A 17-year-old boy undergoes resection of the right distal femur to treat osteosarcoma. A large allogeneic corticocancellous bone graft is used for skeletal reconstruction of the 10-cm bony defect. An intramedullary vascularized fibular free flap is also placed in the construct. Which of the following is the most likely purpose of this additional procedure? 

A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by helicopter after sustaining severe injuries to the head, neck, and right femur during a motor vehicle collision. The patient's condition is stabilized, and the femur is temporarily reduced and splint immobilized. Peripheral pulses in the right leg are not palpable and capillary refill is noted; handheld Doppler shows weak pulses. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to establish lower extremity vascular injury in this patient? 

A 25-year-old man undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a Gustilo Type IIIB tibia-fibula fracture. Coverage of the resultant soft-tissue defect with a free flap is planned. Which of the following is the ideal length of time after the injury that this procedure should be performed? 

During harvest of a plantaris tendon graft, which of the following structures is at greatest risk for injury? 

A) 

B) 

C) 

D) 

E) 

A thin 40-year-old woman has an 8 × 5-cm skin defect in the distal third of the anterior leg extending to the dorsum of the foot, with tibia denuded of periosteum and exposed tendon, after undergoing stabilization of the fracture with internal hardware 3 days ago. The distal posterior tibial artery was ligated before surgery at the distal third of the leg. There are no signs of infection or osteomyelitis. Which of the following is the most appropriate method of reconstruction?