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Test number 3
Quiz by Teacher Allen Daniel
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summative test number 1 for Grade 3summative test number 2 for Grade 3Generate all of these 25 questions Part A: Each correct answer is worth 5. 1. The regular pentagon shown has a side length of 2 cm. The perimeter of the pentagon is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm (E) 10 cm 2 cm 2. The faces of a cube are labelled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots. Three of the faces are shown. What is the total number of dots on the other three faces? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 15 3. The equation that best represents \a number increased by _ve equals 15" is (A) n 5 = 15 (B) n _ 5 = 15 (C) n + 5 = 15 (D) n + 15 = 5 (E) n _ 5 = 15 4. The line graph shows the number of bobbleheads sold at a store each year. The sale of bobbleheads increased the most between (A) 2016 and 2017 (B) 2017 and 2018 (C) 2018 and 2019 (D) 2019 and 2020 (E) 2020 and 2021 Number of 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 Year Sale of Bobbleheads 2021 Bobbleheads 20 40 60 80 5. Starting at 72, Aryana counts down by 11s: 72; 61; 50; : : : . What is the last number greater than 0 that Aryana will count? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 6. In the diagram, \ABC = 90_. The value of x is (A) 68 (B) 23 (C) 56 (D) 28 (E) 26 Day of the Week 44° x° A B C x° 7. Which of the following values is closest to zero? (A) 1 (B) 5 4 (C) 12 (D) 4 5 (E) 0:9 Grade 8 8. A jar contains 267 quarters. One quarter is worth $0.25. How many quarters must be added to the jar so that the total value of the quarters is $100.00? (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 103 (D) 133 (E) 153 9. A package of 8 greeting cards comes with 10 envelopes. Kirra has 7 cards but no envelopes. What is the smallest number of packages that Kirra needs to buy to have more envelopes than cards? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7 10. For the points in the diagram, which statement is true? (A) e > c (B) b < d (C) f > b (D) a < e (E) a > c y x (e, f ) (a, b) (c, d ) Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. The 26 letters of the English alphabet are listed in an in_nite, repeating loop: ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY ZABC : : : What is the 258th letter in this sequence? (A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z 12. A public holiday is always celebrated on the third Wednesday of a certain month. In that month, the holiday cannot occur on which of the following days? (A) 16th (B) 22nd (C) 18th (D) 19th (E) 21st 13. A circular spinner is divided into three sections. An arrow is attached to the centre of the spinner. The arrow is spun once. The probability that the arrow stops on the largest section is 50%. The probability it stops on the next largest section is 1 in 3. The probability it stops on the smallest section is (A) 1 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 1 6 (D) 2 7 (E) 3 10 14. A positive number is divisible by both 3 and 4. The tens digit is greater than the ones digit. How many positive two-digit numbers have this property? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 15. A rectangular pool measures 20 m by 8 m. There is a 1 m wide walkway around the outside of the pool, as shown by the shaded region. The area of the walkway is (A) 56 m2 (B) 60 m2 (C) 29 m2 (D) 52 m2 (E) 50 m2 20 m 8 m 1 m Grade 8 16. The results of asking 50 students if they participate in music or sports are shown in the Venn diagram. What percentage of the 50 students do not participate in music and do not participate in sports? (A) 0% (B) 80% (C) 20% (D) 70% (E) 40% Music Sports 15 5 20 17. There are 2 3 as many golf balls in Bin F as in Bin G. If there are a total of 150 golf balls, how many fewer golf balls are in Bin F than in Bin G? (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 90 18. In the sequence shown, Figure 1 is formed using 7 squares. Each _gure after Figure 1 has 5 more squares than the previous _gure. What _gure has 2022 squares? (A) Figure 400 (B) Figure 402 (C) Figure 404 (D) Figure 406 (E) Figure 408 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 19. Mateo's 300 km trip from Edmonton to Calgary passed through Red Deer. Mateo started in Edmonton at 7 a.m. and drove until stopping for a 40 minute break in Red Deer. Mateo arrived in Calgary at 11 a.m. Not including the break, what was his average speed for the trip? (A) 83 km/h (B) 94 km/h (C) 90 km/h (D) 95 km/h (E) 64 km/h 20. Equilateral triangle ABC has sides of length 4. The midpoint of BC is D, and the midpoint of AD is E. The value of EC2 is (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 6:25 (D) 8 (E) 10 Part C: Each correct answer is worth 8. 21. The positive factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6. There are two perfect squares less than 100 that have exactly _ve positive factors. What is the sum of these two perfect squares? (A) 177 (B) 80 (C) 145 (D) 52 (E) 97 22. In the list p; q; r; s; t; u; v, each letter represents a positive integer. The sum of the values of each group of three consecutive letters in the list is 35. If q + u = 15, then p + q + r + s + t + u + v is (A) 85 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 75 Grade 8 23. The net shown is folded to form a cube. An ant walks from face to face on the cube, visiting each face exactly once. For example, ABCFED and ABCEFD are two possible orders of faces the ant visits. If the ant starts at A, how many possible orders are there? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 32 (D) 30 (E) 40 A D B C E F 24. The number 385 is an example of a three-digit number for which one of the digits is the sum of the other two digits. How many numbers between 100 and 999 have this property? (A) 144 (B) 126 (C) 108 (D) 234 (E) 64 25. Student A, Student B, and Student C have been hired to help scientists develop a new avour of juice. There are 4200 samples to test. Each sample either contains blueberry or does not. Each student is asked to taste each sample and report whether or not they think it contains blueberry. Student A reports correctly on exactly 90% of the samples containing blueberry and reports correctly on exactly 88% of the samples that do not contain blueberry. The results for all three students are shown below. Student A Student B Student C Percentage correct on samples 90% 98% (2m)% containing blueberry Percentage correct on samples 88% 86% (4m)% not containing blueberry Student B reports 315 more samples as containing blueberry than Student A. For some positive integers m, the total number of samples that the three students report as containing blueberry is equal to a multiple of 5 between 8000 and 9000. The sum of all such values of m is (A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D) 27 (E) 29test 2/201.number-220.be in attendance p.38test 2/201.number-220.be in attendance p.38 In-class activityMake a test, with answers best on the following: Conduct an investigation to provide evidence that living things are made of cells; either one cell or many different numbers and types of cells. Supporting Content LS1.A: Structure and Function • All living things are made up of cells, which is the smallest unit that can be said to be alive. An organism may consist of one single cell (unicellular) or many different numbers and types of cells (multicellular). (MS-LS-1.1) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on developing evidence that living things are made of cells, distinguishing between living and non-living things, and understanding that living things may be made of one cell or many and varied cells. In multicellular organisms, the body is a system of multiple interacting subsystems. These subsystems are groups of cells that work together to form tissues and organs that are specialized for particular body functions. (MS-LS-1.3) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on the conceptual understanding that cells form tissues and tissues form organs specialized for particular body functions. Examples could include the interaction of subsystems within a system and the normal functioning of those systems. Organisms reproduce, either sexually or asexually, and transfer their genetic information to their offspring. (MS-LS-1.4) • Living things share certain characteristics. (These include response to environment, reproduction, energy use, growth and development, life cycles, made of cells, etc.) (MS-LS1.4) Further Explanation: Examples should include both biotic and abiotic items, and should be defended using accepted characteristics of life. Plants, algae (including phytoplankton), and many microorganisms use the energy from light to make sugars (food) from carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and water through the process of photosynthesis, which also releases oxygen. These sugars can be used immediately or stored for growth or later use. (MS-LS-1.5) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on tracing movement of matter and flow of energy. Supporting Content LS1.C: Organization for Matter and Energy Flow in Organisms • Within individual organisms, food moves through a series of chemical reactions (cellular respiration) in which it is broken down and rearranged to form new molecules, to support growth, or to release energy. (MS-LS-1.6) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on describing that molecules are broken apart and put back together and that in this process, energy is released and on understanding that the elements in the products are the same as the elements in the reactants. Organisms, and populations of organisms, are dependent on their environmental interactions both with other living things and with nonliving factors. (MS-LS-2.1) • In any ecosystem, organisms and populations with similar requirements for food, water, oxygen, or other resources may compete with each other for limited resources, access to which consequently constrains their growth and reproduction. (MS-LS-2.1) • Growth of organisms and population increases are limited by access to resources. (MS-LS-2.1) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on cause and effect relationships between resources and growth of individual organisms and the numbers of organisms in ecosystems during periods of abundant and scarce resources. Similarly, predatory interactions may reduce the number of organisms or eliminate whole populations of organisms. Mutually beneficial interactions, in contrast, may become so interdependent that each organism requires the other for survival. Although the species involved in these competitive, predatory, and mutually beneficial interactions vary across ecosystems, the patterns of interactions of organisms with their environments, both living and nonliving, are shared. (MS-LS-2.2) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on predicting consistent patterns of interactions in different ecosystems in terms of the relationships among and between organisms and abiotic components of ecosystems. Examples of types of interactions could include competitive, predatory, and mutually beneficial. Food webs are models that demonstrate how matter and energy is transferred between producers, consumers, and decomposers as the three groups interact within an ecosystem. Transfers of matter into and out of the physical environment occur at every level. Decomposers recycle nutrients from dead plant or animal matter back to the soil in terrestrial environments or to the water in aquatic environments. The atoms that make up the organisms in an ecosystem are cycled repeatedly between the living and nonliving parts of the ecosystem. (MS-LS-2.3) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on describing the conservation of matter and flow of energy into and out of various ecosystems, and on defining the boundaries of the system. Ecosystems are dynamic in nature; their characteristics can vary over time. Disruptions to any physical or biological component of an ecosystem can lead to shifts in all its populations. (MSLS-2.5) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on recognizing patterns in data and making warranted inferences about changes in populations, and on evaluating empirical evidence supporting arguments about changes to ecosystems. Biodiversity describes the variety of species found in Earth’s terrestrial and oceanic ecosystems. The completeness or integrity of an ecosystem’s biodiversity is often used as a measure of its health. (MS-LS-2.6) Supporting Content LS4.D: Biodiversity • Changes in biodiversity can influence humans’ resources, such as food, energy, and medicines, as well as ecosystem services that humans rely on—for example, water purification and recycling. (MS-LS-2.6) Supporting Content ETS1.B: Developing Possible Solutions • There are systematic processes for evaluating solutions with respect to how well they meet the criteria and constraints of a problem. (MS-LS-2.6) Further Explanation: Examples of ecosystem services could include water purification, nutrient recycling, and prevention of soil erosion. Examples of design solution constraints could include scientific, economic, and social considerations. Genes are located in the chromosomes of cells, with each chromosome pair containing two variants of each of many distinct genes. Each distinct gene chiefly controls the production of specific proteins, which in turn affects the traits of the individual. Structural changes to genes (mutations) can result in changes to proteins, which can affect the structures and functions of the organism and thereby change traits. (MS-LS-3.1) Supporting Content LS3.B: Variation of Traits • In addition to variations that arise from sexual reproduction, genetic information can be altered because of mutations. Though rare, mutations may result in significant changes to the structure and function of proteins. Changes can be beneficial, harmful, or neutral to the organism. (MS-LS-3.1) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on conceptual understanding that changes in genetic material may result in making different proteins. Organisms reproduce, either sexually or asexually, and transfer their genetic information to their offspring. (MS-LS-3.2) Supporting Content LS3.A: Inheritance of Traits • Variations of inherited traits between parent and offspring arise from genetic differences that result from the subset of chromosomes (and therefore genes) inherited. (MS-LS-3.2) Supporting Content LS3.B: Variation of Traits • In sexually reproducing organisms, each parent contributes half of the genes acquired (at random) by the offspring. Individuals have two of each chromosome and hence two alleles of each gene, one acquired from each parent. These versions may be identical or may differ from each other. (MS-LS-3.2) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on using models such as simple Punnett squares and pedigrees, diagrams, and simulations to describe the cause and effect relationship of gene transmission from parent(s) to offspring and resulting genetic variation. The collection of fossils and their placement in chronological order is known as the fossil record and documents the change of many life forms throughout the history of the Earth. Anatomical similarities and differences between various organisms living today and between living and once living organisms in the fossil record enable the classification of living things. (MS-LS-4.1, MS-LS-4.2) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on finding patterns of changes in the level of complexity of anatomical structures in organisms and the chronological order of fossil appearance in the rock layers. The collection of fossils and their placement in chronological order is known as the fossil record and documents the change of many life forms throughout the history of the Earth. Anatomical similarities and differences between various organisms living today and between living and once living organisms in the fossil record enable the classification of living things. (MS-LS-4.1, MS-LS-4.2) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on explanations of the relationships among organisms in terms of similarity or differences of the gross appearance of anatomical structures. Scientific genus and species level names indicate a degree of relationship. (MS-LS-4.3) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on inferring general patterns of relatedness among structures of different organisms by comparing diagrams, pictures, specimens, or fossils. Natural selection leads to the predominance of certain traits in a population, and the suppression of others. (MS-LS-4.4) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on using concepts of natural selection, including overproduction of offspring, passage of time, variation in a population, selection of favorable traits, and heritability of traits. In artificial selection, humans have the capacity to influence certain characteristics of organisms by selective breeding. One can choose desired parental traits determined by genes, which are then passed to offspring. (MS-LS-4.5) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on identifying and communicating information from reliable sources about the influence of humans on genetic outcomes in artificial selection (such as genetic modification, animal husbandry, gene therapy), and on the influence these technologies have on society as well as the technologies leading to these scientific discoveries. Adaptation by natural selection acting over generations is one important process by which species change over time in response to changes in environmental conditions. Traits that support successful survival and reproduction in the new environment become more common; those that do not become less common. Thus, the distribution of traits in a population changes. (MS-LS-4.6) Further Explanation: Emphasis is on using mathematical models, probability statements, and proportional reasoning to support explanations of trends in changes to populations over time. Examples could include Peppered Moth population changes before and after the industrial revolution. Question 1: What is the primary purpose of using rubrics in assessment? A. To reduce the number of assignments teachers must grade B. To give students random feedback C. To assess learner performance using specific criteria and levels D. To make grading faster and easier for instructors Question 2: Which of the following is a characteristic of analytic rubrics? A. Assess the entire task as a whole B. Provide a single descriptive paragraph for all criteria C. Use multiple criteria with individual performance descriptors D. Do not include any scoring scale Question 3: What is one benefit of using rubrics in education? A. They eliminate the need for grading B. They confuse learners about expectations C. They help provide informative and constructive feedback D. They discourage students from revising their work Question 4: When choosing between an analytic and a holistic rubric, which is true? A. Holistic rubrics provide detailed feedback for each component B. Analytic rubrics assess the task as a whole C. Holistic rubrics are used to give a general judgment of overall performance D. Analytic rubrics are used when no feedback is needed Question 5: Which of the following is not a step in developing a rubric? A. Define the purpose of the learning task B. Choose rubric type C. Design final exam questions D. Write performance descriptors Question 6 What does “content validity” refer to in assessment instruments? A. The extent to which the test predicts future performance B. The extent to which test items cover the intended content C. How consistent the results of the test are over time D. The judgment of whether a test looks valid on the surface Question 7 Which type of reliability involves the consistency of scores given by two or more raters? A. Intra-rater reliability B. Test-retest reliability C. Inter-rater reliability D. Internal consistency Question 8 Which statistical method is used to confirm that all items measure the intended construct? A. Content mapping B. Guessing analysis C. Construct charting D. Confirmatory Factor Analysis (CFA) Question 9 According to the PDF, what is one way to increase the validity of an assessment instrument? A. Shorten the test to reduce variability B. Apply penalties for guessing C. Conduct a vetting session with experts D. Use the same rater for all responses Question 10 In the affective domain construct map, what is the highest level of affective behavior? A. Responding B. Valuing C. Characterisation D. OrganisationQuestion 1: What is a rubric used for in assessment? A. To provide random scores B. To make tests harder C. To establish clear performance criteria D. To replace lesson plans Question 2: Which of the following is an essential part of a rubric? A. Randomized scoring B. Learning outcomes C. Student names D. Test format Question 3: What are the three main components of a rubric? A. Goals, instructions, and timing B. Criteria, levels of performance, and descriptors C. Subjects, grades, and age D. Test format, feedback, and score Question 4: Why are descriptors important in a rubric? A. They describe the student's background B. They allow subjectivity C. They explain each performance level D. They list test dates Question 5: A well-designed rubric helps to: A. Confuse students B. Ensure subjective evaluation C. Promote consistency and transparency in grading D. Replace teacher feedback Question 6: What does "validity" in assessment refer to? A. The number of questions B. The consistency of results C. The degree to which an instrument measures what it claims to measure D. The length of the rubric Question 7: Reliability refers to: A. The time taken to grade B. How fair the test is C. The consistency and stability of the assessment results D. The number of rubrics used Question 8: Which factor can negatively affect reliability? A. Clear criteria B. Multiple evaluators C. Subjective grading D. Use of rubrics Question 9: Why is it important for alternative assessments to be valid and reliable? A. To shorten evaluation time B. To improve rubric length C. To ensure fair, accurate, and meaningful results D. To impress stakeholders Question 10: How can a teacher improve the reliability of an assessment? A. Use vague instructions B. Avoid training graders C. Use standardized rubrics and provide scorer training D. Change criteria frequently