1. The Americans were most surprised that the Somalis…

a. were well-prepared to fight back.

c. were willing to help the wounded Americans.

d. did not want the food and medicine being delivered to them.

b. were angry with the United Nations.

2. Some American soldiers died simply because…

b. they could not be extracted from the city quickly enough.

a. they had not been updated on the change of plans.

d. General Aidid was not where intelligence officers expected him to be.

c. the Malaysian troops did not speak fluent English.

4. Which sentence belongs in an objective summary of the article?

a. Operation Gothic Serpent was considered a failure due to the loss of lives.

c. The Americans should have never planned to remove General Aidid from power.

d. Three convoy vehicles left the convoy to rush the wounded soldier back to base.

b. 99 U.S. troops were temporarily trapped in the city.

5. Which two statements below are central ideas of the article?

a. In 1993, a planned 90-minute raid turned into a 15-hour major American battle in the African nation of Somalia.

c. Black Hawk helicopters were provided by the United Nations.

b. Somalia is located on the central eastern coast of Africa.

7. Which event first interrupted the mission plan?

d. A soldier was injured as he missed the rope and fell out of a helicopter.

a. The 12-vehicle convoy arrived.

c. Somalis executed a road block.

b. A Black Hawk helicopter was shot down by an RPG.

8. What is the relationship between the theft of UN food and medical supplies and the Battle of Mogadishu?

d. The reason the American troops were in Somalia was to deliver the aid to those who needed it.

b. The reason the American troops were in Somalia was to punish clan leaders who stole from the UN.

a. The theft of UN food and medical supplies created a power vacuum.

c. The theft of UN food and medical supplies led to the establishment of an American colony in Mogadishu.

13. What effect does the subsection Background have on the reader’s overall understanding of the Battle of Mogadishu?

b. The reader understands why Operation Gothic Serpent was planned.

c. The reader understands why General Aidid wanted control of Africa.

d. The reader understands how Operation Gothic Serpent went wrong.

a. The reader understands all of the terrible effects of the colonization of Africa.

14. Which of these sentences does the author include to show the reader that the physical presence of troops in Somalia was necessary at the time?

d. But at least 80% of the food and medicine sent to Somalia by the UN was hijacked by clan leaders and traded to other nations for weapons.

b. Leaders from four different clans, or groups, again started fighting for power in a civil war.

c. UN countries work together to try to prevent war and increase health, education, and safety globally.

a. Barre was overthrown in 1991, creating another power vacuum.

16. Based on the excerpt and the article, on which subject below do the authors disagree?

a. on the reason U.S. and other forces wanted to capture Aidid (Aideed)

c. on whether or not the U.S. should launch similar military operations in Syria

d. on the reason the movie “Black Hawk Down” was popular

b. on whether or not the Somalis were well-armed

17. Which assumption does the author of “Lost Lessons of Black Hawk Down” make about the reader that the author of “The Battle of Mogadishu” article does not?

b. The author of “Lost Lessons of Black Hawk Down” assumes that the reader already has background knowledge of the Battle of Mogadishu.

a. The author of “Lost Lessons of Black Hawk Down” assumes that the reader is not familiar with the geography of Somalia.

c. The author of “Lost Lessons of Black Hawk Down” assumes that the reader believes that Operation Gothic Serpent should have never been carried out.

d. The author of “Lost Lessons of Black Hawk Down” assumes that the reader believes that Operation Gothic Serpent was an overall success.

19. What is the author’s purpose for writing this article?

a. to describe the system and history of apartheid in South Africa

b. to inform readers of the reasons why European countries colonized Africa

d. to argue that Trevor Noah’s experiences under apartheid in South Africa were not typical

c. to persuade readers to take action against nonsensical apartheid laws in South Africa

20. Which statement below is the author of “Apartheid in South Africa” most likely to agree with?

b. Trevor Noah was not a true criminal, but in some cases the police were criminals.

a. Overall, European colonization benefited the citizens of South Africa.

c. South Africa’s independence was good for all of its citizens.

d. Segregated schools in South Africa were separate but equal.

22. How does the inclusion of photos from the apartheid era in the video clip impact the viewer’s understanding of apartheid?

b. The photos provide viewers with a better understanding of how non-whites suffered during apartheid.

c. The photos distract viewers from the real issues and problems of apartheid.

a. The photos provide viewers with expert perspectives on apartheid.

d. The photos help to explain how European colonization led to apartheid.

23. Which claim about apartheid is made by both the article and the video?

c. There was resistance to the laws of apartheid.

a. Education for non-whites was inferior in order to funnel them into menial labor.

d. Oliver Tambo was a leader who helped bring an eventual end to apartheid.

b. Apartheid was economically motivated, as a cheap work force was needed to work in the country’s gold mines.

25. The article “Apartheid in South Africa” provides sufficient evidence to support which of the following claims?

a. Physical separation between races was established under apartheid.

c. Under apartheid, people living in homelands were worse off than those living in townships.

d. Many whites married non-whites in secret.

b. Nelson Mandela was the best president South Africa has had yet to date.

26. Select three of the following details from the article that most strongly support the claim that you identified in the previous question.

d. Native Africans and white Europeans were not allowed to get married.

e. The Native African schools did not teach many important subjects like science and math.

a. They organized large protests, strikes, and boycotts of white-owned businesses.

c. Without political power, it was hard for Native Africans to try to improve their circumstances.

8.22 Test Prep | Quizalize

1. Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be dispensed or used near A. an open door. B. an open flame. C. another student. D. a sink. 2. If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately A. notify your instructor. B. run for the fire extinguisher. C. throw water on the fire. D. open the windows. 3. Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory A. to avoid eye strain. B. to improve your vision. C. only if you don’t have corrective glasses. D. any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used. 4. If you wear contact lenses in the school laboratory, A. take them out before starting the lab. B. you do not have to wear protective goggles. C. advise your science instructor that you wear contact lenses. D. keep the information to yourself. 5. If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should A. figure it out as you do the lab. B. try several methods until something works. C. ask the instructor before proceeding. D. skip it and go on to the next part. 6. After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be A. left at your lab station for the next class. B. disposed of according to your instructor’s directions. C. dumped in the sink. D. taken home. 7. If a lab experiment is not completed, you should A. discuss the issue with your instructor. B. sneak in after school and work alone. C. come in during lunch and finish while eating lunch. D. make up some results. 8. You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube A. toward yourself. B. toward your lab partner. C. toward another classmate. D. away from all people. Science Laboratory Safety teSt 9. You are heating a piece of glass and now want to pick it up. You should A. use a rag or paper towels. B. pick up the end that looks cooler. C. use tongs. D. pour cold water on it. 10. You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should A. visit the school nurse after class. B. see a doctor after school. C. tell the science instructor at once. D. apply first aid yourself. 11. When gathering glassware and equipment for an experiment, you should A. read all directions carefully to know what equipment is necessary. B. examine all glassware to check for chips or cracks. C. clean any glassware that appears dirty. D. All of the above. 12. You want to place a piece of glass tubing into a rubber stopper after the tubing has been fire polished and cooled. This is best done by A. lubricating the tubing with water or glycerin. B. using a towel or cotton gloves for protection. C. twisting the tubing and stopper carefully. D. all of the above. 13. Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as A. a face shield. B. safety glasses. C. splashproof chemical goggles. D. none of the above. 14. Long hair in the laboratory must be A. cut short. B. held away from the experiment with one hand. C. always neatly groomed. D. tied back or kept entirely out of the way with a hair band, hairpins, or other confining device. 15. In a laboratory, the following should not be worn. A. loose clothing. B. dangling jewelry. C. sandals. D. all of the above. 16. The following footwear is best in the laboratory. A. sandals B. open-toed shoes C. closed-toed shoes D. shoes appropriate for the weather3 © 2017 Flinn Scientific, Inc. All Rights Reserved. 17. Horseplay or practical jokes in the laboratory are A. always against the rules. B. okay. C. not dangerous. D. okay if you are working alone. 18. If a piece of equipment is not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell A. the custodian. B. your lab partner. C. your best friend in the class. D. the science instructor. 19. If an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with A. soap. B. oil. C. weak base. D. plenty of water. 20. When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always A. treat your hands with skin lotion. B. wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water. C. wipe your hands on a towel. D. wipe your hands on your clothes. True—False T F 22. ■ ■ Hot glass looks the same as cold glass. 23. ■ ■ All chemicals in the lab are to be considered dangerous. 24. ■ ■ Return all unused chemicals to their original containers. 25. ■ ■ Work areas should be kept clean and tidy. 26. ■ ■ Pipets are used to measure and dispense small amounts of liquids. You should draw the liquid into the pipet using your mouth. 27. ■ ■ Laboratory work can be started immediately upon entering the laboratory even if the instructor is not yet present. 28. ■ ■ Never remove chemicals or other equipment from the laboratory. T F 29. ■ ■ Chipped or cracked glassware is okay to use. 30. ■ ■ Read all procedures thoroughly before entering the laboratory. 31. ■ ■ All unauthorized experiments are prohibited. 32. ■ ■ You are allowed to enter the chemical preparation/storage area any time you need to get an item. 33. ■ ■ Laboratory aprons should be worn during all lab activities. 34. ■ ■ It’s okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands as long as the glass is placed in the trash. 35. ■ ■ Never leave a lit burner unattended. 21. Draw a diagram of your science room and label the locations of the following: ■ Fire Blanket ■ Fire Extinguisher(s) ■ Exits ■ Eyewash Station ■ Emergency Shower ■ Closest Fire Alarm Station ■ Waste Disposal Container(s)4 © 2017 Flinn Scientific, Inc. All Rights Reserved. Name: ________________________________________________ Date: ______________________________________________ 1. Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be dispensed or used near A. an open door. B. an open flame. C. another student. D. a sink. 2. If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately A. notify your instructor. B. run for the fire extinguisher. C. throw water on the fire. D. open the windows. 3. Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory A. to avoid eye strain. B. to improve your vision. C. only if you don’t have corrective glasses. D. any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used. 4. If you wear contact lenses in the school laboratory, A. take them out before starting the lab. B. you do not have to wear protective goggles. C. advise your science instructor that you wear contact lenses. D. keep the information to yourself. 5. If you do not understand a direction or part of a lab procedure, you should A. figure it out as you do the lab. B. try several methods until something works. C. ask the instructor before proceeding. D. skip it and go on to the next part. 6. After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be A. left at your lab station for the next class. B. disposed of according to your instructor’s directions. C. dumped in the sink. D. taken home. 7. If a lab experiment is not completed, you should A. discuss the issue with your instructor. B. sneak in after school and work alone. C. come in during lunch and finish while eating lunch. D. make up some results. 8. You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube A. toward yourself. B. toward your lab partner. C. toward another classmate. D. away from all people. Science Laboratory Safety teSt 9. You are heating a piece of glass and now want to pick it up. You should A. use a rag or paper towels. B. pick up the end that looks cooler. C. use tongs. D. pour cold water on it. 10. You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should A. visit the school nurse after class. B. see a doctor after school. C. tell the science instructor at once. D. apply first aid yourself. 11. When gathering glassware and equipment for an experiment, you should A. read all directions carefully to know what equipment is necessary. B. examine all glassware to check for chips or cracks. C. clean any glassware that appears dirty. D. All of the above. 12. You want to place a piece of glass tubing into a rubber stopper after the tubing has been fire polished and cooled. This is best done by A. lubricating the tubing with water or glycerin. B. using a towel or cotton gloves for protection. C. twisting the tubing and stopper carefully. D. all of the above. 13. Personal eyeglasses provide as much protection as A. a face shield. B. safety glasses. C. splashproof chemical goggles. D. none of the above. 14. Long hair in the laboratory must be A. cut short. B. held away from the experiment with one hand. C. always neatly groomed. D. tied back or kept entirely out of the way with a hair band, hairpins, or other confining device. 15. In a laboratory, the following should not be worn. A. loose clothing. B. dangling jewelry. C. sandals. D. all of the above. 16. The following footwear is best in the laboratory. A. sandals B. open-toed shoes C. closed-toed shoes D. shoes appropriate for the weather5 © 2017 Flinn Scientific, Inc. All Rights Reserved. 17. Horseplay or practical jokes in the laboratory are A. always against the rules. B. okay. C. not dangerous. D. okay if you are working alone. 18. If a piece of equipment is not working properly, stop, turn it off, and tell A. the custodian. B. your lab partner. C. your best friend in the class. D. the science instructor. 19. If an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with A. soap. B. oil. C. weak base. D. plenty of water. 20. When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always A. treat your hands with skin lotion. B. wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water. C. wipe your hands on a towel. D. wipe your hands on your clothes. 21. Draw a diagram of your science room and label the locations of the following: ■ Fire Blanket ■ Fire Extinguisher(s) ■ Exits ■ Eyewash Station ■ Emergency Shower ■ Closest Fire Alarm Station ■ Waste Disposal Container(s) True—False T F 22. ■ ■ Hot glass looks the same as cold glass. 23. ■ ■ All chemicals in the lab are to be considered dangerous. 24. ■ ■ Return all unused chemicals to their original containers. 25. ■ ■ Work areas should be kept clean and tidy. 26. ■ ■ Pipets are used to measure and dispense small amounts of liquids. You should draw the liquid into the pipet using your mouth. 27. ■ ■ Laboratory work can be started immediately upon entering the laboratory even if the instructor is not yet present. 28. ■ ■ Never remove chemicals or other equipment from the laboratory. T F 29. ■ ■ Chipped or cracked glassware is okay to use. 30. ■ ■ Read all procedures thoroughly before entering the laboratory. 31. ■ ■ All unauthorized experiments are prohibited. 32. ■ ■ You are allowed to enter the chemical preparation/storage area any time you need to get an item. 33. ■ ■ Laboratory aprons should be worn during all lab activities. 34. ■ ■ It’s okay to pick up broken glass with your bare hands as long as the glass is placed in the trash. 35. ■ ■ Never leave a lit burner unattended.

ITSM.22.8.9-Final.Test

Chapter 22 Antihypertensive Drugs Hypertension Defined (JNC-8) Pharmacology Overview 7 main categories of drugs to treat HTN Adrenergic drugs (old friend) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) Diuretics Vasodilators Direct renin inhibitors A. Adrenergic Drugs: 5 Subcategories and where they act A1. Adrenergic neuron blockers (central and peripheral)- we won’t talk about this A2. Alpha1 receptor blockers (peripheral) A3. Alpha2 receptor agonists (central) A4. Beta receptor blockers (peripheral) A5. Combined α and β receptor blockers (peripheral) A2. Peripherally Acting Adrenergic DrugAlpha1 Blockers (we’ve met these) Doxazosin, prazosin, alfuzosin Block alpha1-receptors which causes BP to decrease Reduces peripheral vascular resistance and BP by dilating both arterial and venous blood vessels Main Use: benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) Alpha1 Blockers REMEMBER Tamsulosin (Flomax)* is an α1 blocker BUT *Tamsulosin is not used to control BP, just for BPH. A3. Centrally Acting Adrenergic DrugsAlpha 2 agonist Clonidine and methyldopa 1- Stimulate alpha2-adrenergic receptors. in the brain Decreases sympathetic outflow from the CNS which decreases NE production 2. Stimulate alpha2-adrenergic receptors in kidneys remember alpha 2 opposes alpha 1 Dilates peripheral blood vessels → lowers peripheral resistance → Results in decreased BP So ….Clonidine (Catapres) Used primarily for its ability to decrease blood pressure in an urgent setting Also use in opioid withdrawal as previously discussed Oral (multiple times a day), and topical patch formulations Do not stop abruptly as it may lead to rebound hypertension In reality, Clonidine and methyldopa Not prescribed as first-line home antiHTN drugs High incidence of unwanted adverse effects: orthostatic hypotension, fatigue, and dizziness MIGHT be uses as adjunct drugs after other drugs have failed, in conjunction with other antiHTN such as diuretics A4. Adrenergic Drugs Selective Beta 1 Blockers Metoprolol, Atenolol Reduction of HR through β1 receptor blockade (remember adrenergic blocking of this receptor???) HR results in BP Cause reduced secretion of renin = BP A4. Adrenergic Drugs Selective Beta1 Blockers Nebivolol (Bystolic) Uses: hypertension and HF Action: blocks β1 receptors and produces vasodilatation, which results in a decrease in SVR High doses loses selectivity and blocks both β1 and β2 Less sexual dysfunction All BB- Do not stop abruptly; must be tapered over 1 to 2 weeks A4. Adrenergic Drugs NONSelective Beta Blockers Propranolol Acts equally on β1 and β2 Other uses include situational anxiety associated with public speaking, test taking As mentioned on previous slide, nebivolol at high doses becomes beta nonselective A5. Dual-Action Adrenergic Drugs α1 and β Receptor Blockers Dual antihypertensive effects of reduction in heart rate (beta1 receptor blockade) and vasodilation (alpha1 receptor blockade) Examples are carvedilol (common) and labetalol (not as common) A5. Dual-Action Adrenergic Drugs α1 and β Receptor Blockers Carvedilol (Coreg) Widely used drug that is well tolerated Uses: HTN, mild to moderate HF in conjunction with digoxin, diuretics, and ACE inhibitors Contraindications: severe bradycardia or unstable HF, bronchospastic conditions such as asthma, and various cardiac conduction problems Adrenergic Drugs Indications - HTN But also for Glaucoma (topical) BPH: doxazosin, prazosin, and terazosin (2 for 1) Management of severe HF when used with cardiac glycosides and diuretics Contraindications Acute HF- have to stabilize first MOAIs- yeah doesn’t everything interact with MAOIs? Peptic ulcers Severe liver/kidney disease Asthma (with beta blockers) Adrenergic Drugs: Adverse Effects Orthostatic hypotension 1st-dose syncope Rebound hypertension with abrupt discontinuation Most common: Dry mouth, drowsiness, constipation, sedation Interactions- always check for specific drug interactions Can cause additive CNS depression with alcohol, benzodiazepines, opioids Question #1 When administering an alpha-adrenergic drug for hypertension, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of what response? Hypotension Hyperkalemia Oliguria Respiratory distress Answer A Hypotension This is a key point in patient education These drugs have strong vasodilating properties and may cause severe hypotension, especially at the beginning of therapy. B. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitorsaka ACE Inhibitors or ACEi Large group of safe and effective drugs Currently are 10 ACEi Often used as first-line drugs for HF and hypertension May be combined with a thiazide diuretic, loop diuretic, or Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB) You need to understand the basics ACE Inhibitors: Review RAAS ACE converts angiotensin I, formed through the action of renin, to angiotensin II Angiotensin 2 is a potent vasoconstrictor and also induces aldosterone secretion by the adrenal glands Aldosterone stimulates sodium resorption (H20 follows Na Both act to raise BP which causes kidneys to reduce renin production ACEi= Great drug to treat HTN BUT contraindicated in pregnancy (2nd,3rd trimester due to fetal renal damage) and breastfeeding first few weeks after birth B. ACE Inhibitors - PRIL Lisinopril (Prinivil) super common, often the 1st drug Enalapril (Vasotec) also common Captopril (Capoten) great if liver disease present Benazepril (Lotensin) Fosinopril (Monopril) Perindopril (Aceon) Quinapril (Accupril) Ramipril (Altace) Trandolapril (Mavik) Primary Effects of the ACE Inhibitors Prevent Na (and H2O) resorption by inhibiting aldosterone secretion (volume reduction) (GO BACK TO RAAS DIAGRAM) blood volume decreases work of the heart preload, or the left ventricular end-diastolic volume which is important in HF ACE SUMMARY OF ACTIVITY 1) Prevent vasoconstriction caused by angiotensin 2 (2) Prevent aldosterone secretion  less sodium and water resorption Cardioprotective Effects of ACEi They slow progression of left ventricular hypertrophy (ventricular remodeling) after MI so considered cardioprotective ACE inhibitors have been shown to decrease morbidity and mortality in patients with HF Renal Protective Effects of ACEi ACE inhibitors: reduce glomerular filtration pressure by volume reduction Cardiovascular drug of choice for patients with diabetes since it helps protect kidneys by reducing pressure. Sometimes used low dose for kidney protection with DM without HTN B. ACEi Enalapril (Vasotec) Only ACEi available in both oral and IV Enalapril IV does not require cardiac monitoring Oral enalapril: prodrug (metabolized in liver) Improves patient’s chances of survival after an MI Reduces the incidence of HF B. ACEi Captopril (Capoten) Uses: prevention of ventricular remodeling after MI; reduce the risk of HF after MI Shortest half-life Must be administered multiple times throughout the day so this limits its use Not a prodrug so good for patient with liver disease Question #2 A patient with diabetes has a new prescription for the ACE inhibitor lisinopril. She questions this order because her provider has never told her that she has hypertension. What is the best explanation for this order? The doctor knows best The patient is confused This medication has cardioprotective properties This medication has a protective effect on the kidneys for patients with diabetes Answer D ACE inhibitors have been shown to have a protective effect on the kidneys because they reduce glomerular filtration pressure. This property makes them the cardiovascular drug of choice for patients with diabetes. Question #3 A patient with a history of pancreatitis and cirrhosis is also being treated for hypertension. Which drug will most likely be ordered for this patient? Clonidine Prazosin Diltiazem Captopril Answer D Captopril Captopril is not a prodrug; therefore, it does not need to be metabolized by the liver to be effective. This is an advantage in patients with liver disease. ACE Inhibitors: Adverse Effects *Dry, nonproductive cough, which reverses when therapy is stopped. This is a class effect Dizziness- Note: First-dose hypotensive effect may occur Headache & Fatigue Possible hyperkalemia ** Angioedema: rare but potentially fatal Not safe in pregnancy-are contraindicated during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy because of increased risk of fetal renal damage C. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers(ARB) Considered an alternative to ACEi Less likely to cause a dry cough and hyper K+ that is common with ACE inhibitors Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: Mechanism of Action Go back to RAAS diagram! ARBs affect primarily 2 places 1. Vascular smooth muscle - blocks vasoconstriction 2. Adrenal gland -Selectively blocks the binding of Ang 2 to certain Ang 2 receptors inhibiting secretion of aldosterone Lowers volume retention and BP Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers -ARTAN Losartan (Cozaar)- very common Eprosartan (Teveten) Valsartan (Diovan) Irbesartan (Avapro) Candesartan (Atacand) Olmesartan (Benicar) Telmisartan (Micardis) Azilsartan (Edarbi) C. ARB Losartan (Cozaar) Beneficial in patients with HTN and HF Used with caution in patients with kidney or liver dysfunction and in patients with renal artery stenosis ***Not safe for breastfeeding women and should not be used in pregnancy (Cat C 1st trimester, Cat D 2nd-3rd trimester), potential fetal toxicity Appear to be equally effective for the treatment of hypertension and well tolerated ARBs less likely to cause cough and hyperK+ but can still happen Evidence that ARBs are associated with lower mortality after MI than ACE inhibitors Never take ACEi and ARBs at the same time* 5. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB) Primary use: HTN, angina, some dysrhythmias Cause smooth muscle relaxation by blocking the binding of calcium to its receptors, preventing muscle contraction Results in: Relaxed blood vessels to the heart Decreased peripheral smooth muscle tone Decreased SVResistance Decreased BP E. Diuretics First-line antiHTN in JNC 8 guidelines Decreases fluid volume The results from diuresis: preload, Peripheral resistance Overall effect  Decreased workload of the heart and decreased BP Thiazide diuretics are the most commonly used diuretics for HTN Ie hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), chlorthalidone We will discuss diuretics further in the chapter on diuretics F. Vasodilators Directly relax arterial or venous smooth muscle (or both) Results in: Decreased SVR Decreased afterload Peripheral vasodilation Indicated for treatment of HTN May be used in combination with other drugs F. Vasodilators Hydralazine (Apresoline) Orally: routine cases of essential hypertension Injectable: hypertensive emergencies BiDil: specifically indicated as an adjunct for treatment of HF in African-American patients F. Vasodilators Sodium Nitroprusside (Nitropress) *Sodium nitroprusside and IV diazoxide are reserved for the management of hypertensive emergencies. Contraindications: severe HF, known inadequate cerebral perfusion (especially during neurosurgical procedures) F. Vasodilators Adverse Effects Hydralazine: dizziness, headache, tachycardia, edema, dyspnea, N/V/D, vitamin B6 deficiency, rash Sodium nitroprusside: hypotension, bradycardia, decreased platelet aggregation, rash G. Direct Renin Inhibitors Aliskirin (Tekturna) Blocks the RAS pathway at the point of activation. Inhibiting renin production prevents the downstream production of Ang II (potent vasoconstrictor) Adverse effects: N/V, severe hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia… Contraindicated in patients with DM taking ACEi or ARB Miscellaneous Antihypertensives Eplerenone (Inspra) Newer class of drugs called selective aldosterone blockers (remember RAAS?) Reduces BP by blocking the actions of aldosterone at its corresponding receptors in the kidney, heart, blood vessels, and brain Indications: routine treatment of hypertension and for post-MI HF Contraindicated if serum potassium levels are high (above 5.6 mEq/L) A Special Form of HTNTreatment of Pulmonary Hypertension Sildenafil and Tadalafil Commonly used for erectile dysfunction Used for pulmonary hypertension but with different trade names Sildenafil: Revatio* (Viagra for ED) Tadalafil: Adcirca* (Cialis for ED)

Make a multiple choice test with the follwo1. Causation 13. Abetting 25. Restitution 2. Direct Evidence 14. Private Law 26. Writ of Summons 3. Automatism 15. Prejudice 27. Actus Reus 4. Self-Defense 16. Contributory Negligence 28. Net Family Property 5. Reasonable Limits Clause 17. Duress 29. Poisoned Environment 6. Standard of Care 18. Circumstantial Evidence 30. Mediation 7. Habeus Corpus 19.. Public Law 31. Act 8. Oakes Test 20. Accessory After the Fact 32. Prima Facie 9. Pecuniary 21. Hybrid Offence 33. Opinion Evidence 10. Mens Rea 22. Aiding 34. Indictable Offence 11. Marriage Breakdown 23. Manslaughter 35.Unintentional Discrimination 12. Crown 24. Empanellinging terms:

Instructions: Please answer the following questions to test your understanding of aptitudes and interests. 1. What are Core Drivers (Talents) in the context of aptitudes and interests? a) Abilities that are developed through education b) Natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment c) Interests that change over time d) Personality traits 2. Determine how effective and satisfied you'll be doing a particular kind of work. a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Spatial Visualization d) Sequential Reasoning 3. Which Core Driver is associated with the knack for organizing things in a sequential and systematic manner? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Spatial Visualization d) Sequential Reasoning 4. What is the primary role of Space Planners in careers? a) They are responsible for interior design b) They read maps and blueprints c) They generate creative ideas d) They manage financial accounts 5. Which Core Driver relates to the ability to mentally translate two-dimensional images into three-dimensions? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Spatial Visualization d) Sequential Reasoning 6. What type of individuals are known as 3D Visualizers? a) Those who excel in visual art b) People who can quickly process numerical data c) Individuals who can mentally create 3D models from 2D representations d) Creative writers 7. How do Brainstormers differ from Concentrated & Focused individuals in terms of generating ideas? a) Brainstormers generate more ideas b) Concentrated & Focused individuals generate more ideas c) They generate ideas at the same rate d) Both groups struggle to generate ideas 8. What is the primary advantage of having high Visual Comparison Speed? a) It helps in artistic endeavors b) It is useful in complex mathematical problems c) It aids in tasks requiring clerical detail and accuracy d) It enhances spatial visualization 9. Which career is NOT associated with the Core Driver: Visual Comparison Speed? a) Fire Inspector b) Astronomer c) Creative Writer d) Orthoptist 10. What is the main focus of Numerical Reasoning? a) Identifying numerical patterns and trends b) Analyzing historical data c) Solving abstract problems d) Communicating effectively 11. Which Core Driver involves the ability to rapidly draw conclusions from seemingly unrelated pieces of information? a) Numerical Reasoning b) Idea Generation c) Spatial Visualization d) Inductive Reasoning 12. What is the primary characteristic of Diagnostic Problem Solvers? a) They follow a logical step-by-step method of problem-solving b) They rely on specific information and observed experience c) They intuitively leap to conclusions based on limited information d) They are meticulous and deliberate in decision-making 13. What is the role of Fact Checkers in the problem-solving process? a) They intuitively provide solutions b) They rely on specific information and observed experience c) They enjoy acquiring new information and learning d) They make conclusions based on limited facts 14. In what type of role are Abstract Thinkers most comfortable? a) Counseling b) Law c) Marketing d) Construction 15. How can understanding your Core Drivers benefit collaborative work? a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectively b) It creates conflicts within the team c) It doesn't affect collaborative work d) It makes collaboration more challenging 16. Which Core Driver is associated with processing complex mathematical problems logically? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Sequential Reasoning d) Idea Generation 17. What are Collaborative Planners more likely to do in a team project? a) Lead the team b) Create individual pieces of a project c) Solve abstract problems d) Generate creative ideas 18. How can understanding your aptitudes and interests help you make informed career choices? a) It guarantees job satisfaction b) It allows you to align your career with your strengths c) It helps you choose any career at random d) It has no impact on career decisions 19. Which Core Driver affects whether your thoughts go in several directions at once or follow single ideas more readily? a) Visual Comparison Speed b) Numerical Reasoning c) Idea Generation d) Inductive Reasoning 20. What is the primary characteristic of Idea Contributors? a) They generate creative ideas b) They discuss the big picture and next steps c) They are highly focused and detailed d) They follow a logical step-by-step approach 21. What is the role of Space Planners in the problem-solving process? a) They intuitively provide solutions b) They rely on specific information and observed experience c) They quickly organize information d) They create abstract plans 22. Which Core Driver is linked to the ability to see relationships in seemingly unrelated pieces of information? a) Spatial Visualization b) Inductive Reasoning c) Idea Generation d) Visual Comparison Speed 23. Which career is NOT associated with the Core Driver: Numerical Reasoning? a) Statistician b) Survey Researcher c) Chef d) Actuary 24. What are Core Drivers, and why are they important in the context of aptitudes and interests? a) They are educational qualifications b) They are interests that change over time c) They are natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment d) They are personality traits 25. How can understanding your Core Drivers benefit collaborative work? a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectively b) It creates conflicts within the team c) It doesn't affect collaborative work d) It makes collaboration more challenging Answers: b) Natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment a) Visual Comparison Speed d) Sequential Reasoning b) They read maps and blueprints c) Spatial Visualization c) Individuals who can mentally create 3D models from 2D representations a) Brainstormers generate more ideas c) It aids in tasks requiring clerical detail and accuracy c) Creative Writer a) Identifying numerical patterns and trends d) Inductive Reasoning c) They intuitively leap to conclusions based on limited information b) They rely on specific information and observed experience b) Law a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectively b) Numerical Reasoning b) Create individual pieces of a project b) It allows you to align your career with your strengths c) Idea Generation b) They discuss the big picture and next steps c) They quickly organize information b) Inductive Reasoning c) Chef c) They are natural gifts that predict job effectiveness and contentment a) It allows individuals with similar aptitudes to work together more effectively

Generate all of these 25 questions Part A: Each correct answer is worth 5. 1. The regular pentagon shown has a side length of 2 cm. The perimeter of the pentagon is (A) 2 cm (B) 4 cm (C) 6 cm (D) 8 cm (E) 10 cm 2 cm 2. The faces of a cube are labelled with 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 dots. Three of the faces are shown. What is the total number of dots on the other three faces? (A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 10 (D) 12 (E) 15 3. The equation that best represents \a number increased by _ve equals 15" is (A) n 􀀀 5 = 15 (B) n _ 5 = 15 (C) n + 5 = 15 (D) n + 15 = 5 (E) n _ 5 = 15 4. The line graph shows the number of bobbleheads sold at a store each year. The sale of bobbleheads increased the most between (A) 2016 and 2017 (B) 2017 and 2018 (C) 2018 and 2019 (D) 2019 and 2020 (E) 2020 and 2021 Number of 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020 Year Sale of Bobbleheads 2021 Bobbleheads 20 40 60 80 5. Starting at 72, Aryana counts down by 11s: 72; 61; 50; : : : . What is the last number greater than 0 that Aryana will count? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 6. In the diagram, \ABC = 90_. The value of x is (A) 68 (B) 23 (C) 56 (D) 28 (E) 26 Day of the Week 44° x° A B C x° 7. Which of the following values is closest to zero? (A) 􀀀1 (B) 5 4 (C) 12 (D) 􀀀4 5 (E) 0:9 Grade 8 8. A jar contains 267 quarters. One quarter is worth $0.25. How many quarters must be added to the jar so that the total value of the quarters is $100.00? (A) 33 (B) 53 (C) 103 (D) 133 (E) 153 9. A package of 8 greeting cards comes with 10 envelopes. Kirra has 7 cards but no envelopes. What is the smallest number of packages that Kirra needs to buy to have more envelopes than cards? (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7 10. For the points in the diagram, which statement is true? (A) e > c (B) b < d (C) f > b (D) a < e (E) a > c y x (e, f ) (a, b) (c, d ) Part B: Each correct answer is worth 6. 11. The 26 letters of the English alphabet are listed in an in_nite, repeating loop: ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXY ZABC : : : What is the 258th letter in this sequence? (A) V (B) W (C) X (D) Y (E) Z 12. A public holiday is always celebrated on the third Wednesday of a certain month. In that month, the holiday cannot occur on which of the following days? (A) 16th (B) 22nd (C) 18th (D) 19th (E) 21st 13. A circular spinner is divided into three sections. An arrow is attached to the centre of the spinner. The arrow is spun once. The probability that the arrow stops on the largest section is 50%. The probability it stops on the next largest section is 1 in 3. The probability it stops on the smallest section is (A) 1 4 (B) 2 5 (C) 1 6 (D) 2 7 (E) 3 10 14. A positive number is divisible by both 3 and 4. The tens digit is greater than the ones digit. How many positive two-digit numbers have this property? (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7 (E) 8 15. A rectangular pool measures 20 m by 8 m. There is a 1 m wide walkway around the outside of the pool, as shown by the shaded region. The area of the walkway is (A) 56 m2 (B) 60 m2 (C) 29 m2 (D) 52 m2 (E) 50 m2 20 m 8 m 1 m Grade 8 16. The results of asking 50 students if they participate in music or sports are shown in the Venn diagram. What percentage of the 50 students do not participate in music and do not participate in sports? (A) 0% (B) 80% (C) 20% (D) 70% (E) 40% Music Sports 15 5 20 17. There are 2 3 as many golf balls in Bin F as in Bin G. If there are a total of 150 golf balls, how many fewer golf balls are in Bin F than in Bin G? (A) 15 (B) 30 (C) 50 (D) 60 (E) 90 18. In the sequence shown, Figure 1 is formed using 7 squares. Each _gure after Figure 1 has 5 more squares than the previous _gure. What _gure has 2022 squares? (A) Figure 400 (B) Figure 402 (C) Figure 404 (D) Figure 406 (E) Figure 408 Figure 1 Figure 2 Figure 3 19. Mateo's 300 km trip from Edmonton to Calgary passed through Red Deer. Mateo started in Edmonton at 7 a.m. and drove until stopping for a 40 minute break in Red Deer. Mateo arrived in Calgary at 11 a.m. Not including the break, what was his average speed for the trip? (A) 83 km/h (B) 94 km/h (C) 90 km/h (D) 95 km/h (E) 64 km/h 20. Equilateral triangle ABC has sides of length 4. The midpoint of BC is D, and the midpoint of AD is E. The value of EC2 is (A) 7 (B) 6 (C) 6:25 (D) 8 (E) 10 Part C: Each correct answer is worth 8. 21. The positive factors of 6 are 1, 2, 3, and 6. There are two perfect squares less than 100 that have exactly _ve positive factors. What is the sum of these two perfect squares? (A) 177 (B) 80 (C) 145 (D) 52 (E) 97 22. In the list p; q; r; s; t; u; v, each letter represents a positive integer. The sum of the values of each group of three consecutive letters in the list is 35. If q + u = 15, then p + q + r + s + t + u + v is (A) 85 (B) 70 (C) 80 (D) 90 (E) 75 Grade 8 23. The net shown is folded to form a cube. An ant walks from face to face on the cube, visiting each face exactly once. For example, ABCFED and ABCEFD are two possible orders of faces the ant visits. If the ant starts at A, how many possible orders are there? (A) 24 (B) 48 (C) 32 (D) 30 (E) 40 A D B C E F 24. The number 385 is an example of a three-digit number for which one of the digits is the sum of the other two digits. How many numbers between 100 and 999 have this property? (A) 144 (B) 126 (C) 108 (D) 234 (E) 64 25. Student A, Student B, and Student C have been hired to help scientists develop a new avour of juice. There are 4200 samples to test. Each sample either contains blueberry or does not. Each student is asked to taste each sample and report whether or not they think it contains blueberry. Student A reports correctly on exactly 90% of the samples containing blueberry and reports correctly on exactly 88% of the samples that do not contain blueberry. The results for all three students are shown below. Student A Student B Student C Percentage correct on samples 90% 98% (2m)% containing blueberry Percentage correct on samples 88% 86% (4m)% not containing blueberry Student B reports 315 more samples as containing blueberry than Student A. For some positive integers m, the total number of samples that the three students report as containing blueberry is equal to a multiple of 5 between 8000 and 9000. The sum of all such values of m is (A) 45 (B) 36 (C) 24 (D) 27 (E) 29

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