7K) appropriately uses a variety of formal and informal assessments to evaluate the understanding, progress, and performance of an individual student and the class as a whole; 7L) involves students in self-assessment activities to help them become aware of their strengths and needs and encourages them to establish goals for learning; 7M) maintains useful and accurate records of student work and performance; 7N) accurately interprets and clearly communicates aggregate student performance data to students, parents or guardians, colleagues, and the community in a manner that complies with the requirements of the Illinois School Student Records Act [105 ILCS 10], 23 Ill. Adm. Code 375 (Student Records), the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) (20 USC 1232g) and its implementing regulations (34 CFR 99; December 9, 2008); 7O) effectively uses appropriate technologies to conduct assessments, monitor performance, and assess student progress; 7P) collaborates with families and other professionals involved in the assessment of each student; 7Q) uses various types of assessment procedures appropriately, including making accommodations for individual students in specific contexts; and 7R) uses assessment strategies and devices that are nondiscriminatory, and take into consideration the impact of disabilities, methods of communication, cultural background, and primary language on measuring knowledge and performance of students. Standard 8 - Collaborative Relationships – The competent teacher builds and maintains collaborative relationships to foster cognitive, linguistic, physical, and social and emotional development. This teacher works as a team member with professional colleagues, students, parents or guardians, and community members. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 8A) understands schools as organizations within the larger community context; 7 8B) understands the collaborative process and the skills necessary to initiate and carry out that process; 8C) collaborates with others in the use of data to design and implement effective school interventions that benefit all students; 8D) understands the benefits, barriers, and techniques involved in parent and family collaborations; 8E) understands school- and work-based learning environments and the need for collaboration with all organizations (e.g., businesses, community agencies, nonprofit organizations) to enhance student learning; 8F) understands the importance of participating on collaborative and problem-solving teams to create effective academic and behavioral interventions for all students; 8G) understands the various models of co-teaching and the procedures for implementing them across the curriculum; 8H) understands concerns of families of students with disabilities and knows appropriate strategies to collaborate with students and their families in addressing these concerns; and 8I) understands the roles and the importance of including students with disabilities, as appropriate, and all team members in planning individualized education programs (i.e, IEP, IFSP, Section 504 plan) for students with disabilities. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 8J) works with all school personnel (e.g., support staff, teachers, paraprofessionals) to develop learning climates for the school that encourage unity, support a sense of shared purpose, show trust in one another, and value individuals; 8K) participates in collaborative decision-making and problem-solving with colleagues and other professionals to achieve success for all students; 8L) initiates collaboration with others to create opportunities that enhance student learning; 8M) uses digital tools and resources to promote collaborative interactions; 8N) uses effective co-planning and co-teaching techniques to deliver instruction to each student; 8O) collaborates with school personnel in the implementation of appropriate assessment and instruction for designated students; 8P) develops professional relationships with parents and guardians that result in fair and equitable treatment of each student to support growth and learning; 8Q) establishes respectful and productive relationships with parents or guardians and seeks to develop cooperative partnerships to promote student learning and well-being; 8R) uses conflict resolution skills to enhance the effectiveness of collaboration and teamwork; 8S) participates in the design and implementation of individualized instruction for students with special needs (i.e., IEPs, IFSP, transition plans, Section 504 plans), ELLs, and students who are gifted; and 8T) identifies and utilizes community resources to enhance student learning and to provide opportunities for students to explore career opportunities. Standard 9 - Professionalism, Leadership, and Advocacy – The competent teacher is an ethical and reflective practitioner who exhibits professionalism; provides leadership in the learning community; and advocates for students, parents or guardians, and the profession. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 9A) evaluates best practices and research-based materials against benchmarks within the disciplines; 9B) knows laws and rules (e.g., mandatory reporting, sexual misconduct, corporal punishment) as a foundation for the fair and just treatment of all students and their families in the classroom and school; 9C) understands emergency response procedures as required under the School Safety Drill Act [105 ILCS 128/1], including school safety and crisis intervention protocol, initial response 8 actions (e.g., whether to stay in or evacuate a building), and first response to medical emergencies (e.g., first aid and life-saving techniques); 9D) identifies paths for continuous professional growth and improvement, including the design of a professional growth plan; 9E) is cognizant of his or her emerging and developed leadership skills and the applicability of those skills within a variety of learning communities; 9F) understands the roles of an advocate, the process of advocacy, and its place in combating or promoting certain school district practices affecting students; 9G) understands local and global societal issues and responsibilities in an evolving digital culture; and 9H) understands the importance of modeling appropriate dispositions in the classroom. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 9I) models professional behavior that reflects honesty, integrity, personal responsibility, confidentiality, altruism and respect; 9J) maintains accurate records, manages data effectively, and protects the confidentiality of information pertaining to each student and family; 9K) reflects on professional practice and resulting outcomes; engages in self-assessment; and adjusts practices to improve student performance, school goals, and professional growth; 9L) communicates with families, responds to concerns, and contributes to enhanced family participation in student education; 9M) communicates relevant information and ideas effectively to students, parents or guardians, and peers, using a variety of technology and digital-age media and formats; 9N) collaborates with other teachers, students, parents or guardians, specialists, administrators, and community partners to enhance students’ learning and school improvement; 9O) participates in professional development, professional organizations, and learning communities, and engages in peer coaching and mentoring activities to enhance personal growth and development; 9P) uses leadership skills that contribute to individual and collegial growth and development, school improvement, and the advancement of knowledge in the teaching profession; 9Q) proactively serves all students and their families with equity and honor and advocates on their behalf, ensuring the learning and well-being of each child in the classroom; 9R) is aware of and complies with the mandatory reporter provisions of Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act [325 ILCS 5/4]; 9S) models digital etiquette and responsible social actions in the use of digital technology; and 9T) models and teaches safe, legal, and ethical use of digital information and technology, including respect for copyright, intellectual property, and the appropriate documentation of sources.
Teaching English Introduction to the course: Language learning and teaching A 2 Characteristics of the language learners: Studying a system that aligns with international standards. A3 Cognitive factors in language learning: Addressing questions and obtaining necessary information regarding phenomena such as transfer, interference, and generalization; A4 Inductive and deductive language learning: ability and intelligence; and the phenomenon of systematic forgetting A5 Language learning methods and strategies: Familiarizing with foreign language learning methods, strategies for learning foreign languages, and communication strategies A6 International Assessment System of language skills in CEFR, IELTS, TOEFL: effective methods and strategies used to improve language skills (listening, reading, writing, speaking) A7 Psychological factors in language learning: Exploring various psychological factors such as self-esteem, shyness, risk-taking, anxiety, attitude, and motivation A8 The effectiveness of authentic materials during the learning process: The role of tasks and games in teaching foreign languages A9 Errors in language learning: Discussing types of errors, identifying and describing errors, causes of errors, and fossilized errors A10 Error correction or error analysis approaches: developing students' ability to apply their knowledge in practicing error correction A11 Age-related factors in language learning: Exploring types of comparisonand contrast, focusing on topics such as the age hypothesis and bilingualism, and providing a detailed explanation of these concepts A12 Teaching grammar: Studying grammar teaching methods; deductive and inductive approaches in grammar teaching; A13 Teaching grammar through context: linguistic intuition; language phenomena; using grammatical dictionaries; analyzing grammatical tasks; and designing exercises, tasks, and tests through completing grammarbased activities. A14 Teaching vocabulary. Seeking answers to questions such as 'What is a word?' and 'What does it mean to learn a word?' A15 Teaching vocabulary in context: teaching lexical units/phrases/collocations; introducing new vocabulary; using corpus data for pedagogical purposes; developing students' vocabulary learning strategies A16 Assessing vocabulary tasks: designing vocabulary tasks, exercises, and tests. In international assessment systems such as CEFR, IELTS, and TOEFL, grammar accuracy and lexical resource A 17 Teaching pronunciation: Understanding the importance of pronunciation for successful communication; teaching stress; teaching intonation A18 Modern technologies in teaching pronunciation A19 Error correction methods: watching to various experiences in this area and analyzing video lessons from international experts in the field A20 Analysis of skill integration in language learning: Understanding the stages of developing skill integration; integration of the four language skills; task-based integration; and project-based integration. A21 Teaching listening comprehension A22 Modern technologies in teaching listening comprehension A23 Teaching Speaking A24 Modern technologies in teaching Speaking A25 Teaching Reading A26 Modern technologies in teaching Reading A27 Teaching Writing A28 Modern technologies in teaching Writing A29 The role and importance of translation in teaching a foreign language A30 Module 2. International standards for teaching and assessment Classroom Language: The teacher's actions; the teacher's voice; the teacher's intonation; using the foreign language in the classroom A31 Foreign language environment: asking questions in the foreign language, giving instructions in the foreign language, providing oral explanations in the foreign language, and issues related to the use of the native language in the foreign language class. A 32 Designing curriculum: Studying, analyzing, and working with curricula designed for schools, lyceums, and colleges. A33 Planning lessons and the structure of lesson plans: determining thesequence of lessons, objectives, tasks, and expected outcomes; choosing the lesson structure for planning A34 Designing tasks for different stages of the lesson: Starting the lesson; concluding the lesson; connecting tasks within the lesson A35 Time management: allocating appropriate time for tasks during the lesson; and providing homework assignments A36 Educational materials and resources: Effective use of existing educational materials and resources; anticipating and addressing potential issues Planning and adapting materials: to the situation during teaching and working on lesson planning for groups of students with different abilities. A37 Classroom research: Stages of classroom research, data collection, analysis, and planning; creating/preparing the materials needed for data collection; distinguishing between the positive and negative aspects of the research A38 Data analysis: creating/preparing the materials needed for data collection; distinguishing between the positive and negative aspects of the research. A39 Peer lesson observation: Observing lessons; conducting interviews; questionnaires for teachers and students; maintaining a daily record; discussing problematic situations/events; notes and other aspects; the process of lesson observation: stages of observation; presenting observation results both orally and in writing. A40 Educational materials and national values: important tool for implementing and promoting educational standards, as well as national values. A41 Differences between methods of teaching foreign languages: practical application of modern methods in language teaching; foreign experiences in language teaching: the grammar-translation method; the method of conducting lessons entirely in the foreign language; the audio-linguistic method; and communicative methods. A42 Methods used in the local environment and their analysis: Discussion of the positive and negative aspects of various methods; language and culture; teaching/learning processes; the role of the native language in learning a foreign language; and the psychological foundations of foreign language teaching. A43 Teaching a foreign language through computer technologies A44 Types of independent work and its implementation A45 Principles of Assessment in foreign language teaching А46 Issues in Language Assessment А47 Alternatives in Assessment А48 Test methods. Methods and criteria for assessing language aspects: written expression, reading, listening comprehension, speaking, А49 integrating language skills: vocabulary; grammar; alternative forms of assessment; planning assessment; critical analysis; principles for designingtest tasks: scientific rigor, consistency, conciseness, clarity, informality, logical sequence, and systematic approach. А50 Foreign language for ESP. Studying and analyzing needs; setting objectives for teaching a foreign language in a specific field or professional area; defining teaching approaches in curriculum development; and discussing topics related to these areas. А51 Selecting textbooks, materials and resources А52 Content-based Instruction (CBI) А53 Strategies-based Instruction А54 Lifelong Learning: Teacher development, PreSETT, InSETT А55 The Role of Teaching Practice A56 Organization and implementation of compulsory and non-compulsory course process in foreign language teaching A57 Organization in and outclass activities A58 Defining the goals and content of foreign language teaching at various levels of the education system in the Republic of Uzbekistan: evaluating educational materials; adapting educational materials; creating educational materials; and discussing the role of the foreign language teacher in specialized fields to gain relevant information. A59 The role of independent study skills: foreign language focused on reading, research and study skills; make revision questions. incclude mcq question. answer the question. true false
GUIDELINES ON THE ESTABLISHMENT AND IMPLEMENTATION OF THE RESULTS-BASED PERFORMANCE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM IN THE DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION I. Rationale 1. The Civil Service Commission (CSC), through the issuance of Memorandum Circular (MC) No. 06, series of 2012, sets the guidelines on the establishment and implementation of the Strategic Performance Management System (SPMS) in all government agencies. The SPMS gives emphasis to the strategic alignment of the agency’s thrusts with the day-to-day operation of the units and individual personnel within the organization. It focuses on measures of performance vis-a-vis the targeted milestones, and provides a credible and verifiable basis for assessing the organizational outcomes and the collective performance of the government employees. 2. As a learner-centered institution, the Department of Education (DepEd) is committed to continuously improve itself to better serve the Filipino learners and the community. The adoption of the SPMS in DepEd strengthens the culture of performance and accountability in the agency, with the DepEd’s mandate, vision and mission at its core. 3. There is a need to concretize the linkage between the organizational thrusts and the performance management system. It is important to ensure organizational effectiveness and track individual improvement and efficiency by cascading the institutional accountabilities to the various levels, units and individual personnel, as anchored on the establishment of a rational and factual basis for performance targets and measures. Finally, it is necessary to link the SPMS with other systems relating to human resources and to ensure adherence to the principle of performance-based tenure and incentives. 4. In view of the above, this Order aims to adopt the SPMS as the Results-based Performance Management System (RPMS). II. Scope of Policy 5. This DepEd Order provides for the establishment and implementation of the RPMS in all DepEd schools and offices, covering all officials and employees, school-based and non school-based, in the Department holding regular plantilla positions. It stipulates the specific mechanisms, criteria and processes for the performance target setting, monitoring, evaluation and development planning. IV. Policy Statement 9. The DepEd hereby sets the guidelines on the establishment and implementation of the Results-based Performance Management System (RPMS) in the Department, stipulating the strategies, methods, tools and rewards for assessing the accomplishments vis-a-vis the commitments. This will be used for measuring and rewarding higher levels of performance of the various units and development planning of all personnel in all levels. 10. For non school-based personnel, the RPMS shall provide for an objective and verifiable basis for rating and ranking the performance of units and individual personnel in view of the granting of the Performance-Based Bonus (PBB) starting 2015. 11. For school-based personnel, the RPMS shall be used only as an appraisal tool, which shall be the basis for training and development. The granting of PBB shall be governed by the existing PBB guidelines. 12. The Department shall adopt the RPMS framework shown in Annex B. 13. The DepEd RPMS shall follow the four-stage performance management system cycle as prescribed by the CSC: i. Performance planning and commitment (Phase I); ii. Performance monitoring and coaching (Phase II); iii. Performance review and evaluation (Phase III); and iv. Performance rewarding and development planning (Phase IV). V. Performance Cycle/Process 14. The RPMS shall align the performance targets and accomplishments with the Department’s mandate, vision, mission and strategic goals. It shall ensure 100% results orientation vis-a-vis the planned targets. On the other hand, the ratee’s demonstration of the required competencies shall be monitored for developmental purposes only. 15. The RPMS cycle shall cover performance for one whole year. All school-based personnel shall follow a performance cycle starting in April of the current year and ending in March of the following year; while non school-based personnel shall follow a performance cycle starting in January and ending in December. Annexes C and D illustrate the performance cycles which shall apply to school-based and non school-based personnel, respectively. 16. The performance planning and commitment shall be done prior to the beginning of the performance cycle; while the performance monitoring and coaching shall take place immediately after Phase I, and continue throughout the performance cycle. The performance review and evaluation, as well as the performance rewarding and development planning shall be done at the end of the performance cycle. A. Phase I: Performance Planning and Commitment 17. The performance planning and commitment shall be done prior to the start of the performance cycle where the rater meets with the ratee to discuss and agree on the following: i. Office KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators as anchored to the overall organizational outcomes; and ii. Individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators as anchored to the Office KRAs and Objectives. 18. The Office Performance Commitment and Review Form (OPCRF) shall be accomplished by the head of office to reflect the Office KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall ensure alignment of the office plans and commitments to the overall organizational outcomes. The OPCRF shall be equivalent to the IPCRF of the head of office. A sample of the filled out OPCRF, including the instructions for accomplishing the form, is shown in Annex E. 19. The Individual Performance Commitment and Review Form (IPCRF) shall be accomplished by the individual personnel to reflect the agreed Individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators. A sample of the filled out IPCRF, including the instructions for accomplishing the form, is shown in Annex F. 20. Defining the Key Result Areas. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall define the office KRAs as anchored on the overall organizational outcomes. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the break down of the office KRAs into individual KRAs. Three (3) to five (5) KRAs shall be defined for each office and individual employee. KRAs are broad categories of general outputs or outcomes. It is the mandate or function of the office and/or individual employee. The KRA is the reason why an office and/or job exist. It is an area where the office and/or individual employee are expected to focus on. 21. Setting the Objectives. The head of office shall set three (3) objectives per office KRA. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on three (3) objectives per individual KRA. Objectives are specific tasks, which an office and/or employee need to do to achieve their specific KRAs. In objective setting, the SMART criteria, which stands for Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time Bound, shall be applied. The SMART criteria are illustrated in Annex G. 22. Setting the Timeline. The timeline shall define the target date for accomplishing each of the Objectives. The timeline for the office Objectives shall be set by the head of office in coordination with the Planning Office and School Planning Team; while the timeline for the individual Objectives shall be discussed and agreed by the rater and the ratee. 23. Assigning the Weight. Assigning of weights shall be done per KRA. Weights for each office KRA shall be assigned by the head of office in coordination with the Planning Office; while the weights for each of the individual KRAs shall be discussed and agreed upon by the rater and the ratee. 24. Identifying the Performance Indicators. Using a five (5)-point rating scale, the head of office shall identify a performance indicator for each of the office objectives, while the rater and the ratee shall identify and agree on the performance indicator for each of the individual objectives. Performance indicators are exact quantification of objectives expressed through rubrics. They are assessment tools, which gauge whether a performance is positive or negative. In identifying the performance indicator, the operational definition or meaning of each numerical rating shall be indicated under each relevant dimension (i.e., quality, efficiency, or timeliness) per performance target or success indicator. This shall ensure that the rating is objective, impartial and verifiable. Table 1 below discusses the performance measures by which the indicator must satisfy. Table 1. Performance Measures CATEGORY DEFINITION Effectiveness/Quality The extent to which actual performance compares with targeted performance. The degree to which objectives are achieved and the extent to which targeted problems are solved. In management, effectiveness relates to getting the right things done. Efficiency The extent to which time or resources is used for the intended task or purpose. Measures whether targets are accomplished with a minimum amount or quantity of waste, expense, or unnecessary effort. Timeliness Measures whether the deliverable was done on time based on the requirements of the rules and regulations, and/or clients/stakeholders. Time-related performance indicators evaluate such things as project completion deadlines, time management skills and other time-sensitive expectations. Some Performances are only rated on quality and efficiency, some on quality and timeliness, and others on efficiency only. You need not use all three (3) categories. 25. Demonstration of Competencies. During Phase I, the rater shall discuss with the ratee the competencies required of the individual personnel. Competencies are defined as the knowledge, skills and behavior that individuals demonstrate in achieving one’s results. Competencies shall uphold the DepEd’s core values. They represent the way individuals define and live the values. 26. DepEd shall adopt four classes of competencies as follows: i. Core behavioral competencies are competencies, which cut across the organization; ii. Leadership competencies are competencies intended for managerial positions; a. Third level officials b. Chiefs and Assistant Chiefs c. School Heads and Department Heads iii. Staff Core Skills are competencies intended for staff and teaching-related personnel; and iv. Teaching competencies are competencies intended for teachers. The DepEd-required competencies are illustrated in Annex I. 27. The ratee’s demonstration of the required competencies shall be monitored to effectively plan the interventions needed for behavioral and professional development. The assessment in the demonstration of competencies shall not be reflected in the final rating. 28. Reaching Agreement. Once the office and individual KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators are clearly defined, the rater and the ratee shall commit and reach an agreement by signing the OPCRF and IPCRF. The signed/approved OPCRF and IPCRF shall be the basis for monitoring and assessment, which shall take place in Phases II and III, respectively. B. Phase II: Performance Monitoring and Coaching 29. The performance monitoring and coaching shall commence after the rater and the ratee commit on the KRAs, Objectives and Performance Indicators, and sign the OPCRF and IPCRF. This shall be done throughout the year. 30. The two (2) main components of Phase II are the following: i. Performance monitoring; and ii. Coaching and feedback. 31. Performance monitoring shall provide key inputs and objective basis for rating. It shall facilitate feedback and provide evidence of performance. Performance monitoring shall be the responsibility of both the rater and the ratee who agree to track and record significant incidents through the use of the Performance Monitoring and Coaching Form (PMCF) shown in Annex J. Significant incidents are actual events and behaviors in which both positive and negative performances are observed and documented. 32. Coaching and feedback shall be a continuous process. Coaching and feedback shall be provided by the rater and/or shall be sought by the ratee to improve work performance and behavior. The rater, as the coach or mentor of the ratee, playing a critical role in the performance monitoring and coaching, shall provide an enabling environment and intervention to improve the office performance and to manage and develop individual potentials. 33. The PMCF shall capture the significant incidents. It shall provide a record of demonstrated behaviors, competencies and performance, and shall be an effective substitute in the absence of quantifiable data. The rater and the ratee shall sign each significant incident recorded in the PMCF to ensure that agreement has been reached. C. Phase III: Performance Review and Evaluation 34. The performance review and evaluation shall be done at the end of the performance cycle to assess the office and individual employee’s performance level based on the commitments and measures as contained in the signed OPCRF and IPCRF. 35. A mid-year review is prescribed to determine the progress in achieving the Objectives. In exceptional cases, and only if the situation warrants, a one-time recalibration of office and individual Objectives shall be allowed during the mid-year review. Exceptional cases shall include instances when high level decisions are taken into effect such as changes in strategic directions, and circumstances beyond the control of the ratee such as natural and/or man-made calamities, including typhoon, earthquake and other fortuitous events. During the mid-year review, the rater shall inform in writing the ratee of the status of performance, in case of an Unsatisfactory or Poor performance. Coaching, feedback and appropriate interventions shall be provided where necessary. 36. The RPMS shall put premium on KRAs towards the realization of organizational vision, mission, strategic priorities and the OPIF logframe. Hence, rating for planned and/or intervening tasks shall always be supported by reports, documents or any output as proofs of actual performance. In the absence of said bases or proofs, a particular task shall not be rated and shall be disregarded. 37. Office and Individual Performance Assessment. The head of office, in coordination with the Planning Office, shall assess the performance of the office vis-a-vis the committed targets at the beginning of the performance cycle. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the individual assessment based on the actual accomplishments of each of the KRAs and Objectives. The final rating shall be based solely on the accomplishment of the specific objectives as measured by the Performance Indicators. The OPCRF and IPCRF shall be accomplished and completed by the rater and the ratee to: i. Reflect actual accomplishments and results; ii. Rate each of the objectives; iii. Compute for the score per objective; iv. Determine the overall rating for accomplishments; v. Reach an agreement; and vi. Assess the competencies. 38. Initial self-rating shall be encouraged prior to the rater-ratee discussion. 39. Third Level Officials, as heads of offices, shall accomplish the OPCRF for submission to the Planning Office. The individual assessment of Third Level Officials shall be contained in the CESPES Forms for submission to the Career Executive Service Board (CESB). The BHROD and Personnel Division shall be furnished a copy of both forms. 40. Actual Results. The rater and the ratee shall discuss and agree on the actual accomplishments and results based on the performance commitments and measures made at the beginning of the rating period. They shall evaluate each objective whether it has been achieved or not. The significant incidents as reflected in the PMCF shall be considered for the actual results. 41. Rating the Objectives. Based on the actual accomplishments and results, each of the Objectives shall be rated using the rating scale specified below: Table 2. The RPMS Rating Scale NUMERICAL RATING ADJECTIVAL RATING DESCRIPTION OF MEANING OF RATING 5 Outstanding Performance represents an extraordinary level of achievement and commitment in terms of quality and time, technical skills and knowledge, ingenuity, creativity and initiative. Employees at this performance level should have demonstrated exceptional job mastery in all major areas of responsibility. Employee achievement and contributions to the organization are of marked excellence. 4 Very Satisfactory Performance exceeded expectations. All goals, objectives and targets were achieved above the established standards. 3 Satisfactory Performance met expectations in terms of quality of work, efficiency and timeliness. The most critical annual goals were met. 2 Unsatisfactory Performance failed to meet expectations, and/or one or more of the most critical goals were not met. 1 Poor Performance was consistently below expectations, and/or reasonable progress toward critical goals was not made. Significant improvement is needed in one or more important areas. The final assessment shall correspond to the adjectival description of Outstanding, Very Satisfactory, Satisfactory, Unsatisfactory or Poor. The range of adjectival rating is as per attached in Forms A, B, and C. 42. Process for Computing the Score per KRA. i. The rater and ratee shall ensure that each KRA has been assigned weight according to priority. ii. As an option, the rater and ratee may assign weights to objectives which shall be equal to the total weight assigned to a particular KRA. KRA 1 – Weight assigned is 40% Objective 1 is 20% Objective 2 is 10% Objective 3 is 10% iii. The score per KRA shall be computed using the following formula: 43. Plus Factor. The plus factor shall be considered as another KRA. These are value adding accomplishments, which are not covered within the regular duties and responsibilities. The weight on the plus factor shall not exceed the weight of the highest mandated KRA. For teachers, the plus factor shall be limited to work/activities, which contribute to the teaching-learning process. 44. Determining the Overall Rating for Accomplishments. The overall rating/assessment for the accomplishments shall fall within the following adjectival ratings and shall be in three (3) decimal points: Table 3. Adjectival Ratings RANGE ADJECTIVAL RATING 4.500-5.000 Outstanding 3.500-4.499 Very Satisfactory 2.500-3.499 Satisfactory 1.500-2.499 Unsatisfactory below 1.499 Poor 45. Reaching Agreement. Upon determining the overall rating for the actual accomplishments and results, the rater and the ratee shall reach an agreement by signing the OPCRF and IPCRF. The average rating of individual staff members should not go higher than the collective performance assessment of the office. 46. Assessing the Competencies. The rater shall discuss with the ratee the set of competencies observed during the performance cycle. The competencies shall not be reflected in the final rating. Competencies shall be monitored for developmental purposes. In evaluating the individual’s demonstration of competencies, the rating scale in Table 4 shall apply: Table 4. The DepEd Competencies Scale SCALE DEFINITION 5 Role model 4 Consistently demonstrates 3 Most of the time demonstrates 2 Sometimes demonstrates 1 Rarely demonstrates 5 (role model) – all competency indicators 4 (consistently demonstrates) – four competency indicators 3 (most of the time demonstrates) – three competency indicators 2 (sometimes demonstrates) – two competency indicators 1 (rarely demonstrates) – one competency indicator D. Phase IV: Performance Rewarding and Development Planning 47. The results of the performance review and evaluation shall be used in performance rewarding and development planning. This phase shall be done after Phase III. 48. The rater shall discuss and provide qualitative comments, observations and recommendations in the individual employee’s performance commitment, competency assessment and significant incidents which shall be used for training and professional development. These can be written under the strengths and development needs column of the Part IV-Development Plans of the IPCRF. 49. The rater and the ratee shall identify and discuss the individual’s strengths and development needs, and reflect them in the Part IV-Development Plans of the IPCRF. The competencies which the ratee demonstrated consistently and the areas, where the ratee meet or exceed expectations shall be referred to as the ratee’s strengths. The competencies, which the ratee rarely demonstrates and the areas where the ratee has room for improvement and has not met the expectations, shall be identified as the ratee’s development needs. Make a situational SOLO-based questions in the context of school leadership
Health 11/12 Review for Final Exam Core Concepts - Mental and Emotional Health, Substance Abuse Prevention, Safety and Violence Prevention, Family Life and Human Sexuality, Disease Prevention and Control, Healthy Eating Health Education Skills - goal setting, decision making, accessing information/resources, analyzing influences, communication, self-management, advocacy DIMENSIONS of Wellness - social, spiritual, emotional/mental, environmental, financial, intellectual, multicultural, occupational, physical, sexual RISK factors - anything that increases the risk of disease, injury, or illness. PROTECTIVE factors - anything that decreases the risk of disease, injury, or illness. INTERNAL health factors - health factors that can be either hereditary and genetic or acquired elements -- include smoking and personal diet or eating habits. Example – a genetic predisposition to an illness. EXTERNAL health factors - health factors that are part of the direct outer environment, the geographical location, micro-organisms, socio-economic elements that could affect an individual's health. Example – being unable to afford mental health services. Unit 1- Managing Personal and Community Wellness Explain Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs in your own words using the image provided. Explain how each Social Determinant of Health may impact a person’s health. Levels of Disease Prevention • PRIMARY The goal is to avoid conditions altogether. • SECONDARY The goal is early detection. • TERTIARY The goal is to minimize the damage (manage). Define the following terms. Fads/Trends Sleep hygiene Driver safety Unit 2- Investigating Social Ecological Factors on Well-Being Socio-Ecological Model – The SEM examines how health behaviors form based on characteristics of individuals, communities, nations and levels in between. Each level overlaps with other levels signifying how the best public health strategies are those that encompass and target a wide range of perspectives. Interpersonal (personal) health vs. intrapersonal (relationship) health Health INEQUITY - systemic, ingrained and unjust barriers that prevent segments of the population from having the opportunity of health leading to health disparity. IMPLICIT BIAS - a form of bias that occurs automatically and unintentionally, that nevertheless affects judgments, decisions, and behaviors. Research has shown implicit bias can contribute to unequal access to quality healthcare, negative patient-provider relationships and interactions; and create mistrust in the healthcare system and practitioners among patients. This can contribute to health disparities. Health DISPARITY - represents a difference in health between populations. It is often used to describe disease burden and other negative health outcomes socially disadvantaged groups may face. Health EQUITY - The opposite of health inequity. It describes a system that supports a high standard of health and healthcare for all people. Racism - Beliefs, attitudes, institutional arrangements, and acts that tend to denigrate individuals or groups because of phenotypic characteristics or ethnic group affiliation. DISCRIMINATION - An unjust differential treatment of a person or a group. PRIVILEGE- The unearned access to resources and social power that are only available to some because of their membership within certain social groups. OPPRESSION is the act of taking away choices from others and can be defined as a system that maintains advantage and disadvantage based on social identities and that acts on multiple levels from interpersonal to institutional and societal. (internalized, interpersonal, institutional, structural) Systematic Oppression - Intentional disadvantage of groups of people based on their identity while advantaging members of dominant group (race, gender, sexual orientation, language, size, ability, etc.). Intersectionality - The complex, cumulative way in which the effects of multiple forms of discrimination (such as racism, sexism, and classism) combine, overlap, or intersect especially in the experiences of marginalized individuals or groups Unit 3- Accessing Resources and Communicating to Support Mental and Emotional Health What is anger? What is anxiety? What is stress? STRESSORS are the things that cause stress. Stressors can be internal and external. A stressor may be a one-time or short-term occurrence, or it can happen repeatedly over a long time. INTERNAL Stressors - are made by your belief system and the way you evaluate yourself. Examples include pessimistic attitude, negative self-talk, deep need to be perfect, low self-esteem or body image, unhealthy standards for self. EXTERNAL Stressors - are stressful things that happen in your surroundings and/or in your environment. Examples include busy schedules, work problems, family issues, financial trouble, social problems, injury, unforeseen circumstances. Socio-economic issues are also a part of external stressors such as poverty, violence, and racism. Define the following mental health conditions. Depression Eating disorders NSSI Non-suicidal self-injury Grief/Loss Suicide prevention A.C.T. • ACKNOWLEDGE- Tell them in a caring way that you recognize that they are having a problem • CARE- You can show you care by actively listening - put away anything else you are doing, make eye contact, sit down, ask questions. • TELL-(call 988 for additional help and support) - Tell them it is important that they speak with a trusted adult. Help them figure out who this may be and offer to go with your friend. A social norm is an unwritten, informal rule meant to guide behavior among the of society. It distinguishes between acceptable and unacceptable, good and bad, and so on. Social norms can influence a person with emotional or mental health disorders, access to care and stigmatize their situation. STIGMA- a mark of disgrace associated with a particular circumstance, quality, or person. • Self-stigma - This describes the internalized stigma that people with mental health conditions feel about themselves. • Public stigma - This refers to the negative attitudes around mental health from people in society. • Institutional stigma - This is a type of systemic stigma that arises from corporations, governments, and other institutions. Unit 4- Evaluating Risks of Substance Use and Abuse Harm Reduction - a set of practical strategies and ideas aimed at reducing negative consequences associated with drug use. Explain how each level of the Social Ecological Model is impacted by addiction. Individual Relationship Community Society SEM Level Contributing/Risk Factors to substance use Preventative/Protective Factors for substance use Individual Interpersonal/Relationship Community Society Unit 5- Analyzing Influences to Examine Ways to Increase Safety and Reduce Violence HATE CRIME - a crime, usually violent, motivated by prejudice or intolerance toward an individual’s national origin, ethnicity, color, religion, gender, gender identity, sexual orientation, or disability. Explain how the media influences violence in society. The Pyramid of Hate Explain the escalation of hate using the Pyramid of Hate visual. List several hate crime motivators. Example: age HEALTHY Relationship Signs - comfortable pace, trust, honesty, independence, respect, equality, kindness, taking responsibility, healthy conflict, fun UNHEALTHY Relationship Signs - intensity, possessiveness, manipulation, isolation, sabotage, belittling, guilting, volatility, deflecting responsibility, betrayal Sexual Assault is a sexual behavior WITHOUT consent. Human trafficking - the recruitment, harboring, transportation, provision, or obtaining of a person for labor or services, using force, fraud, or coercion for the purpose of subjection to involuntary servitude, peonage, debt bondage, or slavery. Sex trafficking - commercial sex act induced by force, fraud, or coercion, or in which the person induced to perform such an act has not attained 18 years of age. Trafficking happens using… • Force - using violence to control someone. • Fraud - using lies to control someone. • Coercion - using threats to control someone. Unit 6- Family Life and Human Sexuality Agency - A belief about yourself and the extent to which you can act on that belief. • The ability to choose freely one’s own narrative. • To embrace the idea that I am the cause (or agent) of my own thoughts and actions. • Personal agency is a personal responsibility for who we are, what we experience, what we do about that experience, and how we shape our world to give us more of the experiences we want. SEXUAL Agency • The ability to choose your own interests and desires vs. what we see in the media or others’ perceptions • The ability to identify, communicate, and negotiate one’s sexual needs • The ability to initiate behaviors that allow for the satisfaction of those needs Sexually Explicit Material - photographs, videos, films, magazines, and books whose primary themes, topics, or depictions involve sexuality that may cause sexual arousal. Sexual scripts - thoughts, patterns, or behavior that a person has about themselves in a romantic or sexual context. It is how people picture themselves or want to project themselves in front of others. Reproductive Rights of Teens - In Maryland, teens have the right to an abortion, keep their child, obtain and use birth control, paternity tests, adoption, give up custody of their child within 10 days of birth (Safe Haven Law). • REPRODUCTIVE RIGHTS- legal rights and the freedom of the individual to control decisions regarding contraception, abortion, sterilization and childbirth. • SAFE HAVEN LAW- a distressed parent who is unable or unwilling to care for their infant can safely give up custody of their baby, no questions asked. CONSENT is an agreement between participants to engage in sexual activity. • It is clearly and freely communicated, verbal, and affirmative. Consent CANNOT be given if… • A person is underage, one or both partners is intoxicated or incapacitated by drugs or alcohol, one partner is asleep or unconscious, one partner feels pressured, threatened or intimidated, or one partner holds a position of power or authority over the other. Unit 7- Advocating for Enhanced Nutrition, Food Systems, and Health Outcomes Dietary Guidelines for Americans Guideline 1: Follow a Healthy Dietary Pattern at Every Life Stage Guideline 2: Customize and Enjoy Food and Beverage Choices to Reflect Personal Preferences, Cultural Traditions, and Budgetary Considerations Guideline 3: Focus on Meeting Food Group Needs with Nutrient-Dense Foods and Beverages, and Stay Within Calorie Limits Guideline 4: Limit Foods and Beverages Higher in Added Sugars, Saturated Fat, and Sodium, and Limit Alcoholic Beverages FOOD DESERT- a neighborhood where there is little or limited access to healthy and affordable food such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, low-fat milk and other foods that make up the full range of a healthy diet. FOOD INSEQURITY lack of access to a sufficient amount of food because of limited funds. More than 49 million American households are considered food insecure and are vulnerable to poor health as a result. PROCCESED FOODS- any raw agricultural commodities that have been washed, cleaned, milled, cut, chopped, heated, pasteurized, blanched, cooked, canned, frozen, dried, dehydrated, mixed or packaged — anything done to them that alters their natural state.
Owls, such as the young snowy owls on the previous page, have for centuries been symbols of both wisdom and mystery. To many cultures their piercing eyes have conveyed a look of intelligence. Their silent flight through darkened landscapes in search of prey has projected an air of power or wonder. For this chapter and this book, owls are an engaging example of a living organism from the world of biology—the study of life. BIOLOGY AND YOU Living in a small town, in the country, or at the edge of the suburbs, one may be lucky enough to hear an owl's hooting. This experience can lead to questions about where the bird lives, what it hunts, and how it finds its prey on dark, moonless nights. Biology, or the study of life, offers an organized and scientific framework for posing and answering such questions about the natural world. Biologists study questions about how living things work, how they interact with the environment, and how they change over time. Biologists study many different kinds of living things ranging from tiny organisms, such as bacteria, to very large organisms, such as elephants. Each day, biologists investigate subjects that affect you and the way you live. For example, biologists determine which foods are healthy. As shown in Figure 1-1, everyone is affected by this impor- tant topic. Biologists also study how much a person should exer- cise and how one can avoid getting sick. Biologists also study what CHARACTERISTICS OF LIFE The world is filled with familiar objects, such as tables, rocks, plants, pets, and automobiles. Which of these objects are living or were once living? What are the criteria for assigning something to the living world or the nonliving world? Biologists have established that living things share seven characteristics of life. These characteristics are organization and the presence of one or more cells, response to a stimulus (plural, stimuli), homeostasis, metabolism, growth and development, reproduction, and change through time. Organization and Cells Organization is the high degree of order within an organism’s internal and external parts and in its interactions with the living world. For example, compare an owl to a rock. The rock has a spe- cific shape, but that shape is usually irregular. Furthermore, differ- ent rocks, even rocks of the same type, are likely to have different shapes and sizes. In contrast, the owl is an amazingly organized individual, as shown in Figure 1-2. Owls of the same species have the same body parts arranged in nearly the same way and interact with the environment in the same way. Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. ORGANISM (Barn Owl) ORGAN (Owl’s Ear) TISSUE (Nervous Tissue Within the Ear) CELL (Nerve Cell) your air, land, and fAll living organisms, whether made up of one cell or many cells, have some degree of organization. A cell is the smallest unit that can perform all life’s processes. Some organisms, such as bacteria, are made up of one cell and are called unicellular (YOON-uh-SEL-yoo-luhr) organisms. Other organisms, such as humans or trees, are made up of multiple cells and are called multicellular (MUHL-ti-SEL-yoo-luhr) organisms. Complex multicellular organisms have the level of orga- nization shown in Figure 1-2. In the highest level, the organism is made up of organ systems, or groups of specialized parts that carry out a certain function in the organism. For example, an owl’s ner- vous system is made up of a brain, sense organs, nerve cells, and other parts that sense and respond to the owl’s surroundings. Organ systems are made up of organs. Organs are structures that carry out specialized jobs within an organ system. An owl’s ear is an organ that allows the owl to hear. All organs are made up of tissues. Tissues are groups of cells that have similar abilities and that allow the organ to function. For example, nervous tissue in the ear allows the ear to detect sound. Tissues are made up of cells. A cell must be covered by a membrane, contain all genetic information necessary for replication, and be able to carry out all cell functions. Within each cell are organelles. Organelles are tiny structures that carry out functions necessary for the cell to stay alive. Organelles contain biological molecules, the chemical compounds that provide physical structure and that bring about movement, energy use, and other cellular functions. All biological molecules are made up of atoms. Atoms are the simplest particle of an ele- ment that retains all the properties of a certain element. Response to Stimuli Another characteristic of life is that an organism can respond to a stimulus—a physical or chemical change in the internal or external environment. For example, an owl dilates its pupils to keep the level of light entering the eye constant. Organisms must be able to respond and react to changes in their environment to stay alive. ORGANELLE (Mitochondrion) BIOLOGICAL MOLECULE (Phospholipid) ATOM (Oxygen) cell from the Latin, cella meaning “small room,” or “hut” Word Roots and Origins www.scilinks.org Topic: Characteristics of Life Keyword: HM60257 mb06se_bios01.qxd 5/18/07 10:37 AM Page 7 8 CHAPTER 1 Homeostasis All living things, from single cells to entire organisms, have mecha- nisms that allow them to maintain stable internal conditions. Without these mechanisms, organisms can die. For example, a cell’s water content is closely controlled by the taking in or releas- ing of water. A cell that takes in too much water will rupture and die. A cell that doesn’t get enough water will also shrivel and die. Homeostasis (HOH-mee-OH-STAY-sis) is the maintenance of a stable level of internal conditions even though environmental conditions are constantly changing. Organisms have regulatory systems that maintain internal conditions, such as temperature, water content, and uptake of nutrients by the cell. In fact, multi- cellular organisms usually have more than one way of maintain- ing important aspects of their internal environment. For example, an owl’s temperature is maintained at about 40°C (104°F). To keep a constant temperature, an owl’s cells burn fuel to produce body heat. In addition, an owl’s feathers can fluff up in cold weather. In this way, they trap an insulating layer of air next to the bird’s body to maintain its body temperature. Metabolism Living organisms use energy to power all the life processes, such as repair, movement, and growth. This energy use depends on metabolism (muh-TAB-uh-LIZ-uhm). Metabolism is the sum of all the chemical reactions that take in and transform energy and materials from the environment. For example, plants, algae, and some bacteria use the sun’s energy to generate sugar molecules during a process called photosynthesis. Some organisms depend on obtaining food energy from other organisms. For instance, an owl’s metabolism allows the owl to extract and modify the chemi- cals trapped in its nightly prey and use them as energy to fuel activities and growth. Growth and Development All living things grow and increase in size. Some nonliving things, such as crystals or icicles, grow by accumulating more of the same material of which they are made. In contrast, the growth of living things results from the division and enlargement of cells. Cell division is the formation of two new cells from an existing cell, as shown in Figure 1-3. In unicellular organisms, the primary change that occurs following cell division is cell enlargement. In multi- cellular life, however, organisms mature through cell division, cell enlargement, and development. Development is the process by which an organism becomes a mature adult. Development involves cell division and cell differen- tiation, or specialization. As a result of development, an adult organism is composed of many cells specialized for different func- tions, such as carrying oxygen in the blood or hearing. In fact, the human body is composed of trillions of specialized cells, all of which originated from a single cell, the fertilized egg. This unicellular organism, Escherichia coli, inhabits the human intestines. E. coli reproduces by means of cell division, during which the original cell splits into two identical offspring cells. FIGURE 1-3 Observing Homeostasis Materials 500 mL beakers (3), wax pen, tap water, thermometer, ice, hot water, goldfish, small dip net, watch or clock with a second hand Procedure 1. Use a wax pen to label three 500 mL beakers as follows: 27°C (80°F), 20°C (68°F), 10°C (50°F). Put 250 mL of tap water in each beaker. Use hot water or ice to adjust the tem- perature of the water in each beaker to match the temperature on the label. 2. Put the goldfish in the beaker of 27°C water. Record the number of times the gills move in 1 minute. 3. Move the goldfish to the beaker of 20°C water. Repeat observations. Move the goldfish to the beaker of 10°C. Repeat observations. Analysis What happens to the rate at which gills move when the temp- erature changes? Why? How do gills help fish maintain homeostasis? Quick Lab mb06se_bios01.qxd 5/18/07 10:37 AM Page 8 THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 9 Reproduction All organisms produce new organisms like themselves in a process called reproduction. Reproduction, unlike other characteristics, is not essential to the survival of an individual organism. However, because no organism lives forever, reproduction is essential for the continuation of a species. Glass frogs, as shown in Figure 1-4, lay many eggs in their lifetime. However, only a few of the frogs’ off- spring reach adulthood and successfully reproduce. During reproduction, organisms transmit hereditary informa- tion to their offspring. Hereditary information is encoded in a large molecule called deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA. A short segment of DNA that contains the instructions for a single trait of an organism is called a gene. DNA is like a large library. It contains all the books—genes—that the cell will ever need for making all the struc- tures and chemicals necessary for life. Hereditary information is transferred to offspring during two kinds of reproduction. In sexual reproduction, hereditary information recombines from two organisms of the same species. The resulting offspring are similar but not identical to their parents. For example, a male frog’s sperm can fertilize a female’s egg and form a single fer- tilized egg cell. The fertilized egg then develops into a new frog. In asexual reproduction, hereditary information from different organisms is not combined; thus the original organism and the new organism are genetically the same. A bacterium, for example, reproduces asexually when it splits into two identical cells. Change Through Time Although individual organisms experience many changes during their lifetime, their basic genetic characteristics do not change. However, populations of living organisms evolve or change through time. The ability of populations of organisms to change over time is important for survival in a changing world. This factor is also impor- tant in explaining the diversity of life-forms we see on Earth today. 1. How does biology affect a person’s daily life? 2. How does biology affect society? 3. Name the characteristics shared by living things. 4. Summarize the hierarchy of organization found in complex multicellular organisms. 5. What are the different functions of homeostasis and metabolism in living organisms? 6. How does the growth among living and nonliv- ing things differ? 7. Why is reproduction an important characteristic of life? CRITICAL THINKING 8. Applying Information Crystals of salt grow and are highly organized. Why don’t biologists con- sider them to be alive? 9. Analyzing Models When a scientist designs a space probe to detect life on a distant planet, what kinds of things should it measure? 10. Making Comparisons Both cells and organisms share the characteristics of life. How are cells and organismsood supply will be like in the near future.EVOLUTION OF LIFE Individual organisms change during their lifetime, but their basic genetic characteristics do not change. However, populations of liv- ing organisms do change through time, or evolve. Evolution, or descent with modification, is the process in which the inherited characteristics within populations change over generations, such that genetically distinct populations and new species can develop. Evolution as a theme in biology helps us understand how the various branches of the “tree of life” came into existence and have changed over time. It also explains how organisms alive today are related to those that lived in the past. Finally, it helps us understand the mechanisms that underlie the way organisms look and behave. Natural Selection The ability of populations of organisms to change over time is important for survival in a changing world. According to the theory of evolution by natural selection, organisms that have certain favorable traits are better able to survive and reproduce success- fully than organisms that lack these traits. One product of natural selection is the adaptation of organisms to their environment. Adaptations are traits that improve an indi- vidual’s ability to survive and reproduce. For example, rabbits with white fur and short ears in a snowy place, such as the one in Figure 1-7a, may avoid predators and frostbitten ears more often than those with dark fur and long ears. Thus, the next generation of rabbits will have a greater percentage of animals carrying the genes for white fur and short ears. In contrast, the brown, long- eared rabbit, as shown in Figure 1-7b, would survive and reproduce more successfully in a hot desert environment. The survival and reproductive success of organisms with favor- able traits cause a change in populations of organisms over gener- ations. This descent with modification is an important factor in explaining the diversity of organisms we see on Earth today. 1. Name three unifying themes found in biology. 2. How is the unity and diversity in the living world represented? 3. Identify the three domains and the kingdoms found in each domain. 4. How are organisms interdependent? 5. Describe why evolution is important in explain- ing the diversity of life. 6. Distinguish between evolution and natural selection. CRITICAL THINKING 7. Applying Information Assign the various top- pings you put on pizza to the appropriate domains and kingdoms of life. 8. Analyzing Graphics According to the “tree” in Figure 1-5, which of these pairs are more closely related: Archaea:Bacteria or Archaea:Eukarya? 9. Making Hypotheses Fossil evidence shows that bats descended from shrewlike organisms that could not fly. Write a hypothesis for how natural selection might have led to flying bats. SECTION 2 REVIEW (a) This short-eared arctic hare, Lepus arcticus, is hidden from predators and protected from frostbite in a snowy environment. (b) The mottled brown coats of desert rabbits blend in with the dirt and dry grasses, and their long ears help them radiate excess heat and thus avoid overheating. FIGURE 1-7 (a) (b) Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 13 TH E STUDY OF BIOLOGY Curiosity leads us to ask questions about life. Science provides a way of answering such questions about the natural world. Science is a systematic method that involves forming and testing hypotheses. More importantly, science relies on evidence, not beliefs, for drawing conclusions. SCIENCE AS A PROCESS Science is characterized by an organized approach, called the scientific method, to learn how the natural world works. The methods of science are based on two important principles. The first principle is that events in the natural world have natural causes. For example, the ancient Greeks believed that lightning and thunder occurred because a supernatural god Zeus hurled thunderbolts from the heavens. By contrast, a scientist considers lightning and thunder to result from electric charges in the atmos- phere. When trying to solve a puzzle from nature, all scientists, such as the one in Figure 1-8, accept that there is a natural cause to solve that puzzle. A second principle of science is uniformity. Uniformity is the idea that the fundamental laws of nature operate the same way at all places and at all times. For example, scientists assume that the law of gravity works the same way on Mars as it does on Earth. Steps of the Scientific Method Although there is no single method for doing science, scientific studies involve a series of common steps. 1. The process of science begins with an observation. An observation is the act of perceiving a natural occurrence that causes someone to pose a question. 2. One tries to answer the question by forming hypotheses (singular, hypothesis). A hypothesis is a proposed explanation for the way a particular aspect of the natural world functions. 3. A prediction is a statement that forecasts what would happen in a test situation if the hypothesis were true. A prediction is recorded for each hypothesis. 4. An experiment is used to test a hypothesis and its predictions. 5. Once the experiment has been concluded, the data are analyzed and used to draw conclusions. 6. After the data have been analyzed, the data and conclusions are communicated to scientific peers and to the public. This way oth- ers can verify, reject, or modify the researcher’s conclusions. SECTION 3 OBJECTIVES ● Outline the main steps in the scientific method. ● Summarize how observations are used to form hypotheses. ● List the elements of a controlled experiment. ● Describe how scientists use data to draw conclusions. ● Compare a scientific hypothesis and a scientific theory. ● State how communication in science helps prevent dishonesty and bias. VOCABULARY scientific method observation hypothesis prediction experiment control group experimental group independent variable dependent variable theory peer review All researchers, such as the one releasing an owl above, use the scientific method to answer the questions they have about nature. FIGURE 1-8 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 14 CHAPTER 1 OBSERVING AND ASKING QUESTIONS The scientific method generally begins with an unexplained observa- tion about nature. For example, people have noticed for thousands of years that owls can catch prey in near total darkness. As shown in steps and of Figure 1-9, an observation may then raise ques- tions. The owl observation raises the question: How does an owl detect prey in the dark? FORMING A HYPOTHESIS After stating a question, a biologist lists possible answers to a sci- entific question—hypotheses. Good hypotheses answer a question and are testable in the natural world. For example, as shown in step Figure 1-9, there are several possible hypotheses for the question of how owls hunt at night: (a) owls hunt by keen vision in the dark; (b) owls hunt by superb hearing; or (c) owls hunt by detecting the prey’s body heat. Predicting To test a hypothesis, scientists make a prediction that logically fol- lows from the hypothesis. A prediction is what is expected to hap- pen if each hypothesis were true. For example, if hypothesis (a) is true, (owls hunt by keen night vision) then one can predict that the owl will pounce only on the mouse in either a light or a dark room. If hypothesis (b) is true (owls hunt by hearing), then one can pre- dict that in a lighted room, the owl will pounce closer to the mouse’s head. But, in a dark room, the owl should pounce closer to a rustling leaf attached to the mouse. Finally, if hypothesis (c) is true (owls hunt by sensing body heat), then an owl would strike only the prey no matter the room conditions, because owls hunt by detecting the prey’s body heat. 3 1 2 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. A scientific study includes observations, questions, hypotheses, predictions, experiments, data analysis, and conclu- sions. A biologist can use the scientific method to set up an experiment to learn how an owl captures prey at night. FIGURE 1-9 1 OBSERVATION Owls capture prey on dark nights. 2 QUESTION How do owls detect prey on dark nights? 3 HYPOTHESES a) Owls hunt in the dark by vision. b) Owls hunt in the dark by hearing. c) Owls hunt in the dark by sensing body heat. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 15 Notice that these predictions make it difficult to distinguish be- tween the vision and body heat hypotheses. The reason is that both hypotheses predict that the owl could grab the mouse in a dark room. Also, these three hypotheses do not eliminate all other factors that could influence how the owl finds its prey. However, testing predictions can allow one to begin rejecting hypotheses and thus to get closer to determining the answer(s) to a question. DESIGNING AN EXPERIMENT Biologists often test hypotheses by setting up an experiment. Step in Figure 1-9 outlines an experiment to test the hypotheses about how an owl hunts at night. First, experimenters set up a room with an owl perch high on one side and a small trap door on the other side for releasing mice. Then, they tied a leaf to each mouse’s tail with a string and released each mouse into the room. Next, each mouse ran silently across the room, but the leaf trailed behind, making a rustling noise. During half of the trials, the lights were on. During the other half, the room was dark. Technicians videotaped all the action in the chamber with an infrared light, which owls cannot see. The researchers then viewed the videos and measured the position of the owl’s strike relative to each mouse’s head. Performing the Experiment Many scientists use a controlled experiment to test their hypotheses. A controlled experiment compares an experimental group and a control group and only has one variable. The control group pro- vides a normal standard against which the biologist can compare results of the experimental group. The experimental group is iden- tical to the control group except for one factor, the independent variable. The experimenter manipulates the independent variable, sometimes called the manipulated variable. 4 4 EXPERIMENT 5 DATA COLLECTION AND ANALYSIS Measure and compare the distance from the owl’s strike to the mouse and to the leaf in light and dark. 6 CONCLUSION Data supported the hearing hypothesis: Owls hunt in the dark by hearing. prey Test predictions of the three hypotheses. Control: In the light Experimental: In the dark 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 Predicting Results Materials 2 Petri dishes with agar, cellophane tape, wax pen Procedure 1. Open one of the Petri dishes, and streak your finger across the surface of the agar. 2. Replace the lid, and seal it with the tape. Label this Petri dish with your name and a number 1. 3. Seal the second Petri dish with- out removing the lid. Label this Petri dish with your name and the number 2. 4. Write a prediction about what will happen in each dish. Store your dishes as your teacher directs. Record your observations. Follow your teacher’s directions for disposal of your dishes. Analysis Was your prediction accurate? What evidence can you cite to support your prediction? If you did not obtain the results you predicted, would you change your testing method or your prediction? Explain. Evaluate the importance of obtaining a result that does not support your prediction. Quick Lab mb06se_bios03.qxd 5/18/07 10:40 AM Page 15 16 CHAPTER 1 The independent variable in the owl experiment is the presence or absence of light. In the owl experiment, the control group hunts in the light, and the experimental group hunts in the dark. In addi- tion to varying the independent variable, a scientist observes or measures another factor called the dependent variable, or respond- ing variable, because it is affected by the independent variable. In the owl experiment, the dependent variable is distance from the owl’s strike to the mouse’s head. Testing the Experiment Some controlled experiments are conducted “blind.” In other words, the biologist who scores the results is unaware of whether a given subject is part of the experimental or control group. This factor helps eliminate experimenter bias. Experiments should also be repeated, because living systems are variable. Moreover, scien- tists must collect enough data to find meaningful results. COLLECTING AND ANALYZING DATA Most experiments measure a variable—the dependent variable. This measurement provides quantitative data, data measured in numbers. For example, in the experiment above, scientists mea- sured the distance of an owl’s strike from the prey’s head in cen- timeters, as shown in step of Figure 1-9. An event’s duration in milliseconds is also an example of quantitative data. Biologists usually score the results of an experiment by using one of their senses. They might see or hear the results of an experiment. Scientists also extend their senses with a micro- scope for tiny objects or a microphone for soft sounds. In the owl experiment, biologists extended their vision with infrared cameras. Analyzing and Comparing Data After collecting data from a field study or an experiment and then organizing it, biologists then analyze the data. In analyzing data, the goal is to determine whether the data are reliable, and whether they support or fail to support the predictions of the hypothesis. To do so, scientists may use statistics to help determine relation- ships between the variables involved. They can then compare their data with other data that were obtained in other similar studies. It is also important at this time to determine possible sources of error in the experiment just per- formed. Scientists usually display their data in tables or graphs when analyzing it. For the owl study, biologists could have made a bar graph such as the one in Figure 1-10, which shows the average distance from the owl’s strike relative to the mouse’s head or the leaf in the light and in the dark. 5 5 0 10 15 20 25 In the light In the dark Average distance from strike (cm) Distance Between Owl Strike and a Mouse or From a Leaf Attached to Mouse 30 Mouse Leaf Mouse Leaf The data below are hypothetical results that might occur from the described owl experiment.The independent variable is the darkness of the room, and the dependent variable is how far the owl struck from the mouse’s head.The data show that the owl strikes more accurately at the mouse in the light but strikes more accurately at the leaf in the dark. FIGURE 1-10 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 17 DRAWING CONCLUSIONS Biologists analyze their tables, graphs, and charts to draw conclu- sions about whether or not a hypothesis is supported, as shown in step of Figure 1-9. The hypothetical owl data show that in the light, owls struck with greater accuracy at the mouse than at the leaf, but in the dark, owls struck with greater accuracy at the leaf than the mouse. Thus, the findings support the hearing hypothe- sis, but not the vision hypothesis. An experiment can only disprove, not prove, a hypothesis. For example, one cannot conclude from the results that the hearing hypothesis is proven to be true. Perhaps the owl uses an unknown smell to strike at the mouse. One can only reject the vision hypothe- sis because it did not predict the results of the experiment correctly. Acceptance of a hypothesis is always tentative in science. The scientific community revises its understanding of phenomena, based on new data. Having ruled out one hypothesis, a biologist will devise more tests to try to rule out any remaining hypotheses. Making Inferences Scientists often draw inferences from data gathered during a field study or experiment. An inference (IN-fuhr-uhns) is a conclusion made on the basis of facts and previous knowledge rather than on direct observations. Unlike a hypothesis, an inference is not directly testable. In the owl study, it is inferred that the owl detects prey from a distance rather than by direct touch. Applying Results and Building Models As shown in Figure 1-11, scientists often apply their findings to solve practical problems. They also build models to represent or describe things. For example in 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick used cardboard balls and wire bars to build physical models of atoms in an attempt to understand the structure of DNA. Mathematical models are sets of equations that describe how dif- ferent measurable items interact in a system. The experimenter can adjust variables to better model the real-world data. CONSTRUCTING A THEORY When a set of related hypotheses is confirmed to be true many times, and it can explain a great amount of data, scientists often reclassify it as a theory. Some examples include the quantum the- ory, the cell theory, or the theory of evolution. People commonly use the word “theory” in a different way than scientists use the word. People may say “It’s just a theory” suggesting that an idea is untested, but scientists view a theory as a highly tested, generally accepted principle that explains a vast number of observations and experimental data. 6 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. Biologists often apply their knowledge of the natural world to practical problems. Studies on the owl’s keen ability to locate sounds in space despite background noise are helping biotechnologists and bioengineers develop better solutions for people with impaired hearing, such as the people shown in this picture. FIGURE 1-11 18 CHAPTER 1 COMMUNICATING IDEAS An essential aspect of scientific research is scientists working together. Scientists often work together in research teams or sim- ply share research results with other scientists. This is done by publishing findings in scientific journals or presenting them at sci- entific meetings, as shown in Figure 1-12. Sharing information allows others working independently to verify findings or to con- tinue work on established results. For example, Roger Payne pub- lished the results of his owl experiments in a journal in 1971. Then, other biologists could repeat it for verification or use it to study the mechanisms introduced by the paper. With the growing impor- tance of science in solving societal issues, it is becoming increas- ingly vital for scientists to be able to communicate with the public at large. Publishing a Paper Scientists submit research papers to scientific journals for publica- tion. A typical research paper has four sections. First, the Introduction poses the problem and hypotheses to be investigated. Next, the Materials and Methods describe how researchers proceeded with the experiment. Third, the Results state the findings the experiment presented, and finally, the Discussion gives the significance of the experiment and future directions the scientists will take. Job Description Forensic biolo- gists are scientists who study biological materials to investigate potential crimes and other legal issues against humans and animals. Forensic scientists have knowledge in areas of biology, such as DNA and blood pattern analysis, and work in private sector and public laboratories. Focus On a Forensic Biologist As a law enforcement forensic specialist for the Texas Parks and Wildlife Department, Beverly Villarreal assists the game warden in investigations of fish and wildlife violations, such as illegal hunting and fishing. Villarreal analyzes blood and tissue samples to identify species of animals such as fish, birds, and reptiles. Her work helps game wardens as they enforce state laws regarding hunting and fishing. Most people think of forensic scientists as the glamorous crime investigators on TV, but according to Villarreal real forensic scientists “spend a great deal of time at a lab bench running analysis after analysis.” Many of the methods used in animal forensics, such as DNA sequenc- ing, are also used in human forensics. Education and Skills • High school—three years of science courses and four years of math courses. • College—bachelor of science in biol- ogy, including course work in zoology and genetics, plus experience in per- forming DNA analyses. • Skills—patience, attention to detail, and ability to use fine tools. Careers in BIOLOGY Forensic Biologist For more about careers, visit go.hrw.com and type in the keyword HM6 Careers. www.scilinks.org Topic: Scientific Investigations Keyword: HM61358 mb06se_bios03.qxd 5/18/07 10:40 AM Page 18 THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 19 1. What two principles make the scientific method a unique process? 2. Define the roles of observations and hypotheses in science. 3. Summarize the parts of a controlled experiment. 4. Summarize how we make conclusions about the results of an experiment. 5. Why is the phrase, “it’s just a theory” misleading? 6. Give another example of a conflict of interest. CRITICAL THINKING 7. Making Hypotheses On a nocturnal owl’s skull, one ear points up, and the other ear points down. Suggest a hypothesis for this observation. 8. Designing Experiments Design an experiment to establish if owls hunt by keen sight or hunt by heat seeking. 9. Calculating Information What was the average distance between the owl’s strike and the mouse if the recorded differences in this experiment were 25, 22, 19, 19, and 15? SECTION 3 REVIEW After scientists submit their papers to a scientific journal, the editors of that journal will send the paper out for peer review. In a peer review, scientists who are experts in the field anonymously read and critique that research paper. They determine if a paper pro- vides enough information so that the experiment can be duplicated and if the author used good experimental controls and reached an accurate conclusion. They also check if the paper is written clearly enough for broad understanding. Careful analysis of each other’s research by fellow scientists is essential to making scientific progress and preventing scientific dishonesty. HONESTY AND BIAS The scientific community depends on both honesty and good sci- ence. While designing new studies, experimenters must be very careful to prevent previous ideas and biases from tainting both the experimental process and the conclusions. Scientists have to keep in mind that they are always trying to disprove their favorite ideas. Scientists repeat experiments to verify previous findings. This allows for science to have a method for self-correction and it also keeps researchers honest and credible to their peers in the field. Conflict of Interest For most scientists, maintaining a good reputation for collecting and presenting valid data is more important than temporary prestige or income. So, scientists try to avoid any potential conflicts of interest. For example, a scientist who owns a biotechnology company and manufactures a drug would not be the best researcher to critically test that drug’s safety and effectiveness. To avoid this potential con- flict of interest, the scientist allows an unaffected party, such as a research group, to test the drug’s effectiveness. The threat of a potential scandal based on misleading data or conclusions is a pow- erful force in science that helps keep scientists honest and fair. Scientists present their experiments in various forms. The scientists above are presenting their work in the form of a poster at a scientific meeting. FIGURE 1-12 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. The Internet can provide a wealth of scientific information for a report, but the information may not always be credible or accurate. You can use the methods above to check the accuracy and credibility of your sources. SCIENCE TECHNOLOGY SOCIETY SCIENCE ON THE INTERNET: A New Information Age I n the past, students research- ing a science topic would typ- ically begin their research by visiting a library to use printed reference materials, such as encyclopedias. Today, most stu- dents research topics by using a computer and searching for information on the Internet. The Internet can provide students with a wealth of infor- mation. But which Web sites have accurate information, and which Web sites do not? Checking Web Addresses Students should use the Web address, or URL, to establish the Web site’s credibility. Usually, the domain name can suggest who has published the Web site. Web sites can be pub- lished by governmental agen- cies (ends in “dot gov” or .gov), by educational institutions (ends in “dot edu” or .edu), by organizations (ends in “dot org” or .org), or by commercial businesses (ends in “dot com” or .com). Government Web sites are usually reliable. Examples of credible governmental Web sites are the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). University and medical school sites are also reliable sources of information. Many organiza- tions that research and teach the public about specific diseases and conditions can also provide reliable information. Examples of such organizations are the American Cancer Society and the American Heart Association. Evaluating Web Sites The credibility of the author of the Web site should also be checked. Make sure the author is not trying to sell anything and is established in his or her field. For example, a health Web site’s author should be a med- ical professional. It is also important to check the date that the information was posted on the Web to ensure that the information is current. Also, the Web site should provide ref- erences from valid sources, such as scientific journals or govern- ment publications. Finally, the student should always double-check informa- tion between several reliable Web sites. If two or three reliable sites provide the same informa- tion, the student can feel confi- dent in using that information. Web Sites for Students The Internet Connect boxes in this textbook have all been reviewed by professionals at the National Science Teachers Association (NSTA). Students can trust that these sites are reliable sources for science- or health-related topics. REVIEW 1. Which types of Web addresses are the most reliable? 2. List four important features to evaluate when using a Web site for research. 3. Supporting Reasoned Opinions Why do you think a Web site that is advertising a product may not offer accurate information? REVIEW 20 www.scilinks.org Topic: Using the Internet Keyword: HM61589 mb06se_biosts.qxd 5/18/07 10:42 AM Page 20 TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES With proper equipment and good methods, biologists can see, manipulate, and understand the natural world in new ways. Microscopes are one of many useful tools used to unlock nature’s biological secrets. MICROSCOPES AS TOOLS Tools are objects used to improve the performance of a task. Microscopes are tools that extend human vision by making enlarged images of objects. Biologists use microscopes to study organisms, cells, cell parts, and molecules. Microscopes reveal details that otherwise might be difficult or impossible to see. Light Microscopes To see small organisms and cells, biologists typically use a light microscope, such as the one shown in Figure 1-13. A compound light microscope is a microscope that shines light through a spec- imen and has two lenses to magnify an image. To use this micro- scope, one first mounts the specimen to be viewed on a glass slide. The specimen must be thin enough for light to pass through it. For tiny pond organisms, such as the single-celled paramecium, light passing through the organism is not a problem. For thick objects, such as plant stems, biologists must cut thin slices for viewing. There are four major parts of a compound light microscope. For further description of the parts of a micro- scope, see the Appendix. 1. Eyepiece The eyepiece (ocular (AHK-yoo-luhr) lens) magnifies the image, usually 10 times. 2. Objective Lens Light passes through the specimen and then through the objective lens, which is located directly above the specimen. The objective lens enlarges the image of the specimen. Scientists sometimes use stains to make the image easier to see. 3. Stage The stage is a platform that supports a slide holding the specimen. The slide is placed over the opening in the stage of the microscope. 4. Light Source The light source is a light bulb that provides light for viewing the image. It can be either light reflected with a mirror or an incandescent light from a small lamp. SECTION 4 OBJECTIVES ● List the function of each of the major parts of a compound light microscope. ● Compare two kinds of electron microscopes. ● Describe the importance of having the SI system of measurement. ● State some examples of good laboratory practice. VOCABULARY compound light microscope eyepiece (ocular lens) objective lens stage light source magnification nosepiece resolution scanning electron microscope transmission electron microscope metric system base unit Compound light microscopes open the human eye to an interesting world including tiny pond organisms, healthy and diseased cells, and the functioning of cell parts. FIGURE 1-13 Objective lens Eyepiece (ocular lens) Stage Light THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 21 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 22 CHAPTER 1 Magnification and Resolution Microscopes vary in powers of magnification and resolution. Magnification is the increase of an object’s apparent size. Revolving the nosepiece, the structure that holds the set of objective lens, rotates these lenses into place above the specimen. In a typical com- pound light microscope, the most powerful objective lens produces an image up to 100 times (100) the specimen’s actual size. The degree of enlargement is called the power of magnification of the lens. The standard ocular lens magnifies a specimen 10 times (10). To compute the power of magnification of a microscope, the power of magnification of the strongest objective lens (in this case, 100) is multiplied by the power of magnification of the ocular lens (10). The result is a total power of magnification of 1000. Resolution (REZ-uh-LOO-shuhn) is the power to show details clearly in an image. The physical properties of light limit the ability of light microscopes to resolve images, as shown in Figure 1-14a. At pow- ers of magnification beyond about 2,000, the image of the speci- men becomes fuzzy. For this reason, scientists use other microscopes to view very small cells
Introduction to Free Fall A free-falling object is an object that is falling under the sole influence of gravity. Any object that is being acted upon only by the force of gravity is said to be in a state of free fall. There are two important motion characteristics that are true of free-falling objects: • Free-falling objects do not encounter air resistance. • All free-falling objects (on Earth) accelerate downwards at a rate of 9.8 m/s/s (often approximated as 10 m/s/s for back-of-the-envelope calculations) Because free-falling objects are accelerating downwards at a rate of 9.8 m/s/s, a ticker tape trace or dot diagram of its motion would depict an acceleration. The dot diagram at the right depicts the acceleration of a free-falling object. The position of the object at regular time intervals - say, every 0.1 second - is shown. The fact that the distance that the object travels every interval of time is increasing is a sure sign that the ball is speeding up as it falls downward. Recall from an earlier lesson, that if an object travels downward and speeds up, then its acceleration is downward. Free-fall acceleration is often witnessed in a physics classroom by means of an ever-popular strobe light demonstration. The room is darkened and a jug full of water is connected by a tube to a medicine dropper. The dropper drips water and the strobe illuminate the falling droplets at a regular rate - say once every 0.2 seconds. Instead of seeing a stream of water free-falling from the medicine dropper, several consecutive drops with increasing separation distance are seen. The pattern of drops resembles the dot diagram shown in the graphic at the right. The Acceleration of Gravity It was learned in the previous part of this lesson that a free-falling object is an object that is falling under the sole influence of gravity. A free-falling object has an acceleration of 9.8 m/s/s, downward (on Earth). This numerical value for the acceleration of a free-falling object is such an important value that it is given a special name. It is known as the acceleration of gravity - the acceleration for any object moving under the sole influence of gravity. A matter of fact, this quantity known as the acceleration of gravity is such an important quantity that physicists have a special symbol to denote it - the symbol g. The numerical value for the acceleration of gravity is most accurately known as 9.8 m/s2. There are slight variations in this numerical value (to the second decimal place) that are dependent primarily upon on altitude. We will occasionally use the approximated value of 10 m/s2 in order to reduce the complexity of the many mathematical tasks that we will perform with this number. By so doing, we will be able to better focus on the conceptual nature of physics without too much of a sacrifice in numerical accuracy. g = 9.8 m/s2, downward Look It Up! Even on the surface of the Earth, there are local variations in the value of the acceleration of gravity (g). These variations are due to latitude, altitude and the local geological structure of the region. Recall from an earlier lesson that acceleration is the rate at which an object changes its velocity. It is the ratio of velocity change to time between any two points in an object's path. To accelerate at 9.8 m/s2 means to change the velocity by 9.8 m/s each second. If the velocity and time for a free-falling object being dropped from a position of rest were tabulated, then one would note the following pattern. Time (s) Velocity (m/s) 0 0 1 - 9.8 2 - 19.6 3 - 29.4 4 - 39.2 5 - 49.0 . Observe that the velocity-time data above reveal that the object's velocity is changing by 9.8 m/s each consecutive second. That is, the free-falling object has an acceleration of approximately 9.8 m/s2. Another way to represent this acceleration of 9.8 m/s2 is to add numbers to our dot diagram that we saw earlier in this lesson. The velocity of the ball is seen to increase as depicted in the diagram at the right. (NOTE: The diagram is not drawn to scale - in two seconds, the object would drop considerably further than the distance from shoulder to toes.) Representing Free Fall by Graphs • Early in Lesson 1 it was mentioned that there are a variety of means of describing the motion of objects. One such means of describing the motion of objects is through the use of graphs - position versus time and velocity vs. time graphs. In this part of Lesson 5, the motion of a free-falling motion will be represented using these two basic types of graphs. Representing Free Fall by Position-Time Graphs A position versus time graph for a free-falling object is shown below. Observe that the line on the graph curves. As learned earlier, a curved line on a position versus time graph signifies an accelerated motion. Since a free-falling object is undergoing an acceleration (g = 9.8 m/s/s), it would be expected that its position-time graph would be curved. A further look at the position-time graph reveals that the object starts with a small velocity (slow) and finishes with a large velocity (fast). Since the slope of any position vs. time graph is the velocity of the object (as learned in Lesson 3), the small initial slope indicates a small initial velocity and the large final slope indicates a large final velocity. Finally, the negative slope of the line indicates a negative (i.e., downward) velocity. Representing Free Fall by Velocity-Time Graphs A velocity versus time graph for a free-falling object is shown below. Observe that the line on the graph is a straight, diagonal line. As learned earlier, a diagonal line on a velocity versus time graph signifies an accelerated motion. Since a free-falling object is undergoing an acceleration (g = 9,8 m/s/s, downward), it would be expected that its velocity-time graph would be diagonal. A further look at the velocity-time graph reveals that the object starts with a zero velocity (as read from the graph) and finishes with a large, negative velocity; that is, the object is moving in the negative direction and speeding up. An object that is moving in the negative direction and speeding up is said to have a negative acceleration (if necessary, review the vector nature of acceleration). Since the slope of any velocity versus time graph is the acceleration of the object (as learned in Lesson 4), the constant, negative slope indicates a constant, negative acceleration. This analysis of the slope on the graph is consistent with the motion of a free-falling object - an object moving with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s/s in the downward direction. The Kinematic Equations The goal of this first unit has been to investigate the variety of means by which the motion of objects can be described. The variety of representations that we have investigated includes verbal representations, pictorial representations, numerical representations, and graphical representations (position-time graphs and velocity-time graphs). In Lesson 6, we will investigate the use of equations to describe and represent the motion of objects. These equations are known as kinematic equations. There are a variety of quantities associated with the motion of objects - displacement (and distance), velocity (and speed), acceleration, and time. Knowledge of each of these quantities provides descriptive information about an object's motion. For example, if a car is known to move with a constant velocity of 22.0 m/s, North for 12.0 seconds for a northward displacement of 264 meters, then the motion of the car is fully described. And if a second car is known to accelerate from a rest position with an eastward acceleration of 3.0 m/s2 for a time of 8.0 seconds, providing a final velocity of 24 m/s, East and an eastward displacement of 96 meters, then the motion of this car is fully described. These two statements provide a complete description of the motion of an object. However, such completeness is not always known. It is often the case that only a few parameters of an object's motion are known, while the rest are unknown. For example as you approach the stoplight, you might know that your car has a velocity of 22 m/s, East and is capable of a skidding acceleration of 8.0 m/s2, West. However you do not know the displacement that your car would experience if you were to slam on your brakes and skid to a stop; and you do not know the time required to skid to a stop. In such an instance as this, the unknown parameters can be determined using physics principles and mathematical equations (the kinematic equations). The BIG 4 The kinematic equations are a set of four equations that can be utilized to predict unknown information about an object's motion if other information is known. The equations can be utilized for any motion that can be described as being either a constant velocity motion (an acceleration of 0 m/s/s) or a constant acceleration motion. They can never be used over any time period during which the acceleration is changing. Each of the kinematic equations include four variables. If the values of three of the four variables are known, then the value of the fourth variable can be calculated. In this manner, the kinematic equations provide a useful means of predicting information about an object's motion if other information is known. For example, if the acceleration value and the initial and final velocity values of a skidding car is known, then the displacement of the car and the time can be predicted using the kinematic equations. Lesson 6 of this unit will focus upon the use of the kinematic equations to predict the numerical values of unknown quantities for an object's motion. The four kinematic equations that describe an object's motion are: There are a variety of symbols used in the above equations. Each symbol has its own specific meaning. The symbol d stands for the displacement of the object. The symbol t stands for the time for which the object moved. The symbol a stands for the acceleration of the object. And the symbol v stands for the velocity of the object; a subscript of i after the v (as in vi) indicates that the velocity value is the initial velocity value and a subscript of f (as in vf) indicates that the velocity value is the final velocity value. Each of these four equations appropriately describes the mathematical relationship between the parameters of an object's motion. As such, they can be used to predict unknown information about an object's motion if other information is known. In the next part of Lesson 6 we will investigate the process of doing this. Kinematic Equations and Problem-Solving The four kinematic equations that describe the mathematical relationship between the parameters that describe an object's motion were introduced in the previous part of Lesson 6. The four kinematic equations are: In the above equations, the symbol d stands for the displacement of the object. The symbol t stands for the time for which the object moved. The symbol a stand for the acceleration of the object. And the symbol v stands for the instantaneous velocity of the object; a subscript of i after the v (as in vi) indicates that the velocity value is the initial velocity value and a subscript of f (as in vf) indicates that the velocity value is the final velocity value. Problem-Solving Strategy In this part of Lesson 6 we will investigate the process of using the equations to determine unknown information about an object's motion. The process involves the use of a problem-solving strategy that will be used throughout the course. The strategy involves the following steps: 1. Construct an informative diagram of the physical situation. 2. Identify and list the given information in variable form. 3. Identify and list the unknown information in variable form. 4. Identify and list the equation that will be used to determine unknown information from known information. 5. Substitute known values into the equation and use appropriate algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. 6. Check your answer to ensure that it is reasonable and mathematically correct. The use of this problem-solving strategy in the solution of the following problem is modeled in Examples A and B below. Example Problem A . Ima Hurryin is approaching a stoplight moving with a velocity of +30.0 m/s. The light turns yellow, and Ima applies the brakes and skids to a stop. If Ima's acceleration is -8.00 m/s2, then determine the displacement of the car during the skidding process. (Note that the direction of the velocity and the acceleration vectors are denoted by a + and a - sign.) The solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. Note that the vf value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since Ima's car comes to a stop. The initial velocity (vi) of the car is +30.0 m/s since this is the velocity at the beginning of the motion (the skidding motion). And the acceleration (a) of the car is given as - 8.00 m/s2. (Always pay careful attention to the + and - signs for the given quantities.) The next step of the strategy involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the displacement of the car. So d is the unknown quantity. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = +30.0 m/s vf = 0 m/s a = - 8.00 m/s2 d = ?? The next step of the strategy involves identifying a kinematic equation that would allow you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. In general, you will always choose the equation that contains the three known and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are vf, vi, a, and d. Thus, you will look for an equation that has these four variables listed in it. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top right contains all four variables. vf2 = vi2 + 2 • a • d Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step of the strategy involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. (0 m/s)2 = (30.0 m/s)2 + 2 • (-8.00 m/s2) • d 0 m2/s2 = 900 m2/s2 + (-16.0 m/s2) • d (16.0 m/s2) • d = 900 m2/s2 - 0 m2/s2 (16.0 m/s2)*d = 900 m2/s2 d = (900 m2/s2)/ (16.0 m/s2) d = (900 m2/s2)/ (16.0 m/s2) d = 56.3 m The solution above reveals that the car will skid a distance of 56.3 meters. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. It takes a car a considerable distance to skid from 30.0 m/s (approximately 65 mi/hr) to a stop. The calculated distance is approximately one-half a football field, making this a very reasonable skidding distance. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for displacement and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed it is! Example Problem B Ben Rushin is waiting at a stoplight. When it finally turns green, Ben accelerated from rest at a rate of a 6.00 m/s2 for a time of 4.10 seconds. Determine the displacement of Ben's car during this time period. Once more, the solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step of the strategy involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. Note that the vi value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since Ben's car is initially at rest. The acceleration (a) of the car is 6.00 m/s2. And the time (t) is given as 4.10 s. The next step of the strategy involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the displacement of the car. So d is the unknown information. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = 0 m/s t = 4.10 s a = 6.00 m/s2 d = ?? The next step of the strategy involves identifying a kinematic equation that would allow you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. Again, you will always search for an equation that contains the three known variables and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are t, vi, a, and d. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top left contains all four variables. d = vi • t + ½ • a • t2 Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step of the strategy involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. d = (0 m/s) • (4.1 s) + ½ • (6.00 m/s2) • (4.10 s)2 d = (0 m) + ½ • (6.00 m/s2) • (16.81 s2) d = 0 m + 50.43 m d = 50.4 m The solution above reveals that the car will travel a distance of 50.4 meters. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. A car with an acceleration of 6.00 m/s/s will reach a speed of approximately 24 m/s (approximately 50 mi/hr) in 4.10 s. The distance over which such a car would be displaced during this time period would be approximately one-half a football field, making this a very reasonable distance. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for displacement and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed, it is! The two example problems above illustrate how the kinematic equations can be combined with a simple problem-solving strategy to predict unknown motion parameters for a moving object. Provided that three motion parameters are known, any of the remaining values can be determined. In the next part of Lesson 6, we will see how this strategy can be applied to free fall situations. Or if interested, you can try some practice problems and check your answer against the given solutions. Kinematic Equations and Free Fall As mentioned in Lesson 5, a free-falling object is an object that is falling under the sole influence of gravity. That is to say that any object that is moving and being acted upon only be the force of gravity is said to be "in a state of free fall." Such an object will experience a downward acceleration of 9.8 m/s/s. Whether the object is falling downward or rising upward towards its peak, if it is under the sole influence of gravity, then its acceleration value is 9.8 m/s/s. Like any moving object, the motion of an object in free fall can be described by four kinematic equations. The kinematic equations that describe any object's motion are: The symbols in the above equation have a specific meaning: the symbol d stands for the displacement; the symbol t stands for the time; the symbol a stands for the acceleration of the object; the symbol vi stands for the initial velocity value; and the symbol vf stands for the final velocity. Applying Free Fall Concepts to Problem-Solving There are a few conceptual characteristics of free fall motion that will be of value when using the equations to analyze free fall motion. These concepts are described as follows: • An object in free fall experiences an acceleration of -9.8 m/s/s. (The - sign indicates a downward acceleration.) Whether explicitly stated or not, the value of the acceleration in the kinematic equations is -9.8 m/s/s for any freely falling object. • If an object is merely dropped (as opposed to being thrown) from an elevated height, then the initial velocity of the object is 0 m/s. • If an object is projected upwards in a perfectly vertical direction, then it will slow down as it rises upward. The instant at which it reaches the peak of its trajectory, its velocity is 0 m/s. This value can be used as one of the motion parameters in the kinematic equations; for example, the final velocity (vf) after traveling to the peak would be assigned a value of 0 m/s. • If an object is projected upwards in a perfectly vertical direction, then the velocity at which it is projected is equal in magnitude and opposite in sign to the velocity that it has when it returns to the same height. That is, a ball projected vertically with an upward velocity of +30 m/s will have a downward velocity of -30 m/s when it returns to the same height. These four principles and the four kinematic equations can be combined to solve problems involving the motion of free-falling objects. The two examples below illustrate application of free fall principles to kinematic problem-solving. In each example, the problem solving strategy that was introduced earlier in this lesson will be utilized. Example Problem A Luke Autbeloe drops a pile of roof shingles from the top of a roof located 8.52 meters above the ground. Determine the time required for the shingles to reach the ground. The solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. You might note that in the statement of the problem, there is only one piece of numerical information explicitly stated: 8.52 meters. The displacement (d) of the shingles is -8.52 m. (The - sign indicates that the displacement is downward). The remaining information must be extracted from the problem statement based upon your understanding of the above principles. For example, the vi value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since the shingles are dropped (released from rest; see note above). And the acceleration (a) of the shingles can be inferred to be -9.8 m/s2 since the shingles are free-falling (see note above). (Always pay careful attention to the + and - signs for the given quantities.) The next step of the solution involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the time of fall. So t is the unknown quantity. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = 0.0 m/s d = -8.52 m a = - 9.8 m/s2 t = ?? The next step involves identifying a kinematic equation that allows you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. In general, you will always choose the equation that contains the three known and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are d, vi, a, and t. Thus, you will look for an equation that has these four variables listed in it. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top left contains all four variables. d = vi • t + ½ • a • t2 Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. -8.52 m = (0 m/s) • (t) + ½ • (-9.8 m/s2) • (t)2 -8.52 m = (0 m) *(t) + (-4.9 m/s2) • (t)2 -8.52 m = (-4.9 m/s2) • (t)2 (-8.52 m)/(-4.9 m/s2) = t2 1.739 s2 = t2 t = 1.32 s The solution above reveals that the shingles will fall for a time of 1.32 seconds before hitting the ground. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. The shingles are falling a distance of approximately 10 yards (1 meter is pretty close to 1 yard); it seems that an answer between 1 and 2 seconds would be highly reasonable. The calculated time easily falls within this range of reasonability. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for time and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed it is! Example Problem B Rex Things throws his mother's crystal vase vertically upwards with an initial velocity of 26.2 m/s. Determine the height to which the vase will rise above its initial height. Once more, the solution to this problem begins by the construction of an informative diagram of the physical situation. This is shown below. The second step involves the identification and listing of known information in variable form. You might note that in the statement of the problem, there is only one piece of numerical information explicitly stated: 26.2 m/s. The initial velocity (vi) of the vase is +26.2 m/s. (The + sign indicates that the initial velocity is an upwards velocity). The remaining information must be extracted from the problem statement based upon your understanding of the above principles. Note that the vf value can be inferred to be 0 m/s since the final state of the vase is the peak of its trajectory (see note above). The acceleration (a) of the vase is -9.8 m/s2 (see note above). The next step involves the listing of the unknown (or desired) information in variable form. In this case, the problem requests information about the displacement of the vase (the height to which it rises above its starting height). So d is the unknown information. The results of the first three steps are shown in the table below. Diagram: Given: Find: vi = 26.2 m/s vf = 0 m/s a = -9.8 m/s2 d = ?? The next step involves identifying a kinematic equation that would allow you to determine the unknown quantity. There are four kinematic equations to choose from. Again, you will always search for an equation that contains the three known variables and the one unknown variable. In this specific case, the three known variables and the one unknown variable are vi, vf, a, and d. An inspection of the four equations above reveals that the equation on the top right contains all four variables. vf2 = vi2 + 2 • a • d Once the equation is identified and written down, the next step involves substituting known values into the equation and using proper algebraic steps to solve for the unknown information. This step is shown below. (0 m/s)2 = (26.2 m/s)2 + 2 •(-9.8m/s2) •d 0 m2/s2 = 686.44 m2/s2 + (-19.6 m/s2) •d (-19.6 m/s2) • d = 0 m2/s2 -686.44 m2/s2 (-19.6 m/s2) • d = -686.44 m2/s2 d = (-686.44 m2/s2)/ (-19.6 m/s2) d = 35.0 m The solution above reveals that the vase will travel upwards for a displacement of 35.0 meters before reaching its peak. (Note that this value is rounded to the third digit.) The last step of the problem-solving strategy involves checking the answer to assure that it is both reasonable and accurate. The value seems reasonable enough. The vase is thrown with a speed of approximately 50 mi/hr (merely approximate 1 m/s to be equivalent to 2 mi/hr). Such a throw will never make it further than one football field in height (approximately 100 m), yet will surely make it past the 10-yard line (approximately 10 meters). The calculated answer certainly falls within this range of reasonability. Checking for accuracy involves substituting the calculated value back into the equation for displacement and insuring that the left side of the equation is equal to the right side of the equation. Indeed, it is! Kinematic equations provide a useful means of determining the value of an unknown motion parameter if three motion parameters are known. In the case of a free-fall motion, the acceleration is often known. And in many cases, another motion parameter can be inferred through a solid knowledge of some basic kinematic principles.