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Q 1/390
Score 0
(See area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
30
700 feet AGL.
2,500 feet MSL.
2,900 feet MSL.
Q 2/390
Score 0
(See area 1) What type of airspace is over Tomlinson Airport.
30
Class G airspace—surface up to but not including 1,200 feet AGL, Class E airspace—1,200 feet AGL up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
Class G airspace—surface up to but not including 700 feet MSL, Class E airspace—700 feet to 14,500 feet MSL.
Class G airspace—surface up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL.
390 questions
Q.
(See area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
1
30 sec
Q.
(See area 1) What type of airspace is over Tomlinson Airport.
2
30 sec
Q.
The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What is the aircraft's position relative to the station?
3
30 sec
Q.
The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means
4
30 sec
Q.
Cold air generally contains:
5
30 sec
Q.
A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?
6
30 sec
Q.
What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?
7
30 sec
Q.
What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?
8
30 sec
Q.
Inland fog is most likely:
9
30 sec
Q.
Determine the pressure altitude at an airport that is 1,386 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 29.97.
10
30 sec
Q.
The layers of the atmosphere, beginning at the earth’s surface, are:
11
30 sec
Q.
A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a
12
30 sec
Q.
Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when
13
30 sec
Q.
Frost on the wing of an airplane:
14
30 sec
Q.
Which is true with respect to a high - or low-pressure system?
15
30 sec
Q.
What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?
16
30 sec
Q.
The variations of solar radiation on the Earth’s surface create:
17
30 sec
Q.
What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?
18
30 sec
Q.
At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 °F and the dewpoint is 38 °F?
(divide the difference between the temperature and dew point by 4.4 to determine the height of the cloud base)
19
30 sec
Q.
Wind shear can be defined as:
20
30 sec
Q.
What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
21
30 sec
Q.
Clouds are divided into four families according to their
22
30 sec
Q.
What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
23
30 sec
Q.
A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?
24
30 sec
Q.
If you will be flying with cumulus clouds, you might expect:
25
30 sec
Q.
The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the
26
30 sec
Q.
You’re flying in an area of heavy rain with thunderstorms forecast ahead along your route. What is your best course of action?
27
30 sec
Q.
One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is
28
30 sec
Q.
An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as
29
30 sec
Q.
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?
30
30 sec
Q.
The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by
31
30 sec
Q.
If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?
32
30 sec
Q.
Thunderstorms may contain:
33
30 sec
Q.
Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the
34
30 sec
Q.
Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow
35
30 sec
Q.
While flying over mountainous terrain you see clouds with extensive vertical development. What does this indicate?
36
30 sec
Q.
Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a:
37
30 sec
Q.
When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request
38
30 sec
Q.
What are the types of preflight weather briefings?
39
30 sec
Q.
Of what value is the Weather Depiction Chart to the pilot?
40
30 sec
Q.
The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is:
41
30 sec
Q.
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to
42
30 sec
Q.
In the TAF for KMEM, what does 'SHRA' stand for?
43
30 sec
Q.
If you read in a METAR the symbols “SKC” and “OVC”, refer to:
44
30 sec
Q.
Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for HLC at 9,000 feet.
45
30 sec
Q.
The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft? (Area 5)
46
30 sec
Q.
What would happen to the airplane if it experienced a load factor of 2 Gs at 70 knots?
47
30 sec
Q.
If an airplane weighs 4,500 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 45° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
48
30 sec
Q.
The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the
49
30 sec
Q.
While flying in cruise at 120mph, the airplane experiences a +15 fps gust. What load factor would this apply to the airplane?
50
30 sec
Q.
If an airplane weighs 2,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 60° banked turn while maintaining altitude?
51
30 sec
Q.
Determine the maximum wind velocity for a 45° crosswind if the maximum crosswind component for the airplane is 25 knots.
52
30 sec
Q.
Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.
Pressure altitude: 5,000 ft
Headwind: Calm
Temperature: 101 F
53
30 sec
Q.
Determine the approximate landing ground roll distance.
Pressure altitude: 1,250 ft
Headwind: 8 kts
Temperature: Std
54
30 sec
Q.
What is the effect of a temperature decrease and a pressure altitude increase on the density altitude from 90 °F and 1,250 feet pressure altitude to 55 °F and 1,750 feet pressure altitude?
55
30 sec
Q.
Determine the total distance required to land.
OAT: 32 F
Pressure altitude: 8,000 ft
Weight: 2,600 lb
Headwind component: 20 kts
Obstacle: 50 ft
56
30 sec
Q.
Approximately what true airspeed should a pilot expect with 65 percent maximum continuous power at 9,500 feet with a temperature of 36 °F below standard?
57
30 sec
Q.
Determine the approximate total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
OAT: 90 F
Pressure altitude: 4,000 ft
Weight: 2,800 lb
Headwind component: 10 kts
58
30 sec
Q.
Determine the total distance required to land over a 50-foot obstacle.
Pressure altitude: 5,000 ft
Headwind: 8 kts
Temperature: 41 F
Runway: Hard surface
59
30 sec
Q.
You determine that your airplane is 90 pounds over maximum certified gross weight. How much fuel (AVGAS) must be drained to bring it within limits?
60
30 sec
Q.
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be
61
30 sec
Q.
How should the 500-pound weight be shifted to balance the plank on the fulcrum?
62
30 sec
Q.
An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?
63
30 sec
Q.
Modern aircraft are designed in a way that, when all seats are occupied, the baggage compartment is full, and all fuel tanks are full, the aircraft is:
64
30 sec
Q.
An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be
65
30 sec
Q.
During your flight you burn 25 gallons of fuel. What effect would this have on the weight and balance of your airplane at destination? Given: Airplane weight is 3,000 pounds and MOM/100 is 2,000.
66
30 sec
Q.
The CG is located how far aft of datum?
67
30 sec
Q.
If 50 pounds of weight is located at point X and 100 pounds at point Z, how much weight must be located at point Y to balance the plank?
68
30 sec
Q.
If the loaded center of gravity is aft of the allowable range, pitch stability:
69
30 sec
Q.
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?
70
30 sec
Q.
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
71
30 sec
Q.
The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
72
30 sec
Q.
The FAA regulations have established specific cruising altitudes for VFR flights at more than 3,000 feet above the surface.
73
30 sec
Q.
Based upon the altitude indicated by altimeter #3, which course direction is appropriate for this VFR cruising altitude?
74
30 sec
Q.
What does the line from point A to point B of the wind triangle represent?
75
30 sec
Q.
On the wind triangle, the line from point C to A represents:
76
30 sec
Q.
On the wind triangle, the line from point C to B represents:
77
30 sec
Q.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
78
30 sec
Q.
If you measure your course on your sectional in reference to a meridian, that line is called a:
79
30 sec
Q.
An aircraft departs an airport in the eastern daylight time zone at 0945 EDT for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the central daylight time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?
80
30 sec
Q.
The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
81
30 sec
Q.
Determine the approximate latitude and longitude of Currituck County Airport.
82
30 sec
Q.
What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?
83
30 sec
Q.
What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?
84
30 sec
Q.
When speaking to a Flight Service weather briefer, you should state:
85
30 sec
Q.
To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request
86
30 sec
Q.
A TAF includes:
87
30 sec
Q.
The wind and temperature at 12,000 feet MSL as reported by a pilot are
88
30 sec
Q.
To obtain current information regarding cloud tops, icing, and turbulence check the:
89
30 sec
Q.
Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate
90
30 sec
Q.
What are the wind conditions at Wink, Texas (KINK)?
91
30 sec
Q.
When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is
92
30 sec
Q.
Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?
93
30 sec
Q.
On a TAF, the broken cloud layer written as, BKN250 indicates:
94
30 sec
Q.
According to the Weather Depiction Chart, the weather for a flight from southern Michigan to north Indiana is ceilings
95
30 sec
Q.
Interpret the weather symbol depicted in Utah on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart.
96
30 sec
Q.
Determine the wind and temperature aloft forecast for ALS at 12,000 feet.
97
30 sec
Q.
Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?
98
30 sec
Q.
What can you learn about current weather conditions from this PIREP?
99
30 sec
Q.
In the TAF from KOKC, the 'FM (FROM) Group' is forecast for the hours from 1600Z to 2200Z with the wind from
100
30 sec
Q.
What wind is forecast for STL at 12,000 feet?
101
30 sec
Q.
The only cloud type forecast in TAF reports is
102
30 sec
Q.
What is the status of the front that extends from Nebraska through the upper peninsula of Michigan?
103
30 sec
Q.
At what altitude is the freezing level over the middle of Florida on the 12-hour Significant Weather Prognostic Chart?
104
30 sec
Q.
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
105
30 sec
Q.
For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the
The navigation facility at Dallas-Ft. Worth International (DFW) is a
109
30 sec
Q.
A VOR test facility—VOT—transmits a:
110
30 sec
Q.
On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) TO Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?
111
30 sec
Q.
The VOR receiver has the indications shown. What radial is the aircraft crossing?
112
30 sec
Q.
The navigation facility at Sulphur Springs (SLR) is a:
113
30 sec
Q.
How many GPS satellites are required to provide a three-dimensional position?
114
30 sec
Q.
If your GPS receiver is equipped with WAAS—Wide Area Augmentation System—your position accuracy is:
115
30 sec
Q.
You tune to the 320° radial of Savannah VORTAC and the 184° radial of Allendale VOR. Drawing courses for both on your Sectional, they intersect where?
116
30 sec
Q.
How can a pilot use GPS altitude in flight?
117
30 sec
Q.
A global positioning system will give your exact geographical position:
118
30 sec
Q.
Which is true regarding the benefits of using GPS for navigation?
119
30 sec
Q.
(See area 3) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.
120
30 sec
Q.
(See area 5) In order to avoid the Livermore Airport, what minimum altitude could you use to fly over it?
121
30 sec
Q.
(See area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
122
30 sec
Q.
(See area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
123
30 sec
Q.
(See area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
124
30 sec
Q.
The flag symbols at Statesboro Bullock County Airport, Claxton-Evans County Airport, and Ridgeland Airport are
125
30 sec
Q.
(See Area 5) The CAUTION box denotes what hazard to aircraft?
126
30 sec
Q.
Which public use airports depicted are indicated as having fuel?
127
30 sec
Q.
The flag symbol at Lake Drummond represents a
128
30 sec
Q.
The top of the group obstruction approximately 11 nautical miles from the Savannah VORTAC on the 008° radial is
129
30 sec
Q.
The navigation facility at Sulphur Springs (SLR) is a:
130
30 sec
Q.
What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?
131
30 sec
Q.
Which description below accurately describes the colors used for airports on a Sectional Chart?
132
30 sec
Q.
(See area 2) The elevation of the Chesapeake Regional Airport is
133
30 sec
Q.
(see area 2) What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the southeast side of Winnsboro Airport by 500 feet?
134
30 sec
Q.
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?
135
30 sec
Q.
What minimum altitude is required to fly over the Cedar Hill TV towers in the congested area south of NAS Dallas?
136
30 sec
Q.
An airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called:
137
30 sec
Q.
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
138
30 sec
Q.
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has:
139
30 sec
Q.
Find the town of Commerce (area 6). The floor of the Class E airspace over it is:
140
30 sec
Q.
The issuance of a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) may include:
141
30 sec
Q.
To fly in Class B airspace:
142
30 sec
Q.
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?
143
30 sec
Q.
Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the night visibility requirement for flight at 3,000 feet AGL, but below 10,000 feet MSL, is:
144
30 sec
Q.
A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
145
30 sec
Q.
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
146
30 sec
Q.
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
147
30 sec
Q.
(See area 7) The airspace overlying Mc Kinney (TKI) is controlled from the surface to
148
30 sec
Q.
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
149
30 sec
Q.
(See area 1) What type of airspace is over Tomlinson Airport.
150
30 sec
Q.
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
151
30 sec
Q.
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?
152
30 sec
Q.
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is
153
30 sec
Q.
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
154
30 sec
Q.
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
155
30 sec
Q.
What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?
156
30 sec
Q.
The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is
157
30 sec
Q.
(See area 3) Identify the airspace over Sprague Airport.
158
30 sec
Q.
(See area 5) In order to avoid the Livermore Airport, what minimum altitude could you use to fly over it?
159
30 sec
Q.
(See area 4) The airspace directly overlying Fort Worth Meacham is
160
30 sec
Q.
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?
161
30 sec
Q.
Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the day visibility requirement for flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL is:
162
30 sec
Q.
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
163
30 sec
Q.
(See area 3) What is the floor of the Savannah Class C airspace at the shelf area (outer circle)?
164
30 sec
Q.
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include:
165
30 sec
Q.
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with
166
30 sec
Q.
(See area 4) The floor of Class B airspace overlying Hicks Airport (T67) north-northwest of Fort Worth Meacham Field is
167
30 sec
Q.
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
168
30 sec
Q.
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
169
30 sec
Q.
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
170
30 sec
Q.
The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is:
171
30 sec
Q.
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
172
30 sec
Q.
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
173
30 sec
Q.
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
174
30 sec
Q.
The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
175
30 sec
Q.
Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?
176
30 sec
Q.
At a nontowered airport, what is the best way to proceed for departure?
177
30 sec
Q.
How should you set the transponder after an engine failure in flight?
178
30 sec
Q.
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°:
"TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..."
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
179
30 sec
Q.
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
180
30 sec
Q.
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
181
30 sec
Q.
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
182
30 sec
Q.
The most complete and up-to-date information regarding an airport can be found in:
183
30 sec
Q.
Weather information is available at the Coeur d'Alene (COE) Airport (area 2)
184
30 sec
Q.
What is the Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) for Minot International (MOT)?
185
30 sec
Q.
What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at Lincoln Municipal during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
186
30 sec
Q.
The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
187
30 sec
Q.
At Coeur D'Alene, which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to monitor airport traffic?
188
30 sec
Q.
Inbound to an airport with no tower, FSS, or UNICOM in operation, a pilot should self-announce on MULTICOM frequency
189
30 sec
Q.
The control tower frequency for Addison Airport (area 2) is
190
30 sec
Q.
If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
191
30 sec
Q.
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°:
'TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...'
Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
192
30 sec
Q.
Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs
193
30 sec
Q.
When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace each pilot must make:
194
30 sec
Q.
What should you do after landing at a non-towered airport?
195
30 sec
Q.
As you approach your destination airport in Class B airspace after a long cross-country flight, you learn that the airport is unexpectedly closed. While diverting to an alternate airport, you calculate that you will land with just a few gallons of fuel in the tank. What should you tell ATC?
196
30 sec
Q.
What UNICOM frequency would you use to contact Mercer Co. Regional (HZE)?
197
30 sec
Q.
The CTAF/UNICOM frequency at Jamestown Airport is
198
30 sec
Q.
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
199
30 sec
Q.
Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
200
30 sec
Q.
Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
201
30 sec
Q.
The numbers 35 and 17 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:
202
30 sec
Q.
The 'No Entry' sign identifies
203
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of a taxiway ending marker?
204
30 sec
Q.
What does a runway hold position sign indicate?
205
30 sec
Q.
Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?
206
30 sec
Q.
How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind? Refer to the image, area C.
207
30 sec
Q.
The sign is a visual clue that
208
30 sec
Q.
This sign confirms your position on...
209
30 sec
Q.
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
210
30 sec
Q.
The ground reference maneuver, rectangular course, represents:
211
30 sec
Q.
VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is
212
30 sec
Q.
A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
213
30 sec
Q.
A runway VASI system provides:
214
30 sec
Q.
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
215
30 sec
Q.
What is wake turbulence?
216
30 sec
Q.
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
217
30 sec
Q.
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
218
30 sec
Q.
Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
219
30 sec
Q.
A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
220
30 sec
Q.
Runways 18 and 36 have displaced thresholds. What do the three arrows represent between the beginning of the runway and displaced threshold?
221
30 sec
Q.
To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be
222
30 sec
Q.
The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the
223
30 sec
Q.
What is density altitude?
224
30 sec
Q.
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
225
30 sec
Q.
What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?
226
30 sec
Q.
The airspeed indicator has various color markings. The green arc is:
227
30 sec
Q.
Which color on an airspeed indicator identifies the normal flap operating range?
228
30 sec
Q.
The pitot-static system drives the:
229
30 sec
Q.
Which instrument is affected if the pitot tube is blocked?
230
30 sec
Q.
Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?
231
30 sec
Q.
Maximum structural cruising speed is abbreviated as:
232
30 sec
Q.
Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?
233
30 sec
Q.
Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?
234
30 sec
Q.
The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air is
235
30 sec
Q.
What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?
236
30 sec
Q.
What is the caution range of the airplane?
237
30 sec
Q.
VSO is defined as the
238
30 sec
Q.
Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?
239
30 sec
Q.
Altimeter 2 indicates
240
30 sec
Q.
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?
241
30 sec
Q.
Altimeter 1 indicates
242
30 sec
Q.
Altimeter 3 indicates
243
30 sec
Q.
If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?
244
30 sec
Q.
If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?
245
30 sec
Q.
Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
246
30 sec
Q.
Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates
247
30 sec
Q.
Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?
248
30 sec
Q.
A turn coordinator provides an indication of the
249
30 sec
Q.
Using a turn and slip indicator, how do you know that you are in a coordinated turn?
250
30 sec
Q.
The only instrument that provides an instantaneous, direct indication of the airplane’s pitch and bank attitude is the:
251
30 sec
Q.
The common heading indicator requires periodic adjustment. It is important to check its indications frequently against the:
252
30 sec
Q.
Which gyroscopic instrument is the foundation for all instrument flight?
253
30 sec
Q.
The only north seeking instrument in a typical training airplane is:
254
30 sec
Q.
What is the action of the airplane if the ball of the inclinometer moves to the right of center during a left turn?
255
30 sec
Q.
What is the action of the airplane if the ball of the inclinometer moves to the left of center during a left turn?
256
30 sec
Q.
An aircraft equipped with advanced avionics and electronic flight instruments (glass cockpit) can:
257
30 sec
Q.
What steps must be taken when flying with electronic flight instruments (glass cockpit) to ensure safe flight?
258
30 sec
Q.
What is one of the benefits for pilots flying an airplane with electronic flight instruments and moving map navigation (glass cockpit)?
259
30 sec
Q.
What instrument is affected in a glass cockpit airplane when the Air Data Computer (ADC) fails?
260
30 sec
Q.
What benefit does a digital attitude indicator provide?
261
30 sec
Q.
On a turn from south:
262
30 sec
Q.
During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?
263
30 sec
Q.
At the beginning of a turn from a northerly heading:
264
30 sec
Q.
On a turn from a northerly heading the compass will:
265
30 sec
Q.
The magnetic compass:
266
30 sec
Q.
Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the
267
30 sec
Q.
Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by
268
30 sec
Q.
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if
269
30 sec
Q.
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is
270
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
271
30 sec
Q.
In straight-and-level flight, if thrust exceeds drag then:
272
30 sec
Q.
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?
273
30 sec
Q.
In slow flight, prior to a stalled condition:
274
30 sec
Q.
Extending the flaps:
275
30 sec
Q.
A turn coordinator provides an indication of the:
276
30 sec
Q.
Using a turn and slip indicator, how do you know that you are in a coordinated turn?
277
30 sec
Q.
Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?
278
30 sec
Q.
What force makes an airplane turn?
279
30 sec
Q.
What are the three axes of rotation for an airplane?
280
30 sec
Q.
When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
281
30 sec
Q.
The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the:
282
30 sec
Q.
Parasite drag increases when airspeed is:
283
30 sec
Q.
Induced drag increases when airspeed is:
284
30 sec
Q.
What is parasite drag?
285
30 sec
Q.
Which statement is most correct regarding form drag?
286
30 sec
Q.
Skin friction drag can be somewhat reduced by:
287
30 sec
Q.
Induced drag increases with:
288
30 sec
Q.
Drag is produced by:
289
30 sec
Q.
Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?
290
30 sec
Q.
The use of flaps in slow flight:
291
30 sec
Q.
If you land without the use of flaps, the approach will be:
292
30 sec
Q.
During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?
293
30 sec
Q.
An airplane said to be inherently stable will
294
30 sec
Q.
Which color identifies the power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration?
295
30 sec
Q.
In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
296
30 sec
Q.
Minimum controllable airspeed is defined as any further increase in angle of attack will cause:
297
30 sec
Q.
Extending the flaps:
298
30 sec
Q.
A stall occurs when:
299
30 sec
Q.
Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.
300
30 sec
Q.
In steady unaccelerated flight:
301
30 sec
Q.
Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?
302
30 sec
Q.
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?
303
30 sec
Q.
As the airplane slows down in flight, the angle of attack must be:
304
30 sec
Q.
The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of:
305
30 sec
Q.
The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are
306
30 sec
Q.
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
307
30 sec
Q.
The pitot-static system drives the:
308
30 sec
Q.
A stall occurs when:
309
30 sec
Q.
A wing can be stalled:
310
30 sec
Q.
The use of flaps in slow flight:
311
30 sec
Q.
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
312
30 sec
Q.
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
313
30 sec
Q.
If an airplane is loaded with the CG forward of the allowable range:
314
30 sec
Q.
Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be:
315
30 sec
Q.
How is power controlled on an airplane equipped with a constant-speed propeller?
316
30 sec
Q.
The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to
317
30 sec
Q.
When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will
318
30 sec
Q.
If you don’t maintain a constant glide speed in attempting to land in an emergency:
319
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?
320
30 sec
Q.
The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?
321
30 sec
Q.
The pitot-static system drives the:
322
30 sec
Q.
A stall occurs when:
323
30 sec
Q.
A wing can be stalled:
324
30 sec
Q.
The use of flaps in slow flight:
325
30 sec
Q.
What is one purpose of wing flaps?
326
30 sec
Q.
To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the
327
30 sec
Q.
The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting
328
30 sec
Q.
What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?
329
30 sec
Q.
What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?
330
30 sec
Q.
Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?
331
30 sec
Q.
On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?
332
30 sec
Q.
The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as
333
30 sec
Q.
A constant-speed propeller is more efficient than other propellers because:
334
30 sec
Q.
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause
335
30 sec
Q.
Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will
336
30 sec
Q.
For a given power setting with a constant-speed, variable pitch propeller:
337
30 sec
Q.
A too rich mixture:
338
30 sec
Q.
While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?
339
30 sec
Q.
If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be
340
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of the airplane engine’s mixture control?
341
30 sec
Q.
With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be
342
30 sec
Q.
As you are climbing to your cruise altitude, you realize you forgot to lean the mixture control. What happens to fuel/air mixture entering the engine?
343
30 sec
Q.
The air/fuel ratio (AFR) is the measurement of:
344
30 sec
Q.
Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to
345
30 sec
Q.
The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to
346
30 sec
Q.
Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?
347
30 sec
Q.
During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?
348
30 sec
Q.
Most of the heat caused by internal combustion is eliminated via:
349
30 sec
Q.
You have been running an excessively rich mixture for some time now. As a result:
350
30 sec
Q.
Why do most standard certificated aircraft incorporate a dual ignition system with two individual magnetos, separate sets of wires, and spark plugs?
351
30 sec
Q.
Why are reciprocating engines preferred over other types for small aircraft.
352
30 sec
Q.
For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on
353
30 sec
Q.
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for
354
30 sec
Q.
The order of operation regarding the strokes of a typical four-stroke per cycle airplane engine is:
355
30 sec
Q.
When logging cross-country time for your private pilot certificate, you must
356
30 sec
Q.
In order to exercise the privileges of a private pilot, a pilot must have their private pilot certificate
357
30 sec
Q.
When does a third-class medical expire?
358
30 sec
Q.
To fly an airplane with retractable gear, a constant speed propeller, and flaps, a pilot needs a
359
30 sec
Q.
Pilots require a flight review every
360
30 sec
Q.
A pilot does not need a flight review if, in the required time, the pilot
361
30 sec
Q.
To legally carry passengers at night, a private pilot must fly and log
362
30 sec
Q.
To update their currency for landings and carry passengers, the pilot’s landings
363
30 sec
Q.
What are the repercussions if a pilot fails to notify the FAA of a change of address?
364
30 sec
Q.
Who must provide the aircraft for an FAA private pilot practical exam?
365
30 sec
Q.
What documents must be in the pilot’s personal possession or be readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
366
30 sec
Q.
If a pilot makes a false required entry in their logbook...
367
30 sec
Q.
To be eligible for a private pilot certificate in an airplane, a person must be at least
368
30 sec
Q.
A person applying for a private pilot certificate is required to know how to
369
30 sec
Q.
Solo student pilots are required to perform a one-day, solo, cross-country flight
370
30 sec
Q.
Which statement is true for private pilots?
371
30 sec
Q.
A student pilot passes their private pilot practical exam and receives a printed temporary certificate while awaiting their hard copy certificate in the mail. When does the temporary certificate expire?
372
30 sec
Q.
When does a private pilot certificate expire?
373
30 sec
Q.
When must a person have a third-class medical certificate or comply with BasicMed rules?
374
30 sec
Q.
When does a third-class medical certificate for a 27-year-old private pilot with 2,400 flight hours expire?
375
30 sec
Q.
In the event of an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command
376
30 sec
Q.
No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow
377
30 sec
Q.
When flying in the vicinity of other aircraft
378
30 sec
Q.
Which aircraft has the right of way over all others?
379
30 sec
Q.
When below 10,000 feet MSL, aircraft may not operate above an indicated airspeed of
380
30 sec
Q.
An aircraft’s airworthiness certificate must be
381
30 sec
Q.
Of the following equipment, which is required in every aircraft for day, VFR flight?
382
30 sec
Q.
Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs) must be
383
30 sec
Q.
Position lights on an aircraft are required to be operated
384
30 sec
Q.
Where is aerobatic flight permitted?
385
30 sec
Q.
Each occupant of an aircraft must be wearing a parachute if the pilot intentionally exceeds
386
30 sec
Q.
No person may operate an aircraft unless within the preceding 12 months the aircraft has had
387
30 sec
Q.
An aircraft flying in controlled airspace under VFR
388
30 sec
Q.
Prior to using an ATC transponder, the transponder
389
30 sec
Q.
When may an aircraft be operated with inoperative equipment?