The suffix 'nimbus,' used in naming clouds, means

Cold air generally contains:

A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?

What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level?

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?

Inland fog is most likely:

The layers of the atmosphere, beginning at the earth’s surface, are:

A nonfrontal, narrow band of active thunderstorms that often develop ahead of a cold front is a known as a

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when

Frost on the wing of an airplane:

Which is true with respect to a high - or low-pressure system?

What are characteristics of a moist, unstable air mass?

The variations of solar radiation on the Earth’s surface create:

What is the effect of a temperature increase from 25 to 50 °F on the density altitude if the pressure altitude remains at 5,000 feet?

At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82 °F and the dewpoint is 38 °F? (divide the difference between the temperature and dew point by 4.4 to determine the height of the cloud base)

Wind shear can be defined as:

What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?

Clouds are divided into four families according to their

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

A stable air mass is most likely to have which characteristic?

If you will be flying with cumulus clouds, you might expect:

The amount of water vapor which air can hold depends on the

You’re flying in an area of heavy rain with thunderstorms forecast ahead along your route. What is your best course of action?

One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

An almond or lens-shaped cloud which appears stationary, but which may contain winds of 50 knots or more, is referred to as

Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is that which is produced by

If an unstable air mass is forced upward, what type clouds can be expected?

Thunderstorms may contain:

Thunderstorms reach their greatest intensity during the

Possible mountain wave turbulence could be anticipated when winds of 40 knots or greater blow

While flying over mountainous terrain you see clouds with extensive vertical development. What does this indicate?

Every physical process of weather is accompanied by, or is the result of, a:

When requesting weather information for the following morning, a pilot should request

What are the types of preflight weather briefings?

The Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) is:

AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to

If you read in a METAR the symbols “SKC” and “OVC”, refer to:

You determine that your airplane is 90 pounds over maximum certified gross weight. How much fuel (AVGAS) must be drained to bring it within limits?

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be

An aircraft is loaded 110 pounds over maximum certificated gross weight. If fuel (gasoline) is drained to bring the aircraft weight within limits, how much fuel should be drained?

Modern aircraft are designed in a way that, when all seats are occupied, the baggage compartment is full, and all fuel tanks are full, the aircraft is:

An airplane has been loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit. One undesirable flight characteristic a pilot might experience with this airplane would be

If the loaded center of gravity is aft of the allowable range, pitch stability:

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°?

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

The FAA regulations have established specific cruising altitudes for VFR flights at more than 3,000 feet above the surface.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

If you measure your course on your sectional in reference to a meridian, that line is called a:

What should pilots state initially when telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information?

When speaking to a Flight Service weather briefer, you should state:

To get a complete weather briefing for the planned flight, the pilot should request

A TAF includes:

To obtain current information regarding cloud tops, icing, and turbulence check the:

Radar weather reports are of special interest to pilots because they indicate

When the term 'light and variable' is used in reference to a Winds Aloft Forecast, the coded group and windspeed is

On a TAF, the broken cloud layer written as, BKN250 indicates:

Which type weather briefing should a pilot request, when departing within the hour, if no preliminary weather information has been received?

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that

For aviation purposes, ceiling is defined as the height above the Earth's surface of the

Aviation Routine Weather reports (METARs) contain:

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A VOR test facility—VOT—transmits a:

How many GPS satellites are required to provide a three-dimensional position?

If your GPS receiver is equipped with WAAS—Wide Area Augmentation System—your position accuracy is:

How can a pilot use GPS altitude in flight?

A global positioning system will give your exact geographical position:

Which is true regarding the benefits of using GPS for navigation?

Which description below accurately describes the colors used for airports on a Sectional Chart?

Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts?

An airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the United States, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft is called:

When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace, ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?

Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has:

The issuance of a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) may include:

To fly in Class B airspace:

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the night visibility requirement for flight at 3,000 feet AGL, but below 10,000 feet MSL, is:

A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is

The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally

Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?

What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation?

The normal radius of the outer area of Class C airspace is

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level?

Uncontrolled airspace is Class G airspace. To operate in Class G airspace, the day visibility requirement for flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL is:

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include:

All operations within Class C airspace must be in an aircraft equipped with a 4096-code transponder with

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is

The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is:

The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?

The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace?

At a nontowered airport, what is the best way to proceed for departure?

How should you set the transponder after an engine failure in flight?

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°: "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's

TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the

The most complete and up-to-date information regarding an airport can be found in:

Inbound to an airport with no tower, FSS, or UNICOM in operation, a pilot should self-announce on MULTICOM frequency

If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code

An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090°: 'TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND...' Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs

When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace each pilot must make:

What should you do after landing at a non-towered airport?

As you approach your destination airport in Class B airspace after a long cross-country flight, you learn that the airport is unexpectedly closed. While diverting to an alternate airport, you calculate that you will land with just a few gallons of fuel in the tank. What should you tell ATC?

Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

The numbers 35 and 17 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:

The 'No Entry' sign identifies

What is the purpose of a taxiway ending marker?

What does a runway hold position sign indicate?

Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway?

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

The ground reference maneuver, rectangular course, represents:

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A runway VASI system provides:

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

What is wake turbulence?

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be

The proper adjustment to make on the attitude indicator during level flight is to align the

What is density altitude?

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

What is an important airspeed limitation that is not color coded on airspeed indicators?

The airspeed indicator has various color markings. The green arc is:

Which color on an airspeed indicator identifies the normal flap operating range?

The pitot-static system drives the:

Which instrument is affected if the pitot tube is blocked?

Which V-speed represents maximum flap extended speed?

Maximum structural cruising speed is abbreviated as:

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed?

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed?

What does the red line on an airspeed indicator represent?

VSO is defined as the

Which factor would tend to increase the density altitude at a given airport?

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

If a pilot changes the altimeter setting from 30.11 to 29.96, what is the approximate change in indication?

If it is necessary to set the altimeter from 29.15 to 29.85, what change occurs?

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

Altimeter setting is the value to which the barometric pressure scale of the altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A turn coordinator provides an indication of the

Using a turn and slip indicator, how do you know that you are in a coordinated turn?

The only instrument that provides an instantaneous, direct indication of the airplane’s pitch and bank attitude is the:

The common heading indicator requires periodic adjustment. It is important to check its indications frequently against the:

Which gyroscopic instrument is the foundation for all instrument flight?

The only north seeking instrument in a typical training airplane is:

What is the action of the airplane if the ball of the inclinometer moves to the right of center during a left turn?

What is the action of the airplane if the ball of the inclinometer moves to the left of center during a left turn?

An aircraft equipped with advanced avionics and electronic flight instruments (glass cockpit) can:

What steps must be taken when flying with electronic flight instruments (glass cockpit) to ensure safe flight?

What is one of the benefits for pilots flying an airplane with electronic flight instruments and moving map navigation (glass cockpit)?

What instrument is affected in a glass cockpit airplane when the Air Data Computer (ADC) fails?

What benefit does a digital attitude indicator provide?

On a turn from south:

During flight, when are the indications of a magnetic compass accurate?

At the beginning of a turn from a northerly heading:

On a turn from a northerly heading the compass will:

The magnetic compass:

Deviation in a magnetic compass is caused by the

Deviation error of the magnetic compass is caused by

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the north if

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

In straight-and-level flight, if thrust exceeds drag then:

When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

In slow flight, prior to a stalled condition:

Extending the flaps:

Using a turn and slip indicator, how do you know that you are in a coordinated turn?

Which basic flight maneuver increases the load factor on an airplane as compared to straight-and-level flight?

What force makes an airplane turn?

What are the three axes of rotation for an airplane?

When does P-factor cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

The left turning tendency of an airplane caused by P-factor is the result of the:

Parasite drag increases when airspeed is:

Induced drag increases when airspeed is:

What is parasite drag?

Which statement is most correct regarding form drag?

Skin friction drag can be somewhat reduced by:

Induced drag increases with:

Drag is produced by:

The use of flaps in slow flight:

If you land without the use of flaps, the approach will be:

During a spin to the left, which wing(s) is/are stalled?

An airplane said to be inherently stable will

In what flight condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

Minimum controllable airspeed is defined as any further increase in angle of attack will cause:

Extending the flaps:

A stall occurs when:

Select the four flight fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft.

In steady unaccelerated flight:

Which statement relates to Bernoulli's principle?

What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

As the airplane slows down in flight, the angle of attack must be:

The angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the relative wind is known as the angle of:

The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

The pitot-static system drives the:

A stall occurs when:

A wing can be stalled:

The use of flaps in slow flight:

What is one purpose of wing flaps?

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

If an airplane is loaded with the CG forward of the allowable range:

Loading an airplane to the most aft CG will cause the airplane to be:

How is power controlled on an airplane equipped with a constant-speed propeller?

The most important rule to remember in the event of a power failure after becoming airborne is to

When executing an emergency approach to land in a single-engine airplane, it is important to maintain a constant glide speed because variations in glide speed will

If you don’t maintain a constant glide speed in attempting to land in an emergency:

What is the purpose of the rudder on an airplane?

The pitot system provides impact pressure for which instrument?

The pitot-static system drives the:

A stall occurs when:

A wing can be stalled:

The use of flaps in slow flight:

What is one purpose of wing flaps?

To properly purge water from the fuel system of an aircraft equipped with fuel tank sumps and a fuel strainer quick drain, it is necessary to drain fuel from the

The presence of carburetor ice in an aircraft equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller can be verified by applying carburetor heat and noting

What action can a pilot take to aid in cooling an engine that is overheating during a climb?

What is an advantage of a constant-speed propeller?

Which would most likely cause the cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature gauges to exceed their normal operating ranges?

On aircraft equipped with fuel pumps, when is the auxiliary electric driven pump used?

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as

A constant-speed propeller is more efficient than other propellers because:

If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

Filling the fuel tanks after the last flight of the day is considered a good operating procedure because this will

For a given power setting with a constant-speed, variable pitch propeller:

A too rich mixture:

While cruising at 9,500 feet MSL, the fuel/air mixture is properly adjusted. What will occur if a descent to 4,500 feet MSL is made without readjusting the mixture?

If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

What is the purpose of the airplane engine’s mixture control?

With regard to carburetor ice, float-type carburetor systems in comparison to fuel injection systems are generally considered to be

As you are climbing to your cruise altitude, you realize you forgot to lean the mixture control. What happens to fuel/air mixture entering the engine?

The air/fuel ratio (AFR) is the measurement of:

Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture at altitude is to

Which condition is most favorable to the development of carburetor icing?

During the run-up at a high-elevation airport, a pilot notes a slight engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check but grows worse during the carburetor heat check. Under these circumstances, what would be the most logical initial action?

Most of the heat caused by internal combustion is eliminated via:

You have been running an excessively rich mixture for some time now. As a result:

Why do most standard certificated aircraft incorporate a dual ignition system with two individual magnetos, separate sets of wires, and spark plugs?

Why are reciprocating engines preferred over other types for small aircraft.

For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on

One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

The order of operation regarding the strokes of a typical four-stroke per cycle airplane engine is:

When logging cross-country time for your private pilot certificate, you must

In order to exercise the privileges of a private pilot, a pilot must have their private pilot certificate

When does a third-class medical expire?

To fly an airplane with retractable gear, a constant speed propeller, and flaps, a pilot needs a

Pilots require a flight review every

A pilot does not need a flight review if, in the required time, the pilot

To legally carry passengers at night, a private pilot must fly and log

To update their currency for landings and carry passengers, the pilot’s landings

What are the repercussions if a pilot fails to notify the FAA of a change of address?

Who must provide the aircraft for an FAA private pilot practical exam?

What documents must be in the pilot’s personal possession or be readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?

If a pilot makes a false required entry in their logbook...

To be eligible for a private pilot certificate in an airplane, a person must be at least

A person applying for a private pilot certificate is required to know how to

Solo student pilots are required to perform a one-day, solo, cross-country flight

Which statement is true for private pilots?

A student pilot passes their private pilot practical exam and receives a printed temporary certificate while awaiting their hard copy certificate in the mail. When does the temporary certificate expire?

When does a private pilot certificate expire?

When must a person have a third-class medical certificate or comply with BasicMed rules?

When does a third-class medical certificate for a 27-year-old private pilot with 2,400 flight hours expire?

In the event of an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command

No pilot in command of a civil aircraft may allow

When flying in the vicinity of other aircraft

Which aircraft has the right of way over all others?

When below 10,000 feet MSL, aircraft may not operate above an indicated airspeed of

An aircraft’s airworthiness certificate must be

Of the following equipment, which is required in every aircraft for day, VFR flight?

Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs) must be

Position lights on an aircraft are required to be operated

Where is aerobatic flight permitted?

Each occupant of an aircraft must be wearing a parachute if the pilot intentionally exceeds

No person may operate an aircraft unless within the preceding 12 months the aircraft has had

An aircraft flying in controlled airspace under VFR

Prior to using an ATC transponder, the transponder

When may an aircraft be operated with inoperative equipment?