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Q 1/87
Score 0
What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
30
user domain
collision domain
failure domain
broadcast domain
Q 2/87
Score 0
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
30
The failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
This is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
A single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
This is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
87 questions
Q.
What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
1
30 sec
Q.
A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
2
30 sec
Q.
What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
3
30 sec
Q.
What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?
4
30 sec
Q.
What i a requirement when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device?
5
30 sec
Q.
What i a requirement when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device?
6
30 sec
Q.
Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
7
30 sec
Q.
What is a characteristic of VTP?
8
45 sec
Q.
What is a characteristic of VTP?
9
45 sec
Q.
What is a characteristic of VTP?
10
45 sec
Q.
A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
11
45 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?
12
30 sec
Q.
The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
13
120 sec
Q.
The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
14
120 sec
Q.
Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. Which is a piece of information indicated from the exhibited output?
15
120 sec
Q.
Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. Which is a piece of information indicated from the exhibited output?
16
120 sec
Q.
What eliminates switching loops?
17
30 sec
Q.
A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?
18
30 sec
Q.
What is the value used to determine which port on a non-root bridge will become a root port in a STP network?
19
30 sec
Q.
Which switch will be elected the root bridge?
20
120 sec
Q.
Which switch will place a port in blocking mode?
21
120 sec
Q.
Which of these STP states was replaced with the RSTP discarding state?
22
30 sec
Q.
Which of these STP states was replaced with the RSTP discarding state?
23
30 sec
Q.
Which of these STP states was replaced with the RSTP discarding state?
24
30 sec
Q.
A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?
25
45 sec
Q.
As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
26
45 sec
Q.
Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?
27
45 sec
Q.
A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?
28
45 sec
Q.
A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?
29
120 sec
Q.
When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
30
45 sec
Q.
A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
31
45 sec
Q.
What is the term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address?
32
45 sec
Q.
What type of packets are sent when there is a change in the EIGRP topology?
33
45 sec
Q.
A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
34
120 sec
Q.
What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
35
30 sec
Q.
Which piece of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links?
36
45 sec
Q.
Which piece of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links?
37
45 sec
Q.
Which piece of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links?
38
45 sec
Q.
What indicates to a link-state router that a neighbor is unreachable?
39
45 sec
Q.
Which is a feature of EIGRP?
40
45 sec
Q.
Which is a feature of EIGRP?
41
45 sec
Q.
Which is a feature of EIGRP?
42
45 sec
Q.
What capability do protocol-dependent modules provide to the EIGRP routing protocol?
43
45 sec
Q.
When are EIGRP update packets sent?
44
30 sec
Q.
Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
45
120 sec
Q.
Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
46
60 sec
Q.
Which is a parameter that EIGRP uses by default to calculate the best path?
47
30 sec
Q.
Which is a parameter that EIGRP uses by default to calculate the best path?
48
30 sec
Q.
An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
49
60 sec
Q.
When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?
50
60 sec
Q.
Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
51
60 sec
Q.
Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
52
120 sec
Q.
Which command will configure an IPv6 default static route?
53
30 sec
Q.
Which statement describes the load balancing behavior of EIGRP?
54
60 sec
Q.
What routing protocol can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command?
55
60 sec
Q.
Which is a features of a link-state routing protocol?
56
60 sec
Q.
Which is a features of a link-state routing protocol?
57
60 sec
Q.
A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?
58
60 sec
Q.
In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0?
59
60 sec
Q.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
60
60 sec
Q.
Which address represents a valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message?
61
60 sec
Q.
Which address represents a valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message?
62
60 sec
Q.
R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
63
120 sec
Q.
What information is contained in OSPF type 3 LSAs?
64
60 sec
Q.
A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?
65
120 sec
Q.
For the given topology, what would be a result of the OSPF DR and BDR elections ?
66
120 sec
Q.
For the given topology, what would be a result of the OSPF DR and BDR elections ?
67
120 sec
Q.
For the given topology, what would be a result of the OSPF DR and BDR elections ?
68
120 sec
Q.
In this scenario, Area 40 cannot be connected directly to Area 0. Which OSPF network type must be configured in Area 1 to connect these areas?
69
120 sec
Q.
What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?
70
120 sec
Q.
A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?
71
120 sec
Q.
A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem on router R2?
72
120 sec
Q.
This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found.
73
60 sec
Q.
This is the algorithm used by OSPF.
74
60 sec
Q.
All the routers are in the backbone area
75
60 sec
Q.
This is where you can find the topology table.
76
60 sec
Q.
All the routers of this type have identical LSDBs.
77
60 sec
Q.
All the routers of this type can import non-OSPF network information to the OSPF network and vice versa using route redistribution.
78
60 sec
Q.
All the routers of this type maintain separate LSDBs for each area to which they connect.
79
60 sec
Q.
generated by all routers and flooded within an area
80
60 sec
Q.
generated by the DR on a multiaccess segment and flooded within an area
81
60 sec
Q.
generated by ABRs and sent between areas to advertise the location of an ASBR
82
60 sec
Q.
generated by ABRs and sent between areas
83
60 sec
Q.
The router displays a console message to configure the router ID manually.
84
60 sec
Q.
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface.
85
60 sec
Q.
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface.
86
60 sec
Q.
The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any.
