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Standard 8.5 E Multiple Explanations Review
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Owls, such as the young snowy owls on the previous page, have for centuries been symbols of both wisdom and mystery. To many cultures their piercing eyes have conveyed a look of intelligence. Their silent flight through darkened landscapes in search of prey has projected an air of power or wonder. For this chapter and this book, owls are an engaging example of a living organism from the world of biology—the study of life. BIOLOGY AND YOU Living in a small town, in the country, or at the edge of the suburbs, one may be lucky enough to hear an owl's hooting. This experience can lead to questions about where the bird lives, what it hunts, and how it finds its prey on dark, moonless nights. Biology, or the study of life, offers an organized and scientific framework for posing and answering such questions about the natural world. Biologists study questions about how living things work, how they interact with the environment, and how they change over time. Biologists study many different kinds of living things ranging from tiny organisms, such as bacteria, to very large organisms, such as elephants. Each day, biologists investigate subjects that affect you and the way you live. For example, biologists determine which foods are healthy. As shown in Figure 1-1, everyone is affected by this impor- tant topic. Biologists also study how much a person should exer- cise and how one can avoid getting sick. Biologists also study what CHARACTERISTICS OF LIFE The world is filled with familiar objects, such as tables, rocks, plants, pets, and automobiles. Which of these objects are living or were once living? What are the criteria for assigning something to the living world or the nonliving world? Biologists have established that living things share seven characteristics of life. These characteristics are organization and the presence of one or more cells, response to a stimulus (plural, stimuli), homeostasis, metabolism, growth and development, reproduction, and change through time. Organization and Cells Organization is the high degree of order within an organism’s internal and external parts and in its interactions with the living world. For example, compare an owl to a rock. The rock has a spe- cific shape, but that shape is usually irregular. Furthermore, differ- ent rocks, even rocks of the same type, are likely to have different shapes and sizes. In contrast, the owl is an amazingly organized individual, as shown in Figure 1-2. Owls of the same species have the same body parts arranged in nearly the same way and interact with the environment in the same way. Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. ORGANISM (Barn Owl) ORGAN (Owl’s Ear) TISSUE (Nervous Tissue Within the Ear) CELL (Nerve Cell) your air, land, and fAll living organisms, whether made up of one cell or many cells, have some degree of organization. A cell is the smallest unit that can perform all life’s processes. Some organisms, such as bacteria, are made up of one cell and are called unicellular (YOON-uh-SEL-yoo-luhr) organisms. Other organisms, such as humans or trees, are made up of multiple cells and are called multicellular (MUHL-ti-SEL-yoo-luhr) organisms. Complex multicellular organisms have the level of orga- nization shown in Figure 1-2. In the highest level, the organism is made up of organ systems, or groups of specialized parts that carry out a certain function in the organism. For example, an owl’s ner- vous system is made up of a brain, sense organs, nerve cells, and other parts that sense and respond to the owl’s surroundings. Organ systems are made up of organs. Organs are structures that carry out specialized jobs within an organ system. An owl’s ear is an organ that allows the owl to hear. All organs are made up of tissues. Tissues are groups of cells that have similar abilities and that allow the organ to function. For example, nervous tissue in the ear allows the ear to detect sound. Tissues are made up of cells. A cell must be covered by a membrane, contain all genetic information necessary for replication, and be able to carry out all cell functions. Within each cell are organelles. Organelles are tiny structures that carry out functions necessary for the cell to stay alive. Organelles contain biological molecules, the chemical compounds that provide physical structure and that bring about movement, energy use, and other cellular functions. All biological molecules are made up of atoms. Atoms are the simplest particle of an ele- ment that retains all the properties of a certain element. Response to Stimuli Another characteristic of life is that an organism can respond to a stimulus—a physical or chemical change in the internal or external environment. For example, an owl dilates its pupils to keep the level of light entering the eye constant. Organisms must be able to respond and react to changes in their environment to stay alive. ORGANELLE (Mitochondrion) BIOLOGICAL MOLECULE (Phospholipid) ATOM (Oxygen) cell from the Latin, cella meaning “small room,” or “hut” Word Roots and Origins www.scilinks.org Topic: Characteristics of Life Keyword: HM60257 mb06se_bios01.qxd 5/18/07 10:37 AM Page 7 8 CHAPTER 1 Homeostasis All living things, from single cells to entire organisms, have mecha- nisms that allow them to maintain stable internal conditions. Without these mechanisms, organisms can die. For example, a cell’s water content is closely controlled by the taking in or releas- ing of water. A cell that takes in too much water will rupture and die. A cell that doesn’t get enough water will also shrivel and die. Homeostasis (HOH-mee-OH-STAY-sis) is the maintenance of a stable level of internal conditions even though environmental conditions are constantly changing. Organisms have regulatory systems that maintain internal conditions, such as temperature, water content, and uptake of nutrients by the cell. In fact, multi- cellular organisms usually have more than one way of maintain- ing important aspects of their internal environment. For example, an owl’s temperature is maintained at about 40°C (104°F). To keep a constant temperature, an owl’s cells burn fuel to produce body heat. In addition, an owl’s feathers can fluff up in cold weather. In this way, they trap an insulating layer of air next to the bird’s body to maintain its body temperature. Metabolism Living organisms use energy to power all the life processes, such as repair, movement, and growth. This energy use depends on metabolism (muh-TAB-uh-LIZ-uhm). Metabolism is the sum of all the chemical reactions that take in and transform energy and materials from the environment. For example, plants, algae, and some bacteria use the sun’s energy to generate sugar molecules during a process called photosynthesis. Some organisms depend on obtaining food energy from other organisms. For instance, an owl’s metabolism allows the owl to extract and modify the chemi- cals trapped in its nightly prey and use them as energy to fuel activities and growth. Growth and Development All living things grow and increase in size. Some nonliving things, such as crystals or icicles, grow by accumulating more of the same material of which they are made. In contrast, the growth of living things results from the division and enlargement of cells. Cell division is the formation of two new cells from an existing cell, as shown in Figure 1-3. In unicellular organisms, the primary change that occurs following cell division is cell enlargement. In multi- cellular life, however, organisms mature through cell division, cell enlargement, and development. Development is the process by which an organism becomes a mature adult. Development involves cell division and cell differen- tiation, or specialization. As a result of development, an adult organism is composed of many cells specialized for different func- tions, such as carrying oxygen in the blood or hearing. In fact, the human body is composed of trillions of specialized cells, all of which originated from a single cell, the fertilized egg. This unicellular organism, Escherichia coli, inhabits the human intestines. E. coli reproduces by means of cell division, during which the original cell splits into two identical offspring cells. FIGURE 1-3 Observing Homeostasis Materials 500 mL beakers (3), wax pen, tap water, thermometer, ice, hot water, goldfish, small dip net, watch or clock with a second hand Procedure 1. Use a wax pen to label three 500 mL beakers as follows: 27°C (80°F), 20°C (68°F), 10°C (50°F). Put 250 mL of tap water in each beaker. Use hot water or ice to adjust the tem- perature of the water in each beaker to match the temperature on the label. 2. Put the goldfish in the beaker of 27°C water. Record the number of times the gills move in 1 minute. 3. Move the goldfish to the beaker of 20°C water. Repeat observations. Move the goldfish to the beaker of 10°C. Repeat observations. Analysis What happens to the rate at which gills move when the temp- erature changes? Why? How do gills help fish maintain homeostasis? Quick Lab mb06se_bios01.qxd 5/18/07 10:37 AM Page 8 THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 9 Reproduction All organisms produce new organisms like themselves in a process called reproduction. Reproduction, unlike other characteristics, is not essential to the survival of an individual organism. However, because no organism lives forever, reproduction is essential for the continuation of a species. Glass frogs, as shown in Figure 1-4, lay many eggs in their lifetime. However, only a few of the frogs’ off- spring reach adulthood and successfully reproduce. During reproduction, organisms transmit hereditary informa- tion to their offspring. Hereditary information is encoded in a large molecule called deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA. A short segment of DNA that contains the instructions for a single trait of an organism is called a gene. DNA is like a large library. It contains all the books—genes—that the cell will ever need for making all the struc- tures and chemicals necessary for life. Hereditary information is transferred to offspring during two kinds of reproduction. In sexual reproduction, hereditary information recombines from two organisms of the same species. The resulting offspring are similar but not identical to their parents. For example, a male frog’s sperm can fertilize a female’s egg and form a single fer- tilized egg cell. The fertilized egg then develops into a new frog. In asexual reproduction, hereditary information from different organisms is not combined; thus the original organism and the new organism are genetically the same. A bacterium, for example, reproduces asexually when it splits into two identical cells. Change Through Time Although individual organisms experience many changes during their lifetime, their basic genetic characteristics do not change. However, populations of living organisms evolve or change through time. The ability of populations of organisms to change over time is important for survival in a changing world. This factor is also impor- tant in explaining the diversity of life-forms we see on Earth today. 1. How does biology affect a person’s daily life? 2. How does biology affect society? 3. Name the characteristics shared by living things. 4. Summarize the hierarchy of organization found in complex multicellular organisms. 5. What are the different functions of homeostasis and metabolism in living organisms? 6. How does the growth among living and nonliv- ing things differ? 7. Why is reproduction an important characteristic of life? CRITICAL THINKING 8. Applying Information Crystals of salt grow and are highly organized. Why don’t biologists con- sider them to be alive? 9. Analyzing Models When a scientist designs a space probe to detect life on a distant planet, what kinds of things should it measure? 10. Making Comparisons Both cells and organisms share the characteristics of life. How are cells and organismsood supply will be like in the near future.EVOLUTION OF LIFE Individual organisms change during their lifetime, but their basic genetic characteristics do not change. However, populations of liv- ing organisms do change through time, or evolve. Evolution, or descent with modification, is the process in which the inherited characteristics within populations change over generations, such that genetically distinct populations and new species can develop. Evolution as a theme in biology helps us understand how the various branches of the “tree of life” came into existence and have changed over time. It also explains how organisms alive today are related to those that lived in the past. Finally, it helps us understand the mechanisms that underlie the way organisms look and behave. Natural Selection The ability of populations of organisms to change over time is important for survival in a changing world. According to the theory of evolution by natural selection, organisms that have certain favorable traits are better able to survive and reproduce success- fully than organisms that lack these traits. One product of natural selection is the adaptation of organisms to their environment. Adaptations are traits that improve an indi- vidual’s ability to survive and reproduce. For example, rabbits with white fur and short ears in a snowy place, such as the one in Figure 1-7a, may avoid predators and frostbitten ears more often than those with dark fur and long ears. Thus, the next generation of rabbits will have a greater percentage of animals carrying the genes for white fur and short ears. In contrast, the brown, long- eared rabbit, as shown in Figure 1-7b, would survive and reproduce more successfully in a hot desert environment. The survival and reproductive success of organisms with favor- able traits cause a change in populations of organisms over gener- ations. This descent with modification is an important factor in explaining the diversity of organisms we see on Earth today. 1. Name three unifying themes found in biology. 2. How is the unity and diversity in the living world represented? 3. Identify the three domains and the kingdoms found in each domain. 4. How are organisms interdependent? 5. Describe why evolution is important in explain- ing the diversity of life. 6. Distinguish between evolution and natural selection. CRITICAL THINKING 7. Applying Information Assign the various top- pings you put on pizza to the appropriate domains and kingdoms of life. 8. Analyzing Graphics According to the “tree” in Figure 1-5, which of these pairs are more closely related: Archaea:Bacteria or Archaea:Eukarya? 9. Making Hypotheses Fossil evidence shows that bats descended from shrewlike organisms that could not fly. Write a hypothesis for how natural selection might have led to flying bats. SECTION 2 REVIEW (a) This short-eared arctic hare, Lepus arcticus, is hidden from predators and protected from frostbite in a snowy environment. (b) The mottled brown coats of desert rabbits blend in with the dirt and dry grasses, and their long ears help them radiate excess heat and thus avoid overheating. FIGURE 1-7 (a) (b) Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 13 TH E STUDY OF BIOLOGY Curiosity leads us to ask questions about life. Science provides a way of answering such questions about the natural world. Science is a systematic method that involves forming and testing hypotheses. More importantly, science relies on evidence, not beliefs, for drawing conclusions. SCIENCE AS A PROCESS Science is characterized by an organized approach, called the scientific method, to learn how the natural world works. The methods of science are based on two important principles. The first principle is that events in the natural world have natural causes. For example, the ancient Greeks believed that lightning and thunder occurred because a supernatural god Zeus hurled thunderbolts from the heavens. By contrast, a scientist considers lightning and thunder to result from electric charges in the atmos- phere. When trying to solve a puzzle from nature, all scientists, such as the one in Figure 1-8, accept that there is a natural cause to solve that puzzle. A second principle of science is uniformity. Uniformity is the idea that the fundamental laws of nature operate the same way at all places and at all times. For example, scientists assume that the law of gravity works the same way on Mars as it does on Earth. Steps of the Scientific Method Although there is no single method for doing science, scientific studies involve a series of common steps. 1. The process of science begins with an observation. An observation is the act of perceiving a natural occurrence that causes someone to pose a question. 2. One tries to answer the question by forming hypotheses (singular, hypothesis). A hypothesis is a proposed explanation for the way a particular aspect of the natural world functions. 3. A prediction is a statement that forecasts what would happen in a test situation if the hypothesis were true. A prediction is recorded for each hypothesis. 4. An experiment is used to test a hypothesis and its predictions. 5. Once the experiment has been concluded, the data are analyzed and used to draw conclusions. 6. After the data have been analyzed, the data and conclusions are communicated to scientific peers and to the public. This way oth- ers can verify, reject, or modify the researcher’s conclusions. SECTION 3 OBJECTIVES ● Outline the main steps in the scientific method. ● Summarize how observations are used to form hypotheses. ● List the elements of a controlled experiment. ● Describe how scientists use data to draw conclusions. ● Compare a scientific hypothesis and a scientific theory. ● State how communication in science helps prevent dishonesty and bias. VOCABULARY scientific method observation hypothesis prediction experiment control group experimental group independent variable dependent variable theory peer review All researchers, such as the one releasing an owl above, use the scientific method to answer the questions they have about nature. FIGURE 1-8 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 14 CHAPTER 1 OBSERVING AND ASKING QUESTIONS The scientific method generally begins with an unexplained observa- tion about nature. For example, people have noticed for thousands of years that owls can catch prey in near total darkness. As shown in steps and of Figure 1-9, an observation may then raise ques- tions. The owl observation raises the question: How does an owl detect prey in the dark? FORMING A HYPOTHESIS After stating a question, a biologist lists possible answers to a sci- entific question—hypotheses. Good hypotheses answer a question and are testable in the natural world. For example, as shown in step Figure 1-9, there are several possible hypotheses for the question of how owls hunt at night: (a) owls hunt by keen vision in the dark; (b) owls hunt by superb hearing; or (c) owls hunt by detecting the prey’s body heat. Predicting To test a hypothesis, scientists make a prediction that logically fol- lows from the hypothesis. A prediction is what is expected to hap- pen if each hypothesis were true. For example, if hypothesis (a) is true, (owls hunt by keen night vision) then one can predict that the owl will pounce only on the mouse in either a light or a dark room. If hypothesis (b) is true (owls hunt by hearing), then one can pre- dict that in a lighted room, the owl will pounce closer to the mouse’s head. But, in a dark room, the owl should pounce closer to a rustling leaf attached to the mouse. Finally, if hypothesis (c) is true (owls hunt by sensing body heat), then an owl would strike only the prey no matter the room conditions, because owls hunt by detecting the prey’s body heat. 3 1 2 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. A scientific study includes observations, questions, hypotheses, predictions, experiments, data analysis, and conclu- sions. A biologist can use the scientific method to set up an experiment to learn how an owl captures prey at night. FIGURE 1-9 1 OBSERVATION Owls capture prey on dark nights. 2 QUESTION How do owls detect prey on dark nights? 3 HYPOTHESES a) Owls hunt in the dark by vision. b) Owls hunt in the dark by hearing. c) Owls hunt in the dark by sensing body heat. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 15 Notice that these predictions make it difficult to distinguish be- tween the vision and body heat hypotheses. The reason is that both hypotheses predict that the owl could grab the mouse in a dark room. Also, these three hypotheses do not eliminate all other factors that could influence how the owl finds its prey. However, testing predictions can allow one to begin rejecting hypotheses and thus to get closer to determining the answer(s) to a question. DESIGNING AN EXPERIMENT Biologists often test hypotheses by setting up an experiment. Step in Figure 1-9 outlines an experiment to test the hypotheses about how an owl hunts at night. First, experimenters set up a room with an owl perch high on one side and a small trap door on the other side for releasing mice. Then, they tied a leaf to each mouse’s tail with a string and released each mouse into the room. Next, each mouse ran silently across the room, but the leaf trailed behind, making a rustling noise. During half of the trials, the lights were on. During the other half, the room was dark. Technicians videotaped all the action in the chamber with an infrared light, which owls cannot see. The researchers then viewed the videos and measured the position of the owl’s strike relative to each mouse’s head. Performing the Experiment Many scientists use a controlled experiment to test their hypotheses. A controlled experiment compares an experimental group and a control group and only has one variable. The control group pro- vides a normal standard against which the biologist can compare results of the experimental group. The experimental group is iden- tical to the control group except for one factor, the independent variable. The experimenter manipulates the independent variable, sometimes called the manipulated variable. 4 4 EXPERIMENT 5 DATA COLLECTION AND ANALYSIS Measure and compare the distance from the owl’s strike to the mouse and to the leaf in light and dark. 6 CONCLUSION Data supported the hearing hypothesis: Owls hunt in the dark by hearing. prey Test predictions of the three hypotheses. Control: In the light Experimental: In the dark 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 Predicting Results Materials 2 Petri dishes with agar, cellophane tape, wax pen Procedure 1. Open one of the Petri dishes, and streak your finger across the surface of the agar. 2. Replace the lid, and seal it with the tape. Label this Petri dish with your name and a number 1. 3. Seal the second Petri dish with- out removing the lid. Label this Petri dish with your name and the number 2. 4. Write a prediction about what will happen in each dish. Store your dishes as your teacher directs. Record your observations. Follow your teacher’s directions for disposal of your dishes. Analysis Was your prediction accurate? What evidence can you cite to support your prediction? If you did not obtain the results you predicted, would you change your testing method or your prediction? Explain. Evaluate the importance of obtaining a result that does not support your prediction. Quick Lab mb06se_bios03.qxd 5/18/07 10:40 AM Page 15 16 CHAPTER 1 The independent variable in the owl experiment is the presence or absence of light. In the owl experiment, the control group hunts in the light, and the experimental group hunts in the dark. In addi- tion to varying the independent variable, a scientist observes or measures another factor called the dependent variable, or respond- ing variable, because it is affected by the independent variable. In the owl experiment, the dependent variable is distance from the owl’s strike to the mouse’s head. Testing the Experiment Some controlled experiments are conducted “blind.” In other words, the biologist who scores the results is unaware of whether a given subject is part of the experimental or control group. This factor helps eliminate experimenter bias. Experiments should also be repeated, because living systems are variable. Moreover, scien- tists must collect enough data to find meaningful results. COLLECTING AND ANALYZING DATA Most experiments measure a variable—the dependent variable. This measurement provides quantitative data, data measured in numbers. For example, in the experiment above, scientists mea- sured the distance of an owl’s strike from the prey’s head in cen- timeters, as shown in step of Figure 1-9. An event’s duration in milliseconds is also an example of quantitative data. Biologists usually score the results of an experiment by using one of their senses. They might see or hear the results of an experiment. Scientists also extend their senses with a micro- scope for tiny objects or a microphone for soft sounds. In the owl experiment, biologists extended their vision with infrared cameras. Analyzing and Comparing Data After collecting data from a field study or an experiment and then organizing it, biologists then analyze the data. In analyzing data, the goal is to determine whether the data are reliable, and whether they support or fail to support the predictions of the hypothesis. To do so, scientists may use statistics to help determine relation- ships between the variables involved. They can then compare their data with other data that were obtained in other similar studies. It is also important at this time to determine possible sources of error in the experiment just per- formed. Scientists usually display their data in tables or graphs when analyzing it. For the owl study, biologists could have made a bar graph such as the one in Figure 1-10, which shows the average distance from the owl’s strike relative to the mouse’s head or the leaf in the light and in the dark. 5 5 0 10 15 20 25 In the light In the dark Average distance from strike (cm) Distance Between Owl Strike and a Mouse or From a Leaf Attached to Mouse 30 Mouse Leaf Mouse Leaf The data below are hypothetical results that might occur from the described owl experiment.The independent variable is the darkness of the room, and the dependent variable is how far the owl struck from the mouse’s head.The data show that the owl strikes more accurately at the mouse in the light but strikes more accurately at the leaf in the dark. FIGURE 1-10 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 17 DRAWING CONCLUSIONS Biologists analyze their tables, graphs, and charts to draw conclu- sions about whether or not a hypothesis is supported, as shown in step of Figure 1-9. The hypothetical owl data show that in the light, owls struck with greater accuracy at the mouse than at the leaf, but in the dark, owls struck with greater accuracy at the leaf than the mouse. Thus, the findings support the hearing hypothe- sis, but not the vision hypothesis. An experiment can only disprove, not prove, a hypothesis. For example, one cannot conclude from the results that the hearing hypothesis is proven to be true. Perhaps the owl uses an unknown smell to strike at the mouse. One can only reject the vision hypothe- sis because it did not predict the results of the experiment correctly. Acceptance of a hypothesis is always tentative in science. The scientific community revises its understanding of phenomena, based on new data. Having ruled out one hypothesis, a biologist will devise more tests to try to rule out any remaining hypotheses. Making Inferences Scientists often draw inferences from data gathered during a field study or experiment. An inference (IN-fuhr-uhns) is a conclusion made on the basis of facts and previous knowledge rather than on direct observations. Unlike a hypothesis, an inference is not directly testable. In the owl study, it is inferred that the owl detects prey from a distance rather than by direct touch. Applying Results and Building Models As shown in Figure 1-11, scientists often apply their findings to solve practical problems. They also build models to represent or describe things. For example in 1953, James Watson and Francis Crick used cardboard balls and wire bars to build physical models of atoms in an attempt to understand the structure of DNA. Mathematical models are sets of equations that describe how dif- ferent measurable items interact in a system. The experimenter can adjust variables to better model the real-world data. CONSTRUCTING A THEORY When a set of related hypotheses is confirmed to be true many times, and it can explain a great amount of data, scientists often reclassify it as a theory. Some examples include the quantum the- ory, the cell theory, or the theory of evolution. People commonly use the word “theory” in a different way than scientists use the word. People may say “It’s just a theory” suggesting that an idea is untested, but scientists view a theory as a highly tested, generally accepted principle that explains a vast number of observations and experimental data. 6 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. Biologists often apply their knowledge of the natural world to practical problems. Studies on the owl’s keen ability to locate sounds in space despite background noise are helping biotechnologists and bioengineers develop better solutions for people with impaired hearing, such as the people shown in this picture. FIGURE 1-11 18 CHAPTER 1 COMMUNICATING IDEAS An essential aspect of scientific research is scientists working together. Scientists often work together in research teams or sim- ply share research results with other scientists. This is done by publishing findings in scientific journals or presenting them at sci- entific meetings, as shown in Figure 1-12. Sharing information allows others working independently to verify findings or to con- tinue work on established results. For example, Roger Payne pub- lished the results of his owl experiments in a journal in 1971. Then, other biologists could repeat it for verification or use it to study the mechanisms introduced by the paper. With the growing impor- tance of science in solving societal issues, it is becoming increas- ingly vital for scientists to be able to communicate with the public at large. Publishing a Paper Scientists submit research papers to scientific journals for publica- tion. A typical research paper has four sections. First, the Introduction poses the problem and hypotheses to be investigated. Next, the Materials and Methods describe how researchers proceeded with the experiment. Third, the Results state the findings the experiment presented, and finally, the Discussion gives the significance of the experiment and future directions the scientists will take. Job Description Forensic biolo- gists are scientists who study biological materials to investigate potential crimes and other legal issues against humans and animals. Forensic scientists have knowledge in areas of biology, such as DNA and blood pattern analysis, and work in private sector and public laboratories. Focus On a Forensic Biologist As a law enforcement forensic specialist for the Texas Parks and Wildlife Department, Beverly Villarreal assists the game warden in investigations of fish and wildlife violations, such as illegal hunting and fishing. Villarreal analyzes blood and tissue samples to identify species of animals such as fish, birds, and reptiles. Her work helps game wardens as they enforce state laws regarding hunting and fishing. Most people think of forensic scientists as the glamorous crime investigators on TV, but according to Villarreal real forensic scientists “spend a great deal of time at a lab bench running analysis after analysis.” Many of the methods used in animal forensics, such as DNA sequenc- ing, are also used in human forensics. Education and Skills • High school—three years of science courses and four years of math courses. • College—bachelor of science in biol- ogy, including course work in zoology and genetics, plus experience in per- forming DNA analyses. • Skills—patience, attention to detail, and ability to use fine tools. Careers in BIOLOGY Forensic Biologist For more about careers, visit go.hrw.com and type in the keyword HM6 Careers. www.scilinks.org Topic: Scientific Investigations Keyword: HM61358 mb06se_bios03.qxd 5/18/07 10:40 AM Page 18 THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 19 1. What two principles make the scientific method a unique process? 2. Define the roles of observations and hypotheses in science. 3. Summarize the parts of a controlled experiment. 4. Summarize how we make conclusions about the results of an experiment. 5. Why is the phrase, “it’s just a theory” misleading? 6. Give another example of a conflict of interest. CRITICAL THINKING 7. Making Hypotheses On a nocturnal owl’s skull, one ear points up, and the other ear points down. Suggest a hypothesis for this observation. 8. Designing Experiments Design an experiment to establish if owls hunt by keen sight or hunt by heat seeking. 9. Calculating Information What was the average distance between the owl’s strike and the mouse if the recorded differences in this experiment were 25, 22, 19, 19, and 15? SECTION 3 REVIEW After scientists submit their papers to a scientific journal, the editors of that journal will send the paper out for peer review. In a peer review, scientists who are experts in the field anonymously read and critique that research paper. They determine if a paper pro- vides enough information so that the experiment can be duplicated and if the author used good experimental controls and reached an accurate conclusion. They also check if the paper is written clearly enough for broad understanding. Careful analysis of each other’s research by fellow scientists is essential to making scientific progress and preventing scientific dishonesty. HONESTY AND BIAS The scientific community depends on both honesty and good sci- ence. While designing new studies, experimenters must be very careful to prevent previous ideas and biases from tainting both the experimental process and the conclusions. Scientists have to keep in mind that they are always trying to disprove their favorite ideas. Scientists repeat experiments to verify previous findings. This allows for science to have a method for self-correction and it also keeps researchers honest and credible to their peers in the field. Conflict of Interest For most scientists, maintaining a good reputation for collecting and presenting valid data is more important than temporary prestige or income. So, scientists try to avoid any potential conflicts of interest. For example, a scientist who owns a biotechnology company and manufactures a drug would not be the best researcher to critically test that drug’s safety and effectiveness. To avoid this potential con- flict of interest, the scientist allows an unaffected party, such as a research group, to test the drug’s effectiveness. The threat of a potential scandal based on misleading data or conclusions is a pow- erful force in science that helps keep scientists honest and fair. Scientists present their experiments in various forms. The scientists above are presenting their work in the form of a poster at a scientific meeting. FIGURE 1-12 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. The Internet can provide a wealth of scientific information for a report, but the information may not always be credible or accurate. You can use the methods above to check the accuracy and credibility of your sources. SCIENCE TECHNOLOGY SOCIETY SCIENCE ON THE INTERNET: A New Information Age I n the past, students research- ing a science topic would typ- ically begin their research by visiting a library to use printed reference materials, such as encyclopedias. Today, most stu- dents research topics by using a computer and searching for information on the Internet. The Internet can provide students with a wealth of infor- mation. But which Web sites have accurate information, and which Web sites do not? Checking Web Addresses Students should use the Web address, or URL, to establish the Web site’s credibility. Usually, the domain name can suggest who has published the Web site. Web sites can be pub- lished by governmental agen- cies (ends in “dot gov” or .gov), by educational institutions (ends in “dot edu” or .edu), by organizations (ends in “dot org” or .org), or by commercial businesses (ends in “dot com” or .com). Government Web sites are usually reliable. Examples of credible governmental Web sites are the National Institutes of Health (NIH) and the Food and Drug Administration (FDA). University and medical school sites are also reliable sources of information. Many organiza- tions that research and teach the public about specific diseases and conditions can also provide reliable information. Examples of such organizations are the American Cancer Society and the American Heart Association. Evaluating Web Sites The credibility of the author of the Web site should also be checked. Make sure the author is not trying to sell anything and is established in his or her field. For example, a health Web site’s author should be a med- ical professional. It is also important to check the date that the information was posted on the Web to ensure that the information is current. Also, the Web site should provide ref- erences from valid sources, such as scientific journals or govern- ment publications. Finally, the student should always double-check informa- tion between several reliable Web sites. If two or three reliable sites provide the same informa- tion, the student can feel confi- dent in using that information. Web Sites for Students The Internet Connect boxes in this textbook have all been reviewed by professionals at the National Science Teachers Association (NSTA). Students can trust that these sites are reliable sources for science- or health-related topics. REVIEW 1. Which types of Web addresses are the most reliable? 2. List four important features to evaluate when using a Web site for research. 3. Supporting Reasoned Opinions Why do you think a Web site that is advertising a product may not offer accurate information? REVIEW 20 www.scilinks.org Topic: Using the Internet Keyword: HM61589 mb06se_biosts.qxd 5/18/07 10:42 AM Page 20 TOOLS AND TECHNIQUES With proper equipment and good methods, biologists can see, manipulate, and understand the natural world in new ways. Microscopes are one of many useful tools used to unlock nature’s biological secrets. MICROSCOPES AS TOOLS Tools are objects used to improve the performance of a task. Microscopes are tools that extend human vision by making enlarged images of objects. Biologists use microscopes to study organisms, cells, cell parts, and molecules. Microscopes reveal details that otherwise might be difficult or impossible to see. Light Microscopes To see small organisms and cells, biologists typically use a light microscope, such as the one shown in Figure 1-13. A compound light microscope is a microscope that shines light through a spec- imen and has two lenses to magnify an image. To use this micro- scope, one first mounts the specimen to be viewed on a glass slide. The specimen must be thin enough for light to pass through it. For tiny pond organisms, such as the single-celled paramecium, light passing through the organism is not a problem. For thick objects, such as plant stems, biologists must cut thin slices for viewing. There are four major parts of a compound light microscope. For further description of the parts of a micro- scope, see the Appendix. 1. Eyepiece The eyepiece (ocular (AHK-yoo-luhr) lens) magnifies the image, usually 10 times. 2. Objective Lens Light passes through the specimen and then through the objective lens, which is located directly above the specimen. The objective lens enlarges the image of the specimen. Scientists sometimes use stains to make the image easier to see. 3. Stage The stage is a platform that supports a slide holding the specimen. The slide is placed over the opening in the stage of the microscope. 4. Light Source The light source is a light bulb that provides light for viewing the image. It can be either light reflected with a mirror or an incandescent light from a small lamp. SECTION 4 OBJECTIVES ● List the function of each of the major parts of a compound light microscope. ● Compare two kinds of electron microscopes. ● Describe the importance of having the SI system of measurement. ● State some examples of good laboratory practice. VOCABULARY compound light microscope eyepiece (ocular lens) objective lens stage light source magnification nosepiece resolution scanning electron microscope transmission electron microscope metric system base unit Compound light microscopes open the human eye to an interesting world including tiny pond organisms, healthy and diseased cells, and the functioning of cell parts. FIGURE 1-13 Objective lens Eyepiece (ocular lens) Stage Light THE SCIENCE OF LIFE 21 Copyright © by Holt, Rinehart and Winston. All rights reserved. 22 CHAPTER 1 Magnification and Resolution Microscopes vary in powers of magnification and resolution. Magnification is the increase of an object’s apparent size. Revolving the nosepiece, the structure that holds the set of objective lens, rotates these lenses into place above the specimen. In a typical com- pound light microscope, the most powerful objective lens produces an image up to 100 times (100) the specimen’s actual size. The degree of enlargement is called the power of magnification of the lens. The standard ocular lens magnifies a specimen 10 times (10). To compute the power of magnification of a microscope, the power of magnification of the strongest objective lens (in this case, 100) is multiplied by the power of magnification of the ocular lens (10). The result is a total power of magnification of 1000. Resolution (REZ-uh-LOO-shuhn) is the power to show details clearly in an image. The physical properties of light limit the ability of light microscopes to resolve images, as shown in Figure 1-14a. At pow- ers of magnification beyond about 2,000, the image of the speci- men becomes fuzzy. For this reason, scientists use other microscopes to view very small cells Received: 26 November 2019 Revised: 10 January 2020 Accepted: 19 January 2020 DOI: 10.1111/obr.13005 PEDIATRICS/PHYSIOLOGY Adipokines: A gear shift in puberty Desirée Nieuwenhuis | Natàlia Pujol-Gualdo Amanda J. Kiliaan Department of Anatomy, Radboud university medical center, Donders Institute for Brain, Cognition and Behaviour, Preclinical Imaging Center PRIME, Nijmegen, The Netherlands Correspondence Amanda J. Kiliaan, PhD, Associate Professor, Department of Anatomy, Donders Institute for Brain, Cognition, and Behaviour, Preclinical Imaging Center PRIME, Radboud university medical center, 6500 HB Nijmegen, Geert Grooteplein 21N 6525 EZ Nijmegen, The Netherlands. Email: amanda.kiliaan@radboudumc.nl Funding information Europees Fonds voor Regionale Ontwikkeling (EFRO), Grant/Award Number: BriteN 2016 1 | INTRODUCTION The prevalence of obesity in adolescents and children is increasing in | Ilse A.C. Arnoldussen | Summary In this review, we discuss the role of adipokines in the onset of puberty in children with obesity during adrenarche and gonadarche and provide a clear and detailed overview of the biological processes of two major players, leptin and adiponectin. Adipokines, especially leptin and adiponectin, seem to induce an early onset of puberty in girls and boys with obesity by affecting the hypothalamic-pituitary- gonadal (HPG) axis. Moreover, adipokines and their receptors are expressed in the gonads, suggesting a role in sexual maturation and reproduction. All in all, adipokines may be a clue in understanding mechanisms underlying the onset of puberty in child- hood obesity and puberty onset variability. KEYWORDS adipokines, obesity, puberty 1,2 the age of 5 years were overweight or were with obesity in 2016, and 3 Obesity is defined by an excessive accumulation of white adipose tissue (WAT), and it is often indicated by a body mass index (BMI) 4 above 30. Two main types of adipose tissue were described: WAT and brown adipose tissue (BAT), which differ in morphology and func- 5-7 Ilse A.C. Arnoldussen and Amanda J. Kiliaan contributed equally to this work. This is an open access article under the terms of the Creative Commons Attribution License, which permits use, distribution and reproduction in any medium, provided the original work is properly cited. © 2020 The Authors. Obesity Reviews published by John Wiley & Sons Ltd on behalf of World Obesity Federation Obesity Reviews. 2020;21:e13005. wileyonlinelibrary.com/journal/obr 1 of 10 https://doi.org/10.1111/obr.13005 alarming rates. Specifically, worldwide, 41 million children below this number is expected to increase to 70 million in 2025. obesity is associated with various severe health complications, includ- ing increased risk of diabetes mellitus type 2, hypertension, heart dis- eases, and disturbances in sex hormone levels. 5,6 and mitochondria and plays a role in thermogenesis. Adipocytes in tion. BAT consists of adipocytes containing multiple lipid droplets WAT contain only a few mitochondria and a single lipid droplet. Adipose tissue has several functions including the storage of energy, thermogenesis, and the production and secretion of adipokines Generally, two physiological processes, adrenarche and gonadarche, 11,24 Childhood 5,7,8 a key role in puberty onset. Puberty is known as a period through which the body changes physically, being a physiological process resulting in the maturation of children, i.e. they develop sexual characteristics and obtain reproduc- 9,11 Adipokines are involved in a number of physiological processes including blood pressure, metabo- lism, glucose, and vascular homeostasis and may play amongst others 8-10 (hormones, cytokines, and peptides). tive functions. between obesity and puberty,2,12-23 the biological mechanisms under- lying obesity and puberty onset remain unclear. Hereafter, we review in detail the role of adipokines in the onset of puberty in childhood obesity. Although many studies have shown associations 2 | INITIATION OF PUBERTY PHYSIOLOGICAL PROCESSES IN THE interact to regulate the onset of puberty. During adrenarche, the adrenal cortex secretes steroid hormones (including 2 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. androstenedione, dehydroepiandrosterone, dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS), androstenedione, and cortisol), insulin-like growth factor, and growth hormone, which contribute to the pubertal insights on new genetic loci (e.g. melanocortin-4 receptor, mitochon- drial carrier 2, and mitogen-activated protein kinase 13) and on sev- eral pathways that regulate the timing of puberty; however, it partly 34 9,24,25 Both adrenarche and gonadarche are involved in the development growth spurt, body odor, skin oiliness, and skeletal maturation. explains puberty timing variation. Thereby, defining the role of 25 adipokines is of importance in elucidating the variability in puberty as the expression of adipokines is sex-specific and is altered with body composition, adiposity, and during growth spurts. Moreover, adipokines and their receptors are expressed in gonads and several brain regions suggesting involvement in the onset of puberty and sex- ual maturation. Lastly, adipokines interfere in processes regulating timing and duration of puberty, for instance in the HPA and HPG axes which are both key players during adrenarche and gonadarche. Involvement of adipokines in the onset of puberty and specifically in individuals with obesity will be further reviewed in the next 2,24 3 | Puberty onset in girls is assessed using different markers, such as thelarche (breast development), menarche (the start of of pubic hair. pituitary-gonadal (HPG) axis is activated,2,26 and several hormones have been identified to participate in the activation of the HPG axis During gonadarche (Figure 1), the hypothalamic- 2,27 Kisspeptin, neurokinin B, and dynorphin are released by specialized including kisspeptin, neurokinin B, dynorphin, leptin, and ghrelin. 28 key regulator of the pulsatile secretion of gonadotropin releasing neurons, the KNDy neurons in the hypothalamus. Kisspeptin is a 29,30 B stimulates, and dynorphin inhibits the release of kisspeptin, which hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. In addition, neurokinin implies that both coordinate a pulsatile release of kisspeptin. 31 Sub- sections. sequently, the activated HPG axis induces the pituitary gland to secrete luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH). As a result, gametogenesis occurs, and the gonads will release sex hormones. Consequently, secondary sex characteristics develop including breast development in girls and an increased testicular vol- 2,26,32 is possibly due to differences in levels of body fat, hypothalamic-pitui- THE ONSET OF PUBERTY IN GIRLS ume in boys. The age at puberty onset varies greatly among individuals, which 19 35 menstruation), and pubic hair development. 33 genome-wide association studies have provided important new tary-adrenal (HPA) axis activity, and genetic background. Recent The average age of However, this age differs between cultures and ethnicities, and since 1980, age at menarche is girls at start of menarche is 12.4 years. 36 significantly decreasing. 36-39 F I G U R E 1 Hormonal regulation in the initiation of puberty in boys and girls. The secretion of kisspeptin, neurokinin B, and dynorphin from KNDy neurons initiate the release of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. This activates the pituitary gland to produce and secrete luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH), which in turn stimulate the gonads to produce estrogen and testosterone in girls and boys, respectively 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 3 of 10 T A B L E 1 Summary of included studies Authors Year Country Study Design Primary Outcome Sex Sample Size (n) Age (y) Data Collection Lian et al21 2019 China Cross-sectional Puberty starts earlier in Chinese Han girls with obesity compared with Chinese Han girls with normal weight. Girls 2996 9-19 2012 and 2013 Biro et al12 Lazzeri et al20 2018 USA 2018 Italy Longitudinal Cross-sectional Body mass index had a greater effect on age at menarche than did race and ethnicity. Girls 946 6-16 2004-2014 Li et al23 2018 China Longitudinal For both, boys and girls, a higher BMI (ie, overweight and obese) is associated with earlier onset of puberty Girls Girls Boys Girls 542 Deng et al22 Flom et al15 2017 China Cross-sectional Increased BMI is associated with early timing spermarche and menarche. Boys Girls Girls 1278258 9-15 2005-2012 He et al24 Holmgren et al17 2017 China 2017 Sweden Cross-sectional Longitudinal Onset of puberty is not related to obesity in boys. Boys Boys Girls Girls 782 7-17 972 929 5839 Kelly et al19 2017 UK 2016 Brazil 2016 USA Longitudinal prospective cohort Higher BMI in girls is associated with the onset of menstruation at an earlier age. 11 10-18 11-17 Barcellos Gemelli et al25 Cross-sectional Longitudinal Excess weight is associated with early age of menarche. Girls 727 2014 2003-2009 Glass et al16 Lee et al26 In girls, but not in boys, greater adiposity is associated with the earlier onset of puberty. Boys Girls 135 Cabrera et al27 Leonibus et al14 2014 USA 2013 Italy Cross-sectional Longitudinal Thelarche occurred earlier than recently reported, while age of menarche remained unchanged. Girls 610 3-17.9 2007 2005-2012 Currie et al13 2012 Europe, USA, Canada Cross-sectional Overweight/obesity during childhood predicts the early onset of puberty in girls. Girls 20410 11, 13, 15 2005-2006 2017 USA Prospective birth cohort Overweight/obese status at the age of 7 ye was associated with increased risk of early menarche 788 From birth to menarche occurred Pregnancies 1959-1966 2016 USA Cross-sectional Boys with overweight enter puberty earlier compared with boys with normal weight or obesity, while puberty starts later in boys with obesity compared with boys with normal weight and overweight. Boys 3872 6-16 2005-2010 Overweight during childhood shows a relation with the early onset of puberty in girls. 6535 4259 695 11 15 5.8-12.2 2009/2010 2013/2014 2014-2017 Higher BMI during childhood is associated with early puberty. 2008 and 2009 2000-2002 Obesity during childhood is related to the earlier onset of puberty. Boys Girls 84 123 71 (Continues) 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License 4 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 3.1 | Fat storage For the initiation of puberty, the timing of stimulation and/or inhibi- tion of different hormones is important, and additionally, a certain amount and distribution of body fat is needed in order to start menar- che, which emphasizes the importance of body fat. From an evolution- ary point of view, body fat increases in mammalian females during puberty onset, and it highlights the need to guarantee a healthy preg- 40 women with anorexia nervosa. particularly body fat localized predominantly on the gluteofemoral fat depots, is profoundly associated with start of menarche, more than nancy, offspring, and maternal survival. fat, sex-hormones, and neuroendocrine alterations can evolve in men- strual dysfunction, for instance, in women with severe obesity or in 41-43 44-46 to gluteofemoral fat depots suggesting that leptin may convey infor- amount of total body fat. mation on body fat distribution to the hypothalamus during puberty. An improper level of body Importantly, body fat distribution, Blood leptin levels are strongly related 45 3.2 | HPG axis The HPG axis is activated by the release of kisspeptin resulting in the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, and LH and FSH from the pituitary gland. In girls, FSH is involved in the development of the folli- cles in the ovaries, and it promotes the secretion of estrogen. LH stim- ulates the production of androgen hormones and induces ovulation 48 9,47 the release of kisspeptin and neurokinin B, and kisspeptin thereby (Figure 1). The secretion of estrogen has an inhibitory effect on inhibits the GnRH release from the hypothalamus. pattern of GnRH is important for the regulation of the menstrual cycle. This roughly 28-day-cycle comprises several phases, including the follicular phase and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, increasing levels of FSH stimulate the maturation of follicles and the production of estrogen from the ovaries. This in turn inhibits the release of FSH from the pituitary gland. A high level of estrogen will induce the production of LH by the pituitary gland, resulting in ovula- tion. The matured follicle secretes progesterone thereby inhibiting the release of GnRH. When the corpus luteum is demolished, there is less 48 3.3 | Adipokines According to results from studies reported in Table 1, girls with obe- sity enter puberty earlier compared with girls with normal higher leptin concentrations inhibit the intake of food and increases inhibition of GnRH. As a consequence, the cycle will start again. whole process, starting from the activated HPG axis, results in the development of the secondary sex characteristics in girls including 9,47 thelarche and menarche. 13,14,16-23,49-51 weight. these girls might be found in the secretion of adipokines. For instance, leptin is positively associated with the amount of body fat. Generally, energy expenditure. 9,52-54 An explanation for the early onset of puberty in The expression This TABLE 1 (Continued) Authors Year Country Study Design Primary Outcome Sample Sex Size (n) Age (y) Data Collection Herman-Giddens et al28 2012 USA Cross-sectional Observed mean ages of beginning genital and pubic hair growth and early testicular volumes were earlier than in past studies, depending on the characteristic and race/ethnicity. Boys 4131 6-16 2005-2010 Sorensen et al29 Aksglaede et al30 2010 2009 Denmark Denmark Cross-sectional/longitudinal Longitudinal Puberty onset at earlier ages was associated with an increased BMI in boys. Boys 1528 5.8-19.9 1991-1993/2006-2008 1930-1969 Juul et al31 Ribeiro et al32 2007 2006 Denmark Portugal Retrospective cohort Cross-sectional Higher BMI is associated with early voice break. 11-15 10-15 1990-1999 Kaplowitz et al18 Abbreviation: BMI, body mass USA Cross-sectional The early onset of puberty in Caucasian girls is likely related to an increased BMI. 5-12 1992-1993 2001 index. The higher BMI in boys and girls at 7 y of age, the earlier they enter puberty. Boys 21 612 Girls 135 223 Boys 463 Boys 382 Girls 437 Girls 10 750 Early sexual maturation in boys and girls is associated with overweight. 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 5 of 10 Leptin may possibly play a role in adrenarche as its plasma level increases with higher levels of body fat and as it can modulate both girls. 33 ing adrenarche. In coherence, in children with obesity, the androgen These findings suggested that lower reproductive status was associated with higher total adiponectin concentrations and that a higher reproductive status was related to higher HMW adiponectin the HPA and HPG axes. These axes are functionally integrated dur- DHEAS was positively associated with leptin levels. Nevertheless, concentrations in girls. In addition, individuals with obesity often another study showed that enhanced adrenal androgen secretion in girls with premature adrenarche was not explained by leptin or BMI 55 ated with androgen levels in girls ; however, it was not related to levels. and IL-6. TNF-α alters, and IL-6 inhibits the expression of 56 8 In addition, the adipokine adiponectin was negatively associ- 57 differences of adiponectin seem to develop during the progression of 56 adiponectin (Figure 2). Thereby, a low level of total adiponectin and/or high levels of inflammatory cytokines in individuals with obe- sity can promote the onset of puberty. Many more adipokines are secreted by WAT including omentin, 52,65-67 9,36,62,68 adrenarche in girls with Prader-Willi syndrome. Interestingly, sex puberty. adrenarche; however, both are not required factors. Thus, leptin and adiponectin might be able to influence In gonadarche, leptin can stimulate the secretion of kisspeptin, and subsequently activation of the HPG axis, which eventually increases the expression of estrogen and androstenedione in the ova- 58 2,60 65-67 The expression of these ries (Figure 2). Ob gene in WAT, resulting in the synthesis and secretion of leptin. Thus, high levels of leptin promote onset of puberty in girls via secre- tion of kisspeptin, and estrogen stimulates leptin secretion addition- ally. Moreover, adiponectin can affect the HPG axis due to the expression of adiponectin receptors in the hypothalamus, pituitary In return, estrogen stimulates the expression of the 59 gland, and gonads. onset as it inhibits the secretion of kisspeptin and GnRH in the hypo- thalamus and the release of GH and LH in the pituitary gland, and 2,60-62 52,60 63 girls with central precocious puberty (CPP). Moreover, total adiponectin had negative correlations with progression of puberty in girls (defined by Tanner stages), whereas HMW adiponectin had FIGURE 2 Adipokinesaffectingthe initiation of puberty in girls. Leptin stimulates the release of kisspeptin in KNDy neurons, which activates the hypothalamus to produce gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH). In response to the release of GnRH, the pituitary gland secretes follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), which stimulates the ovaries to release estrogen resulting in the formation of secondary sex characteristics in girls. Estrogen stimulates the production of leptin. Adiponectin inhibits GnRH release resulting in reduced levels of GnRH and thereby a delayed onset of puberty. TNF- α and IL-6 inhibit the production of adiponectin and therefore stimulate the onset of puberty In detail, adiponectin is a regulator of puberty thereby inhibiting the onset of puberty (Figure 2). with obesity often have low levels of adiponectin. et al. showed that total adiponectin was significantly lower, whereas high molecular weight (HMW) adiponectin was significantly higher in ment. 55 63 develop a chronic low-grade inflammatory state, which can be indi- cated by a high level of circulating inflammatory cytokines like TNF-α 64 Individuals Sitticharoon positive associations with LH levels and the progression of puberty in 63 visfatin, resistin, and chemerin. and visfatin are expressed in the ovaries. adipokines in the ovaries suggests a role within the reproductive sys- tem; however, the exact biological processes have to be examined. Thus, specifically leptin, adiponectin, and inflammatory cytokines pro- duced by WAT could be permissive key players during an early onset of puberty in girls with obesity. As an exception, HMW adiponectin seems to have a stimulatory effect on peripheral repro- ductive function as HMW is not able to cross the blood brain 63 barrier. 4 | Markers that are used to assess puberty onset in boys are THE ONSET OF PUBERTY IN BOYS spermarche, voice break, testicular volume, and pubic hair develop- 35 spermarche develop in the early stages of puberty onset, voice In women, omentin, chemerin, While pubic hair development, larger testicular volume, and 69 testicular volume increases, which occurs at an average age of break usually appears in later stages of puberty. Generally, first 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License 6 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 11.9 years, followed by the development of pubic hair at 12.2 years of average, and lastly, boys experience spermarche around an aver- 55 related with leptin levels. Thereby, leptin plausibly has a minor impact in adrenarche in boys. Since leptin receptors are found in the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and testes, they might be involved in the onset of puberty by affecting the HPG axis during gonadarche. Leptin stimulates the release of kisspeptin and GnRH, and as a consequence, it accelerates the onset of puberty (Table 1, Figure 3). In contrast, adiponectin inhibits the secretion of GnRH, GH, LH, and FSH therewith delaying the onset of puberty. However, adiponectin levels are generally lower in men compared with women and even lower in men with obe- age age of 13.4 years. 70 4.1 | Fat storage Many aspects of the reproductive physiology are energetically demanding,71 and therefore, an adequate energy level is necessary. In boys, a dynamic change in body composition occurs around the age of 10 to 13 years, in which they gain approximately 40% of sity. culating inflammatory cytokines. levels can stimulate the HPG axis and therewith an early onset of puberty in boys. Nevertheless, leptin can inhibit the production of tes- 72 mostly consisting of lean mass, which causes exhaustion of most of fat. Subsequently, a growth spurt follows in which they gain tissue 72 in boys, an adequate amount of body fat is important in the onset of their body fat. These alterations in amount of body fat indicate that 4.2 | Puberty in boys is initiated by the release of kisspeptin. As mentioned before, this activates the HPG axis, resulting in the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus, and consequently the release of LH and FSH 9,74 puberty. tosterone from the testes, to estrogen (Figure 3). of the development of secondary sex characteristics in boys. Additionally, leptin can affect fertility in men as it can modulate the nutritional support of spermatogenesis, and moreover, dysfunction of spermatogenesis is associated with an increased leptin level and 73 58 2,60-62 HPG axis from the pituitary gland (Figure 1). and LH stimulates the secretion of testosterone from the testes, which inhibits the release of kisspeptin from the KNDy neurons and 9,48 in men, the release of kisspeptin is more consistent, causing a con- 29,48 subsequently GnRH from the hypothalamus. receptors expressed on KNDy neurons. In humans, KNDy neurons Contrarily to women, LH-induced testosterone levels lead to the stant release of LH. development of secondary sex characteristics in boys. differences between sexes in kisspeptin release are related to a sex- specific and sex steroid-dependent kisspeptin system as estrogen and progesterone modulate kisspeptin activity through the sex-steroid 48 in the infundibular nucleus are involved in negative and positive sex- 48 tal exposure to sex steroids and result in sex-specific differences in steroid feedbacks. kisspeptin release. These sexual dimorphisms are induced by perina- 75,76 4.3 | Adipokines The association between obesity and puberty onset in boys is rather controversial compared with findings in girls. Most studies reported an early onset of puberty in boys associated with increased ate adipose tissue from actual breast tissue. stages are more difficult to assess than female stages as boys lack a more determined marker such as menarche. Thirdly, puberty onset can be indicated by the activation of the HPG axis, and the presence of these secondary sex characteristics is the result of hormonal 2 14,17,22,23,50,51,77,78 BMI, 20,49 all while others reported no associations at Current markers used 79 16,80 or a delayed onset of puberty (Table 1). The presence of excessive adipose tissue can be involved in puberty onset in boys as the secretion of adipokines can modulate both adrenarche and gonadarche. Leptin can affect adrenarche by modulating both the HPG and HPA axes,33 and moreover, androgen levels were positively 55 nal androgen secretion in boys with premature adrenarche was not associated with plasma leptin levels. Nevertheless, enhanced adre- 9 In more detail, 61,62 adiponectin, and individuals with obesity often have high levels of cir- Moreover, inflammatory cytokines, TNF-α, and IL-6, inhibit expression of the leptin receptor in the testis. FSH induces spermatogenesis, too. function and role still have to be examined. 64 High leptin and low adiponectin and fat tissue can convert testosterone Both processes might result in the delay 29,61,79 81,82 In men, other adipokines like chemerin are found in the gonads 65 Thus, particularly high leptin and low adiponectin levels stimulate the HPG axis and thereby accelerate the onset of puberty in boys. Additionally, leptin can dysregulate the development of secondary sex characteristics and spermatogenesis by affecting testosterone levels and nutritional sup- port of spermatogenesis. 5 | LIMITATIONS AND FUTURE RESEARCH DIRECTIONS Even though multiple epidemiological studies have shown the link between puberty onset and obesity, there are some important limita- tions. Firstly, determining both the onset and stage of puberty is rather difficult. For instance, assessing the stage of breast develop- ment in girls with obesity is complicated as clinicians should differenti- 2 changes in response to the activated HPG axis. to determine the onset of puberty refer to secondary sex characteris- tics, such as testicular volume in boys and breast development in girls. A more accurate measurement of puberty onset would be to combine secondary sex characteristics with plasma or serum hormone level measurements such as LH, FSH, adipokines, e.g. leptin. Thereby, differences in puberty measurements could explain variations in the age of puberty onset between boys and girls within different Thereby, resistin is expressed in the testes of rats, but its exact 83 Secondly, male pubertal 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 7 of 10 FIGURE 3 Adipokines affecting the initiation of puberty in boys. Leptin activates kisspeptin secretion in KNDy neurons, this activates the production of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus. GnRH stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinising hormone (LH), activating the production of testosterone from the testes allowing the development of secondary sex characteristics. Leptin also inhibits the production of testosterone, which may cause a delayed onset of puberty. Adiponectin inhibits GnRH release. Low levels of adiponectin, as a result of TNF-α and IL-6 expression, lead to a reduced inhibition of GnRH. In response to GnRH release, the pituitary gland will secrete FSH and LH, and the testes will produce testosterone resulting in the development of secondary sex characteristics in boys countries, and In addition, the inclusion of a of puberty. ferent time points is complicated, as subjects examined several decades ago presented pronounced differences concerning lifestyle patterns such as nutrition and exercise habits. Lastly, obesity or over- weight is often determined by BMI, a classification based on weight and height measurements. Additionally, it is important that all studies studies or across continents, ethnicities proper age range (8-16 years) is important when assessing the onset (Figure 4). 12-15,17,20-23,49,77-79,84,85 30,47 Furthermore, comparison between studies from dif- 86 Specifically in children, BMI is often dependent on age and growth use the same anthropometric standards and sex-specific cut-offs. 13,14,16-23,49-51,77-80 fat and would represent a more accurate measurement in its regard. Based on this review, several suggestions can be made for further research. Firstly, the roles of adipokines like resistin, chemerin, visfatin, and omentin in puberty onset, fertility, and sexual maturation should be examined in detail. Secondly, future research examining the onset of puberty should combine indicators of puberty onset (e.g. breast development or testicular volume) with plasma or serum hor- mone measurements such as LH, FSH, sex-steroids, adipokines (e.g. spurts. ment in case of growth spurts. distribution of body fat should be taken into account in determining puberty and obesity in children. For instance, the body adiposity index (BAI), which was introduced in 2011 by Bergman et al.,87 uses hip cir- cumference and height in order to estimate the percentage of body 87 Thereby, BMI is a less accurate measure- F I G U R E 4 87,88 Therefore, both percentage and Average age of puberty onset in Europe, China, and the United States according to several studies from Table 1. Age of puberty onset ranges from 8.47 to 13.33 years in girls and from 8.63 leptin), and body fat distribution (e.g. BAI,87 waist-hip ratio's and/or dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA)2). Additionally, defining con- sistent and general measurements of puberty in both boys and girls, combined with a proper age range (8-16 years), would facilitate the comparisons between different studies and their results. 12-15, 17, 20-23, 25-29, 31 to 13.7 years in boys. included if average age of markers used to assess puberty was not reported. Pink: girls. Blue: boys Studies (Table 1) were not 39, 56 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are governed by the applicable Creative Commons License 8 of 10 NIEUWENHUIS ET AL. 6 | CONCLUSION In conclusion, epidemiological data regarding obesity and puberty onset in girls show similar outcomes as adiposity results in the early onset of puberty in girls. The majority of the studies examining boys with obesity indicate an early onset of puberty, while not all reported an earlier onset of puberty. In detail, high leptin, TNF-α, and IL-6 levels combined with low adiponectin levels stimulate the activation of the HPG axis in girls and boys with obesity, and 5, 45, 50, 51 REFERENCES 1. Kumar S, Kelly AS. Review of childhood obesity: from epidemiology, etiology, and comorbidities to clinical assessment and treatment. May- o Clin Proc. 2017;92(2):251-265. 2. Reinehr T, Roth CL. Is there a causal relationship between obesity and puberty? The Lancet Child & adolescent health. 2019;3(1):44-54. 3. WorldHealthOrganization. Facts and figures on childhood obesity. 2017. 4. Guglielmi V, Sbraccia P. Obesity phenotypes: depot-differences in adipose tissue and their clinical implications. Eat Weight Disord. 2018; 23(1):3-14. 5. Gomez-Hernandez A, Beneit N, Diaz-Castroverde S. Escribano O. 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BMC Womens Health. 2018;18(1):168-174. thereby an early onset of obesity. leptin can inhibit the production of testosterone in boys and subse- quently inhibit the development of secondary sex characteristics affecting spermatogenesis. for other adipokines, like resistin and omentin, are present in the testes and ovaries suggesting a role in puberty or reproduction; 58, 71 however, their plausible function is still unknown. that adipokines may be key regulators in an early onset of puberty in both girls and boys with obesity, specifically by affecting the HPG axis during gonadarche. Future research should focus on assessing puberty onset by measuring consistent puberty markers and determine the percentage of body fat and its distribution and adipokines and hormone serum levels particularly involved in the HPG axis. CONFLICTS OF INTEREST The authors declare no conflict of interest. FUNDING INFORMATION This research was funded by Europees Fonds voor Regionale Ontwikkeling (EFRO), project BriteN 2016. ORCID Ilse A.C. Arnoldussen Amanda J. Kiliaan https://orcid.org/0000-0002-7395-5284 https://orcid.org/0000-0002-2158-6210 13, 14, 16-26, 29-32 Furthermore, several receptors Nevertheless, We conclude Search strategy We searched PubMed for articles published before Novem- ber 15th, 2019 using relevant keywords, including ‘onset of puberty and adiposity/obesity’, ‘onset of puberty’, ‘children with obesity’, ‘adipose tissue’, ‘childhood obesity’, ‘adiposity’, ‘obesity’, ‘adipokine(s)’, ‘HPG axis’, ‘adipokines ovary/ova- ries’, or ‘adipokines testes’, either alone or in combination. 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Obesity Reviews. 2020;21:e13005. https://doi.org/ 10.1111/obr.13005 1467789x, 2020, 6, Downloaded from https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/10.1111/obr.13005, Wiley Online Library on [10/03/2024]. See the Terms and Conditions (https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/terms-and-conditions) on Wiley Online Library for rules of use; OA articles are goverILLINOIS PROFESSIONAL TEACHING STANDARDS (2013) Standard 1 - Teaching Diverse Students – The competent teacher understands the diverse characteristics and abilities of each student and how individuals develop and learn within the context of their social, economic, cultural, linguistic, and academic experiences. The teacher uses these experiences to create instructional opportunities that maximize student learning. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 1A) understands the spectrum of student diversity (e.g., race and ethnicity, socioeconomic status, special education, gifted, English language learners (ELL), sexual orientation, gender, gender identity) and the assets that each student brings to learning across the curriculum; 1B) understands how each student constructs knowledge, acquires skills, and develops effective and efficient critical thinking and problem-solving capabilities; 1C) understands how teaching and student learning are influenced by development (physical, social and emotional, cognitive, linguistic), past experiences, talents, prior knowledge, economic circumstances and diversity within the community; 1D) understands the impact of cognitive, emotional, physical, and sensory disabilities on learning and communication pursuant to the Individuals with Disabilities Education Improvement Act (also referred to as “IDEA”) (20 USC 1400 et seq.), its implementing regulations (34 CFR 300; 2006), Article 14 of the School Code [105 ILCS 5/Art.14] and 23 Ill. 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Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 2A) understands theories and philosophies of learning and human development as they relate to the range of students in the classroom; 2B) understands major concepts, assumptions, debates, and principles; processes of inquiry; and theories that are central to the disciplines; 2C) understands the cognitive processes associated with various kinds of learning (e.g., critical and creative thinking, problem-structuring and problem-solving, invention, memorization, and recall) 2 and ensures attention to these learning processes so that students can master content standards; 2D) understands the relationship of knowledge within the disciplines to other content areas and to life applications; 2E) understands how diverse student characteristics and abilities affect processes of inquiry and influence patterns of learning; 2F) knows how to access the tools and knowledge related to latest findings (e.g., research, practice, methodologies) and technologies in the disciplines; 2G) understands the theory behind and the process for providing support to promote learning when concepts and skills are first being introduced; and 2H) understands the relationship among language acquisition (first and second), literacy development, and acquisition of academic content and skills. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 2I) evaluates teaching resources and materials for appropriateness as related to curricular content and each student’s needs; 2J) uses differing viewpoints, theories, and methods of inquiry in teaching subject matter concepts; 2K) engages students in the processes of critical thinking and inquiry and addresses standards of evidence of the disciplines; 2L) demonstrates fluency in technology systems, uses technology to support instruction and enhance student learning, and designs learning experiences to develop student skills in the application of technology appropriate to the disciplines; 2M) uses a variety of explanations and multiple representations of concepts that capture key ideas to help each student develop conceptual understanding and address common misunderstandings; 2N) facilitates learning experiences that make connections to other content areas and to life experiences; 2O) designs learning experiences and utilizes assistive technology and digital tools to provide access to general curricular content to individuals with disabilities; 2P) adjusts practice to meet the needs of each student in the content areas; and 2Q) applies and adapts an array of content area literacy strategies to make all subject matter accessible to each student. 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Code 1.Appendix D), curriculum development process, content, learning theory, assessment, and student development and knows how to incorporate this knowledge in planning differentiated instruction; 3B) understands how to develop short- and long-range plans, including transition plans, consistent with curriculum goals, student diversity, and learning theory; 3C) understands cultural, linguistic, cognitive, physical, and social and emotional differences, and considers the needs of each student when planning instruction; 3D) understands when and how to adjust plans based on outcome data, as well as student needs, goals, and responses; 3E) understands the appropriate role of technology, including assistive technology, to address student needs, as well as how to incorporate contemporary tools and resources to maximize student learning; 3 3F) understands how to co-plan with other classroom teachers, parents or guardians, paraprofessionals, school specialists, and community representatives to design learning experiences; and 3G) understands how research and data guide instructional planning, delivery, and adaptation. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 3H) establishes high expectations for each student’s learning and behavior; 3I) creates short-term and long-term plans to achieve the expectations for student learning; 3J) uses data to plan for differentiated instruction to allow for variations in individual learning needs; 3K) incorporates experiences into instructional practices that relate to a student’s current life experiences and to future life experiences; 3L) creates approaches to learning that are interdisciplinary and that integrate multiple content areas; 3M) develops plans based on student responses and provides for different pathways based on student needs; 3N) accesses and uses a wide range of information and instructional technologies to enhance a student’s ongoing growth and achievement; 3O) when planning instruction, addresses goals and objectives contained in plans developed under Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act of 1973 (29 USC 794), individualized education programs (IEP) (see 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 (Special Education)) or individual family service plans (IFSP) (see 23 Ill. Adm. Code 226 and 34 CFR 300.24; 2006); 3P) works with others to adapt and modify instruction to meet individual student needs; and 3Q) develops or selects relevant instructional content, materials, resources, and strategies (e.g., project-based learning) for differentiating instruction. Standard 4 - Learning Environment – The competent teacher structures a safe and healthy learning environment that facilitates cultural and linguistic responsiveness, emotional well-being, self-efficacy, positive social interaction, mutual respect, active engagement, academic risk-taking, self-motivation, and personal goal-setting. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 4A) understands principles of and strategies for effective classroom and behavior management; 4B) understands how individuals influence groups and how groups function in society; 4C) understands how to help students work cooperatively and productively in groups; 4D) understands factors (e.g., self-efficacy, positive social interaction) that influence motivation and engagement; 4E) knows how to assess the instructional environment to determine how best to meet a student’s individual needs; 4F) understands laws, rules, and ethical considerations regarding behavior intervention planning and behavior management (e.g., bullying, crisis intervention, physical restraint); 4G) knows strategies to implement behavior management and behavior intervention planning to ensure a safe and productive learning environment; and 4H) understands the use of student data (formative and summative) to design and implement behavior management strategies. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 4I) creates a safe and healthy environment that maximizes student learning; 4J) creates clear expectations and procedures for communication and behavior and a physical setting conducive to achieving classroom goals; 4K) uses strategies to create a smoothly functioning learning community in which students assume responsibility for themselves and one another, participate in decision-making, work collaboratively and independently, use appropriate technology, and engage in purposeful learning activities; 4 4L) analyzes the classroom environment and makes decisions to enhance cultural and linguistic responsiveness, mutual respect, positive social relationships, student motivation, and classroom engagement; 4M) organizes, allocates, and manages time, materials, technology, and physical space to provide active and equitable engagement of students in productive learning activities; 4N) engages students in and monitors individual and group-learning activities that help them develop the motivation to learn; 4O) uses a variety of effective behavioral management techniques appropriate to the needs of all students that include positive behavior interventions and supports; 4P) modifies the learning environment (including the schedule and physical arrangement) to facilitate appropriate behaviors and learning for students with diverse learning characteristics; and 4Q) analyzes student behavior data to develop and support positive behavior. Standard 5 - Instructional Delivery – The competent teacher differentiates instruction by using a variety of strategies that support critical and creative thinking, problem-solving, and continuous growth and learning. This teacher understands that the classroom is a dynamic environment requiring ongoing modification of instruction to enhance learning for each student. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 5A) understands the cognitive processes associated with various kinds of learning; 5B) understands principles and techniques, along with advantages and limitations, associated with a wide range of evidence-based instructional practices; 5C) knows how to implement effective differentiated instruction through the use of a wide variety of materials, technologies, and resources; 5D) understands disciplinary and interdisciplinary instructional approaches and how they relate to life and career experiences; 5E) knows techniques for modifying instructional methods, materials, and the environment to facilitate learning for students with diverse learning characteristics; 5F) knows strategies to maximize student attentiveness and engagement; 5G) knows how to evaluate and use student performance data to adjust instruction while teaching; and 5H) understands when and how to adapt or modify instruction based on outcome data, as well as student needs, goals, and responses. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 5I) uses multiple teaching strategies, including adjusted pacing and flexible grouping, to engage students in active learning opportunities that promote the development of critical and creative thinking, problem-solving, and performance capabilities; 5J) monitors and adjusts strategies in response to feedback from the student; 5K) varies his or her role in the instructional process as instructor, facilitator, coach, or audience in relation to the content and purposes of instruction and the needs of students; 5L) develops a variety of clear, accurate presentations and representations of concepts, using alternative explanations to assist students’ understanding and presenting diverse perspectives to encourage critical and creative thinking; 5M) uses strategies and techniques for facilitating meaningful inclusion of individuals with a range of abilities and experiences; 5N) uses technology to accomplish differentiated instructional objectives that enhance learning for each student; 5O) models and facilitates effective use of current and emerging digital tools to locate, analyze, evaluate, and use information resources to support research and learning; 5P) uses student data to adapt the curriculum and implement instructional strategies and materials according to the characteristics of each student; 5 5Q) uses effective co-planning and co-teaching techniques to deliver instruction to all students; 5R) maximizes instructional time (e.g., minimizes transitional time); and 5S) implements appropriate evidence-based instructional strategies. Standard 6 - Reading, Writing, and Oral Communication – The competent teacher has foundational knowledge of reading, writing, and oral communication within the content area and recognizes and addresses student reading, writing, and oral communication needs to facilitate the acquisition of content knowledge. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 6A) understands appropriate and varied instructional approaches used before, during, and after reading, including those that develop word knowledge, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and strategy use in the content areas; 6B) understands that the reading process involves the construction of meaning through the interactions of the reader's background knowledge and experiences, the information in the text, and the purpose of the reading situation; 6C) understands communication theory, language development, and the role of language in learning; 6D) understands writing processes and their importance to content learning; 6E) knows and models standard conventions of written and oral communications; 6F) recognizes the relationships among reading, writing, and oral communication and understands how to integrate these components to increase content learning; 6G) understands how to design, select, modify, and evaluate a wide range of materials for the content areas and the reading needs of the student; 6H) understands how to use a variety of formal and informal assessments to recognize and address the reading, writing, and oral communication needs of each student; and 6I) knows appropriate and varied instructional approaches, including those that develop word knowledge, vocabulary, comprehension, fluency, and strategy use in the content areas. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 6J) selects, modifies, and uses a wide range of printed, visual, or auditory materials, and online resources appropriate to the content areas and the reading needs and levels of each student (including ELLs, and struggling and advanced readers); 6K) uses assessment data, student work samples, and observations from continuous monitoring of student progress to plan and evaluate effective content area reading, writing, and oral communication instruction; 6L) facilitates the use of appropriate word identification and vocabulary strategies to develop each student’s understanding of content; 6M) teaches fluency strategies to facilitate comprehension of content; 6N) uses modeling, explanation, practice, and feedback to teach students to monitor and apply comprehension strategies independently, appropriate to the content learning; 6O) teaches students to analyze, evaluate, synthesize, and summarize information in single texts and across multiple texts, including electronic resources; 6P) teaches students to develop written text appropriate to the content areas that utilizes organization (e.g., compare/contrast, problem/solution), focus, elaboration, word choice, and standard conventions (e.g., punctuation, grammar); 6Q) integrates reading, writing, and oral communication to engage students in content learning; 6R) works with other teachers and support personnel to design, adjust, and modify instruction to meet students’ reading, writing, and oral communication needs; and 6S) stimulates discussion in the content areas for varied instructional and conversational purposes. Standard 7 - Assessment – The competent teacher understands and uses appropriate formative and summative assessments for determining student needs, monitoring student progress, measuring student 6 growth, and evaluating student outcomes. The teacher makes decisions driven by data about curricular and instructional effectiveness and adjusts practices to meet the needs of each student. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 7A) understands the purposes, characteristics, and limitations of different types of assessments, including standardized assessments, universal screening, curriculum-based assessment, and progress monitoring tools; 7B) understands that assessment is a means of evaluating how students learn and what they know and are able to do in order to meet the Illinois Learning Standards; 7C) understands measurement theory and assessment-related issues, such as validity, reliability, bias, and appropriate and accurate scoring; 7D) understands current terminology and procedures necessary for the appropriate analysis and interpretation of assessment data; 7E) understands how to select, construct, and use assessment strategies and instruments for diagnosis and evaluation of learning and instruction; 7F) knows research-based assessment strategies appropriate for each student; 7G) understands how to make data-driven decisions using assessment results to adjust practices to meet the needs of each student; 7H) knows legal provisions, rules, and guidelines regarding assessment and assessment accommodations for all student populations; and 7I) knows assessment and progress monitoring techniques to assess the effectiveness of instruction for each student. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 7J) uses assessment results to determine student performance levels, identify learning targets, select appropriate research-based instructional strategies, and implement instruction to enhance learning outcomes; 7K) appropriately uses a variety of formal and informal assessments to evaluate the understanding, progress, and performance of an individual student and the class as a whole; 7L) involves students in self-assessment activities to help them become aware of their strengths and needs and encourages them to establish goals for learning; 7M) maintains useful and accurate records of student work and performance; 7N) accurately interprets and clearly communicates aggregate student performance data to students, parents or guardians, colleagues, and the community in a manner that complies with the requirements of the Illinois School Student Records Act [105 ILCS 10], 23 Ill. Adm. Code 375 (Student Records), the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) (20 USC 1232g) and its implementing regulations (34 CFR 99; December 9, 2008); 7O) effectively uses appropriate technologies to conduct assessments, monitor performance, and assess student progress; 7P) collaborates with families and other professionals involved in the assessment of each student; 7Q) uses various types of assessment procedures appropriately, including making accommodations for individual students in specific contexts; and 7R) uses assessment strategies and devices that are nondiscriminatory, and take into consideration the impact of disabilities, methods of communication, cultural background, and primary language on measuring knowledge and performance of students. Standard 8 - Collaborative Relationships – The competent teacher builds and maintains collaborative relationships to foster cognitive, linguistic, physical, and social and emotional development. This teacher works as a team member with professional colleagues, students, parents or guardians, and community members. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 8A) understands schools as organizations within the larger community context; 7 8B) understands the collaborative process and the skills necessary to initiate and carry out that process; 8C) collaborates with others in the use of data to design and implement effective school interventions that benefit all students; 8D) understands the benefits, barriers, and techniques involved in parent and family collaborations; 8E) understands school- and work-based learning environments and the need for collaboration with all organizations (e.g., businesses, community agencies, nonprofit organizations) to enhance student learning; 8F) understands the importance of participating on collaborative and problem-solving teams to create effective academic and behavioral interventions for all students; 8G) understands the various models of co-teaching and the procedures for implementing them across the curriculum; 8H) understands concerns of families of students with disabilities and knows appropriate strategies to collaborate with students and their families in addressing these concerns; and 8I) understands the roles and the importance of including students with disabilities, as appropriate, and all team members in planning individualized education programs (i.e, IEP, IFSP, Section 504 plan) for students with disabilities. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 8J) works with all school personnel (e.g., support staff, teachers, paraprofessionals) to develop learning climates for the school that encourage unity, support a sense of shared purpose, show trust in one another, and value individuals; 8K) participates in collaborative decision-making and problem-solving with colleagues and other professionals to achieve success for all students; 8L) initiates collaboration with others to create opportunities that enhance student learning; 8M) uses digital tools and resources to promote collaborative interactions; 8N) uses effective co-planning and co-teaching techniques to deliver instruction to each student; 8O) collaborates with school personnel in the implementation of appropriate assessment and instruction for designated students; 8P) develops professional relationships with parents and guardians that result in fair and equitable treatment of each student to support growth and learning; 8Q) establishes respectful and productive relationships with parents or guardians and seeks to develop cooperative partnerships to promote student learning and well-being; 8R) uses conflict resolution skills to enhance the effectiveness of collaboration and teamwork; 8S) participates in the design and implementation of individualized instruction for students with special needs (i.e., IEPs, IFSP, transition plans, Section 504 plans), ELLs, and students who are gifted; and 8T) identifies and utilizes community resources to enhance student learning and to provide opportunities for students to explore career opportunities. Standard 9 - Professionalism, Leadership, and Advocacy – The competent teacher is an ethical and reflective practitioner who exhibits professionalism; provides leadership in the learning community; and advocates for students, parents or guardians, and the profession. Knowledge Indicators – The competent teacher: 9A) evaluates best practices and research-based materials against benchmarks within the disciplines; 9B) knows laws and rules (e.g., mandatory reporting, sexual misconduct, corporal punishment) as a foundation for the fair and just treatment of all students and their families in the classroom and school; 9C) understands emergency response procedures as required under the School Safety Drill Act [105 ILCS 128/1], including school safety and crisis intervention protocol, initial response 8 actions (e.g., whether to stay in or evacuate a building), and first response to medical emergencies (e.g., first aid and life-saving techniques); 9D) identifies paths for continuous professional growth and improvement, including the design of a professional growth plan; 9E) is cognizant of his or her emerging and developed leadership skills and the applicability of those skills within a variety of learning communities; 9F) understands the roles of an advocate, the process of advocacy, and its place in combating or promoting certain school district practices affecting students; 9G) understands local and global societal issues and responsibilities in an evolving digital culture; and 9H) understands the importance of modeling appropriate dispositions in the classroom. Performance Indicators – The competent teacher: 9I) models professional behavior that reflects honesty, integrity, personal responsibility, confidentiality, altruism and respect; 9J) maintains accurate records, manages data effectively, and protects the confidentiality of information pertaining to each student and family; 9K) reflects on professional practice and resulting outcomes; engages in self-assessment; and adjusts practices to improve student performance, school goals, and professional growth; 9L) communicates with families, responds to concerns, and contributes to enhanced family participation in student education; 9M) communicates relevant information and ideas effectively to students, parents or guardians, and peers, using a variety of technology and digital-age media and formats; 9N) collaborates with other teachers, students, parents or guardians, specialists, administrators, and community partners to enhance students’ learning and school improvement; 9O) participates in professional development, professional organizations, and learning communities, and engages in peer coaching and mentoring activities to enhance personal growth and development; 9P) uses leadership skills that contribute to individual and collegial growth and development, school improvement, and the advancement of knowledge in the teaching profession; 9Q) proactively serves all students and their families with equity and honor and advocates on their behalf, ensuring the learning and well-being of each child in the classroom; 9R) is aware of and complies with the mandatory reporter provisions of Section 4 of the Abused and Neglected Child Reporting Act [325 ILCS 5/4]; 9S) models digital etiquette and responsible social actions in the use of digital technology; and 9T) models and teaches safe, legal, and ethical use of digital information and technology, including respect for copyright, intellectual property, and the appropriate documentation of sources.Https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! CGEIT: Certified in the Governance of Enterprise IT Volume A Question #1 You are the project manager of the NHQ project for your company. You are working with your project team to complete a risk audit. A recent issue that your project team responded to, and management approved, was to increase the project schedule because there was risk surrounding the installation time of a new material. Your logic was that with the expanded schedule there would be time to complete the installation without affecting downstream project activities. What type of risk response is being audited in this scenario? A. Avoidance B. Mitigation C. Parkinson's Law D. Lag Time Answer: A Question #2 You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is? A. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact. B. Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event. C. Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives. D. Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #3 Your project spans the entire organization. You would like to assess the risk of the project but are worried that some of the managers involved in the project could affect the outcome of any risk identification meeting. Your worry is based on the fact that some employees would not want to publicly identify risk events that could make their supervisors look bad. You would like a method that would allow participants to anonymously identify risk events. What risk identification method could you use? A. Delphi technique B. Isolated pilot groups C. SWOT analysis D. Root cause analysis Answer: A Question #4 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________models address specifications, requirements, design, verification and validation, and maintenance activities. Answer: Life cycle Question #5 Fill in the blank with an appropriate word. ________is also referred to as corporate governance, and covers issues such as board structures, roles and executive remuneration. Answer: Conformance Question #6 Which of the following is NOT a sub-process of Service Portfolio Management? A. Service Portfolio Update B. Business Planning Data C. Strategic Planning D. Strategic Service Assessment E. Service Strategy Definition Answer: B Question #7 Mary is the business analyst for your organization. She asks you what the purpose of the assess capability gaps task is. Which of the following is the best response to give Mary? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. It identifies the causal factors that are contributing to an effect the solution will solve. B. It identifies new capabilities required by the organization to meet the business need. C. It describes the ends that the organization wants to improve. D. It identifies the skill gaps in the existing resources. Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following are the roles of a CEO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Organizing and facilitating IT strategic implementations B. Establishment of business priorities & allocation of resources for IT performance C. Overseeing the aggregate IT funding D. Capitalization on knowledge & information Answer: ABD Question #9 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _________is the study of how the variation (uncertainty) in the output of a mathematical model can be apportioned, qualitatively or quantitatively, to different sources of variation in the input of a model Answer: Sensitivity analysis Question #10 Which of the following is a process that occurs due to mergers, outsourcing or changing business needs? A. Voluntary exit B. Plant closing C. Involuntary exit D. Outplacement Answer: C Question #11 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word. An ___________ is a resource, process, product, computing infrastructure, and so forth that an organization has determined must be protected. Answer: asset https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #12 You work as a project manager for TYU project. You are planning for risk mitigation. You need to identify the risks that will need a more in-depth analysis. Which of the following activities will help you in this? A. Estimate activity duration B. Quantitative analysis C. Qualitative analysis D. Risk identification Answer: C Question #13 An organization supports both programs and projects for various industries. What is a portfolio? A. A portfolio describes all of the monies that are invested in the organization. B. A portfolio is the total amount of funds that have been invested in programs, projects, and operations. C. A portfolio describes any project or program within one industry or application area. D. A portfolio describes the organization of related projects, programs, and operations. Answer: D Question #14 Your organization mainly focuses on the production of bicycles for selling it around the world. In addition to this, the organization also produces scooters. Management wants to restrict its line of production to bicycles. Therefore, it decides to sell the scooter production department to another competitor. Which of the following terms best describes the sale of the scooter production department to your competitor? A. Corporate restructure B. Divestiture C. Rightsizing D. Outsourcing Answer: B Question #15 You are the business analyst for your organization and are preparing to conduct stakeholder analysis. As part of this process you realize that you'll need several inputs. Which one of the following is NOT an input you'll use for the conduct stakeholder analysis task? A. Organizational process assets B. Enterprise architecture C. Business need https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Enterprise environmental factors Answer: D Question #16 Which of the following is the process of comparing the business processes and performance metrics including cost, cycle time, productivity, or quality? A. Agreement B. COBIT C. Service Improvement Plan D. Benchmarking Answer: D Question #17 You are the project manager of a large project that will last four years. In this project, you would like to model the risk based on its distribution, impact, and other factors. There are three modeling techniques that a project manager can use to include both event-oriented and project oriented analysis. Which modeling technique does NOT provide event-oriented and project oriented analysis for identified risks? A. Modeling and simulation B. Expected monetary value C. Sensitivity analysis D. Jo-Hari Window Answer: D Question #18 Which of the following processes is described in the statement below? "This is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives." A. Identify Risks B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis D. Monitor and Control Risks Answer: C Question #19 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Benchmarking is a continuous process that can be time consuming to do correctly. Which of the following guidelines for performing benchmarking identifies the critical processes and creates measurement techniques to grade the process? A. Research B. Adapt C. Plan D. Improve Answer: C Question #20 Jenny is the project manager for the NBT projects. She is working with the project team and several subject matter experts to perform the quantitative risk analysis process. During this process she and the project team uncover several risks events that were not previously identified. What should Jenny do with these risk events? A. The events should be determined if they need to be accepted or responded to. B. The events should be entered into the risk register. C. The events should continue on with quantitative risk analysis. D. The events should be entered into qualitative risk analysis. Answer: B Question #21 Beth is a project team member on the JHG Project. Beth has added extra features to the project and this has introduced new risks to the project work. The project manager of the JHG project elects to remove the features Beth has added. The process of removing the extra features to remove the risks is called what? A. Corrective action B. Preventive action C. Scope creep D. Defect repair Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following elements of planning gap measures the gap between the total potential for the market and the actual current usage by all the consumers in the market? A. Project gap B. Competitive gap C. Usage gap https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Product gap Answer: C Question #23 Mark is the project manager of the BFL project for his organization. He and the project team are creating a probability and impact matrix using RAG rating. There is some confusion and disagreement among the project team as to how a certain risk is important and priority for attention should be managed. Where can Mark determine the priority of a risk given its probability and impact? A. Risk response plan B. Look-up table C. Project sponsor D. Risk management plan Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following processes is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring low cost changes? A. Incident Management B. IT Facilities Management C. Release Management D. Request Fulfillment Answer: D Question #25 You are a management consultant. WebTech Inc., an e-commerce organization, hires you to analyze its SWOT. Which of the following factors will you not consider for the SWOT analysis? A. Bandwidth B. Pricing C. Product D. Promotion Answer: A Question #26 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Quantitative analysis B. Qualitative risk analysis C. Historical information D. Rolling wave planning Answer: B Question #27 You are the project manager for your organization and you are working with Thomas, a project team member. You and Thomas have been working on a specific risk response for a probable risk event in the project. Thomas is empowered with a risk response and will control all aspects of the identified risk response in which a particular risk event will happen within the project. What title, in regard to risk, is bestowed on Thomas? A. Risk coordinator B. Risk expeditor C. Risk owner D. Risk team leader Answer: C Question #28 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management drives better decisions by providing real-time portfolio performance information in personalized views, such as cost/benefit summary, risk versus reward, ROI versus alignment, and balance bubble charts? A. Workflow, Process Management, Tracking and Authorization B. Portfolio Management C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards D. Portfolio What-If Planning Answer: C Question #29 DRAG DROP - Val IT is a suite of documents that provide a framework for the governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Portfolio management') next to the IT processes defined by Val IT. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #30 What are the various phases of the Software Assurance Acquisition process according to the U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) and Department of Homeland Security (DHS) Acquisition and Outsourcing Working Group? A. Implementing, contracting, auditing, monitoring B. Requirements, planning, monitoring, auditing C. Designing, implementing, contracting, monitoring D. Planning, contracting, monitoring and acceptance, follow-on Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following sub-processes of Service Portfolio Management is used to define the overall goals that the service provider should follow in its development based on the outcome of Strategic Service Assessment? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Service Portfolio Update B. Strategic Service Assessment C. Service Strategy Definition D. Strategic Planning Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following are the main goals of Broadcasting Board of Governors (BBG)'s strategic plan 2008- 2013?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. It employs modern communication techniques and technologies. B. It builds on our reach and impact within the muslim world. C. It engages the world in conversation about England. D. It enhances program delivery across all platforms. Answer: ABD Question #33 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT decision making and the IT budget are in one place, much easier to manage, and require much less effort to organize? A. Decentralized B. Federated C. Project-based D. Centralized Answer: D Question #34 A service provider guarantees for end-to-end network traffic performance to a customer. Which of the following types of agreement is this? A. LA B. VPN C. NDA D. SLA Answer: D Question #35 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers areas such as the execution of the applications within the IT system and its results as well as the support processes that enable the effective and efficient execution of these IT systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Deliver and Support B. Acquire and Implement C. Monitor and Evaluate D. Plan and Organize Answer: A Question #36 Gary has identified a project risk that could injure project team members. He does not want to accept any risk where someone could become injured on this project so he hires a professional vendor to complete this portion of the project work. This workaround to the risk event is known as what type of risk response? A. Avoidance B. Mitigation C. Acceptance D. Transference Answer: D Question #37 Management has asked you to perform a risk audit and report back on the results. Bonny, a project team member asks you what a risk audit is. What do you tell Bonny? A. A risk audit is a review of the effectiveness of the risk responses in dealing with identified risks and their root causes, as well as the effectiveness of the risk management process. B. A risk audit is a review of all the risks that have yet to occur and what their probability of happening are. C. A risk audit is an audit of all the risks that have occurred in the project and what their true impact on cost and time has been. D. A risk audit is a review of all the risk probability and impact for the risks, which are still present in the project but which have not yet occurred. Answer: A Question #38 Wendy is the project manager of the FBL project for your company. She has identified several risks within her project and has created a risk contingency reserve of $45,000 total. Her project is nearly complete and many of the risks have not happened in the project. What should Wendy do with the funds in the contingency reserve? A. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are transferred to the project budget. B. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until all of the risks have passed. C. The funds remain in the contingency reserve until the project is closed. D. The funds for the risks that have passed and have not happened are released. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as a process, effected by an entity's board of directors, management, and other personnel, applied in strategy setting and across the enterprise? A. COBIT B. COSO ERM framework C. Casualty Actuarial Society framework D. Val IT Answer: B Question #40 The IT strategy formulation process consists of four steps to provide guidance to all who are involved. Which of the following steps are performed in the IT strategy formulation process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Decide how to get from here to there. B. Evaluate changes. C. Assess process maturity. D. Map out the big picture. Answer: ABD Question #41 Which of the following concepts is a semi-standard structured report supported by proven design methods and automation tools that can be used by managers to keep track of the execution of activities by staff within their control and monitor the consequences arising from these actions? A. Total Security Management B. Balanced Scorecard (BSC) C. Total Quality Management D. Six Sigma Answer: B Question #42 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various architecture domains for TOGAF at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #43 DRAG DROP - The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of concepts and policies for managing information technology (IT) infrastructure, development, and operations. Drag and drop the ITIL processes that focus on service operation, i.e. operational processes in Service Support, in the correct places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #44 You are the project manager of the HJK project for your organization. You and the project team have created risk responses for many of the risk events in the project. A teaming agreement is an example of what risk response? A. Mitigation B. Sharing C. Transference D. Acceptance Answer: B Question #45 Which of the following is the main objective of business process outsourcing? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Realigning business process with business strategy B. Permitting the enterprise to focus on core main competences C. Optimizing business processes D. Increasing the automation of business processes Answer: B Question #46 In which of the following phases of the SDLC does the software and other components of the system faithfully incorporate the design specifications and provide proper documentation and training? A. Design B. Initiation C. Programming and training D. Evaluation and acceptance Answer: C Question #47 You are the project manager of a newly formed project to create a new manufacturing facility. You are working with a business analyst to identify, document, and prioritize stakeholders' needs for the facility. You'll also need to quantify any subjective terms and needs to define the project scope. What is this process called? A. Requirements analysis B. Project scope statement creation C. Requirements gathering D. Stakeholder analysis Answer: D Question #48 IT Governance is used by the management to regulate the Information Systems, to accomplish its objectives. IT governance forms an integral part of corporate governance. Which of the following elements are required to implement a good IT governance framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Communication B. Structure C. Project D. Process Answer: ABD Question #49 Which of the following roles is responsible for review and risk analysis of all contracts on a regular basis? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. The Service Catalogue Manager B. The Supplier Manager C. The Configuration Manager D. The IT Service Continuity Manager Answer: B Question #50 All projects that are presented in your organization must go through a board to review the return on investment, risk, and worthiness of a project. All projects are considered but not all projects are initiated. What is the name of the process that this board is completing in your organization? A. Project selection committee B. Change governance C. Project portfolio management D. Project portfolio management board Answer: C Question #51 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management enables portfolio managers to include or exclude investments, change start and end dates, adjust budgets and reevaluate priorities? A. Integrated Capability B. Portfolio Planning Analysis C. Portfolio What-If Planning D. Portfolio Management Answer: C Question #52 Fred is the project manager of the PKL project. He is working with his project team to complete the quantitative risk analysis process as a part of risk management planning. Fred understands that once the quantitative risk analysis process is complete, the process will need to be completed again in at least two other times in the project. When will the quantitative risk analysis process need to be repeated? A. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the risk response planning and as a part of monitoring and controlling. B. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the plan risk response planning and as part of procurement. C. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after new risks are identified and as pa of monitoring and controlling. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Quantitative risk analysis process will be completed again after the cost management planning an as a part of monitoring and controlling. Answer: A Question #53 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. There has been a delay in your project work that is adversely affecting the project schedule. You decided, with your stakeholders' approval, to fast track the project work to get the project done faster. When you fast track the project which of the following are likely to increase? A. Costs B. Risks C. Human resource needs D. Quality control concerns Answer: B Question #54 Which of the following processes ensures that all vital assets and resources of the organization are safeguarded? A. Defining Resource Requirements process B. Cost estimating process C. Vendor contract administration process D. Risk management process Answer: D Question #55 In software development, which of the following analysis is used to document the services and functions that have been accidentally left out, deliberately eliminated or still need to be developed? A. Vulnerability analysis B. Cost-benefit analysis C. Requirement analysis D. Gap analysis Answer: D Question #56 The entry points to Service Strategy are referred to as "the Four Ps". They identify the different forms a service strategy may take. Which of the following is a correct list of the 'Four Ps'? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. People, Products, Partners, and Profit B. People, Potential, Products, and Performance C. Potential, Preparation, Performance, and Profit D. Perspective, Position, Plan, and Pattern Answer: D Question #57 Melody is the project manager for her organization. She has created a risk response to conduct more tests on the software her project is creating. The identified risk that prompted this response was that the software is missioncritical and must be flawless before it can be put into product. What type of a risk response has Melody used in this scenario? A. Transference B. Enhance C. Avoidance D. Mitigation Answer: D Question #58 Which of the following are the roles of a CIO in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Standardizes architecture & technology. B. Defines value creation roles within IT. C. Provides IT infrastructure to facilitate knowledge & information creation/sharing. D. Establishes business priorities & allocates resources for IT performance. Answer: ABC Question #59 Elizabeth is a project manager for her organization and she finds risk management to be very difficult for her to manage. She asks you, a lead project manager, at what stage in the project will risk management become easier. What answer best resolves the difficulty of risk management practices and the effort required? A. Risk management only becomes easier the more often it is practiced. B. Risk management only becomes easier when the project is closed. C. Risk management is an iterative process and never becomes easier. D. Risk management only becomes easier when the project moves into project execution. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #60 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes are applied across the enterprise where all business units/entities conform to the same set of IT governance processes, and IT investment decisions are based on the enterprise view? A. Stage 3-Consistent B. Stage 4-Best practices C. Stage 1-Ad hoc D. Stage 2-Fragmented Answer: A Question #61 You are the project manager of the AMD project for your organization. In this project, you are currently performing quantitative risk analysis. The tool and technique you are using is simulation where the project model is computed many times with the input values chosen at random for each iteration. The goal is to create a probability distribution from the iterations for the project schedule. What technique will you use with this simulation? A. Pareto modeling B. Expected Monetary Value C. Monte Carlo Technique D. Analogous modeling Answer: C Question #62 Robert is the business analyst for his organization and he's working with several stakeholders to identify the business need for an opportunity. Robert needs to identify the stakeholder that will be responsible for authorizing the actions needed in order to meet the identified business need. Which stakeholder does Robert need to identify? A. Regulator B. Implementation Subject Matter Expert C. Sponsor D. Customer Answer: C Question #63 Which of the following levels of Gartner's cost optimization framework describes the right kind of partnership with IT vendors, which can benefit each party in times of economic upturns? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Cost Savings within IT B. Joint Business and IT Cost Savings C. IT Procurement D. Enabling Innovation and Business Restructuring Answer: C Question #64 Which conduct stakeholder analysis technique is useful for identifying shared characteristics of a stakeholder group? A. Brainstorming B. Scope modeling C. Interviews D. Surveys Answer: D Question #65 Which of the following are parts of SWOT Analysis? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Optimism B. Threats C. Weaknesses D. Opportunities E. Tools F. Strengths Answer: BCDF Question #66 You are the project manager of the NNN project for your company. You and the project team are working together to plan the risk responses for the project. You feel that the team has successfully completed the risk response planning and now you must initiate what risk process it is. Which of the following risk processes is repeated after the plan risk responses to determine if the overall project risk has been satisfactorily decreased? A. Risk response implementation B. Quantitative risk analysis C. Risk identification D. Qualitative risk analysis Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #67 You are the project manager for your company and a new change request has been approved for your project. This change request, however, has introduced several new risks to the project. You have communicated these risk events and the project stakeholders understand the possible effects these risks could have on your project. You elect to create a mitigation response for the identified risk events. Where will you record the mitigation response? A. Risk log B. Risk management plan C. Risk register D. Project management plan Answer: C Question #68 Which positive risk response best describes a teaming agreement? A. Enhance B. Exploit C. Share D. Venture Answer: C Question #69 Your project is an agricultural-based project that deals with plant irrigation systems. You have discovered a byproduct in your project that your organization could use to make a profit youre your organization seizes this opportunity it would be an example of what risk response? A. Exploiting B. Positive C. Opportunistic D. Enhancing Answer: A Question #70 Which document refers to the steps that must be taken if there is a major gap in the projected delivery quality of a service and the actual delivery? A. Service Improvement Plan B. Service Quality Plan C. Business Service Catalogue D. Service Level Agreement https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following responsibilities are performed by the core team of IT governance? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Provide service feedback to providers. B. Undertake core tasks. C. Define plan and deliverables. D. Report on process. Answer: BCD Question #72 Which of the following IT governance frameworks provides governance of IT investments, produced by the IT Governance Institute (ITGI), and is a formal statement of principles and processes for IT portfolio management? A. VMM B. Val IT C. Risk IT D. COBIT Answer: B Question #73 Which of the following roles in Service Design is responsible for delivering a particular service within the agreed service levels and also acts as the counterpart of the Service Level Manager when negotiating OLAs? A. The Service Design Manager B. The Service Level Manager C. The Service Owner D. The Service Catalogue Manager Answer: C Question #74 Harold is the project manager of a large project in his organization. He has been actively communicating and working with the project stakeholders. One of the outputs of the manage stakeholder expectations process can actually create new risk events for Harold's project. Which output of the manage stakeholder expectations process can create risks? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Project management plan updates B. Project document updates C. Change requests D. Organizational process assets updates Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following concepts is the business practice of developing and implementing comprehensive risk management and security practices for a firm's entire value chain? A. TOGAF B. TQM C. BSC D. TSM Answer: D Question #76 Sensitivity analysis is a technique for systematically changing parameters in a model to determine the effects of such changes and is useful for computer modelers for a range of purposes. Which of the following purposes does the sensitivity analysis include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Decision making or the development of recommendations for decision makers B. Model development C. Estimating the average outcome D. Increased understanding or quantification of the system Answer: ABD Question #77 Beth is an HR Professional for her organization and she's been alerted by management that the company will be outsourcing a large portion of operations. This outsourcing will likely cause several employees to lose employment with the organization. Which of the following is the best course of action that Beth can take in regard to communicating with the employees about the outsourcing change? A. Be honest and truthful and do not hide the facts. B. Refer all C. Document all D. Don't share the details of the outsourcing decision. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #78 Which of the following processes are involved under the COBIT framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Managing the IT workforce. B. Correcting all risk issues. C. Conducting IT risk assessments. D. Developing a strategic plan. Answer: ACD Question #79 Which of the following types of IT organizational structures states that all IT resources are centralized under a single reporting structure with centralized resource allocation (staffing), and the organizational structure is built around the resource pools? A. Federated B. Centralized C. Project-based D. Decentralized Answer: C Question #80 Lisa is the project manager of the SQL project for her company. She has completed the risk response planning with her project team and is now ready to update the risk register to reflect the risk response. Which of the following statements best describes the level of detail Lisa should include with the risk responses she has created? A. The level of detail is set by historical information. B. The level of detail should correspond with the priority ranking. C. The level of detail is set of project risk governance. D. The level of detail must define exactly the risk response for each identified risk. Answer: B Question #81 strategic plans with business strategic plans and the alignment of IT services with enterprise operations? A. Risk Management B. IT Governance Framework C. Strategic Alignment D. Value Delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #82 You are the project manager for the ABC organization. Your current project has 75 internal stakeholders and 245 external stakeholders. Many of the risks within your project will only affect the internal stakeholders, but several of the identified risk events will affect the external stakeholders. Management would like to know the total number of communication channels in the project. How many communication channels exist in this project? A. 245 B. 102,080 C. 51,040 D. 320 Answer: C Question #83 Which of the following is a process improvement approach that provides organizations with the essential elements for effective process improvement and guides process improvement across a project, a division, or an entire organization? A. Capability Maturity Model Integration B. Service Portfolio C. COBIT D. Six Sigma Answer: A Question #84 Amy is the project manager for her company. In her current project the organization has a very low tolerance for risk events that will affect the project schedule. Management has asked Amy to consider the affect of all the risks on the project schedule. What approach can Amy take to create a bias against risks that will affect the schedule of the project? A. She can filter all risks based on their affect on schedule versus other project objectives. B. She can have the project team pad their time estimates to alleviate delays in the project schedule C. She can shift risk-laden activities that affect the project schedule from the critical path as much a possible. D. She can create an overall project rating scheme to reflect the bias towards risks that affect the project schedule. Answer: D Question #85 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Della works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. She is working with the project stakeholders to begin the quantitative risk analysis process. Which of the following inputs will be needed for the quantitative risk analysis process in her project? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Project scope statement B. Risk management plan C. Cost management plan D. Risk register Answer: BCD Question #86 Which types of project tends to have more well-understood risks? A. First-of-its kind technology projects B. State-of-art technology projects C. Recurrent projects D. Operational work projects Answer: C Question #87 Marsha is the project manager of the NHQ Project. There's a risk that her project team has identified, which could cause the project to be late by more than a month. Marsha does not want this risk event to happen so she devises extra project activities to ensure that the risk event will not happen. The extra steps, however, will cost the project an additional $10,000. What type of risk response is this approach? A. Exploiting B. Transference C. Mitigation D. Enhancing Answer: C Question #88 Which of the following frameworks describes a standard for processes within business information management at the strategy, management and operations level? A. Val IT B. BISL C. COBIT D. TOGAF https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #89 You are the project manager of a large construction project. You are evaluating the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats involved in a project. In which of the following processes are you on? A. Define Scope B. Identify Risks C. Plan Risk Responses D. Plan Risk Management Answer: B Question #90 Which of the following is NOT a valid maturity level of the Software Capability Maturity Model (CMM)? A. Repeatable level B. Managed level C. Defined level D. Fundamental level Answer: D Question #91 A project manager must have certain interpersonal skills to communicate with stakeholders and manage their expectations of the project work. Which of the following interpersonal skills has been identified as one of the biggest reasons for project success or failure? A. Motivation B. Influencing C. Political and cultural awareness D. Communication Answer: D Question #92 TOGAF is based on four pillars, called architecture domains. Which of the following architecture domains provides a blueprint for the individual application systems to be deployed, the interactions between the application systems, and their relationships to the core business processes of the organization with the frameworks for services to be exposed as business functions for integration? A. Business architecture B. Applications architecture C. Technical architecture https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Data architecture Answer: B Question #93 Which of the following external factors complicate the notion of business-IT for achieving strategic alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Resource limitations B. Economic and regulatory changes C. World region changes and events D. Market changes Answer: BCD Question #94 You are hosting a collection of stakeholders from across the organization to identify the ideas and attitudes about your company's help desk. You want the stakeholders to honestly share their opinions about the help desk service so you can identify problems, solutions, and take actions to improve the service. What type of requirements elicitation activity is this? A. Root cause analysis B. Stakeholder analysis C. Focus groups D. Workshop Answer: C Question #95 Which of the following are the main objectives of the Performance measurement domain? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. It satisfies the customer's need. B. It defines value creation roles within IT. C. It meets out the goals. D. It statistically controls the process sequences. Answer: ACD Question #96 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! You work as a project manager for TechSoft Inc. You are working with the project stakeholders on the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. You have used all the tools to the qualitative risk analysis process in your project. Which of the following techniques is NOT used as a tool in qualitative risk analysis process? A. Risk Data Quality Assessment B. Risk Categorization C. Risk Reassessment D. Risk Urgency Assessment Answer: C Question #97 Paul has been asked to complete SWOT analysis for his solution scope. What does SWOT analysis mean? A. Stakeholder Weaknesses, Organizational Threats B. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Threats C. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, Time D. Stakeholders Weaknesses, Organization, Threats Answer: B Volume B Question #1 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are about to complete the quantitative risk analysis process for your project. You can use three available tools and techniques to complete this process. Which one of the following is NOT a tool or technique that is appropriate for the quantitative risk analysis process? A. Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques B. Organizational process assets C. Expert judgment D. Data gathering and representation techniques Answer: B Question #2 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Your project is using a new material to construct a large warehouse in your city. This new material is cheaper than traditional building materials, but it takes some time to learn how to use the material properly. You have communicated to the project stakeholders that you will be able to save costs by using the new material, but you will need a few extra weeks to complete training to use the materials. This risk response of learning how to use the new materials can also be known as what term? A. Cost-benefits analysis B. Benchmarking https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. Cost of conformance to quality D. Team development Answer: C Question #3 Which of the following methods offers a number of modeling practices and disciplines that contribute to a successful service-oriented life cycle management and modeling? A. Service-oriented modeling and architecture (SOMA) B. Service-oriented architecture (SOA) C. Sherwood Applied Business Security Architecture (SABSA) D. Service-oriented modeling framework (SOMF) Answer: D Question #4 Which of the following processes involves choosing the alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan? A. Scope Change control B. Monitor and Control risk C. Integrated Change control D. Configuration Management Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following architecture domains for TOGAF describes the structure of an organization's logical and physical data assets and the associated data management resources? A. Applications architecture B. Technical architecture C. Data architecture D. Business architecture Answer: C Question #6 Which volume provides guidance on clarification and prioritization of service-provider investments in services? A. Service Operation B. Service Strategy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. Service Design D. Service Management Answer: B Question #7 Which of the following problems occur with performance measurement systems that limit their usefulness? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. It is dependent on gross aggregates, which tend to understate or ignore distributional contributions and consequences. B. It is dependent on the timely occurrence of corrective action which is required for effective management control. C. It is dependent on historical patterns and reluctant to accept new structural changes that are capable of generating different outcomes D. It is dependent on summary data, which emphasizes averages and discounts outliers. Answer: ACD Question #8 You are the project manager of the NKJ Project for your company. The project's success or failure will have a significant impact on your organization's profitability for the coming year. Management has asked you to identify the risk events and communicate the event's probability and impact as early as possible in the project. Management wants to avoid risk events and needs to analyze the cost-benefits of each risk event in this project. What term is assigned to the low-level of stakeholder tolerance in this project? A. Risk utility function B. Mitigation-ready project management C. Risk-reward mentality D. Risk avoidance Answer: A Question #9 Which of the following techniques is used for understanding the "environment" in which a business operates? A. Critical success factor analysis B. PEST analysis C. SWOT analysis D. Market segmentation Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #10 Which of the following process groups is the most efficient at providing resources to the development of the procurement process? A. Acquisition process B. Contract management C. Process management D. Resource management Answer: A Question #11 You are working with your project stakeholders to identify risks within the JKP Project. You want to use an approach to engage the stakeholders to increase the breadth of the identified risks by including internally generated risk. Which risk identification approach is most suited for this goal? A. Brainstorming B. Assumptions analysis C. SWOT analysis D. Delphi Technique Answer: C Question #12 John is the project manager of the NHQ Project for his company. His project has 75 stakeholders, some of which are external to the organization. John needs to make certain that he communicates about risk in the most appropriate method for the external stakeholders. Which project management plan will be the best guide for John to communicate to the external stakeholders? A. Communications Management Plan B. Risk Response Plan C. Project Management Plan D. Risk Management Plan Answer: A Question #13 As seen from the perspective of how the enterprise defines and executes business strategies to achieve its goals and objectives, which of the following elements does the ERM comprise of? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Enhancing risk response decisions B. Providing integrated responses to few risks C. Reducing operational surprises and losses https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Aligning risk appetite and strategy Answer: ACD Question #14 You work as the project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are monitoring the project performance. You want to make a decision to change the project plan to eliminate a risk in order to protect the project objectives. Which of the following strategies will you use to tackle the risk? A. Risk mitigation B. Risk avoidance C. Risk acceptance D. Risk transference Answer: B Question #15 Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create? A. RACI chart B. Roles and responsibility matrix C. Work breakdown structure D. Resource breakdown structure Answer: D Question #16 You are the project manager of the CUL project in your organization. You and the project team are assessing the risk events and creating a probability and impact matrix for the identified risks. Which one of the following statements best describes the requirements for the data type used in qualitative risk analysis? A. A qualitative risk analysis requires fast and simple data to complete the analysis. B. A qualitative risk analysis required unbiased stakeholders with biased risk tolerances. C. A qualitative risk analysis encourages biased data to reveal risk tolerances. D. A qualitative risk analysis requires accurate and unbiased data if it is to be credible. Answer: D Question #17 Lisa is the project manager of the FKN project for her organization. She is working with Sam, the CIO, to discuss a discount the vendor has offered the project based on the amount of materials that is ordered. Lisa and Sam review the offer and agree that while their project may qualify for the discounted materials the savings is nominal and they https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! would not necessarily pursue the savings. Lisa documents this positive risk response in the risk register. What risk response is this? A. Share B. Acceptance C. Enhance D. Transference Answer: B Question #18 You are the project manager of the GHY Project and would like to perform a review of your project from several different characteristics. You would like to review what worked in the project and what needed improvement. What type of analysis would be most appropriate for the end of project review? A. Feasibility study B. Product breakdown C. Business case study D. SWOT analysis Answer: D Question #19 Which of the following best describes the identification, analysis, and ranking of risks? A. Plan Risk management B. Design of experiments C. Fixed-price contracts D. Fast tracking Answer: A Question #20 There are five inputs to the quantitative risk analysis process. Which one of the following is NOT an input to the perform quantitative risk analysis process? A. Risk management plan B. Risk register C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Cost management plan Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #21 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model describes that the IT governance processes is fully developed and optimized across the enterprise, and a well-built IT portfolio management process is put to ensure that all IT investment decisions are themselves optimized? A. Stage 2-Fragmented B. Stage 4-Best practices C. Stage 3-Consistent D. Stage 1-Ad hoc Answer: B Question #22 You are the project manager of the NHQ Project for your company. You have completed qualitative and quantitative analysis of your identified project risks and you would now like to find an approach to increase project opportunities and to reduce threats within the project. What project management process would best help you? A. Plan risk responses B. Create a risk governance approach C. Create the project risk register D. Monitor and control project risks Answer: A Question #23 Jane is the project manager of the GBB project for her company. In the current project a vendor has offered the project a ten percent discount based if they will order 100 units for the project. It is possible that the GBB Project may need the 100 units, but the cost of the units is not a top priority for the project. Jane documents the offer and tells the vendor that they will keep the offer in mind and continue with the project as planned. What risk response has been given in this project? A. Acceptance B. Enhance C. Sharing D. Exploiting Answer: A Question #24 Availability Management allows organizations to sustain the IT service availability to support the business at a justifiable cost. Which of the following elements of Availability Management is used to perform at an agreed level over a period of time? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Reliability B. Security C. Recoverability D. Serviceability E. Resilience F. Maintainability G. Error control Answer: ABCDEF Question #25 Your project team has identified a project risk that must be responded to. The risk has been recorded in the risk register and the project team has been discussing potential risk responses for the risk event. The event is not likely to happen for several months but the probability of the event is high. Which one of the following is a valid response to the identified risk event? A. Risk audit B. Earned value management C. Corrective action D. Technical performance measurement Answer: C Question #26 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _________ provides investment management services to the firm and directs on how to take decisions on fund. Answer: fund manager Question #27 You are the business analyst for the YGT Organization. You have just completed a capabilities gap assessment and have determined that your organization does not have the necessary resources and technology to seize a business opportunity. What is the most likely course of action for the organization? A. Hire contractors to complete the project work. B. Move onto the next opportunity. C. Launch a new project. D. Hire additional resources. Answer: C Question #28 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Stephen is the project manager of the GBB project. He has worked with two subject matter experts and his project team to complete the risk assessment technique. There are approximately 47 risks that have a low probability and a low impact on the project. Which of the following answers best describes what Stephen should do with these risk events? A. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to the risk register. B. Because they are low probability and low impact, the risks can be dismissed. C. Because they are low probability and low impact, Stephen should accept the risks. D. The low probability and low impact risks should be added to a watch list for future monitoring. Answer: D Question #29 Which of the following is a continuous process of comparing performance with desired objectives to identify opportunities for improvement, and is conducted by individuals, groups, or organizations relating to their own work? A. Management Assessment B. Continuous improvement C. Self Assessment D. Control Answer: C Question #30 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The _______ portion of the issue log records the previous pending issues that have been taken care of. Answer: resolved issues Question #31 In which of the following methods of risk mitigation does the senior management approve the implementation of the controls that are recommended by the risk management team, and that will lower the risk to an acceptable level? A. Risk Avoidance B. Risk Alleviation C. Risk Limitation D. Risk Transference Answer: B https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #32 A project team member has just identified a new project risk. The risk event is determined to have significant impact but a low probability in the project. Should the risk event happen it'll cause the project to be delayed by three weeks, which will cause new risk in the project. What should the project manager do with the risk event? A. Add the identified risk to a quality control management control chart. B. Add the identified risk to the low-level risk watchlist. C. Add the identified risk to the risk register. D. Add the identified risk to the issues log. Answer: C Question #33 Which of the following are the tasks performed by the Management committee in the Resource management framework? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. To work on architectural design B. To define value creation roles within IT C. To balance sustain/growth proposals D. To manage complex projects Answer: ACD Question #34 Which of the following steps are performed in the Planning phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Plan the risk-based assurance initiatives. B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives. C. Perform a quick risk assessment. D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ACD Question #35 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management describes the ability to model the IT Portfolio with metrics most appropriate to the business such as ROI, Break- Even, Cost Avoidance, and Revenue Return? A. Integrated Capability B. Portfolio What-If Planning https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. Integrated Dashboards and Scorecards D. Highly Configurable Answer: D Question #36 A. Strategic Alignment B. Risk Management C. Value Delivery D. IT Governance Framework Answer: D Question #37 Which of the following frameworks is for enterprise architecture, and provides a comprehensive approach to the design, planning, implementation, and governance of an enterprise information architecture? A. TOGAF B. Val IT C. BISL D. COBIT Answer: A Question #38 Service Transition contains detailed descriptions of which of the following processes? A. Change Management, Capacity Management, Event Management, and Service Request Management B. Service Level Management, Service Portfolio Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management C. Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release Management, and Request Fulfillment D. Change Management, Service Asset and Configuration Management, Release and Answer: D Question #39 Which of the following processes is responsible for controlling, recording and reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships relating to components of the Information Technology (IT) infrastructure? A. Service Catalogue Management B. Service Level Management C. ICT Operations Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Service Asset and Configuration Management Answer: D Question #40 You are the project manager of the GHG project for your company. You have identified the project risks, completed qualitative and quantitative analysis, and created risk responses. You also need to document how and when risk audits will be performed in the project. Where will you define the frequency of risk audits? A. Schedule management plan B. Risk management plan C. Quality management plan D. Risk response plan Answer: B Question #41 What stakeholder(s) must participate in the document elicitation result? A. Business analyst and the key stakeholders B. Business analyst and the business owner C. Business analyst, business analysis team, and the key stakeholders D. Business analyst Answer: D Question #42 You are the HR Professional for your organization and you're working with the management to define the role of contractors versus employees in your organization. According to the Internal Revenue Service, there are three categories of control that help determine whether a person is a contractor or an employee. Which one of the following is not one of the three levels of control as defined by the IRS for employee versus contractor? A. Type of relationship B. Locale of work performed C. Behavioral control D. Financial control Answer: B Question #43 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Holly and Gary are HR Professionals in their organization and they're working to develop the strategic plan for their organization. Holly and Gary are using SWOT analysis to help understand the needs of human, financial, technological, capital, and other aspects of their organization. What is SWOT? A. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats an organization may face. B. SWOT is an analysis to define the schedule, weaknesses, opportunities, and timetable of a project endeavor. C. SWOT is an analysis to define the strengths, weaknesses, openness, and timeliness of an organization. D. SWOT is an analysis to define the seriousness, weaknesses, openness, and timetable of organization development. Answer: A Question #44 DRAG DROP - COBIT stands for Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology. COBIT is a set of best practices (framework) for information technology (IT) management created by the Information Systems Audit and Control Association (ISACA), and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI) in 1996. Drag and drop the correct domain ('Monitor and Evaluate') next to the IT processes defined by COBIT to support CSI. Select and Place: Answer: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #45 What is the key output handed over to Service Transition within Service Design? A. Business Perspective B. Service Portfolio Management C. ITIL Small-Scale Implementation D. Service Design Package Answer: D Question #46 Which of the following processes are covered by Service Strategy? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Service Portfolio Management B. IT Financial Management C. Demand Management D. IT Architecture Management E. Supplier Management Answer: ABCE Question #47 Which of the following terms related to risk management represents the estimated frequency at which a threat is expected to occur? A. Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) B. Exposure Factor (EF) C. Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO) D. Safeguard Answer: C Question #48 Which of the following concepts is used to reduce the errors produced during the manufacturing or service process, increase customer satisfaction, streamline supply chain management, aims for modernization of equipment and ensures workers have the highest level of training? A. Balanced Scorecard (BSC) B. Six Sigma C. Total Quality Management D. Total Security Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #49 Enterprise analysis provides many things for an organization. All of the following are tasks included in enterprise analysis except for which one? A. Solution performance assessment B. Define business need C. Determine solution approach D. Assess capability gaps Answer: A Question #50 Billy is the project manager of the HAR Project and is in month six of the project. The project is scheduled to last for 18 months. Management asks Billy how often the project team is participating in risk reassessment in this project. What should Billy tell management if he's following the best practices for risk management? A. Project risk management happens at every milestone. B. Project risk management has been concluded with the project planning. C. At every status meeting the project team project risk management is an agenda item. D. Project risk management is scheduled for every month in the 18-month project. Answer: C Question #51 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities? A. Decision analysis B. Alternative generation C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints D. Ranking of approaches Answer: B Question #52 Service Level Management provides for continual identification, monitoring and review of the levels of IT services specified in the service level agreements (SLAs). What are the responsibilities of Service Level Management? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply. A. Producing and maintaining a Service Catalog. B. Liaising with Availability Management. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. Ensuring that the agreed IT services are delivered. D. Ensuring the primary functions of the Service Desk. E. Ensuring that appropriate IT Service Continuity plans have been made. Answer: ABCE Question #53 You are the project manager of a computer upgrade project. You and the vendor are in dispute over the deliverables the vendor was to provide and configure. What document can best describe how you and the vendor are to proceed if there is a claim against the vendor? A. Procurement management plan B. Project cost management plan C. Enterprise environmental factors D. Contract Answer: D Question #54 Which of the following is a way of delivering value to customers by facilitating outcome that customers wish to get without the control of specific costs and risks? A. Processes B. Service Desk C. Functions D. Service Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following objectives can be the best coordinated with the Human resource management? A. Increasing the automation of the business processes B. Satisfying the business needs C. Rewarding employee fairly D. Focusing on the business improvements Answer: B Question #56 Which of the following steps are performed in the Scoping phase of IT Assurance methodology? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Customize control objectives. B. Scope and plan assurance initiatives. C. Select the control objectives for critical processes. D. Assess process maturity. Answer: ABC Question #57 Which of the following frameworks describes an enterprise view of all project management activities and how these activities contribute to the success of the organization? A. Casualty Actuarial Society framework B. COSO ERM C. Enterprise project management (EPM) D. COBIT Answer: C Question #58 Which of the following planned and purposeful management processes are required by Strategic Alignment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Clarifying the role that IT should play B. Aligning IT strategy with the business strategy C. Evaluating, post implementation, benefits delivered by IT D. Creating and sustaining awareness of the strategic role of IT at a top management level Answer: ACD Question #59 Which of the following terms includes performance objectives and criteria (POCs), performance indicators, and any other means that evaluate the success in achieving a specified goal? A. Precision B. Performance Measurement System C. Performance Measure D. Performance Measurement Category Answer: C Question #60 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! For the entire IT organizations to be agile, all members of the IT organizations need to understand the need for agility and be committed to this process. Which of the following working principles or activity loops are involved for the IT organizations to be agile? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Loop 2 B. Loop 4 C. Loop3 D. Loop 1 Answer: ACD Question #61 You are interviewing members of a project team to test their understanding of the assigned risk responses as risk owners. You and the project manager are working together to evaluate the risk responses to determine their effectiveness in the project. What project management technique are you performing with the project manager in this scenario? A. Risk identification with the project team B. Risk audits C. Risk analysis D. Stakeholder analysis as the project team is a stakeholder Answer: B Question #62 Which of the following domains of COBIT addresses the development of a maintenance plan that a company should adopt in order to prolong the life of an IT system and its components? A. Plan and Organize B. Acquire and Implement C. Deliver and Support D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: B Question #63 Which of the following frameworks defines ERM as the discipline by which an organization in any industry assesses, controls, exploits, finances, and monitors risks from all sources for the purpose of increasing the organization's short- and long-term value to its stakeholders? A. COSO ERM framework B. COBIT C. Val IT https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Casualty Actuarial Society framework Answer: D Question #64 Ned is the project manager of the HNN project for your company. Ned has asked you to help him complete some probability distributions for his project. What portion of the project will you most likely use for probability distributions? A. Uncertainty in values such as duration of schedule activities B. Risk probability and impact matrixes C. Bias towards risk in new resources D. Risk identification Answer: A Question #65 Walter is the project manager of a large construction project. He'll be working with several vendors on the project. Vendors will be providing materials and labor for several parts of the project. Some of the works in the project are very dangerous so Walter has implemented safety requirements for all of the vendors and his own project team. Stakeholders for the project have added new requirements, which have caused new risks in the project. A vendor has identified a new risk that could affect the project if it comes into fruition. Walter agrees with the vendor and has updated the risk register and created potential risk responses to mitigate the risk. What should Walter also update in this scenario considering the risk event? A. Project contractual relationship with the vendor B. Project communications plan C. Project scope statement D. Project management plan Answer: D Question #66 You are the project manager of the NGQQ Project for your company. To help you communicate project status to your stakeholders, you are going to create a stakeholder register. All of the following information should be included in the stakeholder register except for which one? A. Stakeholder management strategy B. Assessment information of the stakeholders' major requirements, expectations, and potential influence C. Stakeholder classification of their role in the project D. Identification information for each stakeholder https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #67 Which of the following stages of the Forrester's IT Governance Maturity Model states that there are no proper IT governance processes, and it is not documented by management as a requirement? A. Stage 3-Consistent B. Stage 2-Fragmented C. Stage 1-Ad hoc D. Stage 4-Best practices Answer: C Question #68 Event Management, Problem Management, Access Management, and Request Fulfillment are part of which of the following stages of the Service Lifecycle? A. Service Strategy B. Service Transition C. Continual Service Improvement D. Service Operation Answer: D Question #69 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You have to communicate the causes of risk events to the stakeholders. Which risk diagramming technique you will use to communicate the causes of risk events to project stakeholders? A. Project network diagrams B. Ishikawa diagrams C. Process flow charts D. Influence diagrams Answer: B Question #70 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. _______are activities that are dangerous to complete and manage such as construction, electrical work, or manufacturing. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: Pure risks Question #71 What project management plan is most likely to direct the quantitative risk analysis process for a project in a matrix environment? A. Risk management plan B. Staffing management plan C. Risk analysis plan D. Human resource management plan Answer: A Question #72 The water sanitation project manager has determined that risks associated with handling certain chemicals are too high. He has therefore decided to allow someone else to complete this portion of the project by outsourcing the handling and installation of the chemicals and filter equipment to an experienced contractor. This is an example of which of the following? A. Transference B. Acceptance C. Mitigation D. Avoidance Answer: A Question #73 Which of the following outsourcing defines the performance objectives reached by negotiation between the user and the provider of a service, or between an outsourcer and an organization? A. Service level Agreement (SLA) B. Proposal C. Contract D. Outsource Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following essential elements of IT Portfolio Investment Management seamlessly initiates the projects, and incorporates the asset and software development costs to improve the accuracy of ongoing portfolio assessment and project prioritization? A. Portfolio Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. Portfolio What-If Planning C. Integrated Capability D. Portfolio Planning Analysis Answer: C Question #75 Shawn is the project manager of the WHT Project for his company. In this project Shawn's team reports that they have found a way to complete the project work for less cost than what was originally planned. The project team presents a new software that will help to automate the project work. While the software and the associated training costs $25,000 it will save the project nearly $65,000 in total costs. Shawn agrees to the software and changes to the project management plan accordingly. What type of risk response has been used in this instance? A. Enhancing B. Accepting C. Avoidance D. Exploiting Answer: D Question #76 Which of the following sub-processes of Capacity Management is concerned with the management of the individual components of the IT Infrastructure? A. Capacity Management Reporting B. Business Capacity Management C. Service Capacity Management D. Resource Capacity Management Answer: D Question #77 You work as the project manager for Bluewell Inc. You are working on NGQQ Project for your company. You have completed the risk analysis processes for the risk events. You and the project team have created risk responses for most of the identified project risks. Which of the following risk response planning techniques will you use to shift the impact of a threat to a third party, together with the responses? A. Risk transference B. Risk avoidance C. Risk acceptance D. Risk mitigation https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #78 Which of the following are the advantages of IT Resource Management? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. It develops the IT service quality and effectiveness. B. It reduces the IT project complexity. C. It reduces the enterprise risks. D. It provides customer organization to construct the Request for Proposal (RFP). Answer: ABC Question #79 Which of the following domains of COBIT covers the use of information & technology, and how best it can be used in a company to help achieve the company's goals and objectives? A. Deliver and Support B. Acquire and Implement C. Plan and Organize D. Monitor and Evaluate Answer: C Question #80 Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management? A. Planning meetings and analysis B. Variance and trend analysis C. Data gathering and representation techniques D. Information gathering techniques Answer: A Question #81 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the various SSE-CMM levels at the appropriate places. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Select and Place: Answer: Question #82 You are the project manager of a large construction project. Part of the project involves the wiring of the electricity in the building your project is creating. You and the project team determine the electrical work is too dangerous to perform yourself so you hire an electrician to perform the work for the project. This is an example of what type of risk response? A. Avoidance B. Mitigation C. Transference D. Acceptance Answer: C Question #83 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Gary is the project manager of the MMQ project for his company. He is working with his project team to plan the risk responses for his project. Sarah, a project team member, does not understand the process that Gary is using to plan the risk responses. Which approach is the preferred method to address project risks and the risk responses? A. Risks in the project should be addressed by their probability for creating risk responses. B. Risks in the project should be addressed by the organization's risk tolerance for creating risk responses. C. Risks in the project should be addressed by their priority for creating risk responses. D. Risks in the project should be addressed by their impact for creating risk responses. Answer: C Question #84 Which of the following are the main benefits of using Information Services Procurement Library (ISPL)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. The contract can be used as a control instrument. B. The customer can take advantage of the competitive market. C. The proposals of consumers become comparable. D. The use of a strategy that really fits the situation. Answer: ABD Question #85 During qualitative risk analysis you want to define the risk urgency assessment. All of the following are indicators of risk priority except for which one? A. Risk rating B. Warning signs C. Cost of the project D. Symptoms Answer: C Question #86 What does the T in SWOT analysis mean? A. Time B. Trial C. Threats D. Test https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #87 Which of the following components work to support achievements of the enterprise's mission, strategies, and related business objectives in an internal control system? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Control activities B. Control environment C. Strategic alignment D. Risk assessment Answer: ABD Question #88 Which of the following are the objectives of Service Level Management (SLM)? 1. To negotiate SLAs with the customers and to design services in accordance with the agreed service level targets. 2. Defining, documenting, and agreeing the level of IT Services to be provided. 3. Identifying possible future markets that the Service Provider could operate in. 4. Monitoring, measuring, and reporting the actual level of services provided. 5. Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction. A. 1, 2, and 3 only B. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only C. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 D. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only E. 1 and 2 only Answer: B Question #89 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules? A. Risk management plan B. Enterprise environmental factors C. Risk probability and impact matrix D. Organizational process assets Answer: D Question #90 Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) is a logical process used by programmers to develop software. Which of the following SDLC phases meets the audit objectives defined below? System and data are validated. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! System meets all user requirements. System meets all control requirements. A. Evaluation and acceptance B. Programming and training C. Initiation D. Definition Answer: A Question #91 Ben is the project manager of the CMH Project for his organization. He has identified a risk that has a low probability of happening, but the impact of the risk event could save the project and the organization with a significant amount of capital. Ben assigns Laura to the risk event and instructs her to research the time, cost, and method to improve the probability of the positive risk event. Ben then communicates the risk event and response to management. What risk response has been used here? A. Enhance B. Transference C. Sharing D. Exploit Answer: A Question #92 You are the project manager for ABC project. You are planning for when and how human resource requirements will be met. You are working on ____. A. Scope management plan B. Project organization chart C. Staffing management plan D. Resource calendar Answer: C Question #93 Jeff works as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. He is determining which risks can affect the project. Which of the following are the inputs to the identify risks process that Jeff will use to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Risk management plan B. Activity cost estimates C. Scope baseline https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Risk register Answer: ABC Question #94 Which of the following types of agreement creates a confidential relationship between the parties to protect any type of confidential and proprietary information or a trade secret? A. CNC B. NDA C. SLA D. Non-price competition Answer: B Question #95 Gary is the project manager for his organization. He is working with the project stakeholders on the project requirements and how risks may affect their project. One of the stakeholders is confused about what constitutes risks in the project. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of a project risk? A. It is an unknown event that can affect the project scope. B. It is an uncertain event that can affect at least one project objective. C. It is an uncertain event that can affect the project costs. D. It is an uncertain event or condition within the project execution. Answer: B Question #96 Which of the following roles is used to ensure that the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the services are maintained to the levels approved on the Service Level Agreement (SLA)? A. The Service Level Manager B. The Configuration Manager C. The IT Security Manager D. The Change Manager Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #97 Which of the following are commonly used terms when discussing service improvement outcomes? 1) Improvements 2) Benefits 3) Return On Investment (ROI) 4) Value On Investment(VOI) 5) Resources A. 2, 3, and 5 only B. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only C. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only D. 1, 2, and 4 only E. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 Answer: C Question #98 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT identifies resource requirements? A. PM5 B. PM3 C. PM2 D. PM4 Answer: C Volume C Question #1 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT establishes an investment threshold? A. PM4 B. PM7 C. PM6 D. PM5 Answer: C Question #2 Which of the following ISO standards defines the corporate governance of IT? A. ISO 9000 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. ISO 27001 C. ISO 20000 D. ISO 38500 Answer: D Question #3 Which of the following concepts aims to limit errors to 1 per million units produced? A. TQM B. BSC C. Six Sigma D. TSM Answer: A Question #4 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT establishes the organizational structures? A. VG7 B. VG9 C. VG6 D. VG8 Answer: A Question #5 Which of the following activity loops describes improvement of the existing processes? A. Loop 3 B. Loop 4 C. Loop 1 D. Loop 2 Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following strategies includes marketing strategies, new product development strategies, HR strategies and, financial strategies? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Operational strategy B. Corporate strategy C. Business strategy D. Functional strategy Answer: D Question #7 Which of the following phases in SDLC transforms the detailed requirements into complete, detailed system design document? A. Planning B. Design C. Development D. Initiation Answer: B Question #8 Which of the following phases in SDLC provides the basis for acquiring the resources needed to achieve a solution? A. Design B. Planning C. Development D. Initiation Answer: B Question #9 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle occurs during the concept and idea stages of basic research? A. IT asset phase B. IT discovery phase C. IT process phase D. IT project phase Answer: B Question #10 Which of the following steps of development of business case describes the financial benefits analysis? A. Step 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. Step 3 C. Step 2 D. Step 4 Answer: B Question #11 Which of the following is a practice of forecasting possible risks to the organization and taking steps to mitigate their impact on operations? A. Timekeeping B. Enterprise risk management C. Applicant tracking systems D. HR audit Answer: B Question #12 Which of the following risk functions directs the Sarbanes-Oxley Section 302 and 404 assessments? A. Operations management B. Accounting / Financial compliance C. Operational Quality Assurance D. Compliance & Ethics Answer: B Question #13 Which of the following project management plans defines the risk identification, analysis, response, and monitoring strategies? A. Communications Management Plan B. Resource Management Plan C. Risk Management Plan D. Stakeholder management strategy Answer: C Question #14 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for policy creation, policy communication, record creation, and HR information systems? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Compensation and benefit B. Personnel policy C. Analysis and design for work D. Support for strategy Answer: B Question #15 Which of the following resource categories includes costs, productivity, availability, and change and configuration management? A. Products B. Processes C. People D. Partners Answer: B Question #16 What is the formula for measuring the "usage gap"? A. Usage gap = market potential - existing usage B. Usage gap = market potential * existing usage C. Usage gap = market potential / existing usage D. Usage gap = market potential + existing usage Answer: A Question #17 Which of the following individuals/team advises on infrastructure needs and architectural design? A. Management committee B. CEO C. CIO D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #18 In which of the following types of biases does the data collection itself interfere with the process it is measuring? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Interaction B. Nonresponse C. Perception D. Operational Answer: A Question #19 Which of the following categories describes the value added by the process divided by the value of the labor and capital consumed? A. Quality B. Timeliness C. Quantity D. Productivity Answer: D Question #20 Which of the following processes uses statistical evidences to determine progress toward specific defined organizational objectives? A. Resource management B. Risk management C. Value delivery D. Performance measurement Answer: D Question #21 Which of the following has the tendency or inclination of outlook that is a troublesome source of error in human sensing? A. Defect B. Bias (of measurement) C. Vulnerability D. Risk Answer: B Question #22 Which of the following areas tracks the project delivery, and monitors the IT services? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Risk management B. Performance measurement C. Strategic alignment D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #23 Which of the following individuals ensures that IT complies with policy, laws and regulations? A. Project sponsor B. Compliance officer C. Supplier D. Business partner Answer: B Question #24 Which of the following IT processes contained in the Deliver and Support domain of COBIT manages the operations? A. DS10 B. DS13 C. DS9 D. DS8 Answer: B Question #25 Which of the following individuals supports and contributes to customer's governance approach? A. User representatives B. Supplier/Business partners C. Compliance officers D. Project sponsors Answer: B Question #26 Which of the following techniques builds various plausible views of possible futures for a business? A. PEST analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. Scenario Planning C. SWOT Analysis D. Market Segmentation Answer: B Question #27 Which of the following areas focuses on aligning with the business and collaborative solutions? A. Risk management B. Strategic alignment C. Resource management D. Value delivery Answer: B Question #28 Which of the following techniques seeks to identify the similarities and differences between the groups of customers or users? A. Market Segmentation B. PEST Analysis C. SWOT Analysis D. Scenario Planning Answer: A Question #29 Which of the following areas concentrates on optimizing expenses, and providing the value of IT? A. Value delivery B. Risk management C. Resource management D. Strategic alignment Answer: A Question #30 Which of the following is used as a tool that assists in risk identification? A. Performance report B. Status report https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. Variance analysis D. Issue log Answer: D Question #31 Which of the following is the amount of risk an enterprise is willing to except in pursuit of its mission? A. Threats B. Vulnerability C. Risk Appetite D. Inherent Risk Answer: C Question #32 Which of the following risks refers to the risk associated with an event in the absence of specific controls? A. Financial reporting risk B. Inherent risk C. Operational risk D. Compliance risk Answer: B Question #33 Which of the following types of risks includes liability torts, property damage, natural catastrophe and financial risk? A. Asset risk B. Hazard risk C. Operational risk D. Strategic risk Answer: B Question #34 Which of the following areas addresses the safeguarding of IT assets, disaster recovery and continuity of operations? A. Performance measurement B. Risk management C. Value delivery https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Strategic alignment Answer: B Question #35 Which of the following individuals/team allocates business resources for effective IT governance? A. Business Executive B. CEO C. CIO D. IT Strategy Committee Answer: A Question #36 Which of the following resource categories includes skill sets, certifications, productivity, and morale? A. Partners B. Processes C. People D. Products Answer: C Question #37 Which of the following attributes are the COBIT's generic maturity model attributes? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Policies, plans and procedures B. Tools and automation C. Awareness and communication D. Availability and accessibility Answer: ABC Question #38 Which of the following systems come under the category of linking systems to connect an enterprise with its customers and supplier? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Website and portal B. Electronic data interchange (EDI)/extensible markup language (XML) data transfer systems https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. Office productivity D. E-mail, smartphone, instant messaging Answer: ABD Question #39 Which of the following steps of IT governance program establishes a balanced scorecard mechanism for measuring current performance that are related to the IT governance focus areas? A. Define target areas B. Develop improvement strategies C. Understand and define the risks D. Measure results Answer: D Question #40 objectives? A. Strategic Alignment B. Performance management C. Value Delivery D. Risk Management Answer: A Question #41 Which of the following steps of IT governance program decides on the highest priority projects that will help to improve the management and governance of the significant gap areas? A. Define target areas B. Develop improvement strategies C. Measure results D. Understand and define the risks Answer: B Question #42 In which of the following components of the COSO ERM are the policies and procedures established and implemented to help ensure that the risk responses are effectively carried out? A. Control activity https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. Risk assessment C. Risk response D. Event identification Answer: A Question #43 Which of the following factors influence the operating environment of an enterprise? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Mission, vision and values of an enterprise B. Outcome measures C. Stakeholders values D. Industry practices Answer: ACD Question #44 You are using the IT BSC management tool to apply the practices of IT BSC to the IT function. You want to perform the following functions: ➡ Deliver value ➡ Manage cost ➡Manage risks ➡Achieve intercompany synergies Which process of the IT BSC Measurement tool will you use? A. Future Orientation B. Operational excellence C. Corporate contribution D. Customer Orientation Answer: C Question #45 Which of the following types of benefits are provided by the new IT-driven initiative for IT investment program? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Cost avoidance benefit B. Direct benefit C. Indirect benefit D. Incremental benefit https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: ABD Question #46 Which of the following components of COSO ERM framework encompasses the nature of an enterprise, and sets the basis for how risk is viewed and addressed by an organization people, including risk management philosophy and risk appetite, integrity and ethical values, and the environment in which it operates? A. Risk response B. Risk assessment C. Control activity D. Internal environment Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following are the categories of IT-related spending or investments defined by the META group? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Grow the business B. Strategic investment C. Transform the business D. Run the business Answer: ACD Question #48 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of cost containment, predictability or reliability, continual unit cost improvement, and benchmarking for justification? A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) Answer: C Question #49 Which of the following functions are performed by the Future Orientation measure of the IT BSC management tool? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. It focuses on professional learning and development. B. It attracts and retains people with key competencies. C. It manages operational service performance. D. It measures and rewards individual and team performance. Answer: ABD Question #50 Which of the following are the process control objectives for the process controls embedment? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Process ownership B. Process goals and objectives C. Process repeatability D. Process availability Answer: ABC Question #51 Which of the following guides provides risk and value statements to help identify and validate the need to execute each control objective? A. IT assurance guide B. IT control objectives for Basel II guide C. COBIT control practices guide D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: C Question #52 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of anticipation of business needs, service levels over cost, and business enablement and facilitation (removal of obstacles)? A. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) B. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) C. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) D. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) Answer: B Question #53 Which of the following components of the COSO ERM identifies the required information, captures it, and communicates it in a form and time frame that enable people to carry out their responsibilities? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Information and communication B. Internal environment C. Monitoring D. Objectives setting Answer: A Question #54 Which of the following statements explains the difference between the IT strategy committee and the IT steering committee? A. The IT strategy committee assists the executive in the delivery of the IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee advises the board and management on IT strategy. B. The IT strategy committee focuses on implementation, whereas the IT steering committee focuses on the current and future strategic IT issues. C. The IT strategy committee aligns and approves the IT architecture, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority conflicts. D. The IT strategy committee provides direction to management relative to IT strategy, whereas the IT steering committee monitors the resource and priority Answer: D Question #55 Which of the following guides provides guidance on how COBIT is useful in supporting a variety of assurance tasks, along with the recommended testing steps that are aligned with the control practices? A. COBIT control practices guide B. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide C. IT assurance guide D. IT control objectives for Basel II guide Answer: C Question #56 Which of the following examples are included in the general controls embedded in IT processes and services? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Completeness B. Change management C. Systems development D. Accuracy https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: BC Question #57 Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. The ________ creates and delivers momentum in gaining executive support, and provides help to set up messaging that is constantly conveyed to motivate the team, and gives information to the stakeholders. Answer: communication plan Question #58 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to decrease costs or revenues? A. Increasing production rates B. Decreasing production and operating costs C. Improving product quality D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: ABC Question #59 Which of the following objectives are used by the system to increase costs or revenues? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Erecting barriers to entry by competitors B. Increasing production rates C. Improving product quality D. Creating new distribution channels Answer: AD Question #60 The testing methods help in shaping opinion against assurance objectives by combining one or more of the test types. Which of the following are the test types used in this process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Observe B. Inspect C. Plan D. Inquire Answer: ABD https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #61 Which of the following strategic issues in the IFAC report highlight the underlying success and failure of enterprises? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Ability to provide service feedback to providers B. Strategy execution C. Ability to undertake successful mergers and acquisitions D. Clarity of strategy Answer: BCD Question #62 Which of the following guides emphasizes on the fundamental steps for implementing information security within the enterprise, and provides easy to follow guidance for addressing security aspects of IT governance? A. COBIT security baseline guide B. COBIT control practices guide C. IT assurance guide D. IT control for Sarbanes Oxley guide Answer: A Question #63 Which of the following quadrant analysis identifies the key issues of working well with other functions, IT value realization over time rather than-just cost, and being business process- focused but solution driven? A. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market leader (risk-taker/high growth) B. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market leader (risktaker/high growth) C. High level role (strategic/transformational) and business market followers (riskaverse/mature) D. Low level role (tactical/utility) and business market followers (risk-averse/mature) Answer: C Question #64 Which of the following examples are included in the application controls embedded in business process applications? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. A. Segregation of duties B. Validity C. Security D. Computer operations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: AB Question #65 Which of the following individuals provides the funding, and want to see the return on their investment and strategic alignment with their strategic objectives? A. Compliance officers B. Internal auditors C. Business partners D. Product suppliers Answer: C Question #66 Which of the following processes contained in the Value Governance domain of Val IT defines information requirements? A. VG6 B. VG4 C. VG5 D. VG3 Answer: C Question #67 Which of the following is a family of ISO standards for Total Quality Management (TQM)? A. ISO 20000 B. ISO 9000 C. ISO 38500 D. ISO 27001 Answer: B Question #68 Which of the following processes contained in the Portfolio Management domain of Val IT creates an overall portfolio view? A. PM8 B. PM7 C. PM9 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. PM10 Answer: C Question #69 Which of the following individuals provides service feedback to the providers? A. Compliance officers B. User representatives C. Project sponsors D. Suppliers Answer: B Question #70 Which of the following is a non repetitive set of tasks that lead to the achievement of a new objective? A. Plan B. Strategy C. Techniques D. Tactics Answer: A Question #71 Which of the following activity loops emphasizes on monitoring and deciding processes? A. Loop 2 B. Loop 4 C. Loop 3 D. Loop 1 Answer: D Question #72 Which of the following activity loops describes creation of new processes? A. Loop 3 B. Loop 2 C. Loop 4 D. Loop 1 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #73 In which of the following editions of COBIT was "Management Guidelines" added? A. The third edition B. The first edition C. The fourth edition D. The second edition Answer: D Question #74 Which of the following service delivery processes includes controls, document and record, as its sub processes? A. Service level management B. Service reporting C. Information security management D. Capacity management Answer: C Question #75 Which of the following phases of IT lifecycle is governed by a series of stages and gates for managing the lifecycle of projects? A. IT project phase B. IT process phase C. IT asset phase D. IT discovery phase Answer: A Question #76 Which of the following service delivery processes has the goal to produce, agreed on, timely, reliable, and accurate reports for the effective communication? A. Service level management B. Service reporting C. Information security management D. Capacity management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #77 What is the major goal of risk management in the decision-making process? A. To manage the clients B. To manage the time C. To manage the resources D. To manage the uncertainty Answer: D Question #78 Which of the following types of risks includes currency risk, liquidity risk, and technology obsolescence? A. Asset risk B. Operational risk C. Hazard risk D. Strategic risk Answer: A Question #79 Which of the following risk functions ensures the product/service alignment with the customer requirements? A. Accounting B. Marketing C. Strategic planning D. Credit Answer: B Question #80 Which of the following is the process of identifying and assessing factors that may jeopardize the success of a project or the achievement of a goal? A. Risk retention B. Risk identification C. Risk communication D. Risk analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #81 Which of the following is the process of defining the way work is performed and the tasks that a given job requires? A. Selection B. Recruitment C. Job design D. Job analysis Answer: C Question #82 Which of the following functions of HR department is liable for attitude surveys, labor relation, employee handbook, and labor law compliance? A. Personnel policy B. Employee relation C. Compensation and benefit D. Analysis and design for work Answer: B Question #83 Which of the following categories measures the health of the organization and the working environment of its employees? A. Quantity B. Safety C. Effectiveness D. Efficiency Answer: B Question #84 Which of the following is concerned with fairness and transparency? A. Continual Service Improvement B. Service Support C. Service Strategy D. Governance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D More Questions. Question #1 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration for an enterprise when prioritizing IT projects? A. Results of IT performance benchmarks against competitors B. Impact on the business due to expected project outcomes C. Technical capability of the enterprise to execute the projects D. Process owner expectations based on operational benefits Answer: B Reference: https://www.cio.com/article/3294993/prioritizing-projects.html Question #2 Senior management finds that too many projects are currently in-progress and all are experiencing expensive project overruns due to lack of resources. Many of the projects also appear to overlap in their objectives and expected outcomes. Which of the following would BEST streamline the process of evaluating and selecting funding priorities? A. Portfolio management B. Value governance C. Project management D. Business case development Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2016/ensuring-value-from-it-enabledinvestments Question #3 The CEO of a large enterprise has announced the commencement of a major business expansion that will double the size of the organization. IT will need to support the expected demand expansion. The CIO should FIRST: A. update the IT strategic plan to align with the decision. B. recruit IT resources based on the expansion decision. C. review the resource utilization matrix. D. embed IT personnel in the business units. Answer: C Question #4 Portfolio management in a large enterprise BEST enables which of the following? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Performance management B. Risk reduction C. Value creation D. Human resource optimization Answer: B Question #5 Which of the following BEST defines the IT investment activities an enterprise will undertake when aligning to business goals? A. Portfolio management B. Procurement management C. Project management D. Risk management Answer: D Question #6 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when implementing IT governance in a small, newly established organization? A. Approving enterprise architecture and standards B. Defining IT project management methodology C. Assigning a budget for IT governance applications D. Assigning IT roles and responsibilities Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/news-and-trends/newsletters/cobit-focus/2017/using-cobit-in-governmentdepartments Question #7 Which of the following is the BEST method to monitor IT governance effectiveness? A. Service level management B. Balanced scorecard C. Risk control self-assessment D. Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis Answer: B Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/issues/2016/volume-6/performance-measurement-metrics-for-itgovernance https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #8 An internal auditor conducts an assessment of a two-year-old IT risk management program. Which of the following findings should be of MOST concern to the CIO? A. Organizational responsibility for IT risk management is not clearly defined. B. IT risk training records are not properly retained in accordance with established schedules. C. None of the members of the IT risk management team have risk management-related certifications. D. Only a few key risk indicators identified by the IT risk management team are being monitored and the rest will be on a phased schedule. Answer: D Question #9 An enterprise has discovered that there is significant duplication of IT investments. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in addressing this issue? A. Establishing an IT steering committee B. Delegating IT investment decisions to centralized IT C. Maintaining an inventory of IT investments D. Increasing the frequency of IT investment audits Answer: A Question #10 A regulatory audit assessed an enterprise's main transactional application as noncompliant. In addition to fines and required corrections, an agreement was reached to implement a set of governance controls over IT. Accountability for these controls is BEST assigned to which of the following? A. Internal audit director B. CIO C. The board of directors D. Application users Answer: A Question #11 An enterprise is planning a change in business direction. As a result, IT risk will significantly increase. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST course of action? A. Plan for the corresponding IT reorganization. B. Recommend delaying the business change. C. Report the risk to executive management. D. Implement IT changes to align with the plan. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #12 Which of the following is the GREATEST expected strategic organizational benefit from the standardization of technical platforms? A. Reduces IT operational training costs B. Reduces response time C. Meets regulatory compliance requirements D. Optimizes infrastructure investments Answer: D Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=odC_AQAAQBAJ&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=enterprise+IT+expected+strat egic+organizational+benefit+from +the+standardization+of+technical +platforms&source=bl&ots=KnpTgkPPsb&sig=ACfU3U3fIFhOpMt81n2_xEoKhLtDFBmv8g&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKE wjegNiP6PfpAhWOh1wKHQB4AX8Q6AE wCXoECAcQAQ#v=onepage&q=enterprise%20IT%20expected%20strategic%20organizational%20benefit%20from% 20the%20standardization%20of% 20technical%20platforms&f=false Question #13 Which of the following would be the BEST way for an enterprise to address new legal and regulatory requirements applicable to IT? A. Benchmark how other IT organizations are treating the new requirements. B. Adopt a zero-tolerance approach for noncompliance with regulatory matters. C. Treat as a risk to be assessed before developing a response. D. Use a cost-benefit analysis to determine if compliance is warranted. Answer: D Question #14 Which of the following is MOST critical for sustaining a newly implemented IT governance program? A. Launch an enterprise-wide IT governance awareness program. B. Designate a board representative to sponsor the IT governance program. C. Ensure that there are IT policies, procedures, and standards in place. D. Benchmark the program periodically against industry peers. Answer: C Question #15 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise decides to accept the IT risk of a subsidiary located in another country even though it exceeds the enterprise's risk appetite. Which of the following would be the BEST justification for this decision? A. Local market common practices B. Risk framework alignment C. Technical gaps among subsidiaries D. Compliance with local regulations Answer: C Question #16 The board of directors of an enterprise has questioned whether the business is focused on optimizing value. The IT strategy committee's BEST action to address the board's concern is to: A. initiate reporting and review of key IT performance metrics. B. form a technology council to monitor the efficiency of project implementation. C. conduct a portfolio review to assess the benefits realization of IT investments. D. conduct a benchmark to assess IT value relative to competitors. Answer: A Question #17 РСЕО determines the enterprise is lagging behind its competitors in consumer mobile offerings, and mandates an aggressive rollout of several new mobile services within the next 12 months. To ensure the IT organization is capable of supporting this business objective, the enterprise's CIO should FIRST: A. procure contractors with experience in mobile application development. B. task direct reports with creating training plans for their teams. C. create a sense of urgency with the IT team that mobile knowledge is mandatory. D. request an assessment of current in-house mobile technology skills. Answer: D Question #18 Following a merger of two major corporations, the new strategic goal is "One business function. One IT system." Which of the following should be the FIRST step to achieve this goal? A. Form a combined IT steering committee. B. Document requirements for each business function. C. Create a standard enterprise architecture. D. Define service level agreements with each business function. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #19 Which of the following is the BEST approach to ensure IT technical competencies support the enterprise? A. Ensure there is adequate budget for IT technical training. B. Determine training requirements from customer service satisfaction surveys. C. Align training requirements to the capabilities needed to support the business strategy. D. Hold annual job fairs targeting new graduates in IT technical fields. Answer: C Reference: https://www.mckinsey.com/~/media/McKinsey/Industries/Financial%20Services/Our%20Insights/Nextgen%20technology%20transformation%20in% 20financial%20services/Next-gen-technology-transformation-in-financial-services.ashx Question #20 A data governance strategy has been defined by the IT strategy committee which includes privacy objectives related to access controls, authorized use, and data collection. Which of the following should the committee do NEXT? A. Mandate the creation of a data privacy policy. B. Establish a data privacy budget. C. Perform a data privacy impact assessment. D. Mandate data privacy training for employees. Answer: A Question #21 Once an IT governance framework has been defined, which of the following is the MOST effective approach to align IT to business objectives? A. Auditing the alignment of IT to business objectives regularly B. Reviewing the return on investment of IT initiatives on a regular basis C. Establishing a cross business unit committee to prioritize IT investment D. Reporting IT investment and performance to senior management regularly Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=r2e7NmwoFGoC&pg=PA137&lpg=PA137&dq=Once+an+IT+governance+fra mework+has+been+defined, +which+of+the+following+is+the+MOST+effective+approach+to+align+IT+to+business +objectives&source=bl&ots=tz7jATmLvQ&sig=ACfU3U1dkpiL5L1JJLfyOORIf9gBtlFSDQ&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj Cqv7_- ffpAhXGN8AKHSOpDoAQ6AEwCnoECAkQAQ#v=onepage&q=Once%20an%20IT%20governance%20framework%20h as%20been%20defined%2C%20which% https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! 20of%20the%20following%20is%20the%20MOST%20effective%20approach%20to%20align%20IT%20to%20busines s%20objectives&f=false Question #22 An IT governance committee is defining a risk management policy for a portfolio of IT-enabled investments. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY consideration when developing the policy? A. Risk appetite of the enterprise B. Risk management framework C. Value obtained with minimum risk D. Possible investment failures Answer: B Question #23 A contracted company employs key IT systems operational personnel to oversee technology used to manage a critical line of business. Management is concerned that a mass resignation by many disgruntled personnel may lead to a shutdown of these key systems. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY responsibility of IT governance to address this risk? A. Renegotiate employment agreements to lessen the likelihood of a mass resignation. B. Cross train management to assume support of the technology. C. Develop a resourcing strategy that quickly replaces staff. D. Survey key support staff to determine what is causing them to be disgruntled. Answer: D Question #24 A CIO determines IT investment management processes are not fully realizing the benefits identified in business cases. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent this issue? A. Document lessons learned throughout the investment life cycle. B. Perform stage-gate reviews throughout the life cycle of each project. C. Evaluate the delegation of investment approval authorities. D. Establish a requirement for CIO review and approval of each business case. Answer: A Question #25 How does an enterprise benefit from implementing a set of key risk indicators (KRIs)? A. The set of KRIs remains relevant over time. B. Risk exposures are monitored to ensure they remain within risk appetite. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. The need for a formal risk and control assessment program is eliminated. D. The frequency of risk data gathering and reporting is minimized. Answer: B Reference: https://www.metricstream.com/insights/Key-Risk-indicators-ERM.htm Question #26 A large retail chain realizes that while there has not been any loss of data, IT security has not been a priority and should become a key goal for the enterprise. What should be the FIRST high-level initiative for a newly created IT strategy committee in order to support this business goal? A. Modernizing internal IT security practices B. Identifying gaps in information asset protection C. Recruiting and training qualified IT security staff D. Defining data archiving and retrieval policies Answer: B Question #27 A multinational enterprise recently purchased a large company located in a different country. When introducing the concept of governance to the new acquisition, it is MOST important that executive management recognize: A. the use of international standards. B. language differences. C. globally recognized good practices. D. the impact of cultural changes. Answer: C Question #28 The MOST effective way to ensure that IT supports the agile needs of an enterprise is to: A. implement open source systems. B. outsource infrastructure management. C. develop a robust enterprise architecture. D. perform process modeling. Answer: D Question #29 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! From an IT governance perspective, which of the following would be the MOST significant impact of moving all IT applications to an external Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud provider? A. The necessity to update key risk indicators (KRIs) B. The integration of the IT department with business lines C. The improvement of IT service alignment with business D. The shift from service delivery to service management Answer: C Question #30 Which of the following is the MOST important driver of IT governance? A. Management transparency B. Technical excellence C. Effective internal controls D. Quality measurement Answer: A Question #31 When developing an IT strategic plan that supports an enterprise's business goals, which of the following should be done FIRST? A. Understand the current vision. B. Perform a business impact analysis. C. Ensure that IT drives business goals. D. Analyze benchmarking data. Answer: B Reference: https://www.infoentrepreneurs.org/en/guides/strategic-planning/ Question #32 Prior to decommissioning an IT system, it is MOST important to: A. assess compliance with environmental regulations. B. review the media disposal records. C. assess compliance with the retention policy. D. review the data sanitization records. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #33 An enterprise is trying to increase the maturity of its IT process from being ad hoc to being repeatable. Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of this change? A. Required outcomes are more frequently achieved. B. Process performance is measured in business terms. C. Required outcomes are mapped to business objectives. D. Process optimization is embedded across the organization. Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=1iZ3qWnLU0oC&pg=PA218&lpg=PA218&dq=increase+the+maturity+of+its+ IT+process+from+being+ad+hoc +to+being+repeatable&source=bl&ots=u6T_F9VL-V&sig=ACfU3U0bLAxWfJhgn10- z1Qk0syhD_HCFw&hl=en&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjhn43L2fnpAhVC_qQKHRagBNcQ6AEwD3oECAQQAQ#v=onepage&q =increase%20the%20maturity%20of% 20its%20IT%20process%20from%20being%20ad%20hoc%20to%20being%20repeatable&f=false Question #34 Which of the following entities is structured PRIMARILY to ensure goals and objectives are aligned between IT and the business? A. Board of directors B. Portfolio management committee C. Change advisory board D. IT strategy committee Answer: A Reference: https://courses.lumenlearning.com/boundless-management/chapter/principles-of-management/ Question #35 A recent audit of IT investments has found that while initial returns meet expectations, benefits realization declines more than expected over time. Which of the following is the BEST way to address this situation? A. Standardize resource monitoring approaches. B. Institute project quality and performance metrics. C. Establish key risk indicators (KRIs). D. Institute regular business case updates and reviews. Answer: D Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/guidelines-successful-benefits-realization-9909 Question #36 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise's IT department has been operating independently without regard to business concerns, leading to misalignment between business and IT. The BEST way to establish alignment would be to require: A. business to help define IT goals. B. IT to define business objectives. C. business to fund IT services. D. IT and business to define risks. Answer: A Question #37 Which of the following are the MOST critical enablers for implementing IT governance in an enterprise? A. Involvement of IT strategy and steering committees B. Assigning roles and responsibilities for IT governance C. Commitment and promotion by senior management D. Prioritizing IT projects and funding for IT governance Answer: C Reference: https://www3.pinkelephant.com/articles/The7EnablersandConstraintsofITSMv1.PDF Question #38 A business unit is planning to replace an existing IT legacy solution with a hosted Software as a Service (SaaS) solution. However, business management is concerned that stored data will be at risk. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to reduce the risk associated with the SaaS solution? A. Include risk-related requirements in the SaaS contract. B. Create key risk indicators for the SaaS solution. C. Redefine the risk appetite and risk tolerance. D. Research the technology and identify potential security threats. Answer: A Question #39 Which of the following would be MOST helpful in gaining executive support for an IT-enabled business initiative? A. Framing the in terms of impact to business value B. Presenting a comprehensive risk management plan C. Providing examples of risks realized by competitors for similar initiatives D. Presenting key findings of a business impact analysis conducted by IT managers https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #40 An enterprise is planning to implement several strategic initiatives that will require the acquisition of new IT systems. Which of the following would BEST enable the IT steering committee to prioritize proposed initiatives based on business objectives? A. IT strategic management B. Project management C. Enterprise architecture management D. Project portfolio management Answer: C Question #41 An IT governance committee recently received a report indicating a scarcity of key IT skills in the marketplace to meet the core needs of the business. Reviewing which of the following would BEST help the committee respond to this situation? A. IT balanced scorecard B. Outsourcing strategy C. IT strategic plan D. Human resource strategy Answer: D Question #42 An enterprise has decided to create its first mobile application. The IT director is concerned about the potential impact of this initiative. Which of the following is the MOST important input for managing the risk associated with this initiative? A. Business requirements B. IT risk scorecard C. Enterprise risk appetite D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #43 Senior management has made a decision to automate a number of key controls due to concerns that current IT risk controls are overly cumbersome and adversely impacting IT agility. Which of the following should be required FIRST to facilitate this process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Control gap analysis B. Control self-assessments C. Controls optimization D. Cost-benefit analysis Answer: D Reference: https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/itac-planning/#gref Question #44 The IT function received only 50% of the requested funding to support the IT strategy for new business initiatives. Which of the following is the CIO's MOST important course of action before considering alternative resource options? A. Prioritize the portfolio. B. Terminate less visible maintenance projects. C. Develop a new balanced scorecard. D. Conduct a cost-benefit analysis. Answer: A Reference: https://hbr.org/1980/07/strategic-management-for-competitive-advantage Question #45 A business case indicates an enterprise would reduce costs by implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program allowing employees to use personal devices for e-mail. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance action? A. Assess the enterprise architecture. B. Update the BYOD policy. C. Update the network infrastructure. D. Assess the BYOD risk. Answer: A Question #46 An enterprise has decided to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system to achieve operating and cost efficiencies through global IT standardization. The business units are resistant because they are used to operating autonomously. The CEO has instructed the CIO to move quickly with the implementation to force acceptance with business unit leaders. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step? A. Request funding from the CEO to hire ERP consultants. B. Ask the CEO to be the sponsor of the program. C. Engage a reluctant business unit to conduct a proof-of-concept pilot. D. Build a governance framework for identifying non-standard processes. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #47 Which of the following is MOST critical to have in place before management can establish an IT risk assessment and response approach? A. A portfolio of IT investments B. Defined roles and responsibilities C. Historic data on risk events D. A balanced scorecard Answer: B Question #48 An IT audit report indicates that a lack of IT employee risk awareness is creating serious security issues in application design and configuration. Which of the following would be the BEST key risk indicator (KRI) to show progress in IT employee behavior? A. Results of application security testing B. Results of application security awareness training quizzes C. Number of reported security incidents D. Number of IT employees attending security training sessions Answer: C Question #49 An enterprise can BEST assess the benefits of a new IT project through its life cycle by: A. calculation of the total cost of ownership. B. calculation of the net present value. C. periodic review of the business case. D. periodic measurement of the project slip rate. Answer: C Question #50 Which of the following is the MOST important objective of IT program portfolio management? A. Reduced technology costs B. Reduced project management costs C. Improved IT service delivery D. Appropriate investment mix https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Reference: https://www.northeastern.edu/graduate/blog/project-management-vs-portfolio-management-vs-programmanagement/ Question #51 Which of the following is the BEST way for the CIO to ensure senior business management understands the current IT risk profile? A. Present an aggregated view of risk. B. Present the updated risk register. C. Present a detailed list of risk findings. D. Present a list of scheduled risk mitigation actions. Answer: A Question #52 Besides the mitigation of IT risk, which of the following is the PRIMARY outcome of IT governance? A. Control of IT processes B. Meeting of IT financial goals C. Resolution of IT audit findings D. Value delivery of IT to the business Answer: D Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/co/Documents/risk/InteligenciaFrentealRiesgo/No.6- RiskIntelligenceCIO.pdf Question #53 Despite an adequate training budget, IT staff are not keeping skills current with emerging technologies critical to the enterprise. The BEST way for the enterprise to address this situation would be to: A. establish an agreed-upon skills development plan with each employee. B. allow staff to attend technology conferences. C. create a standard-setting center of excellence. D. assign human resources (HR) to develop an IT skills matrix. Answer: D Question #54 The PRIMARY reason a CIO and IT senior management should stay aware of the business environment is to: A. measure efficiency of IT resources. B. revisit prioritization of IT projects. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. re-assess the IT investment portfolio. D. adjust IT strategy as needed. Answer: A Question #55 Which of the following aspects of the transition from X-rays to digital images would be BEST addressed by implementing information security policy and procedures? A. Establishing data retention procedures B. Training technicians on acceptable use policy C. Minimizing the impact of hospital operation disruptions on patient care D. Protecting personal health information Answer: D Question #56 To enable consistent assessment of candidate program investments for inclusion into the IT portfolio, it is MOST important to identify: A. an IT balanced scorecard. B. the impact on enterprise architecture. C. common selection criteria. D. currently available resources. Answer: A Reference: http://businessit.biz/bit_share/VAL%20IT/VAL%20IT.pdf Question #57 What information is MOST important to include when reporting key risk indicators to the board of directors? A. The effect of emerging risk trends on current risk exposure B. Risk appetite, risk threshold and risk tolerance C. Classification of current business risk D. Costs and resource needs related to risk mitigation measures Answer: A Question #58 The board of directors of a major retail chain wants to know what capabilities are in place to prevent customer credit card data from being hacked. Which of the following should be established to provide useful information about a potential future event? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Risk tolerance B. Lead indicators C. Lag indicators D. Performance indicators Answer: B Question #59 Several experienced IT resources have been hired away by a competitor. These individuals created and managed a business critical system that gave the enterprise a market advantage. Which of the following should be the PRIMARY concern of the system's business owner? A. The impact on morale of the remaining IT employees B. The competitor hiring additional IT employees from the enterprise C. Whether access to the system and data has been adequately revoked D. Whether remaining staff are able to maintain the quality of the system Answer: D Question #60 An enterprise has a large backlog of IT projects. The current strategy is to execute projects as they are submitted, but executive management does not believe this method is optimal. Which of the following is the MOST important action to address this concern? A. Establish a performance dashboard that determines business value. B. Create a combined business/IT committee to determine project prioritization. C. Implement a methodology to prioritize projects based on resource availability. D. Implement stage-gating to determine the value of each project. Answer: D Question #61 An enterprise's board of directors can BEST manage enterprise risk by: A. mandating board-approved enterprise risk management (ERM) modifications. B. requiring the establishment of an enterprise-wide program management office. C. ensuring the cost-effectiveness of the internal control system. D. requiring the establishment of an enterprise risk management (ERM) framework. Answer: D Reference: https://www.coso.org/documents/COSOBoardsERM4pager-FINALRELEASEVERSION82409_001.pdf https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #62 An IT investment review board wants to ensure that IT will be able to support business initiatives. Each initiative is comprised of several interrelated IT projects. Which of the following would help ensure that the initiatives meet their goals? A. Verification of initiatives against the architecture B. Review of the business case for each initiative C. Establishment of portfolio management D. Review of project management methodology Answer: C Reference: https://www.pmi.org/learning/library/proven-project-portfolio-management-process-8503 Question #63 Which of the following is MOST critical to support IT governance cultural changes within an organization? A. IT governance process manuals B. Regularly scheduled governance training C. Demonstrated management commitment D. Established IT monitoring and measuring Answer: D Question #64 An enterprise has decided to use third-party software for a business process which is hosted and supported by the same third party. The BEST way to provide quality of service oversight would be to establish a process: A. to qualify service providers. B. for enterprise architecture updates. C. for robust change management. D. for periodic service provider audits. Answer: A Question #65 In a successful enterprise that is profitable in its marketplace and consistently growing in size, the non-IT workforce has grown by 50% in the last two years. The demand for IT staff in the marketplace is more than the supply, and the enterprise is losing staff to rival organizations. Due to the rapid growth, IT has struggled to keep up with the enterprise, and IT procedures and associated job roles are not well-defined. The MOST critical activity for reducing the impact caused by IT staff turnover is to: A. outsource the IT operation. B. increase compensation for IT staff. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. hire temporary staff. D. document processes and procedures. Answer: D Question #66 A business has outsourced IT operations to several third-party providers, but service level agreements (SLAs) are not clearly defined in all cases. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the business? A. Third parties could provide overlapping services. B. Quality of services is not enforceable. C. The scope of work is not clearly defined. D. Costs are not measurable. Answer: B Question #67 A large enterprise has been experiencing high turnover of skilled IT personnel, resulting in a significant loss of knowledge within the IT department. Which of the following should be done FIRST to address this problem? A. Conduct a survey of current IT staff. B. Revise the IT resource management plan. C. Update human resources policies and practices. D. Develop an incentive scheme for IT employees. Answer: A Question #68 A newly established IT steering committee is concerned whether or not a system is meeting availability objectives. Which of the following will provide the BEST information to make an assessment? A. Critical success factors B. Balanced scorecard C. Performance indicators D. Capability maturity levels Answer: D Question #69 Following a major IT incident that resulted in a loss to the enterprise, a CIO is preparing for a meeting with the board of directors to discuss what may have failed internally. Which of the following should the CIO do FIRST to provide assurance to the board? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Review the IT control environment. B. Ensure IT and enterprise risk management alignment. C. Review the incident response policy. D. Verify continuous monitoring is being performed. Answer: B Question #70 A newly appointed CIO has issued a new IT strategic plan. Which of the following would be the MOST effective way for the CIO to ensure the IT management team is held accountable for the delivery of the plan? A. Provide management training on IT strategic objectives. B. Revise the managers' performance goals to include key objectives. C. Enforce disciplinary action for managers if the plan is not delivered. D. Update the IT balanced scorecard with key objectives. Answer: B Question #71 Which of the following is the PRIMARY ongoing responsibility of the IT governance function related to risk? A. Responding to and controlling all IT risk events B. Verifying that all business units have staff skilled at assessing risk C. Communicating the enterprise risk management plan D. Ensuring IT risk management is aligned with business risk appetite Answer: C Question #72 Which of the following is the BEST outcome measure to determine the effectiveness of IT risk management processes? A. Time lag between when IT risk is identified and the enterprise's response B. Percentage of business users satisfied with the quality of risk training C. Frequency of updates to the IT risk register D. Number of events impacting business processes due to delays in responding to risks Answer: A Question #73 The BEST way for a CIO to monitor the alignment between the business and IT strategy is to regularly review: https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. IT services supporting business processes. B. the balanced scorecard. C. key risk indicators (KRIs). D. the risk register. Answer: A Question #74 Which of the following is PRIMARILY achieved through performance measurement? A. Process improvement B. Benefit realization C. Cost efficiency D. Transparency Answer: A Question #75 While assessing the feasibility of introducing new IT practices and standards into the IT governance framework, it is CRITICAL to understand an organization's: A. maturity of IT processes. B. culture. C. enterprise architecture. D. level of outsourcing. Answer: C Question #76 A new IT initiative is delivered successfully. Which of the following should be updated to reflect the new technology? A. Balanced scorecard B. IT strategy C. IT tactical plan D. Enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #77 The MOST beneficial aspect of utilizing an IT risk management framework is that it: A. addresses a lack of data in risk reporting. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. facilitates the identification of technologies posing the greatest risk to IT. C. enables a consistent approach to risk management. D. drives inclusion of the technology function in enterprise risk management. Answer: B Question #78 When defining an enterprise governance framework, the PRIMARY determination of the degree to which the framework is principle-based or policy-based is: A. enterprise architecture framework. B. organizational decision-making style. C. IT process maturity. D. organizational structure. Answer: D Reference: https://www.isaca.org/resources/isaca-journal/past-issues/2013/it-policy-framework-based-on-cobit-5 Question #79 A company is considering selling products online, and the CIO has been asked to advise the board of directors of potential problems with this strategy. Which of the following would be the CIO's BEST course of action? A. Perform a risk assessment. B. Review the security framework. C. Conduct a return on investment analysis. D. Review the enterprise architecture. Answer: B Question #80 After shifting from lease to purchase of IT infrastructure and software licenses, an enterprise has to pay for unexpected lease extensions causing significant cost overruns. The BEST direction for the IT steering committee would be to establish: A. a program to annually review financial policy on overruns. B. an end-of-life program to remove aging infrastructure from the environment. C. budget cuts to compensate for the cost overruns. D. a policy to consider total cost of ownership in investment decisions. Answer: D Question #81 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is evaluating a Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) solution to support a core business process. There is no outsourcing governance or vendor management in place. The CEO's FIRST course of action should be to: A. establish a contract with the SaaS solution provider. B. instruct management to use the standard procurement process. C. ensure the service level agreements for service providers are defined. D. ensure the roles and responsibilities to manage service providers are defined. Answer: B Question #82 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure timely reporting on risk events and responses to appropriate levels of management? A. Corporate directory B. Key personnel interviews C. Emergency response team D. Escalation procedures Answer: A Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=k_hgAwAAQBAJ&pg=PA43&lpg=PA43&dq=cobit+help+to+ensure+timely+re porting+on+risk+events+and +responses+to+appropriate+levels+of +management&source=bl&ots=f2MF7tvMQB&sig=ACfU3U1F_qwMA3wQlZ2tpcb8bvzR3eUTyw&hl=en&sa=X&ved= 2ahUKEwj4kajJq_zpAhUrDWMBHQu2BWoQ 6AEwB3oECAoQAQ#v=onepage&q=cobit%20help%20to%20ensure%20timely%20reporting%20on%20risk%20event s%20and%20responses%20to% 20appropriate%20levels%20of%20management&f=false Question #83 When developing an IT governance framework, it is MOST important for an enterprise to consider: A. stakeholders' support. B. information technology risk. C. framework development cost. D. information technology strategy. Answer: A Question #84 Which of the following would be MOST useful for prioritizing IT improvement initiatives to achieve desired business outcomes? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Portfolio management B. Budget variance analysis C. IT skills matrix D. Enterprise architecture Answer: A Question #85 Which of the following BEST supports an IT strategy committee's objective to align employee competencies with planned initiatives? A. Set management goals to hire co-operative work experience students. B. Specify minimum training hours required for continuing professional education. C. Add achievement of competencies to employee performance goals. D. Require balanced scorecard concepts training of all employees. Answer: C Question #86 The IT director of a large project-driven enterprise is concerned that all recently completed IT projects have exceeded their budgets. Which of the following would be the BEST way to address this concern? A. Implement portfolio management. B. Require monitoring of budget utilization. C. Assign business sponsors to active projects. D. Implement agile project methodology. Answer: B Question #87 An enterprise is experiencing a pattern of sensitive data breaches. While each breach has been successfully remediated, leadership is concerned about recurrence. What should the leadership team do FIRST? A. Require a root cause analysis be performed. B. Contact the appropriate regulatory authorities. C. Increase the amount of data breach insurance coverage. D. Direct IT to research vulnerability management software solutions. Answer: A Question #88 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A government agency plans to use predictive analytics to improve the quality of its services. The IT director is confident they have selected the right tool and can acquire appropriate resources to support the business need. Which of the following should be the director's NEXT course of action? A. Ensure job descriptions are available for newly-hired IT resources. B. Ensure IT has the appropriate processes in place. C. Implement a balanced scorecard to measure service quality. D. Establish a data governance council that includes IT senior management. Answer: C Question #89 During a period of financial crisis, an enterprise is evaluating its IT service strategy. The board of directors recognizes the need to save money without sacrificing the quality of IT services provided. To achieve this objective, the IT strategy committee should FIRST: A. re-design IT service management processes. B. cancel discretionary IT projects. C. reduce the total cost of ownership of IT services. D. re-prioritize the IT investment portfolio. Answer: D Question #90 To successfully implement enterprise IT governance, which of the following should be the MAIN focus of IT policies? A. Optimizing operational benefits B. Enhancing organizational capability C. Limiting IT costs D. Providing business value Answer: A Question #91 A recent benchmarking analysis has indicated an IT organization is retaining more data and spending significantly more on data retention than its competitors. Which of the following would BEST ensure the optimization of retention costs? A. Requiring that all business cases contain data deletion and retention plans B. Revalidating the organization's risk tolerance and re-aligning the retention policy C. Redefining the retention policy to align with industry best practices D. Moving all high-risk and medium-risk data backups to cloud storage https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #92 An enterprise is undertaking a multi-year portfolio of IT initiatives to replace core accounting systems. The program management team has developed a business case and is defining a roadmap for the initiatives. Of the following, who should be responsible for defining the optimization criteria for the portfolio? A. Project management office B. Board of directors C. Program management team D. IT steering committee Answer: C Question #93 An enterprise has entered into a new market which brings additional regulatory compliance requirements. To address these new requirements, the enterprise should FIRST: A. update the organization's risk profile. B. have executive management monitor compliance. C. outsource the compliance process. D. appoint a compliance officer. Answer: B Question #94 An IT steering committee is preparing to review proposals for projects that implement emerging technologies. In anticipation of the review, the committee should FIRST: A. require a review of the enterprise risk management framework. B. understand how the emerging technologies will influence risk across the enterprise. C. determine if the IT staff can support the emerging technologies. D. require a capacity plan and framework review for the emerging technologies. Answer: A Question #95 The CIO of a large enterprise has taken the necessary steps to align IT objectives with business objectives. The BEST way for the CIO to ensure these objectives are delivered effectively by IT staff is to: A. enhance the budget for training based on the IT objectives. B. include the IT objectives in staff performance plans. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. include CIO sign-off of the objectives as part of the IT strategic plan. D. map the IT objectives to an industry-accepted framework. Answer: D Question #96 An analysis of an organization's security breach is complete. The results indicate that the quality of the code used for updates to its primary customer-facing software has been declining and security flaws were introduced. The FIRST IT governance action to correct this problem should be to review: A. the incident response plan. B. the change management control framework. C. compliance with the user testing process. D. the qualifications of developers to write secure code. Answer: A Question #97 Senior leadership is concerned about a recent trend of excessive exceptions to existing controls. Which of the following should be implemented to address this concern? A. Continuous monitoring B. Independent audits C. A control library D. Risk awareness training Answer: A Question #98 It has been discovered that multiple business units across an enterprise are using duplicate IT applications and services to fulfill their individual needs. Which of the following would be MOST helpful to address this concern? A. IT project roadmap B. IT service management C. Enterprise architecture D. Enterprise risk framework Answer: C Question #99 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! When developing a business case for an enterprise resource planning (ERP) implementation, which of the following, if overlooked, causes the GREATEST impact to the enterprise? A. Salvage value of legacy hardware B. IT best practices C. Interdependent systems D. Vendor selection Answer: D Question #100 A regional business unit of a major financial institution is considering the use of a Software as a Service (SaaS) cloud vendor to implement a new system. Which of the following should be performed FIRST? A. Update the outsourcing policy. B. Investigate on-premise software solutions. C. Develop a business case. D. Determine if the cloud vendor has a secure data center. Answer: D Question #101 During the implementation phase of a central ERP system, a project manager identifies a significant lack of human capabilities to support the system. The issue is reported to the project sponsor, and the sponsor sends a request for an increase in the budget to the IT steering committee. What should be the IT steering committee's FIRST action? A. Require a revised business case. B. Approve the budget request. C. Provide appropriate training. D. Refer back to the project sponsor for resolution. Answer: B Question #102 For a large enterprise, which of the following is the BEST indicator that IT governance has a poor reputation? A. Regulatory noncompliance B. Low attendance at strategy committee meetings C. High turnover of IT staff D. Data leakage Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #103 An enterprise has committed to the implementation of a new IT governance model. The BEST way to begin this implementation is to: A. prioritize how much and where to invest in IT. B. identify the role of IT in supporting the business. C. define policies for data, applications, and organization of infrastructure. D. identify IT services that currently support the enterprise's capability. Answer: C Question #104 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of the CEO in IT governance? A. Evaluating return on investment B. Managing the risk governance process C. Establishing enterprise strategic goals D. Nominating IT steering committee membership Answer: C Reference: https://corporatefinanceinstitute.com/resources/careers/jobs/what-is-a-ceo-chief-executive-officer/ Question #105 Which of the following is a PRIMARY responsibility of the CIO when an enterprise plans to replace its enterprise resource applications? A. Ensuring IT architecture requirements are considered B. Selecting and vetting application vendors C. Determining critical success factors for related projects D. Establishing software quality criteria Answer: A Question #106 Upcoming IT-related regulations carry costly penalties for an enterprise. The issuing regulatory agency has a history of weak enforcement. The IT steering committee should FIRST direct management to: A. update the enterprise architecture. B. perform benchmarking activities. C. evaluate the impact of the emerging risk. D. develop mitigation plans for noncompliance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #107 When establishing a methodology for business cases, it would be MOST beneficial for an enterprise to include procedures for: A. addressing required changes outside the business case. B. updating the business case throughout its life cycle. C. identifying metrics post-implementation to measure project success. D. entering the business case into the enterprise architecture. Answer: D Question #108 The PRIMARY focus of a committee tasked with evaluating an IT project portfolio should be to ensure: A. a consistent estimation methodology is leveraged. B. the enterprise strategy is updated. C. consistent selection criteria are applied. D. an industry standard capability maturity model is used. Answer: D Question #109 Which of the following issues identified during an IT review is MOST important to address to improve the alignment between the business and IT? A. Services in the IT portfolio are not traceable to the IT strategy. B. IT strategy reviews are conducted only after business strategy changes. C. Business satisfaction surveys are not conducted regularly. D. IT dashboards have not been established. Answer: A Question #110 Which of the following is the MOST effective means for IT management to report to executive management regarding the value of IT? A. IT process maturity level B. Resource assessment C. Balanced scorecard D. Cost-benefit analysis https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #111 When determining the desired maturity levels for IT governance processes, it is MOST important to: A. ensure that maturity can be achieved at the lowest cost. B. ensure target levels are in line with external competitor benchmarks. C. agree on target levels in response to need. D. focus on existing strengths as key drivers for the target levels. Answer: D Question #112 Which of the following is the MOST important reason for selecting IT key risk indicators (KRIs)? A. Enabling comparison against similar IT KRIs B. Increasing the probability of achieving IT goals C. Assessing the current IT controls model D. Demonstrating the effectiveness of IT risk policies Answer: B Question #113 Which of the following would BEST help a CIO enhance the competencies of an IT business analytics team? A. Understanding current staff skill sets and identifying gaps B. Defining the IT architecture and identifying training areas C. Creating operational processes and identifying resources D. Establishing team goals and identifying the proper structure Answer: C Question #114 The BEST way to ensure an IT steering committee meets enterprise objectives is to: A. have key business stakeholders represented on the committee. B. establish key performance indicators (KPIs). C. require a member of the committee to have IT governance expertise. D. benchmark against industry best practices. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #115 Which of the following is the MOST important input for the development of a human resources strategy to address IT skill gaps? A. Technology direction of the enterprise B. Training budget allocated for IT staff C. A recent IT skills matrix D. Training effectiveness reports Answer: C Question #116 A hospital's executive steering committee is concerned about the increasing number of cyber attacks on patient data systems across the industry. The committee has asked the CIO to provide regular reporting with information that will help provide better oversight of cyber-related risk to the hospital. Including which of the following in the report would be MOST helpful to the committee? A. Status of key risk indicators B. Current business impact levels C. IT operations gap assessment D. Cybersecurity risk benchmarks Answer: B Question #117 Which of the following is the BEST way to provide effective IT risk management? A. Implementing a cost-effective mitigation program B. Appointing a chief risk officer C. Embedding risk management in operations D. Establishing an incident management program Answer: A Question #118 Maintaining a list of all potential IT initiatives for implementing the business strategy should be the responsibility of the: A. portfolio management function. B. individual business units. C. chief executive officer (CEO). https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. chief operating officer (COO). Answer: D Question #119 A large enterprise has decided to use an emerging technology that needs to be integrated with the current IT infrastructure. Which of the following is the BEST way to prevent adverse effects to the enterprise resulting from the new technology? A. Develop key risk indicators (KRIs). B. Develop key performance indicators (KPIs). C. Implement service level agreements (SLAs). D. Update the risk appetite statement. Answer: B Question #120 An enterprise recognizes that a large percentage of its IT employees are eligible for retirement in the next five years. A significant amount of institutional knowledge resides with retirement-eligible staff. From the board's perspective, which of the following is the GREATEST concern for the enterprise in this situation? A. Service delivery to the business B. Loss of key IT personnel C. Lack of timeline for succession plan D. Lack of process documentation Answer: D Question #121 Which of the following groups would be MOST appropriate to decide whether to proceed with an IT-enabled investment at the individual program level? A. Business sponsors B. Program management office C. IT steering committee D. Board of directors Answer: C Question #122 Which of the following will BEST enable an enterprise to convey IT governance direction and objectives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Corporate culture B. Business processes C. Principles and policies D. Skills and competencies Answer: C Question #123 A large enterprise's IT department has identified a new risk management solution that would significantly enhance IT risk monitoring processes. However, there is a business perception that the new solution would not provide a visible benefit to the enterprise. Which of the following is the BEST way to gain business support? A. Articulate the business value of the new solution. B. Promote the IT benefits and the streamlining of processes. C. Provide real time risk reporting to the business. D. Obtain sign-off on a reduced headcount over the next five years. Answer: B Question #124 When assessing the impact of a new regulatory requirement, which of the following should be the FIRST course of action? A. Update affected IT policies. B. Implement new regulatory requirements. C. Assess the budget impact of the new regulation. D. Map the regulation to business processes. Answer: D Question #125 Before establishing IT key risk indicators, which of the following should be defined FIRST? A. IT risk and security framework B. IT key performance indicators C. IT goals and objectives D. IT resource strategy Answer: C Reference: https://bernardmarr.com/default.asp?contentID=1515 Question #126 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Which of the following should be the FIRST step for executive management to take in communicating what is considered acceptable use with regard to personally owned devices for company business? A. Post awareness messages throughout the facility. B. Develop and disseminate an applicable policy. C. Provide training on how to protect data on personal devices. D. Require employees to read and sign a disclaimer. Answer: C Question #127 An enterprise's strategic change requires an IT strategic initiative re-evaluation. Which of the following BEST indicates that an established IT governance framework could handle the re-evaluation? A. Creation of an IT steering committee to align the IT strategic initiatives to the recent change B. Inclusion of IT portfolio management procedures with strategic change review activities C. Development of a business case to evaluate the impact of the strategic change D. Holding IT investments until an analysis of the strategic change impact was complete Answer: C Question #128 Which of the following BEST indicates that a change management process has been implemented successfully? A. Degree of control B. Outcome measures C. Process performance D. Maturity levels Answer: B Question #129 To meet the growing demands of a newly established business unit, IT senior management has been tasked with changing the current IT organization model to service-oriented. With significant growth expected of the IT organization, which of the following is the MOST important consideration when planning for long-term IT service delivery? A. The IT organization is able to sustain business requirements. B. IT is able to provide a comprehensive service catalog to the business. C. The IT service delivery model is approved by the business. D. An IT risk management process is in place. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #130 Which of the following BEST enables the alignment of IT and enterprise strategy? A. Project portfolio management B. IT resource planning C. IT performance monitoring and reporting D. Enterprise compliance audits Answer: B Question #131 Which of the following would provide the BEST input for prioritizing strategic IT improvement initiatives? A. Business case evaluation B. Business process analysis C. Business impact analysis D. Business dependency assessment Answer: C Question #132 An enterprise has decided to utilize a cloud vendor for the first time to provide email as a service, eliminating inhouse email capabilities. Which of the following IT strategic actions should be triggered by this decision? A. Update and communicate data storage and transmission policies. B. Develop a data protection awareness education training program. C. Monitor outgoing email traffic for malware. D. Implement a data classification and storage management tool. Answer: A Question #133 Which of the following is the BEST IT architecture concept to ensure consistency, interoperability, and agility for infrastructure capabilities? A. Establishment of an IT steering committee B. Standards-based reference architecture and design specifications C. Design of policies and procedures D. Establishment of standard vendor and technology designations https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #134 An enterprise is implementing its FIRST mobile sales channel. Final approval for accepting the associated IT risk should be obtained from which of the following? A. IT steering committee B. Chief information officer C. Business sponsor D. Risk manager Answer: B Question #135 Who should be accountable for quantifying the business impact of a potential breach of a server containing retail transactions for the last year? A. Information systems security officer B. Head of retail C. Chief risk officer D. Chief information officer Answer: A Question #136 The use of an enterprise architecture framework BEST supports IT governance by providing: A. key information for IT service level management. B. IT standards for application development. C. business information for IT capacity planning. D. reference models to align IT with business. Answer: A Question #137 Which of the following is the MOST appropriate mechanism for measuring overall IT organizational performance? A. IT balanced scorecard B. Service level metrics C. Maturity model D. IT portfolio return on investment https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Reference: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/215879518_Measuring_the_Performance_of_IT_Service_Management Question #138 The PRIMARY reason for periodically evaluating IT resource staffing requirements is to: A. ensure the enterprise has sufficient resources to address changing business and IT needs. B. ascertain the IT function has sufficient skilled staff to maintain daily operations. C. verify that human resource recruitment and retention processes meet enterprise IT objectives. D. confirm IT-related responsibilities are defined for the enterprise's business and IT staff. Answer: A Question #139 РСЕО wants to establish a governance framework to facilitate the alignment of IT and business strategies. Which of the following should be a KEY requirement of this framework? A. A service delivery strategy B. Defined resourcing levels C. A defined enterprise architecture D. An outsourcing strategy Answer: C Question #140 Reviewing which of the following should be the FIRST step when evaluating the possibility of outsourcing an IT system? A. Outsourcing strategy B. IT staff skill sets C. Outsourced business processes D. Service level agreements (SLAs) Answer: D Question #141 Which of the following should be the PRIMARY goal of implementing service level agreements (SLAs) with an outsourcing vendor? A. Establishing penalties for not meeting service levels B. Complying with regulatory requirements C. Achieving operational objectives https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Gaining a competitive advantage Answer: C Question #142 Of the following, the BEST response to the absence of a data security breach notification by a service provider is to contractually require that: A. security incidents identified by the provider be reported. B. security related key performance indicators be included in all service level agreements. C. security incident information be shared only on a need-to-know basis. D. a registry of all security breaches be maintained by the service provider. Answer: A Question #143 Which of the following should be the MOST essential consideration when outsourcing IT services? A. Alignment with existing HR policies and practices B. Adoption of a diverse vendor selection process C. Identification of core and non-core business processes D. Compliance with enterprise architecture Answer: C Question #144 A multinational enterprise is planning to migrate to cloud-based systems. Which of the following should be of MOST concern to the risk management committee? A. Resource alignment B. Security breaches C. Regulatory compliance D. Cost considerations Answer: C Question #145 In a large enterprise, which of the following should be responsible for the implementation of an IT balanced scorecard? A. IT steering committee https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. Chief risk officer C. Project management office D. Chief information officer Answer: C Question #146 The approval of an enterprise risk management framework is the role of the: A. chief information officer. B. chief risk officer. C. IT steering committee D. board of directors. Answer: C Reference: https://www.clearrisk.com/risk-management-blog/bid/56487/Establishing-an-Enterprise-Risk-Management-ERMFramework-Enterprise Question #147 The BEST way to determine the effectiveness of an enterprise's IT governance framework is by assessing the: A. value of IT contribution. B. maturity of IT processes. C. application of IT standards. D. compliance to IT policy. Answer: B Question #148 A steering committee has been advised by the IT project management office that individual business units are building systems components that could be leveraged by other business units. Instead, identical components are being duplicated across the enterprise. Which of the following committee directives would be the BEST way to reduce the likelihood of this duplication? A. Implement stage gate reviews to assess systems. B. Establish an enterprise architecture. C. Perform an assessment of change management processes. D. Review IT system release management practices. Answer: C Question #149 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! To support the enterprise's digital transformation, the CIO has been asked to include an Internet of Things (IoT) component in the IT strategy. Which of the following should be the FIRST consideration? A. Ensuring IoT usage in the industry has been analyzed B. Ensuring IoT can be used in current revenue streams C. Ensuring solution providers and their IoT use cases have been researched D. Ensuring initial approvals are limited to small IoT projects to gain experience Answer: A Question #150 A retail enterprise wants to leverage emerging technologies to create a new sales channel for its customers. However, IT has little experience with these technologies and is unsure if the proposed schedule can be met. Which of the following will BEST help to determine IT's ability to meet this need? A. Conducting a resource gap assessment B. Defining business benefits realization metrics C. Reviewing the resource management policy D. Developing a target state enterprise architecture Answer: B Question #151 Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when designing an implementation plan for IT governance? A. Roles and responsibilities B. Risk tolerance levels C. Organization culture D. Principle and policies Answer: A Question #152 Once the strategic vision has been established, which of the following would be the BEST activity for supporting the implementation of performance measures? A. Document policy requirements. B. Document strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats. C. Identify key performance indicators (KPIs). D. Monitor service level performance. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #153 Which of the following is MOST critical for the successful implementation of an IT process? A. Objectives and metrics B. IT process assessment C. Process framework D. Service delivery process model Answer: C Question #154 An enterprise has made a decision to move some business applications to the public cloud despite being very new to the cloud environment. What is MOST important for the CIO to do to help ensure the success of this initiative? A. Review the vendor management framework. B. Request a right-to-audit clause in the provider contract. C. Require a vulnerability and threat assessment. D. Ensure the cloud provider complies with international standards. Answer: D Question #155 Which of the following is the PRIMARY role of an enterprise architecture? A. Improves transparency and compliance B. Provides a visual perspective of information systems C. Improves interoperability and scalability D. Ensures continuous innovation Answer: A Question #156 When conducting a risk assessment in support of a new regulatory requirement, the IT risk committee should FIRST consider the: A. cost burden to achieve compliance. B. disruption to normal business operations. C. readiness of IT systems to address the risk. D. risk profile of the enterprise. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: D Question #157 An enterprise is planning to migrate its IT infrastructure to a cloud-based solution but does not have experience with this technology. Which of the following should be done FIRST to reduce the risk of IT service disruptions when using this new technology? A. Evaluate the sourcing options. B. Reflect the change in the enterprise architecture (EA). C. Implement key performance indicators (KPIs). D. Engage an experienced IT consultant to perform the migration. Answer: C Question #158 Which of the following BEST reflects mature risk management in an enterprise? A. A regularly updated risk register B. Responsive risk awareness culture C. Ongoing risk assessment D. Ongoing investment in risk mitigation Answer: C Question #159 An IT strategy committee wants to evaluate how well the IT department supports the business strategy. Which of the following is the BEST method for making this determination? A. Capability maturity assessment B. IT balanced scorecard reporting C. IT controls assurance program D. Customer survey analysis Answer: A Question #160 From a governance perspective, which of the following is MOST important to enhance in an enterprise undergoing rapid development of a cloud technology? A. Change management processes to capture organizational and project changes. B. Data restructuring plan to ensure the architecture supports future changes. C. IT project dashboard reporting to capture new risk, threats, and scenarios. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Configuration management processes to ensure availability goals are maintained. Answer: D Question #161 A regulatory audit of an IT department has identified discrepancies between processes described in the procedures and what is actually done by system administrators. The discrepancies were caused by recent IT application changes. Which of the following would be the BEST way to prevent the recurrence of similar findings in the future? A. Include the update of documentation within the change management framework. B. Assign the responsibility for periodic revisions and changes to process owners. C. Require each IT employee to confirm compliance with IT procedures on an annual basis. D. Establish high-level procedures to minimize process changes. Answer: B Question #162 Which of the following is the MOST important input for designing a development program to help IT employees improve their ability to respond to business needs? A. Skills competency assessment B. Cost-benefit analysis C. Annual performance evaluations D. Capability maturity model Answer: A Question #163 The accountability for a business continuity program for business-critical systems is BEST assigned to the: A. director of internal audit, B. enterprise risk manager. C. chief information officer. D. chief executive officer. Answer: C Question #164 Which of the following should occur FIRST in the IT investment process? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Analyze the risks and benefits of the investment for each IT project. B. Assess each project's impact on the enterprise's investment plan. C. Select IT projects that will best support the enterprise's mission. D. Analyze IT investments based on past data. Answer: B Question #165 To ensure IT risk is managed in a consistent manner, it is MOST important for IT governance to establish a: A. risk management reporting tool to ensure compliance. B. balanced scorecard that includes IT risks. C. risk management committee to identify IT-related risks. D. risk management framework. Answer: C Question #166 An independent consultant has been hired to conduct an ad hoc audit of an enterprise's information security office with results reported to the IT governance committee and the board. Which of the following is MOST important to provide to the consultant before the audit begins? A. The scope and stakeholders of the audit B. The organizational structure of the security office C. The polices and framework used by the security office D. Acceptance of the audit risks and opportunities Answer: A Question #167 The PRIMARY reason for using quantitative criteria in developing business cases for IT projects is to: A. benchmark project success with similar enterprises. B. learn lessons from errors made in past projects. C. improve the process of evaluating returns after implementation. D. apply other corporate standards to the development project. Answer: C Question #168 A CIO is planning to implement an enterprise resource planning (ERP) system at the request of the business. Of the following, who is accountable for providing sponsorship for the IT-enabled change across the enterprise? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. CIO B. CEO C. IT strategy committee D. Human resource director Answer: C Question #169 Which of the following would a CIO use to present the overall view of IT performance to the board of directors? A. Maturity model B. Balanced scorecard C. Key performance indicators (KPIs) D. Key risk indicators (KRIS) Answer: A Question #170 An enterprise wants to implement an IT governance framework to ensure enterprise expectations of IT are met. Which of the following would be the MOST beneficial outcome of implementing the framework? A. Optimization of IT performance B. Development of IT policies C. Creation of an IT balanced scorecard D. Establishment of key IT risk indicators Answer: D Question #171 The PRIMARY reason for implementing an IT governance program in an enterprise is to: A. comply with regulatory requirements. B. balance the demand for information and the ability to deliver. C. decrease the scale of investment in information systems due to budgetary controls. D. reduce risks due to improved compensating controls. Answer: B Question #172 To help ensure that an IT dashboard effectively conveys the current state of IT to senior management, which of the following is MOST important to establish? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Key performance indicators (KPIs) B. Emerging threat analysis reporting C. An IT risk awareness program D. IT spend against budget Answer: A Question #173 An enterprise has a zero-tolerance policy regarding security. This policy is causing a large number of email attachments to be blocked and is a disruption to the enterprise. Which of the following should be the FIRST governance step to address this email issue? A. Obtain senior management input based on identified risk. B. Direct the development of an email usage policy. C. Recommend business sign-off on the zero-tolerance policy. D. Introduce an exception process. Answer: B Question #174 Which of the following is a CIO's BEST approach to ensure IT executes against an approved strategy? A. Request IT senior leaders to collectively plan tactics for execution. B. Ask project management to define the IT activities for accomplishing the strategy. C. Provide specific direction for execution of the tasks across IT. D. Have IT leaders independently develop goals for their teams. Answer: B Question #175 Which of the following is the MOST important outcome of a formal, documented IT policy? A. Alignment with IT service management B. Communication of IT management intent C. Mapping of business objectives D. Resource optimization for enterprise initiatives Answer: C Question #176 Senior management is concerned about an increase in cybersecurity risk to the enterprise. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in establishing an early warning system to determine which potential threats should be escalated to senior management? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Agreed-upon risk thresholds B. A risk appetite statement C. Key performance indicators (KPIs) D. Patch management logs Answer: A Question #177 An enterprise learns that a new privacy regulation was recently published to protect customers in the event of a breach involving personally identifiable information (PII). The IT risk management team's FIRST course of action should be to: A. evaluate the risk appetite for the new regulation. B. determine if the new regulation introduces new risk. C. assign a risk owner for the new regulation. D. define the risk tolerance for the new regulation. Answer: C Question #178 When designing an IT governance framework, the PRIMARY consideration should be to: A. comply with external monitoring standards. B. ensure stakeholders receive value from IT. C. require cost-benefit analysis before implementing controls. D. benchmark controls against industry best practices. Answer: C Question #179 The PRIMARY objective of IT resource planning within an enterprise should be to: A. maximize value received from IT. B. determine risk associated with IT resources. C. determine IT outsourcing options. D. finalize service level agreements for IT. Answer: A Question #180 A global enterprise is experiencing an economic downturn and is rapidly losing market share. IT senior management is reassessing the core activities of the business, including IT, and the associated resource implications. Management https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! has decided to focus on its local market and to close international operations. A critical issue from a resource management perspective is to retain the most capable staff. This is BEST achieved by: A. reviewing current goals-based performance appraisals across the enterprise. B. retaining capable staff exclusively from the local market. C. ranking employees across the enterprise based on length of service. D. ranking employees across the enterprise based on their compensation. Answer: C Question #181 An enterprise developed a new e-business web application designed to broaden its sales base. Internal project management guidelines were followed, but indicators for key goals were not established. Which of the following should be the MAIN concern of the IT steering committee? A. It may be difficult to align IT objectives with performance. B. Benefits realization may not be properly assessed. C. Resources may not be optimally utilized. D. Return on investment may be difficult to evaluate. Answer: B Question #182 An IT security team identified a significant weakness in the enterprise's Internet-facing infrastructure. The exposure requires immediate corrective action that is both cost and resource intensive. Which of the following is the MAIN reason why accountability for this risk should be assigned to the board of directors? A. The exploit can cause serious disruptions to the enterprise's reputation and profitability. B. The board should be aware of risks concerning organizational operations. C. Risk ownership at the highest level will ensure risk awareness throughout the enterprise. D. The IT organization cannot take ownership for self-identified risks concerning infrastructure security. Answer: C Question #183 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to assess the consistency of IT processes against industry benchmarks to determine where to focus improvement initiatives? https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! A. Utilizing a capability maturity model B. Reviewing key performance measures C. Reviewing IT process audit results D. Evaluating the current balanced scorecard Answer: C Question #184 An organization requires updates to their IT infrastructure to meet business needs. Which of the following will provide the MOST useful information when planning for the necessary IT investments? A. Audit findings B. Business user satisfaction metrics C. Enterprise architecture D. Risk assessment report Answer: A Question #185 As part of the implementation of IT governance, the board of an enterprise should establish an IT strategy committee to: A. ensure IT risks inherent in the enterprise strategy implementation are managed. B. drive IT strategy development and take responsibility for implementing the IT strategy. C. assume governance accountability for the business strategy on behalf of the board. D. provide input to and ensure alignment of the enterprise and IT strategies. Answer: C Question #186 A root-cause analysis indicates a major service disruption due to a lack of competency of newly-hired IT system administrators. Who should be accountable for resolving the situation? A. HR training director B. Chief information officer C. HR recruitment manager D. Business process owner Answer: C Question #187 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT team is having difficulty meeting new demands placed on the department as a result of a major and radical shift in enterprise business strategy. Which of the following the CIO's BEST course of action to address this situation? A. Review the current IT strategy. B. Utilize third parties for non-value-added processes. C. Align the business strategy with the IT strategy. D. Review the IT risk appetite. Answer: C Question #188 Which of the following would BEST help to ensure an IT steering committee is informed of newly emerging risks in critical IT projects? A. Requiring regular updates of the risk register for each project B. Requiring a summarized report of relevant risks C. Reviewing the response for each risk in the log D. Conducting periodic reviews of project performance Answer: A Question #189 Which of the following MOST effectively demonstrates operational readiness to address information security risk issues? A. Executive management has announced an information security risk initiative. B. Procedures have been established for assessing and mitigating information security risks. C. IT management has communicated the need for information security risk management to the business. D. A policy has been communicated stating enterprise commitment and readiness to address information security risk. Answer: B Question #190 Which of the following should be the CIO's GREATEST consideration when making changes to the IT strategy? A. Have key stakeholders been consulted? B. Have IT risk metrics been adjusted? C. Has the investment portfolio been revised? D. Has the impact to the enterprise architecture been assessed? Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #191 Senior management wants to promote investment in IT, but is uncertain that associated risks are being properly identified. The BEST way to address this concern is to: A. ensure business cases are developed by IT. B. engage an external consultant to develop risk scenarios. C. assign an IT cost controller to the finance department. D. appoint an IT representative to the business risk committee. Answer: D Question #192 An enterprise is contracting with an outsourcing partner for a long-term engagement. The BEST time for the enterprise to plan for the event of contract termination: A. developing the initial contract. B. either party decides to terminate the contract. C. issues surface in the contractual relationship. D. planning for the contract as part of business continuity. Answer: C Question #193 The MOST important aspect of an IT governance framework to ensure that IT supports repeatable business processes is: A. resource management. B. quality management. C. risk management. D. earned value management. Answer: B Question #194 Which of the following would be the MOST effective way to ensure IT capabilities are appropriately aligned with business requirements for specific business processes? A. Issuing a management mandate that IT and business process stakeholders work together B. Requiring architecture and design reviews with business process stakeholders C. Establishing key performance indicators (KPIs) D. Requiring internal IT architecture and design reviews https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: B Question #195 For the first time, the procurement department has requested that IT grant remote access to third-party suppliers. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for IT in responding to the request? A. Analyze risks and propose a solution. B. Implement a remote access architecture. C. Develop a remote access policy. D. Issue log-on credentials to third-party suppliers. Answer: A Question #196 Which of the following would BEST help to improve an enterprise's ability to manage large IT investment projects? A. Reviewing and evaluating existing business cases B. Creating a change management board C. Publishing the IT approval process online for wider scrutiny D. Implementing a review and approval process for each phase Answer: C Question #197 Which of the following is the BEST approach to assist an enterprise in planning for IT-enabled investments? A. Enterprise architecture B. Service level management C. Task management D. IT process mapping Answer: D Question #198 To measure the value of IT-enabled investments, an enterprise needs to identify its drivers as defined by its: A. value statements. B. service level agreements (SLAs). C. business strategy. D. technology strategy. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #199 Which of the following is the BEST way to address concerns associated with outsourcing an IT process? A. Implement a business continuity plan. B. Perform a risk assessment. C. Review the IT governance framework. D. Manage service levels. Answer: D Question #200 A CIO has recently been made aware of a new regulatory requirement which may affect IT-enabled business activities. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step in deciding the appropriate response to the new requirement? A. Consult with legal and risk experts to understand the requirements. B. Confirm there are adequate resources to mitigate compliance requirements. C. Consult with the board for guidance on the new requirement. D. Revise initiatives that are active to reflect the new requirements. Answer: B Question #201 The risk committee is overwhelmed by the number of false positives included in risk reports. What action would BEST address this situation? A. Evaluate key risk indicators. B. Adjust IT balanced scorecard. C. Conduct a risk assessment. D. Change the reporting format. Answer: C Question #202 An enterprise has recently experienced an excessive number of exceptions due to outdated control frameworks. What should the leadership team do FIRST? A. Mandate a reassessment of the current control frameworks. B. Review the IT control standards. C. Mandate strict adherence to control frameworks. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! D. Update the exception review and approval process. Answer: B Question #203 In an effort to reduce operation costs, an enterprise is switching from all internally-hosted applications to a mixture of internally- and externally-hosted applications. Of the following, the risk appetite for this decision would BEST be defined by the: A. vendor oversight committee. B. board of directors. C. chief information security officer. D. chief information officer. Answer: C Question #204 IT senior management has just received a survey report indicating that more than one third of the organization's key IT staff plan to retire within the next 12 months. Which of the following is the MOST important governance action to prepare for this possibility? A. Request the development of a succession plan. B. Engage HR for recruitment of new staff. C. Evaluate lower-level staff as succession candidates. D. Review motivation drivers for key IT staff. Answer: C Question #205 A CEO of a large enterprise is concerned that risk events are not regularly addressed at the C-suite level unless related to emergency incidents. Which of the following is the BEST way for the CEO to ensure risk events are given sufficient time and attention? A. Instruct managers to take ownership for their department's identified risks. B. Issue performance objectives that target the elimination of enterprise risks. C. Include the of key enterprise risk as an agenda item at board meetings. D. Require the development of a risk procedure on how to capture risks. Answer: C Question #206 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An enterprise is assessing whether to utilize wearable technology. The enterprise has no prior experience with this technology and has asked the chief technology officer (CTO) to assess the impact to the enterprise. The CTO should FIRST: A. prioritize wearable technology risk. B. understand the enterprise's risk tolerance. C. map the business goals to IT risk processes. D. create an IT risk scorecard. Answer: B Question #207 An enterprise has an overarching enterprise architecture document. The CIO is concerned that EA is not leveraged in recent IT-enabled investments. Which of the following would BEST help to address these concerns and enforce the leveraging of enterprise architecture? A. Require enterprise architecture review at key milestones. B. Publish and train on the enterprise architecture document. C. Form a team to update enterprise architecture regularly. D. Adopt a globally-recognized enterprise architecture framework. Answer: B Question #208 After performing a gap analysis of IT risks and controls capability, the MOST important consideration for the associated risk responses is that they are: A. added to the IT balanced scorecard. B. approved by executive management. C. assessed for severity of impact. D. submitted to the audit committee. Answer: C Question #209 A new CEO is made aware of a lack of cooperation between IT and business units and needs to take action to enable more efficient IT delivery of solutions to support the business. What should be the FIRST step to address this concern? A. Introduce IT related key performance indicators (KPIs). B. Establish business user group training for increased collaboration. C. Clarify roles and assign accountabilities for results. D. Implement a continuous auditing policy for IT initiatives. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: C Question #210 An IT steering committee is presented with an audit finding that new software applications are delivered on time but consistently have unacceptable levels of defects. Which of the following would be the BEST direction from the committee? A. Establish code peer reviews. B. Evaluate the change management process. C. Implement performance indicators. D. Evaluate the quality assurance process. Answer: D Question #211 Which of the following is the BEST indicator of the effectiveness of IT governance in an enterprise? A. Project delivery B. Value delivery C. Residual risk D. Resource utilization Answer: B Question #212 Which of the following would be the BEST way for a CIO to enhance security risk management alignment between IT and business? A. Facilitate joint workshops for IT and the business on risk assessment techniques. B. Analyze benchmark reports to understand the organization's security investments against competitors. C. Establish a process in which IT and the business collaborate on risk assessment and mitigation prioritization. D. Perform a trend analysis based on security investment levels and business initiatives. Answer: C Question #213 An IT steering committee is concerned that enterprise technologies have grown stagnant and are outdated. Which of the following is the BEST strategy to invest in modem technology? A. Redefine the target architecture to define new technologies that can be incorporated into the infrastructure. B. Create a new investment category for innovation that becomes a new way for tracking investment decisions/ https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! C. Update the IT human resource management plan to requite training and development for emerging technologies. D. Decrease spending on steady state and increase spending on modernization and enhancements. Answer: A Question #214 An enterprise makes an acquisition of a similar entity offering related services. A consequence of the acquisition is a reduction of IT workforce. When addressing human resource allocation, the MOST important IT governance consideration is to: A. manage organizational change. B. assess 7 skill sets. C. monitor team expenditures. D. cross-train IT resources. Answer: D Question #215 An enterprise's board of directors has asked the CIO to implement ways to make the IT function more environmentally responsible. Which of the following should be the CIO's FIRST step to ensure continued alignment of IT needs with the requirements of the board? A. Create a staff awareness education plan focused on IT environmental responsibility. B. Incorporate new environmentally responsible objectives into existing IT goals. C. Assess potential environmentally responsible IT initiatives. D. Write a business case for an environmentally responsible initiative for IT. Answer: A Question #216 An enterprise has an ongoing issue of corporate applications not delivering the expected benefits due to missing key functionality. As a result, many groups are using spreadsheets and databases instead of approved enterprise applications to store and manipulate information. Which of the following will BEST improve the success rate of future IT initiatives? A. Engage the business user community in acceptance testing of acquired applications. B. Prohibit the use of non-approved alternate software solutions. C. Establish a process for risk and value management. D. Engage stakeholders to identify and validate business requirements. Answer: D Question #217 https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! An IT strategy committee has reviewed an audit report indicating sales employees are using personal smartphones to conduct corporate business. Although the committee appreciates the business benefits, it is also concerned with the security risk. To deliver the business benefit, the committee's FIRST recommendation should be to: A. update the corporate security policy to include personal devices. B. document procedures for securing personal devices. C. improve training courses on securing corporate information. D. perform a risk assessment on personal device data protection. Answer: D Question #218 Which of the following is the BEST way to implement effective IT risk management? A. Minimize the number of IT risk management decision points. B. Adopt risk management processes. C. Establish a risk management function. D. Align with business risk management processes. Answer: B Question #219 Which of the following characteristics would BEST indicate that an IT process is a good candidate for outsourcing? A. Operational processes that are well-defined B. Non-strategic processes that are not documented C. Strategic processes that require expert professionals D. Processes with higher risk to the enterprise Answer: B Question #220 Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of an effective set of key risk indicators (KRIs)? A. Identifying possible future adverse impacts on the enterprise B. Evaluating existing technology for risk monitoring capabilities C. Establishing executive level buy-in of the risk program D. Quantifying the productivity of the risk management team Answer: C https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Question #221 A large bank has completed several acquisitions in the last few years that have resulted in redundant IT applications. To align with the strategic initiative of providing integrated services to customers, the IT steering committee has decided to share data and integrate applications. Which of the following would be MOST important to review in this situation? A. IT risk register B. Balanced scorecard measures C. Enterprise architecture D. IT strategic plan Answer: C Question #222 To evaluate IT resource management, it is MOST important to define: A. principles for the IT strategy. B. responsibilities for executing resource management. C. applicable key goals. D. IT resource utilization reporting procedures. Answer: B Question #223 Which of the following is the MOST effective measure to assist in the evaluation of IT value delivery? A. Actual benefits derived from the achievement of business objectives B. Increase in user productivity C. Trends in service capacity and availability metrics D. Increase in customer satisfaction survey results Answer: A Question #224 Which of the following will BEST help to ensure that the governance of enterprise IT is consistently executed? A. Regular review of IT policies and procedures B. Defined key risk indicators C. Established and monitored IT management processes D. Experienced and skilled IT leadership https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! Answer: A Question #225 The BEST time to identify metrics to measure the performance of an IT-enabled investment is during: A. investment feasibility analysis. B. system implementation. C. project initiation. D. business case development. Answer: D Question #226 An enterprise is concerned that ongoing maintenance costs are not being considered when prioritizing IT-enabled business investments. Which of the following should be the enterprise's FIRST course of action? A. Require business cases to have product life cycle information. B. Establish a portfolio manager role to monitor and control the IT projects. C. Mandate an enterprise architecture review with business stakeholders. D. Implement a balanced scorecard for the IT project portfolio. Answer: C Question #227 The IT program manager does not see the value of conducting risk assessments for a new major IT project. The manager is reluctant to cooperate with internal auditors and the newly formed steering committee. Midway through the project, program requirements were changed because the CEO is a friend of a vendor and wants to implement this vendor's new technology. This decision will cause the current IT program budget to be insufficient and will be shown as overspending, After the requirement change request, the IT program manager should FIRST: A. report the matter to internal audit as a program deviation to be reviewed. B. obtain confirmation from the business and a decision by the steering committee. C. align IT with the business and agree to the business request. D. request additional funding from the business owner to cover the additional scope. Answer: B Question #228 A business unit within an enterprise has directly contracted with a cloud service provider to process sensitive customer information. The CIO later identifies a serious risk of potential data compromise due to the vendor's insufficient segregation of environments and lack of strong access controls. The FIRST course of action should be to: A. immediately suspend sending of data to the cloud service provider. https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! B. notify internal audit of the risk. C. discuss the risk with the vendor to determine mitigation actions. D. inform the business process owner of the risk. Answer: B Question #229 Which of the following would BEST align an enterprise's IT investments with its strategic objectives? A. High process maturity score B. IT budget and financial statements C. Control self-assessment D. Portfolio management Answer: A Question #230 To ensure that the process of developing a business case for IT-enabled investments continually supports benefits realization, the benefits expected from investment programs must be actively managed through: A. the system development life cycle. B. the economic life cycle. C. obsolescence planning. D. project life cycle. Answer: A https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! https://itexamcertified.com Passing Gauranteed! TPE 3: Understanding and Organizing Subject Matter for Student Learning Elements: Mild to Moderate Support Candidates will: U3.1 Demonstrate knowledge of subject matter, including the adopted California State Standards and curriculum frameworks. U3.2 Use knowledge about students and learning goals to organize the curriculum to facilitate student understanding of subject matter and make accommodations and/or modifications as needed to promote student access to the curriculum. U3.3 Plan, design, implement, and monitor instruction consistent with current subjectspecific pedagogy in the content area(s) of instruction, and design and implement disciplinary and cross-disciplinary learning sequences, including integrating the visual and performing arts as applicable to the discipline.1 U3.4 Individually and through consultation and collaboration with other educators and members of the larger school community, plan for effective subject matter instruction and use multiple means of representing, expressing, and engaging students to demonstrate their knowledge. U3.5 Adapt subject matter curriculum, organization, and planning to support the acquisition and use of academic language within learning activities to promote the subject matter knowledge of all students, including the full range of English learners, Standard English learners, students with disabilities, and students with other learning needs in the least restrictive environment. U3.6 Use and adapt resources, standards-aligned instructional materials, and a range of technology, including assistive technology, to facilitate students' equitable access to the curriculum. U3.7 Model and develop digital literacy by using technology to engage students and support their learning, and promote digital citizenship, including respecting copyright law, understanding fair use guidelines and the use of Creative Commons license, and maintaining Internet security. U.3.8 Demonstrate knowledge of effective teaching strategies aligned with the internationally recognized educational technology standards. MM3.1 Effectively adapt, modify, accommodate, and/or differentiate the instruction of students with identified disabilities in order to facilitate access to the Least Restrictive Environment (LRE). MM3.2 Demonstrate knowledge of disabilities and their effects on learning, skills development, social-emotional development, mental health, and behavior, and how to access and use related services and additional supports to organize and support effective instruction. MM3.3 Demonstrate knowledge of atypical development associated with various disabilities and risk conditions (e.g. orthopedic impairment, autism spectrum disorders, cerebral palsy), as well as resilience and protective factors (e.g. attachment, temperament), and their implications for learning. TITOLO I PRINCIPI Art. 1 – Personalità giuridica e principi fondamentali 1. In armonia con i principi costituzionali ed in attuazione della legislazione vigente, il presente Statuto disciplina l'ordinamento dell'Università degli Studi di Napoli Federico II, nel seguito denominata "Università". 2. L'Università ha personalità giuridica di diritto pubblico che esercita per conseguire i propri fini istituzionali. 3. L'Università è organizzata secondo i criteri di efficienza, di efficacia, di valutazione e di riconoscimento del merito, di trasparenza e di semplificazione e di decentramento funzionale ed organizzativo. 4. I poteri di indirizzo e di controllo spettano agli organi di governo dell'Università, l’attività amministrativa e tecnica è svolta dai dirigenti, con autonomi poteri di spesa e di gestione delle risorse umane e strumentali. 5. Simboli dell'Università sono la raffigurazione dell'Imperatore Federico II assiso sul trono e l'aquila sveva di Sicilia che compare sul gonfalone, tutelati ai sensi della vigente normativa in materia di marchio. Tali simboli possono essere utilizzati da altri soggetti pubblici o privati previa autorizzazione del Consiglio di Amministrazione, su proposta del Rettore. 6. Il sigillo ufficiale, raffigurante l'Imperatore Federico II assiso sul trono, è custodito dal Rettore. 7. L’Università conserva i privilegi, gli onori ed i distintivi derivati da antiche leggi e consuetudini e si impegna ad armonizzare la tradizione con i valori ed i principi coevi cui si ispira. Art. 2 – Finalità istituzionali 1. L’Università, a riconoscimento dell’inderogabile funzione e vocazione pubblica, afferma il proprio carattere laico, pluralistico ed indipendente da ogni orientamento ideologico, politico ed economico. 2. Fini primari dell’Università sono la ricerca e la didattica che l’Ateneo persegue promuovendo l’organizzazione, l’elaborazione e la trasmissione delle conoscenze, la formazione culturale e professionale, la crescita della coscienza civile degli studenti. Il miglioramento della qualità dei processi formativi viene assicurato anche con l’ausilio delle tecniche di apprendimento a distanza e di altre tecnologie innovative. 3. L’Università garantisce la libertà di manifestazione del pensiero, di associazione e di riunione, allo scopo di realizzare il pieno concorso di tutte le sue componenti alla vita democratica dell’Ateneo. 4. L’Università si impegna ad assicurare parità e pari opportunità di genere, rafforzando la tutela dei lavoratori e delle lavoratrici e garantendo l'assenza di qualunque forma di violenza morale o psicologica, di discriminazione diretta e indiretta relativa al genere, all'età, all'orientamento sessuale, all'origine etnica, alla disabilità, alla religione e alla lingua. A garanzia dell’effettività delle tutele riconosciute è istituito il “Comitato Unico di Garanzia per le pari opportunità, la valorizzazione del benessere di chi lavora e contro le discriminazioni”. 5. L’Università si impegna a perseguire i propri fini nel rispetto dei principi di ecosostenibilità, di sicurezza e salubrità dei luoghi di lavoro. 6. L’Università garantisce ai singoli professori e ricercatori, rispettandone lo stato giuridico, la libertà e l’autonomia della ricerca e dell’insegnamento, tenendo conto delle esigenze di coordinamento e degli obiettivi formativi degli ordinamenti didattici previsti dalle strutture di appartenenza. 7. L’Università, soggetto autonomo ed unitario, riconosce la pluralità delle culture che concorrono a costituire la sua identità. 8. L’Università promuove il trasferimento delle conoscenze attraverso la ricerca, la formazione, le attività di certificazione, di brevetto e di spin-off, nel conseguimento della qualità e dell'eccellenza. 9. L’Università avversa l’utilizzo dei risultati delle proprie attività per applicazioni che perseguano scopi contrari ai principi della dignità e libertà dell’uomo e della pacifica convivenza fra i popoli. 10.L’Università concorre allo sviluppo della cultura, del benessere sociale ed economico e del livello produttivo del Paese, anche attraverso forme di collaborazione con soggetti nazionali ed internazionali, pubblici e privati, che promuovono attività culturali e di ricerca. A tal fine sostiene in particolare programmi europei e di cooperazione e favorisce la più ampia fruizione delle proprie strutture. 11.L’Università garantisce il principio dell’accesso pieno ed aperto alla letteratura scientifica e promuove la libera diffusione in rete dei risultati delle ricerche prodotte in Ateneo, per assicurarne la più ampia diffusione; partecipa al processo di costruzione ed implementazione dello «spazio europeo dell’apprendimento permanente». 12.L’Università contrasta il conflitto di interessi in tutte le sue forme. 13.L’Università può partecipare, per una migliore realizzazione delle proprie finalità istituzionali e nei limiti delle stesse, a consorzi e ad altre forme associative di diritto privato, ivi comprese le società di capitali, anche mediante partecipazione finanziaria secondo la disciplina dettata con Regolamento di Ateneo. Art. 3 – Ricerca e didattica 1. L'Università garantisce la pari rilevanza del sapere umanistico, scientifico e tecnico; programma, mediante piani di sviluppo, le attività di ricerca e di insegnamento e ne valuta i risultati. 2. L’Università adotta criteri e fissa principi che consentano una equilibrata distribuzione delle risorse finanziarie destinate alla ricerca, tenuto conto di tutte le fonti di finanziamento, delle obiettive articolazioni dei settori di ricerca e delle loro effettive esigenze, nonché della qualità e della produttività delle ricerche, valutate secondo specifici criteri ed indicatori disancorati da logiche esclusivamente economiche. L'Università incoraggia e favorisce, comunque, la ricerca di base in ogni disciplina. 3. L’Università eroga formazione permanente, sulla base di criteri e standard formativi univocamente riconosciuti a livello nazionale, comunitario ed internazionale. 4. L’Università promuove la valutazione bioetica della ricerca sperimentale, con particolare riguardo alla sperimentazione clinica riferita ai problemi biomedici connessi con la vita e la salute dell’uomo, nonché la valutazione etico-scientifica della sperimentazione animale. 5. L’Università promuove la gestione in qualità delle attività di ricerca, didattiche e di servizio, garantendo il loro sviluppo organico e uniforme. A tal fine l’Università incentiva, anche attraverso meccanismi premiali, la certificazione di qualità e l’accreditamento delle sue strutture e delle attività collegate. 6. L'Università può beneficiare di contributi, lasciti e donazioni. 7. L'Università, nel rispetto delle funzioni istituzionali di ricerca e di insegnamento e nei limiti e con le modalità fissate da Regolamento, può svolgere attività di ricerca, di consulenza e di servizio nell’interesse prevalente di soggetti pubblici e privati, anche dotandosi di apposite risorse umane e strumentali, i cui oneri finanziari ed economici siano previsti nei relativi contratti e assunti secondo la normativa vigente. I proventi derivanti da contratti e convenzioni per conto terzi sono ripartiti secondo le modalità disciplinate con Regolamento di Ateneo, che dovrà riservarne una quota a copertura delle spese di carattere generale delle strutture interessate, una quota destinata al finanziamento della ricerca scientifica ed una quota destinata al Fondo comune di Ateneo. Nessun professore e ricercatore, senza il proprio consenso, può essere tenuto a svolgere attività di ricerca, di consulenza e di servizio per conto terzi, oggetto di contratti e convenzioni stipulati nell'interesse prevalente del committente. 8. L'Università può commissionare a proprie strutture lo svolgimento di attività di ricerca, di consulenza e di servizio. Art. 4 – Rapporti Internazionali 1. L’Università ha tra i suoi obiettivi prioritari la promozione della dimensione internazionale della ricerca scientifica e della didattica. A tal fine: a) stipula accordi e convenzioni con Atenei ed istituzioni culturali e scientifiche di alta qualità di altri Paesi; b) promuove ed incoraggia gli scambi internazionali di professori, ricercatori e studenti, anche con interventi di natura economica; c) sostiene i progetti di ricerca internazionali e le reti internazionali di dottorato; d) tende alla dimensione internazionale della formazione dei laureati per arricchirne la preparazione e potenziarne le prospettive occupazionali; e) favorisce l’attrazione dall’estero di professori e ricercatori, borsisti post-dottorato, studiosi di chiara fama e studenti particolarmente capaci e meritevoli. 2. L’Università collabora con organismi nazionali ed internazionali a definire ed a realizzare programmi di cooperazione scientifica e di formazione, avendo particolare attenzione a quelli rivolti ai Paesi meno sviluppati. 3. L’Università provvede a strutture per l’ospitalità anche in collaborazione con altri enti, specialmente con quelli preposti ad assicurare il diritto allo studio. Articolo 5 – Diritto allo studio 1. L'Università promuove il diritto allo studio e ne favorisce il concreto esercizio, anche predisponendo spazi ed attrezzature adeguati e ricorrendo, se necessario, a strutture decentrate. 2. L’Università favorisce la partecipazione attiva degli studenti alla vita universitaria. In applicazione dei principi costituzionali si impegna a rimuovere condizioni di disparità e disagio, in particolare, degli studenti meno abbienti, diversamente abili, stranieri e fuori sede. Attua le iniziative necessarie ad assicurare agli studenti una preparazione culturale e scientifica idonea a soddisfare le domande di formazione, anche in relazione alle diverse esigenze della società. 3. L'Università collabora con Stato, Regioni, altri enti ed istituzioni al fine di stimolare la crescita culturale degli studenti e valorizzare l'offerta didattica, di assistenza, di orientamento e di inserimento nel mondo del lavoro. Articolo 6 –Principi organizzativi 1. L’Università assicura il rispetto dei principi di efficienza ed efficacia attraverso l’utilizzo di modelli procedimentali ed organizzativi ispirati alla ottimizzazione dei tempi dei processi decisionali, privilegiando l’uso degli strumenti telematici e di semplificazione. 2. L’Università, in attuazione dei principi di autonomia, di decentramento e di sussidiarietà, si articola in Dipartimenti e Scuole. I Centri di ricerca, i Centri di Servizio interdipartimentali ed i Centri di Servizio costituiscono ulteriori articolazioni dell’Ateneo. 3. In attuazione dei principi di efficienza, efficacia e semplificazione, è ammessa la delega delle funzioni. Gli atti di delega, in forma scritta obbligatoria, devono riguardare materie determinate, oggetto e durata definiti e sono pubblicati nell’Albo Ufficiale on line di Ateneo. 4. Ai professori o ricercatori che ricoprano incarichi e funzioni ufficiali, non rientranti nei compiti istituzionali di didattica e di ricerca, può essere riconosciuta, nei casi previsti dal presente Statuto, una indennità di funzione nella misura determinata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, sentito il Collegio dei Revisori dei Conti. (Comma così modificato dal D.R. n. 4763 del 23/11/2019) 5. L’Università è rappresentata e difesa in giudizio dall’Avvocatura dello Stato ovvero da legali interni iscritti all’elenco speciale annesso all’albo degli avvocati. L’Università può altresì avvalersi del patrocinio di avvocati del libero foro nei limiti e con le modalità previste da apposito regolamento di Ateneo. Resta ferma la rappresentanza e difesa in giudizio dell’Università da parte di propri funzionari nei casi previsti dalla legge. (Comma introdotto dal D.R. n. 2320 del 13/07/2016) Articolo 7 – Trasparenza e Informazione 1. L'Università riconosce nella corretta e tempestiva informazione una delle condizioni essenziali per garantire la trasparenza. 2. Strumenti di effettivo rispetto dei principi di informazione, pubblicità e trasparenza sono il sito web di Ateneo e l’Albo ufficiale on line di Ateneo, sui quali vanno pubblicati gli atti di interesse generale, secondo modalità stabilite da Regolamento. 3. L'accesso ai documenti amministrativi è disciplinato secondo modalità stabilite da Regolamento ai sensi della normativa nazionale vigente. 4. Gli appartenenti alla comunità universitaria di cui all’art. 9 comma 2, possono consultare, nel rispetto delle previsioni di legge, i verbali delle adunanze degli organi collegiali dell'Università concernenti l'organizzazione, gli indicatori relativi agli andamenti gestionali e all'utilizzo delle risorse per il perseguimento delle funzioni istituzionali, i risultati dell'attività di misurazione e valutazione svolta dagli organi competenti. Tale consultazione può essere effettuata negli uffici presso i quali i verbali sono custoditi o mediante accesso al sito web di Ateneo nell’area riservata al personale, secondo modalità stabilite da Regolamento. Articolo 8 – Altre attività 1. L'Università favorisce le attività sociali, culturali, ricreative e sportive, anche quelle autogestite dagli studenti, attraverso la predisposizione, nei limiti consentiti dalle disposizioni di legge vigenti in materia e compatibilmente con le risorse finanziarie disponibili, di strutture e servizi necessari al loro svolgimento. Collabora, altresì, con gli enti sportivi universitari legalmente riconosciuti. TITOLO II SOGGETTI Art. 9 – Comunità Universitaria 1. L’Università realizza i fini istituzionali attraverso la sua comunità. 2. La comunità universitaria è formata dagli studenti, dai professori, dai ricercatori, dal personale dirigente e tecnico-amministrativo e da tutti coloro che trascorrono periodi di ricerca, di insegnamento e di studio presso l'Università e/o concorrono allo svolgimento delle sue funzioni istituzionali. 3. I valori fondamentali della Comunità Universitaria sono determinati dal Codice Etico dell’Ateneo. Sulle violazioni del Codice Etico, qualora non ricadano sotto la competenza del Collegio di Disciplina, decide, su proposta del Rettore, il Senato Accademico, previa istruttoria da parte di una Commissione Etica di Garanzia nominata dal Senato Accademico su proposta del Rettore e composta secondo le modalità previste dal Codice Etico. (Comma così modificato dal D.R. n. 2175 del 17/06/2015) 4. Le componenti della comunità partecipano alla vita universitaria con pari dignità, secondo le funzioni previste dalla normativa vigente ed in base al ruolo di appartenenza. 5. Tutti coloro che hanno conseguito un titolo di studio presso l’Università Federico II possono continuare a far parte della comunità universitaria attraverso l’Associazione Federiciana “Ex Alumni”. Art. 10 – Studenti 1. Sono studenti dell’Università coloro che risultano regolarmente iscritti ai corsi di laurea, di laurea magistrale, di specializzazione e di dottorato di ricerca. Fatta eccezione per l’elettorato attivo e passivo in ordine alla rappresentanza all’interno degli Organi collegiali, sono equiparati agli studenti: gli iscritti ai master universitari ed ai corsi di perfezionamento, nonché gli studenti stranieri la cui mobilità sia prevista e disciplinata da accordi e convenzioni internazionali. 2. Al fine di consentire un proficuo rapporto tra docenti e studenti e favorire un miglior inserimento degli studenti nella comunità universitaria, l'Università può determinare, con le procedure e nei casi previsti dalla vigente normativa, il numero massimo delle iscrizioni ai corsi di studio, che viene fissato dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, sentiti il Nucleo di Valutazione, il Consiglio degli Studenti e il Senato accademico. 3. I criteri, le modalità di ammissione e le condizioni per il mantenimento dello status di studente, sono stabiliti dal Regolamento didattico di Ateneo. 4. Il numero massimo e le modalità di ammissione alle Scuole di specializzazione ed ai corsi di dottorato di ricerca sono definiti sulla base delle norme di legge nonché delle risorse economiche, didattiche e strutturali dell'Università. 5. Gli studenti possono partecipare all'attività di ricerca funzionale alla loro formazione, nei limiti previsti dalla normativa vigente. 6. Gli studenti partecipano alla gestione dell'Università attraverso le proprie rappresentanze negli Organi collegiali ove previsto nel presente Statuto. 7. L'Università può stabilire collaborazioni studentesche per la gestione di servizi per i quali, secondo quanto previsto dalla normativa vigente, è possibile il ricorso a singoli studenti, alle associazioni studentesche, nonché alle cooperative studentesche. 8. Gli studenti sono tenuti a contribuire all'ordinato funzionamento delle attività universitarie, alla partecipazione agli Organi collegiali, al corretto uso delle strutture e alla piena valorizzazione delle opportunità culturali. Art. 11 – Professori e Ricercatori 1. In conformità ai compiti previsti per ciascun ruolo o funzione, i professori ed i ricercatori assicurano la loro attività, nei limiti del proprio impegno didattico, in qualsiasi corso di studio attivato nell’Ateneo. 2. I professori e i ricercatori concorrono al raggiungimento delle finalità istituzionali dell’Università. Le attività di didattica, ricerca nonché gli incarichi gestionali eventualmente attribuiti definiscono il quadro complessivo per la valutazione di ciascun professore e ricercatore. (Comma così modificato dal D.R. n. 4763 del 23/11/2019) 3. Ai professori e ai ricercatori può essere riconosciuta la titolarità di fondi finalizzati di ricerca. 4. La carica di Rettore, Prorettore, Direttore di Dipartimento, Presidente di Scuola, Coordinatore del Nucleo di Valutazione e Coordinatore di Corso di studio è riservata ai professori a tempo pieno. E’ altresì riservata ai ricercatori e professori a tempo pieno la carica di componenti del Consiglio di Amministrazione. Un Regolamento di Ateneo disciplina le modalità di svolgimento delle attività per i professori e i ricercatori a tempo pieno e a tempo definito. Art. 12 – Personale dirigente e tecnico-amministrativo 1. Il personale tecnico-amministrativo e il personale dirigente dell’Ateneo, secondo quanto disposto dall’art. 23, comma 1, del D. Lgs. 30/3/2001 n. 165 e s.m.i., svolgono i compiti propri delle rispettive aree di competenza, nell’ambito dell’Amministrazione centrale e delle altre strutture previste dal presente Statuto. 2. Il personale partecipa alla gestione dell'Università attraverso le proprie rappresentanze negli Organi collegiali, ove previsto dal presente Statuto. 3. L’Università, nel rispetto delle previsioni normative vigenti, garantisce periodicamente lo svolgimento di corsi di formazione e aggiornamento professionale, volti a promuovere il miglioramento dei servizi e ad accrescere le buone pratiche, favorendo la più ampia partecipazione. 4. I Dirigenti, nell’ambito delle proprie competenze, collaborano con il Direttore generale nella gestione ed organizzazione dei servizi, delle risorse strumentali e del personale tecnico-amministrativo. In particolare: a) formulano proposte ed esprimono pareri al Direttore generale; b) curano l'attuazione dei progetti e svolgono l’attività di gestione ad essi assegnati dal Direttore generale, adottando i relativi atti e provvedimenti amministrativi ed esercitano i poteri di spesa nei limiti fissati dal Regolamento per l’Amministrazione e la Contabilità; c) emanano i provvedimenti amministrativi di autorizzazione, concessione o di analoga natura il cui rilascio presupponga accertamenti e valutazioni da eseguire secondo criteri predeterminati dalla Legge, dallo Statuto, dai Regolamenti o da deliberazioni degli organi dell’università; d) svolgono tutti gli altri compiti ad essi delegati dal Direttore generale; e) dirigono, coordinano e controllano l'attività degli uffici che da essi dipendono e dei responsabili dei procedimenti amministrativi, anche con poteri sostitutivi in caso di inerzia; f) effettuano la valutazione del personale assegnato ai propri uffici, nel rispetto del principio del merito; g) esercitano, nei casi previsti dalla legge, l’azione disciplinare nei confronti del personale tecnico-amministrativo che da essi dipende. 5. Per particolari esigenze di carattere specialistico, l'Università può affidare a personale dipendente, nei limiti previsti dalla vigente normativa e sulla base di criteri predefiniti e valutazioni comparative per titoli, prestazioni lavorative non rientranti tra le funzioni o mansioni svolte da detto personale in ragione dell’ufficio; tali prestazioni non costituiscono obbligo per il dipendente e possono essere assegnate solo previo assenso dell’interessato. 6. Gli incarichi dirigenziali a tempo determinato a personale non appartenente al ruolo della dirigenza sono disciplinati dall’art. 19, commi 6, 6 bis, e 6 ter, del D. Lgs. 30/3/2001 n. 165 e s.m.i. con le modalità stabilite da apposito Regolamento di Ateneo. TITOLO III ORGANI CAPO I ORGANI DI GOVERNO Art. 13 – Organi 1. Sono organi dell’Università: a) Il Rettore; b) Il Senato accademico; c) Il Consiglio di Amministrazione; d) Il Direttore generale; e) Il Nucleo di Valutazione; f) Il Collegio dei Revisori dei Conti. Art. 14 – Il Rettore 1. Il Rettore ha la rappresentanza legale dell’Università, esercita le funzioni di indirizzo, iniziativa e coordinamento delle attività scientifiche e didattiche, è responsabile del perseguimento delle finalità dell’Università secondo criteri di qualità e nel rispetto dei principi di efficacia, efficienza, trasparenza e promozione del merito. 2. Svolge, in particolare, le seguenti funzioni: a) convoca e presiede il Senato accademico e il Consiglio di Amministrazione; b) emana i Regolamenti; c) propone il documento di programmazione triennale di Ateneo ai sensi della normativa vigente, tenuto conto delle proposte e dei pareri del Senato accademico; d) propone la programmazione finanziaria annuale e triennale e la programmazione del personale; e) propone il bilancio di previsione annuale e triennale e il conto consuntivo; f) propone il conferimento dell’incarico di Direttore generale ed assegna allo stesso gli obiettivi strategici, secondo le linee di programmazione stabilite dal Consiglio di Amministrazione. g) assume l’iniziativa dei procedimenti disciplinari, anche di quelli relativi alle violazioni del Codice Etico, nei confronti dei professori e dei ricercatori; h) accerta la legittimità degli atti relativi alle proposte di chiamata avanzate dai Dipartimenti dei professori di prima e seconda fascia e dei ricercatori; i) stipula i contratti per il conferimento di assegni per lo svolgimento di attività di ricerca, per l’attività di insegnamento e per il reclutamento di ricercatori a tempo determinato; j) in casi di necessità e di urgenza adotta i provvedimenti opportuni e li sottopone alla ratifica dell’organo competente nella prima adunanza successiva; k) assume tutte le determinazioni di sua competenza relative ai rapporti con il Servizio sanitario nazionale e regionale previste dalle norme e dalle convenzioni vigenti; l) provvede alle nomine e alle designazioni di sua competenza; m) conferisce procura alle liti; (Comma così modificato dal D.R. n. 2320 del 13/07/2016). n) esercita ogni ulteriore funzione non espressamente attribuita ad altri Organi dal presente Statuto. (Comma introdotto dal D.R. n. 2320 del 13/07/2016). 3. L’ufficio di Rettore è incompatibile con ogni altra carica elettiva dell’Università, con incarichi elettivi presso altre Università italiane, statali, non statali legalmente riconosciute e telematiche, incarichi e nomine presso Fondazioni universitarie ed incarichi di natura politica e sindacale. 4. Il Rettore, su sua richiesta, ha diritto ad una limitazione dell’attività didattica. Art. 15 – Elezione del Rettore 1. Il Rettore è eletto tra i professori ordinari a tempo pieno in servizio presso le Università italiane. 2. L’elezione avviene sulla base della presentazione di candidature e di un programma, con modalità stabilite dal Regolamento generale di Ateneo. 3. Il Rettore dura in carica sei anni; il mandato non è rinnovabile. 4. Sono elettori del Rettore: i professori e i ricercatori a tempo indeterminato, i ricercatori a tempo determinato di cui all’art. 24, comma 3, lett. b) della Legge 30/12/2010, n. 240; i componenti del Consiglio degli studenti; i rappresentanti del personale tecnicoamministrativo e dirigenziale nel Senato Accademico, nel Consiglio di Amministrazione ove presenti, nei Consigli di Dipartimento, ed i rappresentanti eletti del personale dell’Amministrazione Centrale in numero pari al 2% dei professori e ricercatori con diritto di voto. 5. L’elezione è indetta dal Decano dei professori ordinari. Nel caso di pari anzianità nel ruolo prevale la maggiore anzianità anagrafica. 6. Il corpo elettorale è convocato dal Decano non prima di centottanta giorni dalla scadenza del mandato del Rettore in carica e in modo che le operazioni elettorali siano completate in tempo utile rispetto al termine di scadenza. Il Decreto di convocazione riporta il calendario delle votazioni, con l’indicazione di tre date, compresa quella dell’eventuale turno di ballottaggio. L’avviso di convocazione è pubblicato nell’Albo Ufficiale on line dell’Università disponibile sul sito internet istituzionale della stessa, almeno trenta giorni prima della data fissata per la prima votazione ed è inviato negli stessi termini agli aventi diritto al voto. 7. Ciascuna votazione è valida se vi partecipa la metà più uno degli aventi diritto. Nelle prime due votazioni risulta eletto il candidato che abbia ottenuto la maggioranza assoluta dei voti. Qualora per due votazioni nessun candidato abbia conseguito tale maggioranza, si procede a votazione di ballottaggio tra i due candidati più votati nella seconda votazione; risulta eletto il candidato che ottiene il maggior numero di voti. In caso di parità prevale il più anziano nel ruolo e, in caso di ulteriore parità, il più anziano per età anagrafica. L’eletto è proclamato dal Decano ed è nominato con Decreto del Ministro competente per l’Università. 8. Nel caso di anticipata cessazione, le funzioni di ordinaria amministrazione vengono assunte dal Prorettore e il Decano dei professori ordinari convoca il corpo elettorale tra il trentesimo e il sessantesimo giorno successivo alla data di cessazione, notificando l’avviso di convocazione almeno venti giorni prima della data stabilita per lo svolgimento della prima votazione. 9. Nel caso di elezione per anticipata cessazione, il Rettore eletto assume la carica all’atto della nomina e resta in carica per i sei anni successivi. 10.Il Rettore è obbligato alle dimissioni in caso di motivata mozione di sfiducia proposta dal Senato accademico e approvata dal corpo elettorale. La mozione di sfiducia deve essere proposta dal Senato accademico – comunque non prima che siano trascorsi due anni dall’inizio del mandato del Rettore – a maggioranza dei due terzi dei suoi componenti. La votazione del corpo elettorale sulla mozione di sfiducia è valida se vi prende parte la metà più uno degli aventi diritto al voto, come individuati dal precedente comma 4. Il corpo elettorale è convocato secondo modalità analoghe a quelle previste per l’elezione del Rettore. La mozione deve essere approvata con la maggioranza dei tre quinti dei votanti. Art. 16 – Il Prorettore e i delegati del Rettore 1. Il Rettore nomina, tra i professori ordinari a tempo pieno presso l’Ateneo, un Prorettore che lo sostituisce in caso di assenza o impedimento. 2. Il Prorettore può richiedere al Rettore una limitazione dell’attività didattica. 3. Il Prorettore partecipa, senza diritto di voto, alle adunanze del Senato accademico e del Consiglio di Amministrazione. 4. Il Rettore può delegare specifiche funzioni a professori e ricercatori in servizio presso l’Ateneo, tra quelli esperti nel settore oggetto della delega. La delega viene resa pubblica sul sito internet dell’Ateneo. Il Rettore può revocare la delega. Art. 17 – Il Senato accademico 1. Il Senato accademico è l’organo che esercita la funzione di alta vigilanza sulla ricerca, la didattica e i servizi agli studenti. Il Senato accademico promuove e coordina la complessiva programmazione strategica a garanzia della politica culturale dell'Ateneo. 2. In particolare, il Senato accademico: a) formula proposte ed esprime pareri obbligatori in materia di didattica, di ricerca e di servizi agli studenti e di attività culturali nel quadro del documento di programmazione triennale di Ateneo ai sensi della normativa vigente, nonché in materia di attivazione, modifica o soppressione di corsi di studio, sedi, Dipartimenti e Scuole; b) approva, a maggioranza assoluta dei componenti, previo parere favorevole del Consiglio di Amministrazione, il Regolamento generale di Ateneo; c) approva, previo parere favorevole del Consiglio di Amministrazione, il Regolamento dei Centri di Ricerca e dei Centri di Servizio interdipartimentali; d) approva, previo parere favorevole del Consiglio di Amministrazione, i Regolamenti, compresi quelli di competenza dei Dipartimenti e delle Scuole, in materia di didattica e ricerca; e) approva, previo parere favorevole del Consiglio di Amministrazione, il Codice Etico e vigila sul conflitto di interessi; f) svolge funzioni di coordinamento e di raccordo tra i Dipartimenti e tra le Scuole; g) predispone le linee guida ed approva il Regolamento didattico dei corsi di studio istituiti presso i Dipartimenti; h) predispone le linee guida ed approva i Regolamenti di funzionamento delle Scuole di dottorato e dei singoli corsi di dottorato ed esprime parere sulla loro attivazione; i) esprime parere obbligatorio sul bilancio di previsione annuale e triennale e sul conto consuntivo dell’Università; j) esprime parere obbligatorio sulla programmazione finanziaria annuale e triennale e sulla programmazione del personale; k) esprime parere obbligatorio sul documento di programmazione triennale; l) esprime parere obbligatorio sulla proposta del Rettore di conferimento dell’incarico di Direttore generale; m) esprime parere obbligatorio in merito all’ammontare delle tasse e dei contributi degli studenti, sentito il Consiglio degli studenti di Ateneo; n) stabilisce il calendario accademico; o) esprime parere obbligatorio sulla programmazione degli accessi ai corsi di studio proposta dai Dipartimenti; p) designa il coordinatore del Nucleo di Valutazione tra i professori a tempo pieno dell’Ateneo; q) designa cinque membri nel Consiglio di Amministrazione appartenenti ai ruoli dell’Ateneo; r) determina i criteri generali per la promozione e l’attuazione dei programmi nazionali ed internazionali di cooperazione in campo scientifico e didattico proponendo al Consiglio di Amministrazione il piano strategico per l’internazionalizzazione; s) definisce la politica dell’Ateneo per il diritto allo studio; t) può proporre al corpo elettorale, con la maggioranza di almeno due terzi dei suoi componenti, una motivata mozione di sfiducia al Rettore non prima che siano trascorsi due anni dall’inizio del suo mandato. L’adunanza convocata per la mozione di sfiducia è presieduta dal Decano del Senato che provvede alla convocazione quando ne facciano richiesta i componenti nella percentuale di cui al successivo comma 3); u) può conferire alle Scuole specifiche deleghe nei settori di propria competenza, per finalità di maggiore efficacia ed efficienza; v) esprime parere al Rettore sulle determinazioni che questi ritenga di sottoporgli e, su proposta del Rettore, decide in merito alle violazioni del Codice Etico che non ricadono nelle competenze del Collegio di Disciplina; w) adotta, a maggioranza assoluta dei componenti, il proprio Regolamento, che ne disciplina l’organizzazione e il funzionamento. 3. Il Senato accademico è convocato dal Rettore di sua iniziativa o su motivata richiesta di almeno un terzo dei componenti con diritto di voto. Art. 18 – Composizione del Senato accademico 1. Il Senato accademico è composto da: a) il Rettore che lo presiede; b) 8 Direttori di Dipartimento; c) 16 eletti in un collegio unico costituito tra gli appartenenti alle categorie di professori ordinari, professori associati, ricercatori a tempo indeterminato e ricercatori di cui all'art. 24 comma 3, lettera b) della legge 240/2010; d) 6 rappresentanti degli studenti tra cui il Presidente del Consiglio degli Studenti; e) 4 rappresentanti del personale tecnico-amministrativo e dirigenziale. 2. Per la componente di cui alla lett. b) e per quella di cui alla lett. c) occorre garantire la rappresentanza delle diverse aree culturali individuate nell’Ateneo; per i membri di cui alla lett. c) deve essere, altresì, garantita la presenza di almeno tre professori ordinari, tre professori associati, tre ricercatori di cui almeno uno a tempo indeterminato. 3. I componenti elettivi del Senato accademico durano in carica quattro anni, ad eccezione degli studenti, il cui mandato è biennale, nonché dei Direttori di Dipartimento, il cui mandato è triennale, e dei ricercatori di cui all'art. 24 comma 3, lettera b) della Legge 240/2010, la cui carica è correlata alla durata del contratto. Il mandato di tutti i componenti è rinnovabile una sola volta. 4. Le modalità di elezione sono disciplinate dal Regolamento generale di Ateneo. 5. Alle adunanze del Senato accademico possono partecipare, senza diritto di voto, il Pro Rettore ed i Presidenti delle Scuole se convocati. Alle adunanze del Senato Accademico partecipa, senza diritto di voto, il Direttore Generale con funzione di Segretario verbalizzante. Art. 21 – Collegio dei Revisori dei Conti 1. Il Collegio dei Revisori dei Conti è composto da tre componenti effettivi e due supplenti ed è nominato con Decreto del Rettore. 2. Un membro effettivo, con funzioni di Presidente, deve essere scelto tra i magistrati amministrativi e contabili e gli avvocati dello Stato ed è designato dal Rettore. 3. Un membro effettivo ed uno supplente vengono designati dal Ministero dell’Economia e delle Finanze. 4. Un membro effettivo ed uno supplente vengono scelti dal Ministero dell’Istruzione, dell’Università e della Ricerca. 5. Almeno due dei componenti effettivi devono essere iscritti al Registro dei Revisori contabili. 6. E’ vietato il conferimento dell’incarico al personale dipendente dell’Università. 7. Il Collegio dei Revisori dei Conti dura in carica quattro anni e i suoi componenti possono essere confermati per una sola volta. 8. Ai componenti effettivi e supplenti del Collegio dei Revisori è corrisposta una indennità di carica annuale, nella misura determinata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione e non modificabile per l’intero periodo di durata del loro ufficio. 9. I compiti e le modalità di funzionamento del Collegio dei Revisori sono stabiliti dal Regolamento di Amministrazione e Contabilità. Art. 22 – Nucleo di Valutazione 1. Il Nucleo di Valutazione ha il compito di valutare le attività didattiche, di ricerca, di trasferimento delle conoscenze, nonché quelle relative agli interventi di sostegno al diritto allo studio e quelle attinenti all’attività gestionale ed organizzativa svolta dai professori e ricercatori ed alla complessiva organizzazione funzionale ed amministrativa, per garantire il costante miglioramento del livello di qualità, efficacia ed efficienza. 2. Il Nucleo è organo indipendente e l’Ateneo ne assicura l'autonomia operativa, il diritto di accesso ai dati e alle informazioni necessari, nonché la pubblicità e la diffusione degli atti, nel rispetto della normativa a tutela della riservatezza. 3. Il Nucleo di Valutazione, tenendo anche conto dei criteri di valutazione fissati dall’ANVUR: a) verifica la qualità e l’efficacia dell’offerta didattica, anche sulla base degli indicatori individuati dalle Commissioni paritetiche docenti-studenti di cui all’art.32; b) verifica l’attività di ricerca svolta dai Dipartimenti e la congruità dei curricula scientifici o professionali dei titolari dei contratti di insegnamento di cui all’art. 23 della Legge 240/2010; c) nell’area medica e veterinaria verifica anche l’integrazione fra l’attività didattica, di ricerca e clinico-assistenziale; d) svolge, in raccordo con l’attività dell’ANVUR, le funzioni di cui all’art. 14 del D. Lgs. 27/10/2009 n. 150, relative alle procedure di valutazione delle strutture e del personale, al fine di promuovere nell’Ateneo, in piena autonomia e con modalità organizzative proprie, il merito ed il miglioramento della performance organizzativa ed individuale; e) esprime pareri e valutazioni sulla sostenibilità della organizzazione delle attività di didattica e di ricerca, nonché sui progetti culturali, scientifici e didattici posti alla base delle proposte di costituzione di Dipartimenti e di Scuole; f) formula al Senato accademico ed al Consiglio di Amministrazione proposte per il miglioramento e l’ottimizzazione della organizzazione delle attività di didattica e di ricerca; g) esprime valutazioni sulla strategia di reclutamento operata dai Dipartimenti; h) esprime pareri in ordine alle chiamate per chiara fama ed al conferimento di lauree honoris causa; i) monitora il funzionamento del sistema complessivo della valutazione, il rispetto della trasparenza ed integrità dei controlli interni; j) trasmette al Rettore un rapporto annuale sull’attività svolta. Art. 23 – Composizione del Nucleo di Valutazione 1. Il Nucleo di Valutazione è composto da sette membri: a) un professore dell’Ateneo a tempo pieno; b) un rappresentante degli studenti; c) cinque componenti non appartenenti ai ruoli dell’Ateneo a decorrere dai tre anni precedenti la designazione. Tali membri, inoltre, non devono essere professori o ricercatori di Università che abbiano stipulato un accordo di programma o federativo con l’Ateneo, né debbono ricoprire, o aver ricoperto, cariche politicoelettive nei tre anni precedenti l’assunzione della carica; non devono, altresì, trovarsi in una posizione di conflitto di interessi, attuale o potenziale, con l’Ateneo. 2. I componenti esterni del Nucleo di Valutazione devono essere esperti nel campo della valutazione anche in ambito non accademico e comunque in possesso di elevata qualificazione professionale. 3. La funzione di Coordinatore del Nucleo è attribuita al professore di ruolo dell’Ateneo designato dal Senato accademico. 4. I componenti esterni sono scelti dal Rettore, previa emanazione di un avviso pubblicato sul sito web di Ateneo ed esame dei curricula dei soggetti che hanno manifestato la propria disponibilità. I curricula dei candidati sono resi pubblici sul sito web dell’Ateneo. Dall’esame dei curricula degli aspiranti deve risultare che l’esperienza maturata sia coerente con le aree culturali presenti nell’Ateneo. 5. Il rappresentante degli studenti viene eletto dal Consiglio degli studenti. 6. I componenti durano in carica quattro anni, con l’eccezione del rappresentante degli studenti che dura in carica due anni. L’incarico può essere rinnovato immediatamente una sola volta. (Comma così modificato dal D.R. n. 2320 del 13/07/2016). 7. Le modalità di organizzazione e funzionamento del Nucleo di Valutazione sono disciplinate da apposito Regolamento. Art. 24 – Direttore generale 1. Fatte salve le competenze attribuite dalle vigenti disposizioni ad altri soggetti, organi o strutture, il Direttore generale assicura, sulla base degli indirizzi forniti dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, la complessiva gestione ed organizzazione dei servizi, delle risorse strumentali e del personale dirigente e tecnico-amministrativo dell’Ateneo, nonché lo svolgimento, in quanto compatibili, dei compiti di cui all’art. 16 del D. Lgs. 30/3/2001 n. 165 e s.m.i.. 2. L’incarico di Direttore generale dell’Ateneo è conferito dal Consiglio di Amministrazione su proposta del Rettore, sentito il Senato accademico, mediante contratto di lavoro a tempo determinato di diritto privato. 3. Il Direttore generale viene scelto tra personalità di elevata qualificazione professionale e comprovata esperienza pluriennale con funzioni dirigenziali. 4. Il contratto ha la durata di tre anni. L’incarico può essere rinnovato, tenendo conto del grado di raggiungimento degli obiettivi assegnati al Direttore generale dal Rettore, nonché dell’economicità, efficienza ed efficacia e funzionalità delle prestazioni rese, anche per il tramite dei Dirigenti, dall’apparato amministrativo di competenza esclusiva del Direttore generale. Il trattamento economico spettante al Direttore generale è definito in conformità ai criteri e parametri fissati dal Ministero dell’Istruzione, dell’Università e della Ricerca di concerto con il Ministero dell’Economia e delle Finanze. Qualora l’incarico sia conferito ad un dipendente pubblico, lo stesso è collocato in aspettativa senza assegni per tutta la durata del contratto. 5. Il Direttore generale partecipa, senza diritto di voto, alle sedute del Senato accademico e del Consiglio di Amministrazione e svolge le funzioni di segretario verbalizzante. 6. Il Direttore generale esercita tutte le funzioni attribuitegli dalla legge, dal presente Statuto e dai Regolamenti. In particolare: a) cura l’attuazione dei programmi e delle direttive degli organi di governo dell’Università e definisce gli obiettivi che i dirigenti devono perseguire, attribuendo agli stessi le conseguenti risorse umane, finanziarie e materiali; b) nel rispetto delle norme amministrativo-contabili previste dal Regolamento di Amministrazione e Contabilità e delle altre disposizioni vigenti in materia, esercita i poteri di spesa di sua competenza; c) provvede alla istituzione ed alla organizzazione degli uffici e delle ripartizioni e dei servizi amministrativi e tecnici, definendone, tra l’altro, gli orari di servizio e di apertura al pubblico; d) nell’ambito della programmazione del personale e nel rispetto delle indicazioni date dagli organi di governo dell’Università, provvede al reclutamento del personale tecnico-amministrativo e dirigente, stipula i conseguenti contratti individuali di lavoro subordinato, adotta tutti gli atti di gestione dello stesso che non siano di competenza delle strutture dotate di autonomia amministrativa e contabile, ivi compresi quelli attinenti all’attribuzione dei trattamenti economici, anche accessori. Resta ferma la specifica disciplina prevista dal Protocollo Università – Regione stipulato ai sensi dell’art. 1 del D. Lgs. 21/12/1999 n. 517 e s.m.i. per il personale universitario tecnico-amministrativo utilizzato dall’Azienda ospedaliera universitaria Federico II; e) procede, anche mediante mobilità, all’assegnazione del personale tecnico- amministrativo agli uffici, alle Ripartizioni ed alle strutture dell’Ateneo, fatta eccezione per il personale tecnico–amministrativo utilizzato presso l’Azienda ospedaliera universitaria Federico II, secondo quanto previsto nel Protocollo di Intesa Regione – Università, stipulato, ai sensi dell’art. 1 del D. Lgs. 21/12/1999 n. 517 e s.m.i., per la disciplina del rapporto tra servizio sanitario regionale e Università per lo svolgimento delle attività assistenziali; f) nomina i responsabili delle Ripartizioni e degli Uffici; g) è responsabile del raggiungimento degli obiettivi strategici assegnati dal Rettore sulla base degli indirizzi formulati dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, nonché delle prestazioni rese, anche per il tramite dei Dirigenti, dall’apparato amministrativo di propria esclusiva competenza; h) indirizza, coordina, controlla e valuta l’attività degli altri dirigenti, assegnando loro gli obiettivi operativi e di comportamento, secondo il modello di valutazione adottato dal Nucleo di Valutazione e approvato dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, compatibilmente con quanto previsto dal D. Lgs. 27/10/2009 n. 150. Il Direttore generale, con provvedimento motivato, può procedere alla sostituzione dei dirigenti in caso di loro inerzia o ritardo. Con provvedimento motivato, per particolari esigenze di necessità ed urgenza, può avocare a sé specifici atti di competenza dei Dirigenti; i) esercita, nei casi previsti dalla legge, l’azione disciplinare nei confronti del personale tecnico-amministrativo e dirigente, fermo restando quanto previsto dal Protocollo di Intesa Regione – Università stipulato ai sensi dell’art. 1 del D. Lgs. 21/12/1999 n. 517 e s.m.i. per il personale universitario tecnico-amministrativo utilizzato presso l’Azienda ospedaliera universitaria Federico II; j) stipula i contratti relativi alla fornitura di beni e servizi ed ai lavori, fatte salve le competenze dei Dirigenti o di altre strutture di Ateneo previste dal Regolamento di Amministrazione e Contabilità; k) propone al Consiglio di Amministrazione eventuali transazioni alle liti; l) chiede pareri agli organi delle altre amministrazioni anche internazionali; m) fornisce chiarimenti agli organi di controllo sugli atti di sua competenza; n) nell’ambito degli atti di propria competenza, fornisce pareri e consulenze agli organi di governo dell’Università ed agli organi delle altre strutture di Ateneo. o) propone al Rettore la nomina di legali interni per la rappresentanza e la difesa in giudizio dell’Università. (Comma introdotto dal D.R. n. 2320 del 13/07/2016) 7. Il contratto con il Direttore generale può essere risolto a seguito di provvedimento motivato del Consiglio di Amministrazione, su proposta del Rettore, previo parere del Senato accademico, nelle ipotesi e con le procedure previste dalla legge e dal contratto. 8. Il Direttore generale può nominare – nell’ambito dei Dirigenti in servizio presso l’Ateneo – un proprio Vicario che esercita, in caso di assenza o impedimento, tutte le funzioni di competenza del Direttore generale. CAPO II ALTRI ORGANI Art. 25 – Consiglio degli Studenti 1. Al fine di valorizzare e favorire la partecipazione studentesca nell’ambito dei processi decisionali degli organi di governo dell’Università, il Consiglio degli Studenti esprime parere su: a) il Regolamento didattico di Ateneo e il Regolamento degli studenti; b) gli indirizzi concernenti la disciplina delle attività e dei servizi didattici; c) le tasse e i contributi degli studenti; d) i criteri di attuazione del diritto allo studio, anche in relazione alla formazione e alle prospettive professionali; e) la destinazione di risorse ad iniziative ed attività sociali, culturali, ricreative e sportive degli studenti ed all’utilizzo delle stesse; f) le proposte del Rettore, del Senato accademico, del Consiglio di Amministrazione e delle Commissioni paritetiche docenti-studenti, nelle materie di cui alle precedenti lettere. 2. Il Consiglio rende il parere sulle predette questioni entro venti giorni dal ricevimento della richiesta; decorso inutilmente tale termine, si procede indipendentemente dall’espressione del parere. 3. Il Consiglio può esprimere parere su ogni altra questione sottoposta allo stesso dagli organi di governo dell’Ateneo; formula, altresì, proposte agli Organi di governo dell’Università su tutto quanto attiene alle libertà, alla formazione culturale e professionale ed allo sviluppo della coscienza civile degli studenti. 4. Il Consiglio elegge tra i suoi componenti il rappresentante nel Nucleo di Valutazione. Art. 26 – Composizione del Consiglio degli studenti 1. Il Consiglio degli studenti è composto, in numero non superiore a 45, dai rappresentanti degli studenti in seno al Senato accademico ed al Consiglio di Amministrazione e da una equilibrata rappresentanza elettiva degli studenti afferenti alle diverse strutture didattiche. 2. La prima adunanza del Consiglio degli studenti è convocata dal Rettore. 3. Il Consiglio elegge al proprio interno il Presidente, che convoca le adunanze e provvede a trasmettere pareri e proposte agli organi competenti. Il Presidente è membro del Senato accademico. 4. Le modalità di elezione, nonché di organizzazione e funzionamento del Consiglio degli studenti di Ateneo sono stabilite con Regolamento di Ateneo. I membri durano in carica due anni e sono rieleggibili una sola volta. Art. 27 – Comitato Unico di Garanzia 1. È istituito il “Comitato Unico di Garanzia per le pari opportunità, la valorizzazione del benessere di chi lavora e contro le discriminazioni”, di seguito CUG, che: a) promuove le pari opportunità per tutte le componenti che studiano e lavorano nell’Università, proponendo misure e azioni dirette a prevenire e a contrastare ogni forma di discriminazione fondata sul genere, sull’orientamento sessuale, l’origine etnica, la religione, le convinzioni personali e politiche, le condizioni di disabilità, l’età; b) promuove, in particolare, la parità effettiva fra i generi, individuando le eventuali discriminazioni, dirette e indirette, nella formazione professionale, nell’accesso al lavoro, nelle condizioni di lavoro, nelle progressioni di carriera e nella retribuzione e proponendo le iniziative necessarie a rimuoverle; c) predispone piani di azioni positive dirette a prevenire le discriminazioni e a promuovere condizioni di effettiva parità per il genere sottorappresentato; d) promuove la diffusione della cultura delle pari opportunità, anche attraverso la valorizzazione degli studi di genere e lo svolgimento di attività a carattere scientifico, formativo e culturale; e) attua azioni dirette a favorire la realizzazione di un ambiente lavorativo improntato al benessere organizzativo, contrastando qualsiasi forma di discriminazione e di violenza morale, fisica o psicologica; f) assicura l’adozione di politiche di conciliazione tra tempi di vita e di lavoro. 2. Il CUG assume, altresì, nell’ambito di competenza, compiti consultivi e di monitoraggio. 3. Ciascuna delle organizzazioni sindacali maggiormente rappresentative a livello di Amministrazione indica un componente del CUG ed il collegio è integrato da ulteriori componenti in egual numero, nominati dal Rettore a seguito di procedura elettorale ed appartenenti, nella misura del cinquanta per cento per ciascuna categoria, ai ruoli dei professori/ricercatori e del personale dirigente/tecnico-amministrativo. Nel caso in cui il numero dei componenti di spettanza sindacale sia dispari, al fine di rendere paritaria la composizione del CUG, avrà diritto ad un ulteriore seggio la componente meno rappresentata complessivamente tra quelle dei professori/ricercatori e del personale dirigente/tecnico-amministrativo. Sono altresì membri del CUG due studenti eletti in rappresentanza della componente studentesca iscritta ai corsi di studio ed un componente eletto in rappresentanza dei dottorandi e degli specializzandi. La componente studentesca partecipa alle riunioni del CUG con pieni diritti, fatta eccezione per le deliberazioni inerenti il benessere organizzativo e la gestione del rapporto di lavoro. In ogni caso la composizione complessiva del CUG dovrà assicurare, nel complesso, compatibilmente con il numero dei componenti del CUG medesimo, la presenza paritaria di entrambi i generi. 4. I componenti del CUG devono essere in possesso di: a) adeguate conoscenze ed esperienze nelle materie di competenza del CUG; b) adeguate esperienze nell’ambito delle pari opportunità o del mobbing, del contrasto alle discriminazioni; c) adeguate attitudini, intendendo per tali le caratteristiche personali, relazionali e motivazionali. 5. Il possesso dei predetti requisiti viene accertato sulla base del curriculum degli interessati, che va presentato e pubblicizzato sia ai fini della designazione da parte sindacale sia per la componente elettiva ai fini della candidatura. 6. Le modalità di svolgimento delle votazioni e dello scrutinio sono definite con Regolamento di Ateneo. 7. Il Presidente è eletto dal CUG tra i propri componenti. 8. Il CUG ha la medesima durata fissata per il Consiglio di Amministrazione e si rinnova contemporaneamente ad esso; la rappresentanza della componente studentesca rimane in carica per un periodo di due anni accademici. Il mandato è rinnovabile per una sola volta. 9. Il CUG è organo indipendente e l’Ateneo ne assicura l'autonomia operativa, il diritto di accesso ai dati e alle informazioni necessari, nonché la pubblicità e la diffusione degli atti, nel rispetto della normativa a tutela della riservatezza. 10.Il CUG può dotarsi di un proprio Regolamento di funzionamento. Art. 28 – Collegio di Disciplina 1. Il Collegio di Disciplina è competente a svolgere la fase istruttoria dei procedimenti disciplinari nei confronti dei professori e dei ricercatori e ad esprimere parere conclusivo sulla proposta avanzata dal Rettore, sia in relazione alla rilevanza dei fatti sul piano disciplinare sia in relazione al tipo di sanzione da irrogare. 2. Il Collegio di Disciplina è composto da tre professori di prima fascia, di cui uno presidente, due professori di seconda fascia e due ricercatori, tutti in regime di tempo pieno. I componenti del Collegio sono designati dal Senato Accademico in composizione limitata ai professori e ricercatori, di concerto con il Rettore, previa emanazione di un avviso pubblicato sul sito web di Ateneo per almeno 15 giorni e recante l’invito a manifestare la disponibilità ad assumere la carica rivolto ai professori e ricercatori a tempo pieno in servizio presso l’Ateneo. Il Rettore, sulla base dei curricula che devono essere presentati dagli interessati, propone, laddove possibile, al Senato Accademico una rosa di numero doppio rispetto ai componenti del Collegio da nominare. I componenti sono nominati con decreto rettorale, durano in carica quattro anni e non sono rinnovabili. Per ciascuna categoria di membri sono designati altrettanti membri supplenti che sostituiscono i titolari in caso di impedimento o di assenza. (Comma così modificato dal D.R. n. 2175 del 17/06/2015) 3. Il presidente, in caso di assenza o impedimento, è sostituito dal professore più anziano nel ruolo. A parità di anzianità nel ruolo prevale il più anziano di età. 4. Il Collegio opera secondo il principio del giudizio fra pari, esprimendosi unicamente con la presenza di componenti di qualifica almeno pari a quella del soggetto sottoposto al procedimento, nel rispetto del principio del contraddittorio. 5. L’avvio del procedimento disciplinare spetta al Rettore che, per ogni fatto che possa dar luogo all'irrogazione di una sanzione più grave della censura tra quelle previste dall'articolo 87 del testo unico delle leggi sull'istruzione superiore di cui al R.D. 31/8/1933 n. 1592, entro trenta giorni dal momento della conoscenza dei fatti, trasmette gli atti al Collegio, formulando motivata proposta. 6. Il Collegio, uditi il Rettore o un suo delegato, nonché il professore o il ricercatore sottoposto ad azione disciplinare, eventualmente assistito da un difensore di fiducia, entro trenta giorni esprime parere sulla proposta avanzata dal Rettore, sia in relazione alla rilevanza dei fatti sul piano disciplinare sia in relazione al tipo di sanzione da irrogare e trasmette gli atti al Consiglio di Amministrazione. 7. Il Consiglio di Amministrazione, senza la rappresentanza degli studenti, entro trenta giorni dalla ricezione del parere, applica la sanzione ovvero dispone l’archiviazione del procedimento, in conformità al parere vincolante espresso dal Collegio di Disciplina. 8. Il procedimento si estingue se la decisione di cui al comma precedente non intervenga nel termine di centottanta giorni dalla data di avvio del procedimento stesso. Tale termine e' sospeso fino alla ricostituzione del collegio di disciplina ovvero del Consiglio di Amministrazione nel caso in cui siano in corso le operazioni preordinate alla formazione dello stesso che ne impediscono il regolare funzionamento. Il termine è, altresì, sospeso, per non più di due volte e per un periodo non superiore a sessanta giorni in relazione a ciascuna sospensione, ove il collegio ritenga di dover acquisire ulteriori atti o documenti per motivi istruttori; il Rettore dà esecuzione alle richieste istruttorie avanzate dal collegio. 9. La partecipazione al Collegio non dà luogo alla corresponsione di compensi, emolumenti, indennità o rimborsi delle spese. 10. Il Collegio di Disciplina vigila sul rispetto del Codice Etico. (Comma abrogato dal D.R. n. 2175 del 17/06/2015). TITOLO IV RICERCA E DIDATTICA Art. 29 – Dipartimenti 1. I Dipartimenti, strutture portanti dell’Ateneo, svolgono funzioni finalizzate allo svolgimento: a) della ricerca scientifica; b) delle attività didattiche e formative; c) delle attività rivolte all’esterno, correlate o accessorie a quelle di cui alle lettere a) e b) quali, la diffusione dei risultati della ricerca, la formazione permanente certificata, il trasferimento delle conoscenze come fattore di sviluppo socioeconomico. Tali attività sono svolte, nell’area medica, anche con specifico riferimento alla salute nei suoi aspetti preventivi, diagnostici, terapeutici ed organizzativi. 2. Nei Dipartimenti dell’area medica, alle funzioni di didattica e di ricerca si affiancano le funzioni assistenziali che sono svolte in modo inscindibile. 3. Il Dipartimento è costituito da professori e ricercatori sulla base dell’appartenenza ad una medesima area scientifico-disciplinare ovvero a settori omogenei dal punto di vista culturale, didattico e scientifico, secondo i criteri stabiliti nella proposta di costituzione, al fine di condividere un progetto di formazione e ricerca, sul quale esprime parere il Nucleo di Valutazione. Nel progetto vanno individuati i settori scientifico-disciplinari di riferimento del Dipartimento, che devono essere indicati nel Regolamento di funzionamento della struttura. I professori e i ricercatori devono afferire ad un solo Dipartimento. I professori e i ricercatori afferiscono al Dipartimento che ne ha proposto la chiamata; la successiva richiesta di afferenza ad altro Dipartimento può essere formulata sulla base dei medesimi criteri previsti in sede di prima costituzione dei Dipartimenti. Nel rispetto dello stato giuridico dei professori e ricercatori e della libertà di insegnamento, il Dipartimento cui si chiede l’afferenza si esprime sulla coerenza della richiesta di afferenza con il progetto culturale, con la dimensione organizzativa e con gli obiettivi formativi dell’ordinamento didattico secondo quanto previsto dall’art. 2, comma 6, del presente Statuto. Su tale richiesta delibera il Consiglio di Amministrazione, sentiti il Dipartimento di destinazione ed il Senato accademico. 4. La proposta di costituzione del Dipartimento è approvata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, previo parere del Nucleo di Valutazione, sentito il Senato accademico. 5. Il numero minimo di professori e ricercatori per la costituzione di un Dipartimento è di cinquanta unità. Qualora dopo la sua costituzione il numero degli afferenti al Dipartimento dovesse scendere sotto la soglia indicata, sarà concesso un periodo di tre anni per il riequilibrio della consistenza numerica, oltre il quale il Dipartimento sarà automaticamente disattivato. In nessun caso, comunque, è possibile scendere sotto la soglia di quaranta componenti. 6. I Dipartimenti hanno autonomia gestionale, organizzativa, regolamentare. Hanno altresì autonomia di spesa, secondo quanto previsto dal Regolamento di Amministrazione e Contabilità. Dispongono degli spazi, delle strutture e del personale tecnicoamministrativo occorrenti al proprio funzionamento, nonché di una dotazione ordinaria assegnata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, sulla base della valutazione effettuata dal Nucleo di Valutazione. Modalità di funzionamento e di esercizio delle loro attività sono definite da ciascun Dipartimento con apposito Regolamento. 7. I Dipartimenti, in ragione di specifiche esigenze di carattere scientifico ed organizzativo possono essere strutturati in sezioni che ne rappresentano una mera articolazione. L’organizzazione amministrativa è definita con provvedimento del Direttore Generale, sentito il Direttore del Dipartimento. 8. Uno o più Dipartimenti possono proporre al Consiglio di Amministrazione l’istituzione e l’attivazione dei corsi di studio, secondo le procedure disciplinate dalla normativa vigente e purché siano in grado di soddisfare i requisiti di sostenibilità di seguito prefissati. Per i corsi di laurea e di laurea magistrale è necessario che il Dipartimento o l’insieme di dipartimenti assicuri la copertura di almeno i due terzi dei Crediti Formativi Universitari delle materie caratterizzanti con i professori e ricercatori ad esso afferenti. Motivate deroghe a tale soglia potranno essere autorizzate, in casi particolari, dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, su parere favorevole del Nucleo di Valutazione, sempre che il Dipartimento proponente o l’insieme di dipartimenti assicuri la copertura di più del 50% dei Crediti Formativi Universitari delle materie caratterizzanti. Il Consiglio di Amministrazione delibera l’attivazione del corso e lo incardina nel Dipartimento proponente. Il Senato esprime parere preventivo sull’attivazione del Corso e approva il relativo Regolamento Didattico. In caso di proposizione da parte di un insieme di dipartimenti il corso sarà coordinato dalla Scuola cui appartengono i Dipartimenti che concorrono alla sua attivazione ovvero dalla Scuola individuata di comune accordo qualora i Dipartimenti appartengano a Scuole diverse. Nell’area medica la Scuola formula la proposta didattica integrata con il necessario contributo di tutti i Dipartimenti ad essa afferenti, nel rispetto dei vincoli normativi. 9. Il Dipartimento può proporre al Consiglio di Amministrazione l’istituzione di uno o più corsi di dottorato anche in collaborazione con altri Dipartimenti, Scuole e altri Atenei. Un Dipartimento non inserito in una Scuola può proporre al Consiglio di Amministrazione l’istituzione di una Scuola di Dottorato, anche in collaborazione con altri Dipartimenti. 10.Il Dipartimento può proporre al Consiglio di Amministrazione l’istituzione di Scuole di Specializzazione con l’obiettivo di favorire la formazione professionalizzante nei settori previsti dalla legge. Nell’area medica le Scuole di Specializzazione sono istituite su proposta della Scuola, secondo la procedura prevista dalla normativa vigente. 11.Il Dipartimento può proporre al Consiglio di Amministrazione l’istituzione di corsi di Master universitario, che, una volta istituti, sono organizzati e gestiti dal Dipartimento proponente al pari di un corso di studio. 12.Il Consiglio di Dipartimento, per ciascuno dei corsi di studio in esso incardinati, istituisce una Commissione per il Coordinamento didattico. A tale Commissione prendono parte tutti i professori e i ricercatori afferenti al Corso di studio. Alla medesima Commissione il Dipartimento stesso può delegare parte delle proprie funzioni in ordine alle attività didattiche. Qualora il Dipartimento non istituisca la Commissione, tali funzioni vengono esercitate dal Consiglio di Dipartimento: alle adunanze del Consiglio convocate esclusivamente per esercitare la funzione di coordinamento delle attività didattiche, partecipano tutti i professori e ricercatori del Corso di Studio. Le modalità di partecipazione sono fissate dal regolamento. Il Coordinatore è individuato ai sensi dell’articolo 46, comma 2. La funzione di coordinatore può essere esercitata dal Direttore di Dipartimento. Il Consiglio di Dipartimento approva i Manifesti degli Studi dei corsi incardinati nel Dipartimento previo parere delle Commissioni per il Coordinamento didattico. 13.I Dipartimenti: a) svolgono le attività didattiche relative agli insegnamenti dei settori scientificodisciplinari funzionali al progetto culturale del Dipartimento, mettendo a disposizione spazi, attrezzature e personale propri; b) assegnano i compiti didattici a ciascun professore e ricercatore ad essi afferenti nel rispetto della normativa vigente. I Dipartimenti che fanno parte di una Scuola, per l’assegnazione di tali compiti didattici, devono tener conto del coordinamento fissato dalla Scuola. Il Senato accademico, laddove necessario, esercita il coordinamento didattico tra Scuole o tra Dipartimenti che non afferiscono a Scuole. I Dipartimenti comunicano al Senato accademico la distribuzione dei carichi didattici relativi ai professori e ricercatori afferenti a ciascuno di essi ai fini della funzione di alta vigilanza spettante al medesimo Senato accademico; c) nei propri settori scientifico-disciplinari di riferimento, sulla base delle proprie esigenze di ricerca e di didattica, richiedono al Consiglio di Amministrazione le risorse per l’attivazione dei procedimenti di chiamata di professori ordinari, associati e ricercatori. Su tali richieste, ai soli fini del coordinamento, della razionalizzazione e dell’equilibrio delle attività didattiche, esprime parere il Consiglio di Scuola, ove costituita. Per i Dipartimenti non appartenenti ad una Scuola, tale parere viene espresso dal Senato accademico. La strategia di reclutamento dei Dipartimenti viene valutata dal Nucleo di Valutazione che nell’area medica e veterinaria terrà conto anche dell’attività integrata di didattica, di ricerca e clinico-assistenziale; d) richiedono strutture, personale tecnico-amministrativo e risorse finanziarie al Consiglio di Amministrazione sulla base dell'attività di ricerca svolta o programmata e dei necessari servizi di supporto alla didattica; su tali richieste la Scuola formula al Consiglio di Amministrazione proposte organizzative e pareri. Per i Dipartimenti non afferenti ad una Scuola tale funzione è svolta dal Senato accademico; e) nell’ambito delle proprie competenze e nei limiti fissati dal Regolamento di Ateneo in materia, i Dipartimenti possono stipulare contratti e convenzioni con soggetti pubblici e privati per attività di ricerca, di consulenza e di servizio in conto terzi. 14.Gli organi del Dipartimento sono: a) il Consiglio del Dipartimento; b) il Direttore del Dipartimento; c) la Giunta del Dipartimento. Allegato n. 1 15. Il Consiglio di Dipartimento è composto da: a) i professori e i ricercatori afferenti al Dipartimento; b) un segretario con voto consultivo e con funzioni verbalizzanti scelto tra gli appartenenti almeno alla categoria D secondo le modalità indicate nel Regolamento di Ateneo in materia; c) rappresentanti degli studenti iscritti ai corsi di laurea, di laurea magistrale e di dottorato di ricerca incardinati nel Dipartimento in numero pari al 15% dei professori e dei ricercatori, secondo modalità stabilite dal Regolamento che deve prevedere la presenza di almeno un rappresentante per i corsi di dottorato. Tali rappresentanti durano in carica due anni; il mandato è rinnovabile una sola volta. Le modalità di partecipazione alle sedute sono fissate da apposito Regolamento ; d) rappresentanti del personale tecnico-amministrativo in una misura non superiore al 10 % della componente dei professori e dei ricercatori afferenti al Dipartimento. Tali rappresentanti durano in carica tre anni; il mandato è rinnovabile una sola volta; e) un rappresentante degli assegnisti di ricerca. 16. Il Direttore del Dipartimento: a) viene eletto dal Consiglio fra i professori ordinari a tempo pieno o, ricorrendo le condizioni previste dalla normativa vigente, fra i professori associati a tempo pieno afferenti al Dipartimento stesso; b) viene nominato con Decreto rettorale e dura in carica tre anni. Al Direttore del Dipartimento può essere riconosciuta una indennità di funzione nella misura determinata secondo le modalità previste all’art. 6.4 dello Statuto ( ). c) l'incarico è rinnovabile per una sola volta. 17. La Giunta di Dipartimento coadiuva il Direttore nell'esercizio delle sue funzioni ed ha compiti istruttori e propositivi. 18. Fanno parte della Giunta il Direttore e il segretario di cui al precedente comma 15 lett. b), quest’ultimo con voto consultivo e con funzioni verbalizzanti. I membri della Giunta restano in carica tre anni; il loro mandato è rinnovabile una sola volta. 19. Nell’area medica l’attività assistenziale si svolge secondo quanto previsto dallo schema di intesa Regione-Università ai sensi della normativa vigente. 20. Il Dipartimento che rappresenta al suo interno l’area medico-veterinaria, ferme restando le competenze di legge del Rettore, svolge, in particolare, le seguenti funzioni: a) cura e gestisce il sistema di certificazione e di accreditamento europeo del Corso di laurea in Medicina veterinaria sottoponendo alla Scuola, cui eventualmente afferisce, ed al Consiglio di Amministrazione, le eventuali necessità di potenziamento dell’attività formativa dettate dal sistema di valutazione comunitario; b) pone in essere con le strutture del servizio sanitario regionale le iniziative necessarie al fine di realizzare la coessenzialità del sistema di assistenza sanitaria e del sistema universitario della formazione. 21. Le funzioni e le modalità di elezione del Direttore sono disciplinate da apposito Regolamento di Ateneo. 22. Il Regolamento disciplina il funzionamento del Consiglio del Dipartimento. Composizione, modalità di elezione della Giunta di Dipartimento nonché le regole di funzionamento della stessa sono disciplinate dal Regolamento di funzionamento del Dipartimento, garantendo una equilibrata rappresentanza delle componenti. Art. 30 – Scuole 1. Le Scuole sono strutture di coordinamento costituite da più Dipartimenti che vi aderiscono sulla base di criteri di affinità culturale, didattica, scientifica e disciplinare. Ciascun Dipartimento può fare parte di una sola Scuola. Nell’area medica la Scuola deve garantire il principio di inscindibilità delle funzioni assistenziali da quelle di insegnamento e di ricerca e realizzare la piena integrazione delle attività assistenziali, formative e di ricerca svolte in collaborazione con il Servizio Sanitario Nazionale. 2. La richiesta di afferenza di un Dipartimento ad una Scuola è deliberata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, sentito il parere del Senato accademico. 3. Le Scuole coordinano le attività didattiche comuni fra i Dipartimenti che ne fanno parte per una razionale gestione dell’offerta formativa e per la tutela della qualità della didattica. Nell’area medica la Scuola deve garantire l’integrazione delle attività formative con le politiche di programmazione e di formazione poste in essere dal Servizio Sanitario. La Scuola deve favorire l’accesso e lo svolgimento dell’attività assistenziale dei professori e ricercatori sulla base della loro qualificazione e competenza scientifica ed assistenziale, nel rispetto del loro stato giuridico, al fine di salvaguardare l’espletamento dei doveri di insegnamento e di ricerca. 4. Le Scuole favoriscono al loro interno la ricerca interdisciplinare, promuovendo l’internazionalizzazione e i grandi progetti di ricerca che coinvolgano le aree culturali dei vari Dipartimenti afferenti. Promuovono ed incoraggiano le attività di trasferimento delle conoscenze sul territorio, amplificando e coordinando le singole iniziative dei Dipartimenti. 5. La Scuola, nell’assolvimento dei propri compiti istituzionali, per un più efficace ed efficiente funzionamento, può ricevere dal Senato accademico deleghe nei settori di propria competenza. 6. Le Scuole esercitano la gestione dei servizi comuni loro affidati. Nell’area medica la Scuola interagisce con l’Azienda ospedaliera universitaria per la gestione dei servizi comuni di sua competenza. 7. Le Scuole sono dotate di autonomia organizzativa e gestionale e di spesa in relazione alle funzioni ad esse assegnate e nei limiti delle norme vigenti. Dispongono di spazi, strutture e personale tecnico-amministrativo occorrenti al proprio funzionamento. Hanno autonomia regolamentare nelle materie di propria competenza. Modalità di funzionamento e di esercizio delle loro attività sono definite da apposito regolamento approvato dal Senato Accademico, previo parere del Consiglio di Amministrazione. 8. Una Scuola può essere costituita se il numero complessivo dei professori e ricercatori dei Dipartimenti costituenti è pari ad almeno 300 unità. 9. Il Consiglio è l’organo deliberante della Scuola. Fanno parte del Consiglio della Scuola: a) tutti i Direttori dei Dipartimenti facenti parte della Scuola; b) rappresentanti dei professori e dei ricercatori afferenti ai Dipartimenti costituenti la Scuola in misura pari al 10% dei componenti dei Consigli dei Dipartimenti stessi così individuati: b1) coordinatori dei corsi di studio, di dottorato e delle scuole di specializzazione nella misura prevista dal regolamento della scuola; in ogni caso, il loro numero, non può essere superiore al 50% dei componenti di cui alla lettera b); b2) professori e ricercatori membri delle Giunte di Dipartimento, in modo che sia garantita complessivamente nel Consiglio la rappresentanza dei Dipartimenti costituenti e la rappresentanza delle fasce; c) rappresentanti degli studenti iscritti ai corsi di laurea, di laurea magistrale e di dottorato di ricerca incardinati nei Dipartimenti aderenti alla Scuola in numero pari al 15% dei professori e dei ricercatori componenti del Consiglio della Scuola, secondo modalità stabilite dal Regolamento di Ateneo, purché sia prevista la presenza di almeno un rappresentante per i corsi di dottorato e di scuola di specializzazione. Tali rappresentanti durano in carica due anni; il mandato è rinnovabile una sola volta. Le modalità di partecipazione alle sedute sono fissate da apposito Regolamento ; 10.Le funzioni di Presidente del Consiglio della Scuola sono attribuite ad un professore ordinario a tempo pieno eletto in seno al Consiglio secondo quanto previsto da apposito Regolamento di Ateneo. 11.La carica ha durata di tre anni ed è rinnovabile per una sola volta. 12.La Scuola può proporre al Consiglio di Amministrazione l’istituzione di una o più Scuole di Dottorato anche in collaborazione con Dipartimenti esterni alla Scuola, con altre Scuole e altri Atenei. 13.La Scuola può proporre al Consiglio di Amministrazione l’istituzione, secondo la procedura prevista dalla normativa vigente, di Scuole di Specializzazione con l’obiettivo di favorire la formazione professionalizzante post lauream nei settori previsti dalla legge, ivi compresa l’area medica e quella veterinaria di concerto con i competenti Ministeri. 14.Il Consiglio della Scuola verifica la distribuzione dei carichi didattici, compresi contratti e affidamenti di incarichi di insegnamento, effettuata dai Dipartimenti per garantire il soddisfacimento ottimale dei fabbisogni; nel caso di Dipartimenti non afferenti ad una Scuola tale funzione è esercitata dal Senato accademico. 15.Ai soli fini del coordinamento, della razionalizzazione e dell’equilibrio delle attività didattiche, le Scuole esprimono parere al Consiglio di Amministrazione in ordine alle richieste di risorse formulate dai Dipartimenti afferenti per l’attivazione dei procedimenti di chiamata di professori ordinari, associati e ricercatori. In assenza della Scuola tale funzione è esercitata dal Senato accademico. 16.Nell’area medica la Scuola è l’unica struttura competente ad esprimere pareri al Rettore, al Senato accademico e al Consiglio di Amministrazione su tutte le deliberazioni dell’Università attinenti i rapporti con il Servizio sanitario nazionale e regionale e sulla programmazione in materia di reclutamento dei Dipartimenti tenendo conto della congruità e del necessario equilibrio delle aree per la dovuta integrazione delle attività didattiche, di ricerca e clinico-assistenziali. 17.Nell’area medica, al fine di promuovere l’approfondimento e la diffusione di tematiche etiche, deontologiche e giuridiche concernenti la ricerca biomedica di base ed applicata e la prassi clinico-assistenziale nei suoi aspetti diagnostici e terapeutici, è istituito il Centro di Bioetica per la sperimentazione biomedica disciplinato da apposito Regolamento. Al Centro afferisce il Comitato Etico per le attività biomediche. 18.Al fine di realizzare economie di scala e di scopo e migliorare l’efficienza nell’uso delle risorse e delle strutture, le Scuole formulano proposte organizzative ed esprimono pareri sulle richieste di strutture, grandi attrezzature e personale tecnico-amministrativo avanzate dai Dipartimenti, esprimendosi sulla base dell’attività di ricerca svolta e programmata e dei necessari servizi di supporto alla didattica. Per i Dipartimenti non afferenti ad una Scuola tale funzione è svolta dal Senato accademico. 19.Le Scuole possono sovrintendere al patrimonio edilizio di pertinenza, di concerto con i Servizi centrali di Ateneo, e possono gestire i relativi servizi comuni. Ai fini di una maggiore efficienza possono essere stipulati accordi per la gestione dei servizi comuni fra Dipartimenti, anche se non hanno costituito una Scuola, e fra Scuole e Dipartimenti non afferenti ad esse. 20.Le Scuole, nel caso di particolari condizioni di localizzazione territoriale delle strutture afferenti, possono delegare alcune delle funzioni di cui al comma precedente ai Dipartimenti interessati. Il Consiglio di Amministrazione per le stesse motivazioni può assegnare alcune delle predette funzioni direttamente ai Dipartimenti. 21.L’Ateneo, attraverso il Nucleo di Valutazione, esercita i poteri di controllo e di valutazione dei risultati prodotti dalle Scuole in tutte le loro attività. Art. 31 – Centri speciali per la didattica 1. Il Consiglio di Amministrazione, previo parere del Senato Accademico, può istituire Centri speciali per la didattica, collocati ad un livello interscuola, in relazione alla particolare complessità organizzativa della didattica derivante dalla presenza diffusa in molteplici strutture delle competenze necessarie a realizzare l’attività formativa in determinati ambiti culturali, allo scopo di assicurare le necessarie attività di coordinamento dei relativi corsi di studio incardinati in più Dipartimenti afferenti a Scuole diverse. 2. Le modalità di organizzazione e funzionamento di tali Centri sono disciplinate in sede di proposta istitutiva sul modello dipartimentale. Art. 33 – Centri di ricerca 1. I Centri di ricerca sono strutture aggregative interdipartimentali o interuniversitarie, istituite per la promozione e la realizzazione di ricerche interdisciplinari e multidisciplinari di rilevante interesse scientifico, sulla base di un progetto condiviso, anche sotto il profilo finanziario, tra più Dipartimenti, anche di Atenei diversi. I Centri di ricerca possono essere incardinati nelle Scuole quando il progetto istitutivo le individui come sede elettiva per la gestione e l’organizzazione delle attività di comune interesse e possono concorrere allo svolgimento di attività didattiche integrative secondo quanto previsto nel Regolamento del Centro. 2. L'istituzione e l’attivazione dei Centri di ricerca è deliberata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, senza maggiori oneri a carico del bilancio dell’Università, su proposta di almeno due Dipartimenti e sentito il Senato accademico ovvero, su delega dello stesso, i Consigli delle Scuole alle quali afferiscono i Dipartimenti proponenti. 3. Le strutture proponenti devono determinare preventivamente il fabbisogno economico e le risorse acquisibili per il funzionamento dei Centri, garantirne l’efficienza, anche attraverso la ripartizione di quote tra le medesime strutture proponenti e l’attribuzione di spazi a carico delle stesse, nonché verificare la sussistenza di un’adeguata capacità attrattiva di risorse dall’esterno. 4. I Centri hanno autonomia gestionale, regolamentare, organizzativa e di spesa. Possono stipulare contratti e convenzioni con soggetti pubblici e privati per attività in conto terzi. 5. L'attività dei Centri, la sostenibilità finanziaria e l’efficienza degli stessi sono sottoposte a verifica triennale da parte del Nucleo di Valutazione di Ateneo. Nel caso di valutazione negativa, il Nucleo di Valutazione assume le determinazioni conseguenti sottoponendole al Consiglio di Amministrazione, che delibera sentito il Senato accademico. Il Senato accademico può delegare tale funzione ai Consigli delle Scuole alle quali afferiscono i Dipartimenti che hanno proposto l’istituzione del Centro. L’eventuale disattivazione del Centro interdipartimentale è disposta con Decreto del Rettore. 6. L’organizzazione interna ed il funzionamento dei Centri di ricerca sono regolati, sul modello organizzativo dei Dipartimenti, da un Regolamento interno. Per i Centri interdipartimentali, il Regolamento viene adottato sulla base di uno schema-tipo approvato dal Senato accademico. L’organizzazione interna ed il funzionamento dei Centri interuniversitari sono regolati in conformità alla convenzione istitutiva. Art. 34 – Centri di servizio interdipartimentali 1. I Centri di servizio interdipartimentali sono strutture organizzative costituite allo scopo di sviluppare e potenziare i servizi per le attività di ricerca e di didattica, anche attraverso la migliore utilizzazione di risorse strumentali, laboratori e attrezzature complesse di interesse comune a più Dipartimenti dell’Università. 2. L'istituzione e l’attivazione dei Centri di servizio interdipartimentali è deliberata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, senza maggiori oneri a carico del bilancio dell’Università, su proposta motivata e dettagliata di almeno due Dipartimenti e sentito il Senato accademico ovvero, su delega dello stesso, i Consigli delle Scuole alle quali afferiscono i Dipartimenti proponenti. 3. L’organizzazione interna ed il funzionamento dei Centri di servizio interdipartimentali sono regolati, sul modello organizzativo dei Dipartimenti, da un Regolamento interno adottato sulla base di uno schema-tipo approvato dal Senato accademico, previo parere del Consiglio di Amministrazione. 4. Ai Centri di servizio interdipartimentali si applicano, in quanto compatibili, le norme previste per i Centri di ricerca. Art. 35 – Centri di servizio dell’Ateneo 1. I Centri di servizio dell’Ateneo sono strutture organizzative dirette alla realizzazione di scopi specifici di interesse generale per l’Università, attraverso la gestione e l'utilizzazione di servizi comuni, al fine di promuoverne la qualità dei processi. 2. I Centri di servizio operano secondo criteri di efficienza e di efficacia e i risultati dell’attività svolta sono valutati sulla base dei criteri fissati dal Nucleo di Valutazione. 3. L’istituzione dei Centri di servizio dell’Ateneo è deliberata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione su proposta del Rettore, sentito il Senato accademico. La proposta istitutiva deve indicare le finalità istituzionali, nonché le modalità di organizzazione e funzionamento del Centro sul modello dipartimentale. Tale proposta deve altresì contenere la previsione del fabbisogno economico e di personale occorrente per il suo funzionamento. 4. I Centri di servizio dell’Ateneo dispongono di spazi, strutture e personale tecnicoamministrativo, occorrenti al proprio funzionamento, nonché di una dotazione ordinaria assegnata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione. I Centri hanno autonomia gestionale, organizzativa e di spesa e possono svolgere, nei limiti delle proprie disponibilità e nel rispetto delle priorità istituzionali, attività in conto terzi a favore di enti pubblici e privati, secondo quanto stabilito con apposite convenzioni. 5. I Direttori dei Centri di servizio dell’Ateneo sono nominati dal Rettore tra i professori di ruolo dell'Università con specifica qualificazione nelle materie oggetto dell’attività dei Centri medesimi. L’incarico ha durata triennale e può essere rinnovato. Art. 36 – Azienda agraria e zootecnica 1. L’Azienda agraria e zootecnica è una struttura ausiliaria per le attività dell’Università nell’ambito della ricerca, della didattica e della sperimentazione, nei settori disciplinari inclusi nell’area delle scienze agrarie e di quelle veterinarie. L’Azienda, in particolare, è costituita allo scopo di organizzare, coordinare e implementare, anche mediante l’adozione di tecnologie innovative, i servizi a sostegno dei programmi di ricerca applicata e della didattica pratica. 2. L’Azienda ha autonomia gestionale, organizzativa e di spesa, dispone di spazi, strutture e personale tecnico-amministrativo occorrenti al proprio funzionamento, nonché di una dotazione ordinaria assegnata dal Consiglio di Amministrazione. 3. Le modalità di funzionamento dell'Azienda sono disciplinate da Regolamento adottato in conformità alla normativa vigente; ad essa si applicano, in quanto compatibili, le norme dei Centri di servizio. Art. 37 – Orto botanico 1. L'Orto botanico dell'Università ha lo scopo di introdurre, curare e conservare specie vegetali da diffondere e proteggere, nonché di assicurarne la ricerca e la divulgazione. 2. L'Orto ha, altresì, lo scopo di raccogliere e conservare collezioni di semi e di legni, oltre che collezioni di piante fossili e di oggetti di interesse etnobotanico nell’annesso Museo di Paleobotanica ed Etnobotanica. 3. L'Orto ha autonomia gestionale, organizzativa e di spesa. Ad esso si applicano, in quanto compatibili, le norme relative ai Centri di ricerca interdipartimentali. Le modalità di funzionamento dell'Orto botanico sono disciplinate da Regolamento. Art. 38 – Azienda ospedaliera universitaria 1. L'Azienda ospedaliera universitaria è costituita, con autonoma personalità giuridica, dall'Università d'intesa con la Regione. Essa opera con le modalità e secondo quanto disposto dalla normativa vigente che disciplina i rapporti tra Servizio sanitario regionale e Università. 2. L'Università concorre alle attività assistenziali dell’Azienda ospedaliera universitaria con l'apporto di personale docente e non docente e di beni mobili ed immobili; la Regione concorre erogando il corrispettivo dell’attività svolta secondo quanto previsto dalla normativa vigente e dagli appositi accordi stipulati tra essa e l’Università. 3. La gestione dell’Azienda ospedaliera universitaria è informata al principio dell’autonomia economico-finanziaria. 4. Il patrimonio immobiliare e mobiliare concesso in uso all'Azienda ospedaliera universitaria resta di proprietà dell'Ateneo e non può essere modificato nella propria consistenza e configurazione in mancanza di apposita autorizzazione del Consiglio di Amministrazione dell'Università. 5. La gestione dell’Azienda ospedaliera universitaria deve essere informata all’esigenza di garantire le funzioni istituzionali delle strutture universitarie che vi operano. Art. 39 – Sistema bibliotecario e Centro di Ateneo per le Biblioteche 1. Il Sistema bibliotecario di Ateneo è volto ad organizzare la raccolta, la conservazione, l'arricchimento, la classificazione e la fruizione del patrimonio bibliotecario e documentale dell'Università, garantendo la razionalizzazione e l’efficacia dei servizi resi all'utenza. Il Sistema bibliotecario di Ateneo è formato dalle biblioteche dell’Ateneo, nonché dai centri di documentazione dell’Università, inclusa la Biblioteca Digitale, ed è coordinato dal Centro di Ateneo per le Biblioteche. 2. I principi di funzionamento del Sistema Bibliotecario di Ateneo sono stabiliti con Regolamento di Ateneo. 3. L’Università garantisce al Sistema bibliotecario di Ateneo, mediante delibera assunta dal Consiglio di Amministrazione, sentiti il Senato accademico e il Centro di Ateneo per le Biblioteche, le risorse necessarie al suo funzionamento e al perseguimento dei suoi obiettivi. Art. 40 – Sistema museale 1. Il Sistema museale dell'Università, costituito da Centri Museali e da Musei Dipartimentali, organizza e coordina, anche mediante tecnologie innovative, la raccolta, la conservazione, l'arricchimento, la catalogazione, lo studio e la fruizione dei beni di interesse scientifico, storico e artistico dell'Università. 2. I Centri museali hanno autonomia gestionale, organizzativa e di spesa; ad essi si applicano, in quanto compatibili, le norme relative ai Centri di servizio. 3. I principi di funzionamento del Sistema museale sono stabiliti con Regolamento di Ateneo. 4. Altri Musei e Centri museali possono essere costituiti con apposita convenzione o tra più Università, o con soggetti pubblici e privati. Art. 41 – Tutorato e monitoraggio sull’efficacia dell’offerta didattica 1. L'Università organizza e disciplina, con Regolamento, il servizio di tutorato finalizzato a rimuovere, per tutto il corso degli studi, gli ostacoli alla proficua frequenza e a rendere gli studenti attivamente partecipi del processo formativo, secondo le esigenze e le attitudini dei singoli. Il servizio di tutorato è obbligatorio nei corsi erogati con la modalità della formazione a distanza. 2. L’Università, attraverso le proprie strutture organizza e disciplina, anche in collaborazione e con il sostegno finanziario di altri Atenei, il monitoraggio delle carriere degli studenti e degli sbocchi professionali dei laureati e dei dottori di ricerca, con il compito di: a) operare analisi delle tendenze delle iscrizioni; b) fornire ai Dipartimenti, alle Scuole ed al servizio di tutorato dati ed analisi su ritardi e tendenziali abbandoni, affinché se ne rimuovano le cause; c) cooperare con l’ente preposto al diritto allo studio universitario, anche al fine di promuovere iniziative per il superamento di difficoltà personali, economiche, sociali ed ambientali; d) valutare anche attraverso l’analisi dei tempi e dei modi dell’ inserimento dei laureati e dei dottori di ricerca, le prospettive del mercato del lavoro, segnalando le opportunità esistenti nei vari settori; e) provvedere, su segnalazione di relatori e commissioni, nel rispetto della vigente normativa, alla raccolta sistematica di titoli ed estratti di tesi di laurea e di dottorato, mettendoli a disposizione di enti ed imprese interessati. Art. 42 – Altri servizi per gli studenti 1. L'Università, anche in collaborazione con ordini professionali, enti e istituzioni pubbliche e private, organizza servizi volti a garantire a studenti e laureati informazioni sulle borse di studio, sugli scambi culturali e sulle opportunità di lavoro in Italia e all'estero. I servizi sono gestiti dall’Amministrazione anche con la collaborazione degli studenti, secondo le modalità previste dalla normativa vigente. 2. L'Università istituisce per laureati e dottori di ricerca borse di studio anche per l'estero e può fornire sussidi per tirocini pratici presso strutture anche non universitarie, italiane e straniere, collaborando a curare i relativi adempimenti amministrativi. 3. L'Università favorisce lo svolgimento di attività di servizio civile e di volontariato nelle forme previste dalla vigente normativa. Articolo 43 – Formazione post lauream 1. L’Università può attivare, anche in collaborazione con soggetti pubblici o privati, corsi di master universitario di primo e di secondo livello e corsi di perfezionamento tecnicoscientifico post lauream, nonché corsi di aggiornamento per la formazione continua. 2. Le modalità di attivazione, di organizzazione e di funzionamento di tali corsi sono disciplinate, oltre che dalla vigente normativa ministeriale, dai Regolamenti di Ateneo. Art. 44 – Titoli di studio universitari 1. L'Università rilascia i seguenti titoli: a) laurea; b) laurea magistrale; c) master universitario di I e di II livello; d) diploma di specializzazione; e) dottorato di ricerca. Art. 45 –Attività didattica 1. L’attività didattica è erogata dai Dipartimenti. 2. Cooperano alle attività didattiche l'Orto Botanico, l'Azienda Agraria e Zootecnica, l'Azienda ospedaliera universitaria, le Biblioteche, i Musei, i Centri di ricerca, i Centri interdipartimentali di servizio, che mettono a disposizione, se necessario, anche spazi, attrezzature e personale propri. 3. I corsi di Laurea e di Laurea Magistrale, i corsi di Dottorato, i corsi delle Scuole di specializzazione e i corsi di Master universitario di I e II livello sono riportati nel sito ufficiale dell’Ateneo. 4. L'attività didattica è disciplinata, nel rispetto della libertà di insegnamento, dalle normative di legge, dal Regolamento didattico di Ateneo e dai Regolamenti dei singoli corsi di studio istituiti da Dipartimenti. I Regolamenti garantiscono l'adozione di percorsi formativi coerenti e adeguati al valore legale dei titoli di studio rilasciati ed alla loro valenza nell'ambito dell'Unione europea. 5. Il Regolamento didattico di Ateneo disciplina l'ordinamento generale degli studi, dei corsi e delle attività formative. Ad esso si conformano, nel rispetto delle loro autonomie, i Regolamenti dei singoli corsi di studio istituiti dai Dipartimenti, secondo le linee guida formulate dal Senato accademico. Art. 46 – Organizzazione dei corsi di laurea e di laurea magistrale 1. I Dipartimenti nominano un Coordinatore ed istituiscono una Commissione per il coordinamento didattico dei corsi di laurea e di laurea magistrale con lo scopo di assicurare unitarietà all’organizzazione dei corsi. In alternativa, il Dipartimento può esercitare direttamente tale funzione secondo quanto disciplinato dall’art. 29, comma 12. 2. Il Coordinatore è eletto dal Consiglio del Dipartimento, a maggioranza degli aventi diritto al voto, tra i professori a tempo pieno responsabili di un insegnamento nel relativo corso di studio. Dura in carica tre anni ed il mandato è rinnovabile una sola volta. In caso di impedimento o di assenza, ne assume le funzioni il Decano dei professori della Commissione di coordinamento. 3. Il Coordinatore: a) convoca e presiede la Commissione; b) promuove e coordina l'attività didattica del corso di studio e riferisce al Consiglio di Dipartimento e di Scuola; c) sottopone al Consiglio di Dipartimento e di Scuola le proposte della Commissione e cura l'esecuzione delle delibere dei Consigli in materia didattica; d) collabora con il Direttore del Dipartimento o il Presidente della Scuola per i rapporti con il Nucleo di Valutazione e per la valutazione dei requisiti dell’offerta formativa. 4. La Commissione per il coordinamento didattico dei corsi di laurea e di laurea magistrale è istituita dal Dipartimento in cui il corso è incardinato. Ne fanno parte tutti i professori, inclusi i professori a contratto, e i ricercatori responsabili di un insegnamento nel corso di studio, anche se non afferenti al Dipartimento. Fanno parte della Commissione i rappresentanti degli studenti del corso di laurea eletti nel Consiglio di Dipartimento, iscritti al corso stesso. 5. La Commissione: a) coordina l'attività didattica; b) esamina e approva i piani di studio presentati dagli studenti e tutte le altre pratiche didattiche; c) sperimenta nuove modalità didattiche; d) espleta tutte le funzioni istruttorie. Formula proposte e pareri in merito all’Ordinamento didattico, al Regolamento didattico e al Manifesto degli Studi dei corsi di studio, che il coordinatore trasmette per l’approvazione al Consiglio di Dipartimento; e) elabora il documento annuale di autovalutazione del corso di studio che il Consiglio di Dipartimento trasmette alla Commissione paritetica docenti-studenti; f) svolge tutte le altre funzioni a essa delegate dal Consiglio di Dipartimento. 6. In caso di corsi di studio di nuova istituzione tutte le funzioni istruttorie sono svolte dal Consiglio di Dipartimento. Art. 47 – Dottorato di ricerca 1. Un Dipartimento o una Scuola, o un insieme coordinato di queste strutture, propone l’attivazione dei corsi di Dottorato di ricerca nel rispetto della normativa vigente, prevedendo quanto necessario per l’organizzazione ed il funzionamento degli stessi. La proposta di attivazione viene strutturata secondo quanto previsto da apposito Regolamento in materia. 2. L'organizzazione e il funzionamento dei corsi di dottorato sono disciplinati dalla legge, dal Regolamento in materia e da eventuali convenzioni, anche di tipo consortile, con altri Atenei italiani e stranieri. 3. I corsi di Dottorato sono obbligatoriamente riuniti in Scuole di Dottorato, in base ad affinità tematiche, al fine dell’ottimizzazione delle risorse e delle attività didattiche. Le Scuole di Dottorato sono istituite su proposta di un Dipartimento o di una Scuola, o di un insieme coordinato di essi, con delibera del Consiglio di Amministrazione, previo parere del Senato Accademico. 4. Il funzionamento delle Scuole di Dottorato, la attivazione o la disattivazione di singoli corsi di dottorato sono disciplinati dal Regolamento di funzionamento, adottato secondo le linee guida fissate dal Senato accademico e approvate dal Consiglio di Amministrazione. 5. I corsi e le scuole di dottorato sono oggetto di valutazione da parte del Nucleo. Il prezzo è l'espressione monetaria del valore, dal punto di vista del cliente, il prezzo che egli è disposto a pagare misura l'intensità del bisogno, nonché la quantità e la natura delle soddisfazioni che si aspetta; quanto al venditore, il prezzo al quale è disposto a vendere misura il valore dei fattori che compongono il prodotto, a cui si aggiunge il profitto che spera di realizzare. Definizione del prezzo da parte del mercato Il prezzo monetario può essere definito come un rapporto che indica l'ammontare di moneta necessaria per acquistare una quantità data di beni o servizi: prezzo = quantità di denaro ceduta dal cliente / quantità di beni ceduta dal venditore Il prezzo come misura del valore Per il cliente un prodotto rappresenta un paniere di attributi e i benefici che derivano dalla funzione base del prodotto e dall'insieme dei servizi supplementari, oggettivi e percepiti, che caratterizzano il prodotto o la marca → Il prezzo deve essere fissato in funzione del valore totale o dell'utilità globale percepita dal cliente, l'obiettivo del prezzo non è coprire i costi, ma catturare il valore percepito del prodotto nella mente del cliente. Il costo totale di acquisizione di un prodotto La quantità acquistata del bene misura solo parzialmente la quantità di soddisfazione ricevuta e la quantità di denaro ceduta misura solo in parte l'entità del sacrificio sostenuto. Il prezzo è il denaro che il venditore riceve al termine della transazione, ma non riflette per intero i costi a carico del consumatore; fra questi rientrano non solo il prezzo pagato, ma anche i termini di scambio (modalità pratiche che presiedono al trasferimento del titolo di proprietà) come: i termini di pagamento, i modi e i tempi di consegna, il servizio post-vendita ecc. Ecco alcune tra le principali fonti degli eventuali costi di trasferimento: costi di modifica del prodotti esistenti; cambiamenti nelle abitudini di consumo o di utilizzo del prodotto; spese di formazione o di riconversione degli utenti, investimenti per acquistare le nuove attrezzature necessarie all'utilizzo dei nuovi prodotti; costi di riorganizzazione e costi psicologici di cambiamento. Questi costi possono essere più elevati per alcuni clienti e meno per altri, rendendo il costo reale sostenuto dal cliente più elevato del prezzo monetario di vendita del prodotto; dal punto di vista del cliente, la nozione di prezzo comprende tutto l'insieme dei vantaggi offerti dal prodotto, nonché l'insieme dei sacrifici sostenuti dal cliente. Nell'ottica del cliente, il prezzo si definisce: prezzo = costo totale (monetario e non) a carico del cliente /vantaggi totali (tangibili e intangibili) forniti dal prodotto L'importanza delle decisioni di prezzo 1. Il prezzo influenza direttamente Il livello della domanda e determina il livello di attività: un prezzo elevato o troppo basso può compromettere lo sviluppo della domanda del prodotto; la misurazione della sensibilità al prezzo è un dato essenziale. 2.Il prezzo di vendita determina direttamente la redditivita dell'attività, determina: il margine di profitto, le quantità vendute, e stabilisce le condizioni di ammortamento degli investimenti nell'arco temporale stabilito. 3.Il prezzo di vendita stalbilito influenza la percezione globale del prodotto o marca e contribuisce al posizionamento della marca tra quelle note ai potenziali clienti; Il prezzo viene percepito come un segnale e si collega a un'idea di qualità e concorre quindi a creare l'immagine di marca. 4.il prezzo si presta più facilmente delle altre variabili di marketing al confronto tra prodotti o marche concorrenti; ogni minima variazione può stravolgere l’equilibrio di forze preesistenti. 5. la politica di prezzo deve essere compatibile con le altre componenti del marketing mix: Il prezzo deve consentire di finanziare le scelte pubblicitarie e promozionali; a un posizionamento di alta qualità e prezzo elevato deve corrispondere un packaging adeguato; la politica di prezzo deve rispettare le scelte distributive e consentire di raggiungere i margini di distribuzione necessari a centrare gli obiettivi di copertura del mercato. L'evoluzione dell'ambiente economico e competitivo ha contribuito ad accrescere l'importanza e la complessità delle decisioni di prezzo: ➥ l'accelerazione del progresso tecnologico e l'accorciamento del ciclo di vita dei prodotti implicano che un'attività nuova debba diventare redditizia in un intervallo di tempo più breve rispetto al passato. Un errore di fissazione del prezzo d'introduzione è più grave, in quanto più difficile da correggere. ➥ la proliferazione di marche e prodotti poco differenziati, il continuo emergere di nuovi prodotti e l'estensione delle linee di prodotti accrescono l'importanza di un posizionamento corretto in termini di prezzo, piccole differenze possono modificare in misura considerevole la percezione di una marca da parte del mercato. ➥ i vincoli legali, normativi e sociali che limitano l'autonomía dell'impresa nell'ambito della decisione dei prezzi. (fissazione di un tetto sui margini e l'obbligo di autorizzazione degli aumenti tariffari) ➥ i consumatori sono più attenti ai prezzi, soprattutto Il segmento dei millennial e della gen Z, tendono a confrontare immediatamente i prezzi, utilizzando le nuove tecnologie. Gli obiettivi delle decisioni di prezzo Tutte le imprese perseguono l'obiettivo di rendere redditizia la propria attività e di generare un surplus economico il più possibile elevato, gli obiettivi possibili sono classificabili in 3 categorie: 1. Gli obiettivi orientati al profitto → rientrano la massimizzazione del profitto e la realizzazione di un livello di redditività sufficiente sul capitale investito. L'obiettivo di massimizzare il profitto è il modello suggerito dagli economisti, nella pratica è di difficile applicazione, perché richiede conoscenze precise sulle funzioni di costo e domanda e perché presuppone una stabilità del fattori ambientali e competitivi che raramente si verifica nella realtà. L'obiettivo del tasso di redditività degli investimenti (ROI) cosiddetto "sufficiente" si traduce in pratica nel calcolare un prezzo target o un prezzo sufficiente, cioè un prezzo che per un previsto livello di attività, assicuri un ritorno "ragionevole" sul capitale investito. 2. Gli obiettivi orientati al volume → mirano a massimizzare il volume d'affari o la quota di mercato o ad assicurare un tasso di crescita sufficiente delle vendite. Massimizzare la quota di mercato comporta l'adozione di un prezzo di penetrazione, quindi basso ed inferiore a quello della concorrenza,per incrementare il volume delle vendite e la quota di mercato. Una volta raggiunta la posizione di leadership, l'obiettivo diventa quello di un tasso di redditività sufficiente o "soddisfacente", viene deciso quando le imprese che hanno accumulato un grande volume di produzione e prevedono pertanto una diminuzione dei loro costi. Attuare un prezzo di scrematura significa approfittare del fatto che certi gruppi di clienti sono disposti a pagare un prezzo elevato per l'alto valore distintivo (reale o percepito) del prodotto, l'obiettivo è realizzare un volume d'affari consistente attraverso una politica di prezzo elevato anziché di volume. 3. Gli obiettivi orientati alla concorrenza → mirano alla stabilizzazione del prezzi o all'allineamento con i prezzi dei concorrenti. In certi settori dominati da un'impresa leader, l'obiettivo è quello di instaurare un rapporto stabile fra i prezzi dei diversi prodotti in competizione e di evitare forti fluttuazioni che potrebbero compromettere la fiducia dei clienti. L'obiettivo dell'allineamento viene perseguito quando l'impresa si rende conto di non poter esercitare alcuna influenza sul mercato, soprattutto se è presente un impresa leader e se i prodotti sono standardizzati, indirizzerà i suoi sforzi verso forme di concorrenza diverse dal prezzo, che prevalgono in questo tipo di mercato (no-price competition). 18.2 Metodi di determinazione del prezzo Nella determinazione del prezzo, si tratta di indíviduare la migliore combinazione prezzo-quantità, tenendo conto dei vincoli determinati dai costi e dal mercati, le imprese possono impiegare 3 metodi diversi: La determinazione del prezzo basata sui costi → approccio più naturale ed immediato, per una (presunta) maggiore facilità di misurazione dei costi rispetto agli altri fattori. Il costo rappresenta il limite inferiore del prezzo: il produttore sostiene dei costi per realizzare e commercializzare i prodotti, quindi dovrà determinare il prezzo in modo da recuperare i costi sostenuti. L'analisi del costo permette di identificare 4 tipi di prezzi basati sul costi: ➥ Il prezzo soglia o prezzo minimo, è il prezzo corrispondente ai costi variabili (C), detti anche out-of-pocket costs. Il prezzo soglia, detto anche "prezzo marginale", è il prezzo minimo al di sotto del quale l'impresa non può scendere. Un commerciante può decidere di vendere alcuni prodotti a un prezzo soglia sperando di attrarre clienti che acquistino anche altri prodotti sui quali ci sia un certo margine di profitto.Permette di recuperare il solo costo di sostituzione del prodotto, con un margine lordo nullo: prezzo soglia = costo unitario variabile ➥Il prezzo tecnico o BEP (Break-Even Price), è Il prezzo corrispondente al punto di pareggio, cioè il prezzo che copre i costi variabili e i costi fissi per un dato volume di vendite; quindi che garantisce il recupero del valore di sostituzione del prodotto, la copertura dei costi fissi (F). prezzo tecnico = C + F/E(Q) dove E(Q) indica le quantità di prodotto che ci si attende di produrre (e vendere) nell'ipotesi del livello di attività considerata. ➥Il prezzo target o prezzo sufficiente, comprende, oltre ai costi variabili e fissi, un vincolo di profitto, cioè un margine di profitto generalmente determinato considerando un "normale" tasso di redditività (r) sul capitale investito (K). Il calcolo del prezzo target fa riferimento a un determinato volume di attività: prezzo target = C + F/E(Q) + r x K/ E(Q) dove K indica il capitale investito e r il tasso di redditività considerato sufficiente o normale. ➥il prezzo di ricarico o mark-up price, si calcola aggiungendo un ricarico standard al prezzo tecnico, viene usato per la sua semplicità, ignora del tutto la domanda e la concorrenza: si otterrà il margine desiderato solo al raggiungimento del livello di vendite atteso. prezzo di carico = prezzo tecnico / 1 - margine atteso Il rischio di ragionamento circolare L'inconveniente di questi metodi è la mancata considerazione del rapporto prezzo-volume, essi si basano su un ragionamento circolare implicito: il volume determina i costi, che determinano il prezzo, che a sua volta determina il livello della domanda. Nella realtà non è detto che il prezzo target o di ricarico adottato generi realmente il volume di attività in base al quale è stato calcolato. Es. Se la domanda non raggiunge la produzione di unità programmata per mantenere la redditività prevista sarà necessario aumentare il prezzo del prodotto stabilito inizialmente. L'utilità dei prezzi basati sui costi I prezzi orientati ai costi costituiscono solo un punto di partenza nel processo di definizione dei prezzi di mercato: non possono essere l'unica base per la determinazione del prezzo, perché non considerano né la domanda, né il valore percepito del prodotto, né la concorrenza. Sono utili in quanto forniscono una risposta alle seguenti domande: Quale volume di vendite bisogna raggiungere per coprire totalmente i costi? A che quota di mercato corrisponde il volume d'affari relativo alla soglia di redditività? ecc… Le decisioni di riduzione dei prezzi Il ricorso a una riduzione di prezzo in un'ottica di stimolazione della domanda è opportuno solo quando la domanda primaria è espandibile, in caso contrario, se l'impresa diminuisce i suoi prezzi e se tutti i concorrenti reagiscono immediatamente allineandosi, diminuiranno i profitti di tutti e le rispettive quote di mercato resteranno identiche. Esistono delle situazioni che possono essere favorevoli a una diminuzione dei prezzi in un mercato in cui la domanda primaria non è espandibile, senza determinare reazioni immediate da parte dei concorrenti,può succedere: Quando i concorrenti presentano costi superiori e non possono ridurli senza intaccare la propria redditività, ciò comporta la perdita di una quota di mercato, salvo quando determinati elementi di differenziazione neutralizzano lo scarto di prezzo. quando le imprese devono confrontarsi con concorrenti di piccole dimensioni che diminuiscono i prezzi, le piccole imprese possono sfruttare una diminuzione di prezzo che rappresenta un investimento meno pesante rispetto alle imprese con una quota di mercato consistente → per tale ragione i grandi concorrenti possono scegliere di mantenere i propri prezzi e di reagire su un altro terreno, per esempio mediante la pubblicità (costo fisso) Un'impresa può scegliere di non adeguarsi a una riduzione di prezzo, soprattutto quando il valore percepito del suo prodotto è superiore a quello del concorrenti diretti, gli elementi di differenziazione, come l'immagine, l'estensione dei servizi e la relazione con i clienti, a proteggerla dagli effetti di una riduzione di prezzo. La valutazione del costo di una riduzione di prezzo La diminuzione del prezzo è spesso molto onerosa, specie per un'impresa nella quale l'incidenza dei costi variabili è elevata, in quanto l'incremento della quantità venduta necessaria per mantenere il margine deve essere tanto maggiore quanto più è rilevante la quota dei costi variabili, l'aumento delle vendite necessario a mantenere lo stesso livello di redditività sarà così determinato: incremento volume di vendita (%) = ( x / M°- x) x 100 dove x è la percentuale di variazione di prezzo espressa in decimali e considerata in valore assoluto, mentre M° rappresenta la percentuale di margine lordo sul prezzo di vendita,in decimali, prima della diminuzione di prezzo. Le decisioni del rialzo dei prezzi L'impresa che da il via al rialzo del prezzo deve accertarsi della volontà di fare altrettanto da parte dei concorrenti che dipende dalle condizioni del mercato nel momento in cui il rialzo viene applicato, in particolare quando la capacità produttiva è pienamente utilizzata e la domanda cresce. L'impresa ha interesse a valutare il margine di manovra di cui dispone prima di avviare tale iniziativa, in caso di rialzo, la riduzione di volume tollerabile, che lascia invariato il precedente profitto, si determina come: tasso di riduzione tollerabile delle vendite (%) = (x /M° + x) x 100 dove x rappresenta la percentuale prevista di aumento del prezzo espressa come decimale. 18.3 La determinazione del prezzo basata sulla domanda In un'impresa orientata al mercato, il punto di partenza del processo decisionale è rappresentato dunque dal prezzo accettabile da parte del mercato, che a sua volta determina il costo target. La determinazione del prezzo in base alla domanda avviene pertanto in una prospettiva in cui la sensibilità del cliente rispetto al prezzo occupa un ruolo centrale. Il concetto di elasticità della domanda L'elasticità misura in modo diretto la sensibilità dei clienti rispetto al prezzo e permette di calcolare le quantità che saranno richieste a diversi livelli di prezzo. Definizione di elasticità rispetto al prezzo ⇒ ossia la variazione percentuale della domanda di un prodotto espressa in quantità, determin ata da una variazione di prezzo dell'1%; vale a dire: ε =% di variazione della domanda / % di variazione del prezzo L'elasticità al prezzo assume quasi sempre valori negativi, poiché un aumento di prezzo determina generalmente una riduzione delle quantità venduta, mentre una diminuzione di prezzo comporta generalmente un incremento delle vendite. I fattori che determinano la sensibilità del prezzo Nagle e Holden hanno identificato 9 fattori esplicativi della sensibilità al prezzo da parte dell'acquirente: 1. L'effetto del valore unico → Il prodotto presenta una o più qualità distintive di valore per l’acquirente, tangibili o intangibili, che lo differenziano dal prodotti della concorrenza 2. L'effetto della notorietà del sostituti → le alternative che si presentano al cliente (considerando sia i prodotti sia le marche concorrenti) e la misura in cui i potenziali clienti sono informati dell'esistenza di questi prodotti sostitutivi. 3. L'effetto della difficoltà di confronto → il grado di difficoltà incontrato dai clienti nei raffronti tra le offerte di diversi fornitori,se è possibile determinare gli attributi di un prodotto osservandolo se è necessario acquistarlo o consumarlo per capire che cosa offre, magari il prodotto presenta complessità e l'intervento di specialisti per valutare gli attributi che lo differenziano… 4. L'effetto della spesa totale → Per Il cliente, quanto è significativa la spesa per l'acquisto del prodotto, in valore assoluto e come percentuale (prodotto di consumo) del suo reddito disponibile? 5. L'effetto del vantaggio finale → Quali benefici ricerca l'acquirente nel prodotto, quanto è sensibile al costo dei benefici ricercati? Quale quota del beneficio ricercato copre il prezzo del prodotto? 6. L'effetto del costo condiviso → Il cliente paga la totalità del prezzo del prodotto? In caso negativo, che quota del prezzo paga effettivamente il cliente? 7. L'effetto dell'investimento passato → Il prodotto è utilizzato a complemento di un prodotto principale già acquistato e in previsione di un uso futuro? Per quanto tempo i clienti sono legati a queste spese? 8. L'effetto del rapporto qualità-prezzo → avere un'immagine di prestigio è un attributo importante per questo tipo di prodotto? Il prodotto aumenta il suo valore quando il livello elevato del suo prezzo porta a escludere alcuni gruppi di clienti? La perdita potenziale del cliente sarebbe alta nel caso in cui la qualità del prodotto si rivelasse insufficiente? 9. L'effetto scorta → I clienti detengono scorte importanti del prodotto? Ritengono o meno temporaneo il livello attuale del prezzo? Sensibilità al prezzo del cliente Industriale Porter rileva come i clienti che non sono sensibili al prezzo presentino una o più delle seguenti caratteristiche: • Il prezzo del prodotto di cui si sta valutando l'elasticità rappresenta una minima parte del costo totale di produzione del cliente e/o del suo budget di approvvigionamento. • La perdita subita a causa di un difetto del prodotto è elevata rispetto al costo del prodotto stesso. • La performance del prodotto (o servizio) consente un notevole risparmio o un netto miglioramento dei risultati per il cliente. • Il cliente adotta una strategia di qualità elevata, a cui il prodotto contribuisce notevolmente. • Il cliente ricerca un prodotto molto specifico o realizzato su ordinazione. • Il cliente presenta un'ottima redditività e/o può far sostenere facilmente il costo del prodotto acquistato ai propri clienti. • Il cliente è male informato sul prodotto e/o non acquista in base a esigenze specifiche. • Le motivazioni del centro d'acquisto responsabile della decisione Il calcolo del prezzo ottimale basato sull’elasticità La teoria economica sostiene che il prezzo ottimale (che massimizza gli utili), è inversamente proporzionale all'elasticità della domanda di un prodotto. Se l'elasticità rispetto al prezzo è nota, Il prezzo ottimale si calcola: POttimale = C x (ε / ε + 1) Oppure prezzo ottimale = costo diretto unitario x ricarico (mark-up) dove: ricarico (mark-up) = elasticità al prezzo / (elasticità al prezzo + 1) Il prezzo ottimale si ottiene aumentando il costo variabile unitario (o costo marginale) per una percentuale che è funzione dell'elasticità al prezzo e non dipende dal costo. Il coefficiente di ricarico ottimale è più elevato quando l'elasticità al prezzo ha un valore assoluto basso (cioè vicino all'unità). Quanto più l'elasticità si avvicina all'unità, tanto più elevato sarà il prezzo accettato dal mercato. I metodi di misurazione dell'elasticità al prezzo Possono essere raggruppati in 4 categorie principali: La prima include il metodo del giudizio degli esperti, che consiste nel chiedere ai responsabili di marketing di formulare tre previsioni sulla curva di risposta al prezzi, cioè le vendite attese, nell'ordi- ne: al prezzo più basso; al prezzo più alto possibile; a un livello di prezzo intermedio. è abbastanza valida e affidabile e presenta costi bassi, si può applicare sia ai prodotti nuovi ed esistenti. La seconda comprende le indagini dirette e indirette presso i consumatori, Il metodo più usato è quello indiretto dell'analisi congiunta, le analisi indirette risultano più utili di quelle dirette. La terza include le sperimentazioni di prezzo, sul campo o in laboratorio, è abbastanza valida e molto affidabile ma presenta costi alti, si può applicare sia ai prodotti nuovi ed esistenti. La quarta racchiude le analisi di dati storici, ovvero gli studi econometrici realizzati su dati presentati in ordine cronologico o emersi dai panel, è molto valida ma poco affidabile, i costi variano in base alla disponibilità e accessibilità, si può applicare solo ai prodotti già esistenti. Utilità delle misure dell'elasticità al prezzo I valori dell'elasticità permettono di sapere come agire sui prezzi per stimolare la domanda e aumentare il volume d'affari. I confronti tra i valori di elasticità di marche concorrenti permettono di identificare quelle in grado di resistere meglio ad aumenti di prezzo, il che rivela il loro potere di mercato. Il potere di mercato è misurato dalla capacità dell'impresa di imporre un prezzo superiore a quello praticato nei suoi diritti concorrenti; minore è l'elasticità della domanda più bassa sarà la sensibilità della quota di mercato di fronte a un aumento del prezzo del prodotto; quindi L'impresa che detiene un potere di mercato presenta una domanda meno elastica rispetto a quella di un prodotto poco differenziato ed è in grado di far accettare un prezzo superiore al gruppo di clienti sensibili all'elemento di differenziazione. I confronti tra i valori di elasticità del prodotti appartenenti a una stessa categoria permettono invece di modulare i prezzi all'interno della categoria stessa. Le elasticità incrociate permettono di prevedere gli spostamenti della domanda da una marca all'altra. Limiti delle misurazioni dell'elasticità al prezzo Tale approccio ha visto poche applicazioni pratiche, la nozione di elasticità presenta un certo numero di difficoltà concettuali e operative che riducono la sua utilità pratica, come: - misura una relazione basata sul comportamento d'acquisto ed è misurabile solo a posteriori. - Il suo valore predittivo dipenderà dalla stabilità delle condizioni dell'osservazione; - il problema non è tanto sapere come adattare i prezzi alla sensibilità attuale ma piuttosto come intervenire su tale sensibilità per modificarla nel senso voluto dall'impresa. - l'elasticità misura l'impatto del prezzo sulla quantità acquistata, ma non misura l'effetto del prezzo sulla propensione a provare il prodotto, sull'acquisto ripetuto, sulla percentuale di esclusività ecc. - nella pratica è spesso difficile ottenere stime di elasticità rispetto al prezzo abbastanza stabili e affidabili da consentire di "calcolare" un prezzo ottimale di vendita su tale base. L'approccio basato sul valore percepito Stabilisce il prezzo partendo dalle percezioni del consumatore, è una diretta conseguenza del concetto di prodotto come paniere di attributi. Dal punto di vista del consumatore, un prodotto corrisponde al paniere di vantaggi che derivano dal suo utilizzo, un'impresa orientata al mercato deve essere il valore percepito dal cliente dei benefici e dei costi del prodotto a guidare la determinazione del prezzo; i clienti pesano benefici e costi di un prodotto e preferiscono quello che offre il miglior rapporto qualità-prezzo. Il valore percepito del prodotto → L'analista di mercato deve capire le percezioni dei consumatori misurate con un metodo ‘composito’ basato sugli studi di Fishbein. Il punteggio del valore percepito è calcolato sulla base di: si valuta il grado di presenza percepito degli attributi tangibili ed intangibili (oltre al prezzo) su una scala da 1 a 10 rispetto a ciascuna marca. si moltiplicano le valutazioni espresse sugli attributi per il loro peso e poi si sommano i punteggi ottenuti; I risultati totali poi vengono trasformati in indici in rapporto al concorrente diretto, la marca che otterrà un punteggio superiore disporrà quindi degli attributi ritenuti migliori e secondo questa teoria potrà applicare un prezzo massimo accettabile superiore a quello dei concorrenti, Il valore è percepito di una marca non rappresenta il prezzo effettivamente praticabile ma solo il prezzo massimo praticabile. Il prezzo massimo accettabile → risulta utile quando si tratta di determinare Il prezzo di prodotti industriali, qualora Il vantaggio principale per l'acquirente sta la riduzione del costi. Per valutare quanto il cliente sia disposto a pagare, la procedura prevede di identificare: • identificare gli usi del prodotto dal punto di vista dell'acquirente (antiruggine,smacchiatore ecc..) • analizzare i diversi vantaggi offerti dal prodotto; (previene la ruggine, riduce i tempi e gli sforzi) • analizzare i costi sostenuti dal cliente per l'acquisto e l'utilizzo del prodotto; (installazione) • analizzare i vantaggi-costi, fissare il prezzo massimo accettabile da parte del cliente. Il prezzo massimo che il cliente è disposto a pagare (MAP, Maximum Acceptable Price): vantaggi - costi diversi dal prezzo = MAP I vantaggi possono essere funzionali (il servizio di base), finanziari, operativi o personali. I costi diversi dal prezzo possono essere: costi di acquisizione, d'installazione, di rischio o di malfunzionamento, di modifica delle abitudini ecc. Il confronto tra il prezzo massimo accettabile e i prezzi del concorrente permette di valutare il margine di manovra di cui l'impresa dispone. 18.4 La determinazione del prezzo basata sulla concorrenza Il grado di autonomia dell'impresa sui prezzi è influenzato da 2 fattori: la situazione concorrenziale del settore di riferimento e l'importanza del valore percepito del prodotto da parte dei clienti. L’autonomia tenderà a diminuire all’aumentare del numero di concorrenti, il valore percepito del prodotto può dare un vantaggio rispetto alla concorrenza, ove esista un elemento di differenziazione, percepito come un valore da parte del cliente, quest'ultimo è disposto a pagare un prezzo superiore a quello del prodotto concorrente, monopolio o di oligopolio differenziato → numero dei concorrenti è basso e il valore percepito elevato, l’impresa ha ampia autonomia. concorrenza pura → numero di concorrenti è elevato e il valore percepito basso, sono la domanda e l'offerta a definire il livello del prezzo di mercato. L'impresa non ha alcuna autonomia sui prezzi. oligopolio indifferenziato → il numero di concorrenti e il valore percepito sono bassi, l'interdipendenza tra i concorrenti è alta e limita l'autonomia di ognuno, si applica una strategia di allineamento del prezzo in base a quello del produttore leader di mercato. concorrenza monopolistica o imperfetta →il numero di concorrenti è elevato ed il valore percepito elevato, c'è una certa autonomia ma limitata dall'intensità della concorrenza. Prevedere il comportamento dei concorrenti Nelle situazioni di oligopolio indifferenziato, in cui la domanda primaria non è più espandibile e i prodotti offerti dalle imprese concorrenti sono poco differenziati; l'impresa può allinearsi ai prezzi dei concorrenti o leader del settore; fissare il prezzo ad un livello superiore, con il rischio di perdere quote di mercato; oppure fissare il prezzo ad un livello inferiore con il rischio di una guerra dei prezzi. Il risultato di queste strategie dipende dalle reazioni dei concorrenti, l'obiettivo di un'analisi della concorrenza sui prezzi consiste nel valutare la capacità d'azione dell'impresa e l'elasticità nella reazione della concorrenza e, in particolare, nel calcolare le elasticità di reazione dei concorrenti più pericolosi in caso di aumento o diminuzione del prezzo. Una guerra dei prezzi può consentire ad alcune imprese di migliorare la propria posizione concorrenziale compensato da un aumento della quota di mercato, inoltre può portare all'eliminazione di un concorrente potenzialmente pericoloso. 18.5 La gestione del prezzo Le imprese non applicano un prezzo di vendita unico, ma una serie di prezzi, adatti a diverse situazioni di mercato. prezzi flessibili → quando uno stesso prodotto viene venduto a clienti diversi a prezzi diversi, trova spiegazione nelle differenze tra i clienti, che presentano una diversa sensibilità al prezzo, ma anche nelle differenze nei costi e negli obiettivi promozionali. Quando le variazioni adottate non sono giustificate da differenze nei costi, si parla di discriminazioni di prezzo. Esistono 5 modi per ottenere una flessibilità del prezzo: 1. Sconti nel mercati secondari → succede quando l'impresa ha un eccesso di capacità produttiva e ha l'opportunità di vendere in un mercato nuovo senza aumentare i propri costi fissi/variabili e senza correre il rischio di perdere vendite sul suo mercato principale. L'impresa non può adottare un prezzo inferiore a quello soglia. Queste strategie trovano applicazione nel commercio internazionale, con alcuni gruppi socio demografici (studenti, bambini, anziani). Bisogna assicurarsi che chi acquista a prezzo ridotto non possa rivendere i prodotti sul mercato principale a causa degli alti costi di transazione. 2. Lo sconto stagionale → si adottano prezzi diversi per un prodotto destinato a potenziali clienti con una sensibilità al prezzo diversa all'inizio e alla fine della stagione: chi vuole acquistare solo ad inizio stagione è poco sensibile al prezzo; altri sono disposti ad acquistare in qualsiasi momento, ma sono molto sensibili al prezzo. L'impresa venderà a un prezzo elevato all'inizio della stagione, per poi abbassarlo sistematicamente alla fine. (prodotti di moda venduti fuori stagione); le riduzioni stagionali di prezzo sono note e prevedibili da parte dei consumatori. 3. Sconti casuali → alcuni clienti sono disposti a impegnare più tempo per cercare l'offerta migliore, mentre altri no. L'obiettivo dell'azienda è vendere a un prezzo più alto ai clienti poco informati ed evitare che i consumatori informati acquistino a un prezzo più basso dalla concorrenza. Questa strategia richiede di mantenere il prezzo alto e di applicare lo sconto a intervalli casuali; non prevedibili, in modo che gli acquirenti non informati comprino a caso al prezzo più alto, e quelli informati aspettino l'arrivo dello sconto. 4. I prezzi promozionali → ridurre temporaneamente i prezzi per stimolare le vendite. I prezzi promozionali sono: i prezzi invito dei supermercati, le offerte speciali, i finanziamenti a basso tasso di interesse offerti dai concessionari, le offerte di rimborso, ecc. presentano il vantaggio, per il produttore, di essere temporanee e di consentirgli di tornare facilmente al prezzo di base. Negli ultimi decenni, si è assistito a un proliferare di promozioni, che hanno fatto perdere credibilità alla politica di prezzo delle marche e dei distributori, per riconquistarla sono state adottate 2 politiche tariffarie: quella dei prezzi "equi" EDFP (Every Day Fair Pricing), e quella dei "saldi quotidiani" EDLP (Every Day Low Pricing), ossia di prezzi leggermente ridotti disponibili sempre. Un tipo di prezzo promozionale popolare fra i produttori è l’offerta di rimborso, che permette di stimolare le vendite senza dover modificare il prezzo di base, sono buoni sconto da rispedire al fabbricante dopo l'acquisto, che danno diritto a un rimborso. I vantaggi sono: - la promozione non rischia di danneggiare l'immagine di marca. - si può offrire lo sconto direttamente al consumatore, svincolandosi dal distributore - Il produttore può interrompere la promozione quando lo desidera per mettere a punto l'inventario o rispondere ai concorrenti senza abbassare il prezzo. - ha un basso costo, perché molti consumatori dimenticano di rispedire il coupon per richiedere il rimborso a cui hanno diritto, permettendo così al produttore di offrire sconti "fantasma". - il coupon restituito da informazioni sui clienti utili per il marketing diretto, in quanto va compilato con nome, indirizzo e altri dati sul consumatore. 5. Gestione dei prezzi → adattamento dei prezzi di listino in base alle condizioni di realizzazione della vendita: quantitativi ordinati, tipo di intermediari, aree geografiche ecc.. Questi prezzi/sconti sono volti a ricompensare i clienti il cui comportamento d'acquisto permette all'impresa di risparmíare sui costi delle transazioni. es. riduzioni di prezzo sulla quantità, per pagamento in contanti ecc. Lo yield management e i prezzi dinamici La pratica della discriminazione dei prezzi è diffusa nell'ambito dei servizi, in particolare nei settori a capacità produttiva limitata e fissa, come l'industria alberghiera, le compagnie aeree ecc., settori che devono gestire i ricavi generati da attività deperibili e hanno in comune le seguenti caratteristiche: l'offerta è rappresentata da un servizio; il servizio può essere prenotato in anticipo; la capacità di produzione è fissa e presenta un costo di accrescimento molto elevato; la domanda è segmentabile in base a criteri di flessibilità e sensibilità al prezzo Il metodo dello Yield management consiste nel commercializzare prima i servizi a prezzo ridotto e poi quelli a prezzo pieno, permette di costruire una scaletta di prezzi; per esempio se prendiamo il caso di una compagnia aerea verranno prima venduti a basso prezzo i biglietti a chi acquista in largo anticipo ovvero è sensibile al prezzo, poi verranno riservati posti ad un prezzo più elevato es. per chi viaggia per lavoro ed è meno sensibile al prezzo. Con l'applicazione di prezzi dinamici le aziende stabiliscono prezzi flessibili per la propria offerta in base agli algoritmi che tengono conto anche dei prezzi e dell'offerta di concorrenti oltre che della domanda; Il prezzo non varia in base a variabili correlate al cliente ma variabili come l'ora del giorno, l'offerta disponibile, il volume di traffico nella pagina ecc.. La tariffazione dinamica è stata introdotta nell'industria dei trasporti aerei negli Stati Uniti negli anni 80 ed ora molti altri operatori adottano questo metodo, come gli hotel, autonoleggi, huber.. nel turismo il prezzo è basato sul tempo; prezzi più alti vengono addebitati durante l'alta stagione o durante eventi speciali mentre in bassa stagione addebitano a prezzi più bassi; l'obiettivo del prezzo dinamico in questo settore è trovare il pezzo più alto che i consumatori sono disposti a pagare La flessibilità dei prezzi online Il commercio online favorisce la relazione di tipo one-to-one, facilita quindi l'approccio della determinazione del prezzo su misura; esistono 5 condizioni che devono verificarsi indipendentemente dal fatto che il mercato sia online o offline; Affinché si possano applicare discriminazioni sui prezzi: 1) i clienti devono essere eterogenei nella loro sensibilità al prezzo: alcuni pronti a pagare molto, altri a scegliere il prezzo più basso disponibile sul mercato. 2) il mercato deve essere segmentabile. 3) le possibilità di arbitraggio devono essere limitate, i clienti che hanno acquistato a basso prezzo non devono essere in grado di rivendere il prodotto con profitto a un prezzo più alto. 4) il costo della segmentazione non deve superare il reddito derivato dalla personalizzazione della vendita. 5) la percezione di equità (fairness) della transazione non può essere violata, si intende la sensazione dell'acquirente che la transazione sia conveniente per entrambe le parti. I meccanismi di Individuazione dei prezzi su internet Si identificano 5 meccanismi di transazione principali: 1. Nell'offerta di prezzo standard, i prezzi sono predeterminati per uno specifico prodotto o servizio. 2. Le aste (eBay) sono un metodo in cui un individuo partecipa con le proprie offerte contro altri per comprare le merci da un terzo soggetto. 3. Le aste inverse (Magento.com), dette anche "richieste di quotazione" sono un metodo d'acquisto in cui un'organizzazione definisce il prezzo che è disposta a pagare e i fornitori partecipano con la propria offerta; 4. Gli scambi 5. Gli acquisti di gruppo, il fornitore offre un prodotto/servizio a un prezzo basso e scontato e la transazione si realizza se l'acquisto viene fatto da un numero minimo di persone stabilito in anticipo. La pratica della price leadership Un'impresa grazie alla propria dimensione o posizione, può occupare una posizione di leadership "naturale" del mercato; le sue decisioni sui prezzi sono riconosciute e accettate dalle altre imprese presenti sul mercato di riferimento. Esistono diversi tipi di leadership: ⭆ la leadership dell'impresa dominante è quella dell'impresa che detiene la quota di mercato maggiore e che stabilisce un prezzo e lascia che gli altri vendano la loro produzione a quel prezzo. Il leader deve essere potente e indiscusso e deve accettare di mantenere un prezzo elevato. ⭆la leadership barometrica consiste nell'avviare aumenti e diminuzioni di prezzo che si rivelano necessari, alla luce delle variazioni del costi di produzione e dell'andamento della domanda. ⭆la leadership tacita è quella in cui un'azienda è tacitamente riconosciuta come leader senza che vi sia intesa o accordo formale, cosa che sarebbe illegale. Per esercitare la leadership in modo efficace è necessaria la concomitanza di molti fattori: - disporre di un sistema informativo di mkt efficiente, che consenta di comprendere le evoluzioni del mercato e di reagire di conseguenza. - preoccuparsi realmente dello stato di salute del settore e utilizzare metodi per misurare la performance manageriale a lungo termine. - saper guidare il settore in modo responsabile e che agisca in modo da preservare, a breve termine, la stabilità delle quote nel mercato di appartenenza. - la presenza di un leader è un fattore di stabilità e riduce il rischio di una guerra dei prezzi. 18.6 I prezzi di una gamma di prodotti Le imprese hanno diverse gamme di prodotti e, all'interno di ogni gamma, alcuni prodotti sono sostituti potenziali e altri sono complementari, questa strategia ha determinato la comparsa di legami d'interdipendenza tra i prodotti che si traducono in un effetto di sostituzione (cannibalizzazione), o in un effetto di complementarità. Nella determinazione dei prezzi è necessario tener conto di questa interdipendenza. La nozione di elasticità incrociata Permette di misurare il grado d'interdipendenza fra i prodotti venduti con una stessa marca/impresa, e di osservare il tipo d'interdipendenza laddove presente: complementarietà o sostituibilità. Nel caso di due prodotti A e B, si definisce nel modo seguente: elasticità incrociata = % di variazione delle quantità venduta di A / % di variazione del prezzo di B Se l’elasticità incrociata è positiva, fra i prodotti sussiste un effetto di sostituzione; se è negativa vi è invece complementarietà, se è nulla o vicinissima allo zero, i prodotti si dicono indipendenti. La definizione del prezzo della gamma I prezzi collegati → nel caso di prodotti complementari o indipendenti (prodotti tra loro collegati ma non sostituibili gli uni agli altri), l'impresa può offrire prezzi collegati, per cui i prodotti possono essere acquistati separatamente oppure in blocco, a un prezzo sensibilmente inferiore alla somma dei prezzi individuali. es.mercato delle automobili in cui, al momento di acquistare una vettura, vengono offerte opzioni d'acquisto di assortimenti di prodotti collegati. Il premium price → si applica quando per uno stesso prodotto si offrono più versioni o modelli (un modello base o standard e un modello superiore), i clienti potenziali del modello base sono molto sensibili al prezzo, diversamente da quelli interessati al modello superiore. La soluzione sta nello sfruttare le economie di scala e l'eterogeneità della domanda, rispondendo alle esigenze dei segmenti con un prodotto di fascia bassa = prezzo contenuto e un prodotto di fascia alta = prezzo elevato. Prezzo e immagine → assegna il prezzo in base all'immagine del prodotto, l'obiettivo è segnalare agli acquirenti la qualità del prodotto e utilizzare il guadagno ottenuto dalla versione più costosa per abbassare il prezzo della versione economica, in questo caso, non esiste differenza tra i prodotti o le marche, se non nell'immagine e nel posizionamento percepito. I prezzi del prodotti complementari → fra i prodotti complementari abbiamo i rasoi e le lamette: le automobili e i pezzi di ricambio ecc.. quando i clienti sono fedeli alla marca e vogliono acquistare gli articoli/accessori originali, l'impresa può praticare prezzi contenuti per l'attrezzatura di base e un prezzo elevato per i prodotti complementari. 18.7 Il prezzo dei nuovi prodotti Più il nuovo prodotto è originale e apporta una soluzione innovativa, tanto più è sensibile al prezzo. Il prezzo di lancio è fondamentale e condiziona il successo commerciale e finanziario dell'operazione. L'impresa deve scegliere fra 2 strategie contrapposte: La strategia del prezzo di scrematura → consiste nel vendere il nuovo prodotto a un prezzo elevato, rivolgendosi all'estremità superiore della curva di domanda, in modo da garantire rapidamente rientri finanziari dopo il lancio. Considerazioni che vanno a sostegno di questa strategia: ⭆ Quando si ritiene che il ciclo di vita del nuovo prodotto sarà breve o che il prodotto verrà rapidamente imitato dalla concorrenza, ⭆ Quando la domanda è anelastica, l'impresa può sfruttare questo vantaggio adottando un prezzo elevato, per poi adeguarlo progressivamente quando il mercato entra in una fase di maturità. ⭆ è utile quando l'introduzione di un nuovo prodotto richiede investimenti in pubblicità e promozione e l'impresa non dispone della liquidità necessaria, applicare prezzi elevati costituisce una forma di finanziamento che permette di generare le risorse necessarie alla strategia di lancio. La strategia del prezzo di penetrazione → consiste nel praticare prezzi bassi per occupare una quota di mercato rilevante sin dall'inizio, presuppone di adottare un sistema di distribuzione intensivo attraverso azioni pubblicitarie e di predisporre un'adeguata capacità produttiva fin dal lancio del prodotto. Vi sono alcune condizioni generali che devono prevalere: ⭆ la domanda deve essere elastica al prezzo lungo tutta la curva. ⭆ non esiste un segmento da privilegiare e la strategia da adottare consiste nel rivolgersi alla totalità del mercato con un prezzo sufficientemente basso da adattarsi al maggior numero di clienti. ⭆ viene applicata per scoraggiare l'ingresso nel mercato di nuovi concorrenti perchè i prezzi bassi costituiscono una barriera all'entrata molto efficace, ⭆ la strategia del prezzo di penetrazione è più rischiosa della strategia di scrematura.Make mcq quiz with 4 option in which one is correct -'10 Basis of Material Science • .....;;;";;;"~~;;,,;;,,,,;.;.,,;;,,,;,,;.;,.,------------ 6. Temporary materials: Some materials are meant to be placed in the oral cavity for a short period of time for different reasons. • Temporary crowns: While a permanent crown is prepared in the dental laboratory, the patient must wait for few days before it can be fabricated and cemented into place. Does patient experience any problems during this time period? If the tooth is vital (the pulp is alive), the patient is likely to experience pain and sensitivity while eating and drinking, also it looks unesthetic. What can be done to solve this problem? A temporary crown is placed before the patient leaves the clinic. It is constructed and luted in the same appointment in which the crown preparation is done. Temporary crowns are not very strong or esthetic but they serve adequately till the permanent crown is ready to be cemented. • Temporary restorations: Sometimes it is difficult to decide immediately the best line of treatment for a particular tooth. The exact condition of the pulp may not be obvious to the dentist from the patient's symptoms. A dentist removes all or part of the decay and then places a temporary restoration to have time to observe the behaviour of the pulp or to give the pilip time to heal before deciding the further treatment required. Classification based on Location of Fabrication 4,9 Materials can be classified based on the location of fabrication into: • Direct restorative materials. • Indirect restorative materials Direct restorative materials: They include those materials which are used to restore cavity preparations directly in the oral cavity (Box 1.5). Box 1.5: Examples of direct restorative materials Amalgam, composites, glass ionomer and other materials, which set by chemical reactions in the mouth. Indirect restorative materials: It includes those restorations which must be fabricated outside the mouth, indirectly on a cast/ model/ die, because their processing condition would harm oral tissues. Materials used in the construction of such prosthesis are called indirect restorative materials (Box 1.6). Box 1.6: Examples of indirect restorative materials Gold inlays, crowns of metal, ceramic and polymers, which are processed at elevated temperatures. Some indirect composite restorations can be processed under specific wavelength of light, e.g. Ceramage. Classification based on Longevity of Use 1. Permanent restorations: These restorations are not planned to be replaced for a particular time period. Though they are referred to as permanent, actually they are not, e.g. fillings, crowns, bridges and dentures do not last forever (Fig. 1.5). 2. Temporary restorations: These restorations are planned to be replaced in a short period of time, such as few days to weeks. For ~ Permanent C/) c c -.2 0 c- :;::; Cll co Interim ~ Q; 0 .8ll::1iJ C/) o~ Cll a:: c:=:J Temporary Time period Fig. 1.5: Diagram depicting the time period of use of a restoration. (Arrow in permanent restoration depicts that such restorations are not planned to be replaced for a long period of time.) Introducton to Dental Materials Dental materials Box 1.7: Characteristics of metals 1. High thermal and electrical conductivity 2. Ductility (pure metals are very soft and they can be bent without breaking) 3. Opacity (they do not transmit light) 4. Luster (they have a surface that strongly reflects light and appears bright and shiny) 5. They tend to dissolve to some extent in water or other aqueous solutions, producing cations. 6. All metals are white (actually gray) except for gold, which is yellow, and copper, which is reddish. 7. All metals are solid at room temperature except mercury, which is liquid at room temperature and is used with silver alloys as amalgam. 8. All metals have high melting temperatures because of high strength of the metallic bond that holds the atoms together. 3. Polymers 4. Composites Composites are mixtures of two or more of the first three classes in which the different components remain distinct from one another in the final structure. A common example is composite resin. Fig. 1.7a: Three-dimensional structure of iron (metal) Metals Metals are the oldest of the three classes of materials that have been used as dental materials. Metals are characterized by metallic bonds (Box 1.7) which will be discussed in the next chapter. Metals solidify with their atoms in a regular or crystalline arrangement (see Chapter 2), often in the form of a cube (Fig. 1.7a). example, temporary fillings done in a tooth during root canal treatment, which have to be replaced within 2-4 days during subsequent visits. They are used to protect the tooth and provide function till the final restoration is done. 3. Interim restoration: At times, dental treatment requires "long-term" definite temporary restorations or "interim" restorations. For examle, a 7-year-old child, met with trauma and fractured one of his central incisors. A large composite build- up may serve his immediate requirement until the root formation is completed and a permanent crown is placed. 5 Classification based on the Chemical Nature of the Material These are the atoms that make up a material and the way they are bonded together determine the properties of that materiaLS Weak bonds make for weak materials and vice versa (Table 1.4). Materials can be classified into different categories based on their primary atomic bonds (Fig. 1.6): 1. Metals 2. Ceramics Fig. 1.6: Classification of dental materials based on chemical nature 12 Basis of Material Science Box 1.9: Benefits of ceramics in dentistry 1. Many ceramic oxides are used as pigmenting agents. These oxides produce good range of colors. Due to this characteristic, we are able to match almost any tooth color with good esthetic results. 2. They are inert, i.e. not chemically reactive. This quality provides ceramics with good bio- compatibility. 3. Ceramic materials are translucent, like natural teeth. This translucency gives the ceramic crown a more natural appearance than any other dental material. Fig. 1.7b: Internal arrangement of tetrahedral structure of ceramic (silica) four large oxygen atoms surround smaller silicon atom Ceramics A ceramic is a compound formed by the union of a metallic and a non-metallic element (Box 1.8). Most of these materials are oxides, formed by the union of oxygen with metals such as silicon, aluminum, calcium and magnesium (Fig.1.7b). Ceramics may be simple or complex. Examples of simple ceramics are alumina and silica. Examples of complex ceramics are feldspar (potassium aluminum silicate) and kaolin (hydrated aluminum silicate). Ceramics may be crystalline or non- crystalline (i.e. amorphous). Porcelain is a specific type of ceramic used extensively in dentistry (Box 1.9). Box 1.8: Characteristics of ceramics 1. High melting points. 2. Brittleness, which means they cannot be bent or deformed (no sliding) to any extent without actually cracking and breaking. 3. They are poor conductor of heat and electricity. 4. They are chemically inert. 5. They have excellent esthetic result in terms of matching natural teeth. Fig. 1.8: Stucture of synthetic polymer Polymers They are the latest addition (early to mid- 1900s) to dental materials. Most of the polymers are nowadays synthesized by humans. Polymers are giant, long-chain organic molecules (Fig. 1.8). Polymers are characterized by covalent bonds within each molecule, giving them tremendous strength in a single direction. Try to break a nylon rope by pulling it! They are poor conductors of heat and electri- city. Most polymers have a structure containing thousands of carbon atoms linked together like beads on a string. Others, such as silicone polymers are formed with silicon-oxygen bonds. Introducton to Dental Materials Table 1.4: Characteristics of different materials 13 Characteristics Bond Properties Crystal structure Metals Metallic bonding High strength and hardness, high electrical and thermal conductivity BCC, FCC, or HCP unit cells Ceramics Ionic or covalent bonding, or both High hardness and stiffness, electrically insulating, refractory, and chemically inert Crystalline or amorphous Polymers Covalent bonding Low sensitivity, high electrical resistivity, and low thermal conductivity, strength and stiffness vary widely Amorphous and crystalline Composites Composites are combinations of any of the basic ceramic, metallic and polymeric materials (Box 1.10). Each material that makes up composites is called a phase. Their properties tend to be somewhere between those of their basic constituents and are used to enhance their performance, longevity and handling chracterstics. Box 1.10: Types of composites in dentistry 1. Ceramic - metallic composite: Tungsten carbide bur. 2. Metal - polymer composite: Die materials in dental laboratory. 3. Ceramic - polymer composite: Enamel, dentin, bone and restorative composites. A composite is a kind of "combination" of materials, which compliment each other. The properties lacking in one material are compensated by those of the other material. For example, restorative composite has two phases, namely resin and fillers. Teeth and bones are examples of natural composites. Enamel is a composite of hydroxyapatite (which is a ceramic material) and protein (which is a polymer). EVALUATION OF DENTAL MATERIALS Most manufacturers of dental materials maintain a quality assurance programme (As per international standard like ADA specifications) and materials are thoroughly tested before being released into the market for dental practitioner (Fig. 1.9). Laboratory Evaluations Most ADA/ ANSI specifications involve laboratory tests. The tests performed as per these specifications are useful but they all are performed in vitro, (carried out in the laboratory away from the clinical conditions) which have a lot of limitations in clinical practice.lO Clinical Notes 1. For example, most of the direct restorative materials are tested for their compressive strength but ultimately the material is subjected to a combination of compressive, tensile and shear stresses, which may decide the final success or failure of the material under masticatory load. 2. Similarly upper dentures mostly fracture along the midline because of bending. Hence a bending or transverse strength ~B-a-s-is-o-f-M-a-t-e-ria-I-S~c-ie-n-c-e-------------- ---------. test is far more meaningful for denture base materials than a compression test. Clinical Trials The majority of new materials are subjected to extensive clinical trials normally in co-operation with a dental college or hospital departments prior to their release. CONCLUSION As the number of available materials is going up, it is important that the dentist remains more aware about new products so that their judgement about the selection of material remains successful. Materials which have not been thoroughly evaluated should be avoided, specially with clinical dentistry falling under Consumer Protection Act (CPA). I Research and development I iI Manufacturer/analysis Ideal requirements for clinical use: Thermal, optical, mechanical, chemical, biological Available materials and their properties are evaluated Launch of new I product Choice and selection of material by the dentist Critical assessment based on clinical performance I I H feedback to I