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Q 1/87
Score 0
What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
30
It decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
It protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
It disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
It combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
Q 2/87
Score 0
Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?
30
EIGRP
RIPv2
OSPF
BGP
87 questions
Q.
What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
1
30 sec
Q.
Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?
2
30 sec
Q.
In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?
3
30 sec
Q.
A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
4
30 sec
Q.
A switched network has converged completely. All switches currently have a VTP revision number of 5. A new switch that has been configured as a VTP server is added to the network. The new switch has a VTP revision number of 4. What will occur within the network?
5
45 sec
Q.
Which is a characteristic of VTP?
6
45 sec
Q.
Which is a characteristic of VTP?
7
45 sec
Q.
Which is a characteristic of VTP?
8
45 sec
Q.
A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
9
60 sec
Q.
A network administrator is adding a new VLAN for testing. The company uses VTP and the VLAN is not directly attached to either of the switches configured as VTP servers. What is the best method to add this VLAN to the network?
10
60 sec
Q.
Which pair of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches?
11
30 sec
Q.
Which pair of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches?
12
30 sec
Q.
Which pair of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches?
13
30 sec
Q.
The configuration shows the commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
14
120 sec
Q.
Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. Which is a piece of information indicated from the exhibited output?
15
120 sec
Q.
Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. Which is a piece of information indicated from the exhibited output?
16
120 sec
Q.
The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
17
120 sec
Q.
Which is one of the drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network?
18
60 sec
Q.
Which is one of the drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network?
19
45 sec
Q.
Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?
20
30 sec
Q.
What is the role of the SW3 switch?
21
120 sec
Q.
Which switch will place a port in blocking mode?
22
120 sec
Q.
Which switch will be elected the root bridge?
23
120 sec
Q.
Which spanning tree standard was developed by Cisco to provide separate instances of 802.1w per VLAN?
24
30 sec
Q.
Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?
25
30 sec
Q.
A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?
26
120 sec
Q.
An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?
27
60 sec
Q.
Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?
28
120 sec
Q.
Which is an advantage of EtherChannel?
29
60 sec
Q.
Which is an advantage of EtherChannel?
30
60 sec
Q.
When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?
31
60 sec
Q.
When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?
32
60 sec
Q.
Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP?
33
60 sec
Q.
A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?
34
60 sec
Q.
A new chief information officer (CIO) has requested implementation of a link-state dynamic routing protocol. Which routing protocol can fulfill this requirement?
35
60 sec
Q.
A new chief information officer (CIO) has requested implementation of a link-state dynamic routing protocol. Which routing protocol can fulfill this requirement?
36
60 sec
Q.
A network administrator is utilizing RIPv1 in the exhibited network topology. What would the router R2 do with a packet that is originating from the 192.168.4.0/24 network and destined for network 172.16.1.0/24?
37
120 sec
Q.
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
38
45 sec
Q.
Which statement defines the speed of convergence of routing protocols?
39
45 sec
Q.
What is associated with link-state routing protocols?
40
45 sec
Q.
A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
41
120 sec
Q.
What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
42
30 sec
Q.
Which piece of information is contained within a link-state packet (LSP)?
43
30 sec
Q.
Which piece of information is contained within a link-state packet (LSP)?
44
30 sec
Q.
What is a difference between the routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF?
45
30 sec
Q.
What protocol is used by EIGRP for the delivery and receipt of EIGRP packets?
46
30 sec
Q.
Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
47
45 sec
Q.
How is bandwidth to a destination network calculated by EIGRP?
48
45 sec
Q.
An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
49
60 sec
Q.
A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
50
120 sec
Q.
A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
51
120 sec
Q.
Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?
52
120 sec
Q.
Which command would limit the amount of bandwidth that is used by EIGRP for protocol control traffic to approximately 128 Kb/s on a 1.544 Mb/s link?
53
45 sec
Q.
Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?
54
45 sec
Q.
What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?
55
45 sec
Q.
Which is a requirement necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency?
56
60 sec
Q.
Which is a requirement necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency?
57
60 sec
Q.
Which is a requirement necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency?
58
60 sec
Q.
R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
59
120 sec
Q.
When does an OSPF router become an ABR?
60
30 sec
Q.
Which type of OSPF router connects an OSPF area to non-OSPF routing domains?
61
30 sec
Q.
Which function is performed by an OSPF ABR?
62
30 sec
Q.
What type of OSPF IPv4 route is indicated by a route table entry descriptor of O E1?
63
30 sec
Q.
In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?
64
30 sec
Q.
What is a resulting DR or DBR election for the given topology?
65
120 sec
Q.
What is a resulting DR or DBR election for the given topology?
66
120 sec
Q.
What is a resulting DR or DBR election for the given topology?
67
120 sec
Q.
What is a resulting DR or DBR election for the given topology?
68
120 sec
Q.
After implementing an IPv6 network, the administrator notices that the OSPFv3 process is not starting on the routers. What could be the problem?
69
45 sec
Q.
How did this router learn of the highlighted route in the routing table?
70
120 sec
Q.
Which command can be used to view OSPF adjacencies with neighboring routers along with the transition state?
71
45 sec
Q.
used for neighbor discovery and to maintain neighbor adjacencies
72
60 sec
Q.
used to query routes from neighbors
73
60 sec
Q.
sent in response to an EIGRP query
74
60 sec
Q.
used to propagate routing information to EIGRP neighbors
75
60 sec
Q.
used to acknowledge the receipt of an EIGRP message that was sent using reliable delivery
76
60 sec
Q.
Which is a destination network when used by DUAL FSM
77
60 sec
Q.
Which is a feasible distance to 192.168.11.64 used by DUAL FSM?
78
60 sec
Q.
What would be the new successor to network 192.168.1.0 determined by DUAL FSM?
79
60 sec
Q.
This is where the details of the neighboring routers can be found
80
60 sec
Q.
This is the algorithm used by OSPF
81
60 sec
Q.
All the routers are in the backbone area.
82
60 sec
Q.
This is where you can find the topology table.
83
60 sec
Q.
The router displays a a console message to configure the router ID manually.
84
60 sec
Q.
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of an active interface.
85
60 sec
Q.
The router uses the highest configured IPv4 address of a loopback interface.
86
60 sec
Q.
The router uses the explicitly configured router ID if any.
