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Platelet Disorders
Quiz by Sadeq K. Ali Al-Salait
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​One of the following is true regarding congenital platelet disorders
Von Willebrand disease is associated with thrombocytopenia and thrombocytopathy
Afibrinogenemia involves abnormal platelet aggregation
Congenital thrombocytopenia is associated with thrombocytopathy
Bernard Soulier syndrome is a disorder of platelet aggregation
Glanzmann thrombasthenia is a disorder of platelet adhesion
​The sequence of events following endothelial injury that ends up with platelet plug formation are in the order:
Activation, secretion, adhesion, and aggregation
Adhesion, activation, aggregation, and secretion
Adhesion, secretion, secretion, and aggregation
Activation, adhesion, aggregation, and secretion
Adhesion, aggregation, activation, and secretion
One of the following is true regarding congenital platelet disorders
The sequence of events following endothelial injury that ends up with platelet plug formation are in the order:
Regarding the role of VWF in primary hemostasis
One of the following is true regarding ADP-platelet interaction
A reduced, or absent, platelet response to collagen can be caused by deficiency in which of the following surface component?Â
Which test is considered the gold standard for platelet function evaluation in suspected IPDs?
Which inherited platelet disorder is associated with abnormal alpha granules?
In which condition is aggregation absent with all agonists except ristocetin?
Which parameter in a CBC is crucial in deciding further evaluation for platelet function in thrombocytopenic patient
Macrothrombocytopenia is a feature in the following disorders EXCEPT
What is the suggested cutoff value of MPV that implies reasonable specificity and sensitivity in differentiating inherited platelet disorders and ITP?
Regarding IPF ...Â
A 40-year-old woman has history of mild skin and mucous membrane bleeding that never required significant treatment. Her platelet counts on CBC are fluctuating between normal to mildly reduced, and MPV is slightly increased. LTA show normal response to ristocetin. What do expect to find?
Which of the following is least useful in differentiating IPDs from acquired thrombocytopenia?
A patient who developed bleeding tendency following treatment with a drug taken as prophylaxis for any further strokes. He has normal CBC. PFA shows the absence of aggregation to ADP, but normal ristocetin and collagen response. What is the blamed drug in such situation?Â
Platelet Rich Plasma for Osteoarthritis treatmentPlatelet Function TestingCbc: PLATELET COUNTCbc: MEAN PLATELET VOLUMECoagulation Studies: PLATELET FUNCTION ASSAYChapter 22 Antihypertensive Drugs Hypertension Defined (JNC-8) Pharmacology Overview 7 main categories of drugs to treat HTN Adrenergic drugs (old friend) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs) Calcium channel blockers (CCBs) Diuretics Vasodilators Direct renin inhibitors A. Adrenergic Drugs: 5 Subcategories and where they act A1. Adrenergic neuron blockers (central and peripheral)- we won’t talk about this A2. Alpha1 receptor blockers (peripheral) A3. Alpha2 receptor agonists (central) A4. Beta receptor blockers (peripheral) A5. Combined α and β receptor blockers (peripheral) A2. Peripherally Acting Adrenergic Drug Alpha1 Blockers (we’ve met these) Doxazosin, prazosin, alfuzosin Block alpha1-receptors which causes BP to decrease Reduces peripheral vascular resistance and BP by dilating both arterial and venous blood vessels Main Use: benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) Alpha1 Blockers REMEMBER Tamsulosin (Flomax)* is an α1 blocker BUT *Tamsulosin is not used to control BP, just for BPH. A3. Centrally Acting Adrenergic Drugs Alpha 2 agonist Clonidine and methyldopa 1- Stimulate alpha2-adrenergic receptors. in the brain Decreases sympathetic outflow from the CNS which decreases NE production 2. Stimulate alpha2-adrenergic receptors in kidneys remember alpha 2 opposes alpha 1 Dilates peripheral blood vessels → lowers peripheral resistance → Results in decreased BP So ….Clonidine (Catapres) Used primarily for its ability to decrease blood pressure in an urgent setting Also use in opioid withdrawal as previously discussed Oral (multiple times a day), and topical patch formulations Do not stop abruptly as it may lead to rebound hypertension In reality, Clonidine and methyldopa Not prescribed as first-line home antiHTN drugs High incidence of unwanted adverse effects: orthostatic hypotension, fatigue, and dizziness MIGHT be uses as adjunct drugs after other drugs have failed, in conjunction with other antiHTN such as diuretics A4. Adrenergic Drugs Selective Beta 1 Blockers Metoprolol, Atenolol Reduction of HR through β1 receptor blockade (remember adrenergic blocking of this receptor???) HR results in BP Cause reduced secretion of renin = BP A4. Adrenergic Drugs Selective Beta1 Blockers Nebivolol (Bystolic) Uses: hypertension and HF Action: blocks β1 receptors and produces vasodilatation, which results in a decrease in SVR High doses loses selectivity and blocks both β1 and β2 Less sexual dysfunction All BB- Do not stop abruptly; must be tapered over 1 to 2 weeks A4. Adrenergic Drugs NONSelective Beta Blockers Propranolol Acts equally on β1 and β2 Other uses include situational anxiety associated with public speaking, test taking As mentioned on previous slide, nebivolol at high doses becomes beta nonselective A5. Dual-Action Adrenergic Drugs α1 and β Receptor Blockers Dual antihypertensive effects of reduction in heart rate (beta1 receptor blockade) and vasodilation (alpha1 receptor blockade) Examples are carvedilol (common) and labetalol (not as common) A5. Dual-Action Adrenergic Drugs α1 and β Receptor Blockers Carvedilol (Coreg) Widely used drug that is well tolerated Uses: HTN, mild to moderate HF in conjunction with digoxin, diuretics, and ACE inhibitors Contraindications: severe bradycardia or unstable HF, bronchospastic conditions such as asthma, and various cardiac conduction problems Adrenergic Drugs Indications - HTN But also for Glaucoma (topical) BPH: doxazosin, prazosin, and terazosin (2 for 1) Management of severe HF when used with cardiac glycosides and diuretics Contraindications Acute HF- have to stabilize first MOAIs- yeah doesn’t everything interact with MAOIs? Peptic ulcers Severe liver/kidney disease Asthma (with beta blockers) Adrenergic Drugs: Adverse Effects Orthostatic hypotension 1st-dose syncope Rebound hypertension with abrupt discontinuation Most common: Dry mouth, drowsiness, constipation, sedation Interactions- always check for specific drug interactions Can cause additive CNS depression with alcohol, benzodiazepines, opioids Question #1 When administering an alpha-adrenergic drug for hypertension, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of what response? Hypotension Hyperkalemia Oliguria Respiratory distress Answer A Hypotension This is a key point in patient education These drugs have strong vasodilating properties and may cause severe hypotension, especially at the beginning of therapy. B. Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme Inhibitors aka ACE Inhibitors or ACEi Large group of safe and effective drugs Currently are 10 ACEi Often used as first-line drugs for HF and hypertension May be combined with a thiazide diuretic, loop diuretic, or Calcium Channel Blocker (CCB) You need to understand the basics ACE Inhibitors: Review RAAS ACE converts angiotensin I, formed through the action of renin, to angiotensin II Angiotensin 2 is a potent vasoconstrictor and also induces aldosterone secretion by the adrenal glands Aldosterone stimulates sodium resorption (H20 follows Na Both act to raise BP which causes kidneys to reduce renin production ACEi= Great drug to treat HTN BUT contraindicated in pregnancy (2nd,3rd trimester due to fetal renal damage) and breastfeeding first few weeks after birth B. ACE Inhibitors - PRIL Lisinopril (Prinivil) super common, often the 1st drug Enalapril (Vasotec) also common Captopril (Capoten) great if liver disease present Benazepril (Lotensin) Fosinopril (Monopril) Perindopril (Aceon) Quinapril (Accupril) Ramipril (Altace) Trandolapril (Mavik) Primary Effects of the ACE Inhibitors Prevent Na (and H2O) resorption by inhibiting aldosterone secretion (volume reduction) (GO BACK TO RAAS DIAGRAM) blood volume decreases work of the heart preload, or the left ventricular end-diastolic volume which is important in HF ACE SUMMARY OF ACTIVITY 1) Prevent vasoconstriction caused by angiotensin 2 (2) Prevent aldosterone secretion  less sodium and water resorption Cardioprotective Effects of ACEi They slow progression of left ventricular hypertrophy (ventricular remodeling) after MI so considered cardioprotective ACE inhibitors have been shown to decrease morbidity and mortality in patients with HF Renal Protective Effects of ACEi ACE inhibitors: reduce glomerular filtration pressure by volume reduction Cardiovascular drug of choice for patients with diabetes since it helps protect kidneys by reducing pressure. Sometimes used low dose for kidney protection with DM without HTN B. ACEi Enalapril (Vasotec) Only ACEi available in both oral and IV Enalapril IV does not require cardiac monitoring Oral enalapril: prodrug (metabolized in liver) Improves patient’s chances of survival after an MI Reduces the incidence of HF B. ACEi Captopril (Capoten) Uses: prevention of ventricular remodeling after MI; reduce the risk of HF after MI Shortest half-life Must be administered multiple times throughout the day so this limits its use Not a prodrug so good for patient with liver disease Question #2 A patient with diabetes has a new prescription for the ACE inhibitor lisinopril. She questions this order because her provider has never told her that she has hypertension. What is the best explanation for this order? The doctor knows best The patient is confused This medication has cardioprotective properties This medication has a protective effect on the kidneys for patients with diabetes Answer D ACE inhibitors have been shown to have a protective effect on the kidneys because they reduce glomerular filtration pressure. This property makes them the cardiovascular drug of choice for patients with diabetes. Question #3 A patient with a history of pancreatitis and cirrhosis is also being treated for hypertension. Which drug will most likely be ordered for this patient? Clonidine Prazosin Diltiazem Captopril Answer D Captopril Captopril is not a prodrug; therefore, it does not need to be metabolized by the liver to be effective. This is an advantage in patients with liver disease. ACE Inhibitors: Adverse Effects *Dry, nonproductive cough, which reverses when therapy is stopped. This is a class effect Dizziness- Note: First-dose hypotensive effect may occur Headache & Fatigue Possible hyperkalemia ** Angioedema: rare but potentially fatal Not safe in pregnancy-are contraindicated during the second and third trimesters of pregnancy because of increased risk of fetal renal damage C. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers (ARB) Considered an alternative to ACEi Less likely to cause a dry cough and hyper K+ that is common with ACE inhibitors Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers: Mechanism of Action Go back to RAAS diagram! ARBs affect primarily 2 places 1. Vascular smooth muscle - blocks vasoconstriction 2. Adrenal gland -Selectively blocks the binding of Ang 2 to certain Ang 2 receptors inhibiting secretion of aldosterone Lowers volume retention and BP Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers -ARTAN Losartan (Cozaar)- very common Eprosartan (Teveten) Valsartan (Diovan) Irbesartan (Avapro) Candesartan (Atacand) Olmesartan (Benicar) Telmisartan (Micardis) Azilsartan (Edarbi) C. ARB Losartan (Cozaar) Beneficial in patients with HTN and HF Used with caution in patients with kidney or liver dysfunction and in patients with renal artery stenosis ***Not safe for breastfeeding women and should not be used in pregnancy (Cat C 1st trimester, Cat D 2nd-3rd trimester), potential fetal toxicity Appear to be equally effective for the treatment of hypertension and well tolerated ARBs less likely to cause cough and hyperK+ but can still happen Evidence that ARBs are associated with lower mortality after MI than ACE inhibitors Never take ACEi and ARBs at the same time* 5. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCB) Primary use: HTN, angina, some dysrhythmias Cause smooth muscle relaxation by blocking the binding of calcium to its receptors, preventing muscle contraction Results in: Relaxed blood vessels to the heart Decreased peripheral smooth muscle tone Decreased SVResistance Decreased BP E. Diuretics First-line antiHTN in JNC 8 guidelines Decreases fluid volume The results from diuresis: preload, Peripheral resistance Overall effect ïƒ Decreased workload of the heart and decreased BP Thiazide diuretics are the most commonly used diuretics for HTN Ie hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ), chlorthalidone We will discuss diuretics further in the chapter on diuretics F. Vasodilators Directly relax arterial or venous smooth muscle (or both) Results in: Decreased SVR Decreased afterload Peripheral vasodilation Indicated for treatment of HTN May be used in combination with other drugs F. Vasodilators Hydralazine (Apresoline) Orally: routine cases of essential hypertension Injectable: hypertensive emergencies BiDil: specifically indicated as an adjunct for treatment of HF in African-American patients F. Vasodilators Sodium Nitroprusside (Nitropress) *Sodium nitroprusside and IV diazoxide are reserved for the management of hypertensive emergencies. Contraindications: severe HF, known inadequate cerebral perfusion (especially during neurosurgical procedures) F. Vasodilators Adverse Effects Hydralazine: dizziness, headache, tachycardia, edema, dyspnea, N/V/D, vitamin B6 deficiency, rash Sodium nitroprusside: hypotension, bradycardia, decreased platelet aggregation, rash G. Direct Renin Inhibitors Aliskirin (Tekturna) Blocks the RAS pathway at the point of activation. Inhibiting renin production prevents the downstream production of Ang II (potent vasoconstrictor) Adverse effects: N/V, severe hypotension, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia… Contraindicated in patients with DM taking ACEi or ARB Miscellaneous Antihypertensives Eplerenone (Inspra) Newer class of drugs called selective aldosterone blockers (remember RAAS?) Reduces BP by blocking the actions of aldosterone at its corresponding receptors in the kidney, heart, blood vessels, and brain Indications: routine treatment of hypertension and for post-MI HF Contraindicated if serum potassium levels are high (above 5.6 mEq/L) A Special Form of HTN Treatment of Pulmonary Hypertension Sildenafil and Tadalafil Commonly used for erectile dysfunction Used for pulmonary hypertension but with different trade names Sildenafil: Revatio* (Viagra for ED) Tadalafil: Adcirca* (Cialis for ED)Phagocytes/Lymphocytes/PlateletsBiomedical Engineering Flashcard 1 Q: What is biomedical engineering? A: The field that designs medical solutions (devices, implants, machines, medicines) to improve health. Flashcard 2 Q: How many bones does an adult have? A: 206 bones. Flashcard 3 Q: How many bones are humans born with? A: About 270 bones. Flashcard 4 Q: What is a prosthetic? A: An artificial device used to replace a missing body part. Flashcard 5 Q: What must engineers consider when designing prosthetics? A: Connection to the body Communication with the body Life-like movement Flashcard 6 Q: What is internal fixation? A: Hardware attached inside the body directly to the bone to repair it. Flashcard 7 Q: Examples of internal fixation? A: Rods, screws, plates, pins, bone grafts. Flashcard 8 Q: What is external fixation? A: Supports outside the body used to stabilize bones while they heal. Flashcard 9 Q: Examples of external fixation? A: Casts, braces, slings, external screws. Flashcard 10 Q: What is biocompatibility? A: Materials that can safely exist in the body without causing harm or rejection. Circulatory System Flashcard 11 Q: What is the job of the circulatory system? A: Deliver oxygen and nutrients and remove wastes from cells. Flashcard 12 Q: What do arteries do? A: Carry blood away from the heart. Flashcard 13 Q: What do veins do? A: Carry blood back to the heart. Flashcard 14 Q: What do capillaries do? A: Exchange oxygen, nutrients, and waste with tissues. Flashcard 15 Q: What are the 4 main components of blood? A: Plasma Red blood cells White blood cells Platelets Flashcard 16 Q: Name 3 circulatory diseases. A: Arteriosclerosis Hypertension (high blood pressure) Coronary heart disease Flashcard 17 Q: What lifestyle choices increase circulatory disease risk? A: Tobacco use Alcohol use Poor nutrition Physical inactivity Obesity Stem Cells Flashcard 18 Q: What are stem cells? A: Cells that can develop into many different specialized cell types. Flashcard 19 Q: Why is embryonic stem cell research controversial? A: Because it involves destroying embryos, which some believe is destroying human life. pH and Indicators Flashcard 20 Q: What pH number is an acid? A: Below 7. Flashcard 21 Q: What pH number is neutral? A: 7. Flashcard 22 Q: What pH number is a base? A: Above 7. Flashcard 23 Q: Examples of pH indicators? A: Litmus paper Red cabbage indicator Anthocyanins Hydrogels Flashcard 24 Q: What is a hydrogel? A: A material made of polymer chains that can hold large amounts of water. Flashcard 25 Q: Examples of hydrogels? A: Gelatin Collagen Alginate Fireworks Flashcard 26 Q: What are the 4 main parts of fireworks? A: Oxidizer, fuel, binder, metal salt. Flashcard 27 Q: What color does Barium produce? A: Light green. Flashcard 28 Q: What color does Copper produce? A: Blue-green. Flashcard 29 Q: What color does Strontium produce? A: Dark red. Flashcard 30 Q: What color does Potassium produce? A: Light purple. Flashcard 31 Q: What color does Lithium produce? A: Orange-red. Flashcard 32 Q: What effect does Iron produce in fireworks? A: Sparks.