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Q 1/853
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the scientific study of the links between biological (genetic, neural, hormonal) and psychological processes
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biological perspective/psychology
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a nerve cell; the basic building block of the nervous system
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neuron
853 questions
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the scientific study of the links between biological (genetic, neural, hormonal) and psychological processes
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a nerve cell; the basic building block of the nervous system
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a neuron's bushy, branching extensions that receive messages and conduct impulses toward the cell body
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the neuron extension that passes messages through its branches to other neurons or to muscles or glands
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a fatty tissue layer segmentally encasing the axons of some neurons
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a neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon
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a period of inactivity after a neuron has fired
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level of stimulation required to trigger an impulse, the combined signals trigger an action potential
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a neuron's reaction of either firing or not firing
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the junction between the axon tip of the sending neuron and the dendrite or cell body of the receiving neuron
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chemical messages that cross the synaptic gaps between neurons. When released they travel across synapse and bind to receptor sites on receiving neuron, influencing whether the neuron will send an impulse
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a neurotransmitter's reabsorption by the sending neuron
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"morphine within" - natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to please
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a molecule that, by binding to a receptor site, stimulates a response
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a molecule that, by binding to a receptor site, inhibits or blocks a response
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the body's speedy, electrochemical communication network, consisting of all the nerve cells of the peripheral and central nervous system
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The brain and spinal cord
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the sensory and motor neutrons that connect the CNS to the rest of the body
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bundled axons that form neural "cables" connecting the CNS with muscles, glands, and sense organs
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neurons that carry incoming information from the sensory receptors to the brain and spinal cord
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neurons that carry outgoing information from the brain and spinal cold to the muscles and glands
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neurons within the brain and spinal cord that communicate internally and intervene between the sensory inputs and motor outputs
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the division of the peripheral nervous system that controls the body's skeletal muslces
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the part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs
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the division of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations
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the division of the autonomic nervous system that calms the body, conserving its energy
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a simple, automatic response to a sensory stimulus, such as the knee-jerk response. The spinal cords work.
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a body's "slow" chemical communication system; a set of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream
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chemical messengers that are manufactured by the endocrine glands travel through the bloodstream and affect other tissues
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a pair of endocrine glands that sit just above the kidneys and secrete hormones that help *arouse the body in times of stress*
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the endocrine system's most influential gland; under the influence of the hypothalamus, the pituitary regulates *growth* and controls other endocrine glands
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tissue destraction; is a naturally or experimentally caused destruction of brain tissue
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an amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity sweeping across the brains surface
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a series of x-ray photographs taken from different angles and combined by computer into a composite representation of a slice of the brain's structure
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a visual display of brain activity that detects where a radioactive form of glucose goes while the brain performs a given task
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a technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computer-generated image of soft tissue, brain anatomy
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a technique for revealing blood flow and, therefore, brain activity by comparing successive MRI scans. Shows brain function and structure. Where brain is especially active, blood goes.
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the oldest part and central core of the brain, beginning where the spinal cord swells as it enters the skull, the brainstem is responsible for automatic survival functions
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the base of the brainstem; controls heart beat and breathing
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the brain's sensory control center, located on top of the brainstem; it directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla
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a nerve network that travels through the brainstem and thalamus and plays an important role in controlling arousal
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the "little brain" at the rear of the brainstem; functions include processing sensory input, coordinating movement output and balance, and enabling nonverbal learning and memory
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neural system located below the cerebral hemisphere; associated with emotions and drives
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two lima-bean-sized neural clusters in the limbic system; linked with emotion, especially aggression and fear
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a neural structure lying below the thalamus; it directs several maintenance activities, helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion and reward
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the intricate fabric of interconnected neural cells covering the cerebral hemisphere; the body's ultimate control and information-processing center
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cells in the nervous system that support, nourish, and protect neurons; they may also play a role in learning and thinking
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portion of the cerebral cortex lying just behind the forehead; involved in speaking and muscles movements and in making plans and judgements
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portion of the cerebral cortex lying at the top of the head and towards the rear; receives sensory input for touch and body position
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portion of the cerebral cortex lying at the back of the head; includes areas that receive information from the visual fields
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portion of the cerebral cortex lying roughly above the ears; includes the authority areas, each receiving information primarily from the opposite ear
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an area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements
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area of the front of the parietal lobes that registers and processes body touch and movement sensations
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areas of the cerebral cortex that are not involved in primary motor or sensory functions; rather, they are involved in higher mental functions such as learning, remembering, thinking, and speaking. Areas found in all 4 lobes, electrically probing the areas won't produce observable response
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the brain's ability to change, especially during childhood, by reorganizing after damage or by building new pathways based on experience
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the formation of new neurons
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the large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres and carrying messages between them.
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a condition resulting from surgery that isolates the brain's two hemispheres by cutting the fibers connecting them.
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our awareness of ourselves and our environment
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the principle that information is often simultaneously processed on separate conscious and unconscious tracks.
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every external influence, from prenatal nutrition to the people and things arounds us
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the biochemical unites of heredity that make up the chromosomes; segments of DNA capable of synthesizing proteins
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develop from a single fertilized egg that splits in two, creating two genetically identical organisms. Same genes, but don't always have same number of copies of those genes. If they don't share a placenta, one may have more nourishment- differences in twins
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twins who develop from separate fertilized eggs. Genetically no closer than brothers or sisters, but share a fetal environment
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the proportion of variation among individuals that we can attribute to genes
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the study of environmental influences on gene expression that occur without a DNA change
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study of evolution of behavior and the mind, using principles of natural selction
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the traits contributing to reproduction and survival will be passed on to succeeding generations.
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a random error in gene replcation that leads to a change
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English natural scientist who formulated a theory of evolution by natural selection
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enables muscle action, learning, and memory
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influences movement, learning, attention, and emotion
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Affects mood, hunger, sleep, and arousal
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helps control alertness and arousal
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A major excitatory neurotransmitter; involved in memory
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a major inhibitory neurotransmitter
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natural, opiate-like neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to pleasure
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an individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting.
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in psychoanalysis, a method of exploring the unconscious in which the person relaxes and says whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing.
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Freud's theory of personality and therapeutic technique that attributes thoughts and actions to unconscious motives and conflicts. Freud believed the patient's free associations, resistances, dreams, and transferences—and the therapist's interpretations of them—released previously repressed feelings, allowing the patient to gain self-insight.
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according to Freud, a reservoir of mostly unacceptable thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories. According to contemporary psychologists, information processing of which we are unaware.
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the largely conscious, "executive" part of personality that, according to Freud, mediates among the demands of the id, superego, and reality. The ego operates on the reality principle, satisfying the id's desires in ways that will realistically bring pleasure rather than pain.
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contains a reservoir of unconscious psychic energy that, according to Freud, strives to satisfy basic sexual and aggressive drives. The id operates on the pleasure principle, demanding immediate gratification.
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the childhood stages of development (oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital) during which, according to Freud, the id's pleasure-seeking energies focus on distinct erogenous zones.
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the part of personality that, according to Freud, represents internalized ideals and provides standards for judgment (the conscience) and for future aspirations.
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according to Freud, a lingering focus of pleasure-seeking energies at an earlier psychosexual stage in which conflicts were unresolved.
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the process by which, according to Freud, children incorporate their parents' values into their developing superegos after realizing they cannot be with their opposite sex parent.
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according to Freud, a boy's sexual desires toward his mother and feelings of jealousy and hatred for the rival father.
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in psychoanalytic theory, the ego's protective methods of reducing anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality.
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psychoanalytic defense mechanism that shifts sexual or aggressive impulses toward a more acceptable or less threatening object or person, as when redirecting anger toward a safer outlet.
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psychoanalytic defense mechanism by which people disguise their own threatening impulses by attributing them to others
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defense mechanism that offers self-justifying explanations in place of the real, more threatening, unconscious reasons for one's actions.
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psychoanalytic defense mechanism by which the ego unconsciously switches unacceptable impulses into their opposites. Thus, people may express feelings that are the opposite of their anxiety-arousing unconscious feelings.
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psychoanalytic defense mechanism in which an individual faced with anxiety retreats to a more infantile psychosexual stage, where some psychic energy remains fixated.
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in psychoanalytic theory, the basic defense mechanism that banishes anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories from consciousness.
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Carl Jung's concept of a shared, inherited reservoir of memory traces from our species' history.
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a personality test, such as the Rorschach or TAT, that provides ambiguous stimuli designed to trigger projection of one's inner dynamics.
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the most widely used projective test, a set of 10 inkblots, designed by Hermann Rorschach; seeks to identify people's inner feelings by analyzing their interpretations of the blots.
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a projective test in which people express their inner feelings and interests through the stories they make up about ambiguous scenes.
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according to Maslow, the ultimate psychological need that arises after basic physical and psychological needs are met and self-esteem is achieved; the motivation to fulfill one's potential.
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(1) a sense of one's identity and personal worth. (2) all our thoughts and feelings about ourselves, in answer to the question, "Who am I?"
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according to Rogers, an attitude of total acceptance toward another person.
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a characteristic pattern of behavior or a disposition to feel and act, as assessed by self-report inventories and peer reports.
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a questionnaire (often with true-false or agree-disagree items) on which people respond to items designed to gauge a wide range of feelings and behaviors; used to assess selected personality traits.
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the most widely researched and clinically used of all personality tests. Originally developed to identify emotional disorders (still considered its most appropriate use), this test is now used for many other screening purposes.
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a test (such as the MMPI) developed by testing a pool of items and then selecting those that discriminate between groups (find a relationship)
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the interacting influences between personality and environmental factors.
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views behavior as influenced by the interaction between persons (and their thinking) and their social context.
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one's feelings of high or low self-worth.
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overestimating others' noticing and evaluating our appearance, performance, and blunders (as if we presume a spotlight shines on us).
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a readiness to perceive oneself favorably
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Psychosexual stage (0-18m) Pleasure centers on the mouth - sucking, biting, chewing
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Psychosexual stage (18-36m) Pleasure focuses on bowel and bladder elimination; coping with demands for control
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Psychosexual stage (3-6y) Pleasure zone is the genitals; soping with incestuous sexual feelings; Oedipus complex
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Psychosexual stage (6-puberty) Dormant sexual feelings
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Psychosexual stage (puberty on) Maturation of sexual interests
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Theorist who believed in the collective unconscious and archetypes (universal themes)
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ideas and images of the accumulated experience of all human beings
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Theorist who developed the inferiority complex, overcoming childhood feelings of inferiority
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Social-cognitive theorist who believed personality comes from observing others and modeling ourselves after them.
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Austrian neurologist who originated psychoanalysis (1856-1939); Said that human behavior is irrational; behavior is the outcome of conflict between the id (irrational unconscious driven by sexual, aggressive, and pleasure-seeking desires) and ego (rationalizing conscious, what one can do) and superego (ingrained moral values, what one should do).
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The motive to obtain pleasure and avoid tension or discomfort; the most fundamental human motive and the guiding principle of the id.
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According to Freud, the principle on which the ego operates, which seeks to delay gratification of the id's urges until appropriate outlets and situations can be found.
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our view of our ability to succeed, control over our success
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Neo-Freudian who believed self-concept and unconditional positive regard drive personality
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Neo-freudian who is associated with basic anxiety; hypothesized it stemmed from childhood experiences and parenting.
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Giving priority to one's own goals over group goals and defining one's identity in terms of personal attributes rather than group identities.
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Giving priority to the goals of one's group (family, work) and defining one's identity accordingly.
A personality dimension that describes someone who is responsible, dependable, persistent, and organized
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characteristics such as imagination and insight, and those high in this trait also tend to have a broad range of interests
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degree of emotional instability or stability
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a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior.
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a complex behavior that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned.
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internal motivational state created by a physiological need
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the idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need.
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a tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry, such as blood glucose, around a particular level.
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a positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior.
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the principle that performance increases with arousal only up to a point, beyond which performance decreases.
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Maslow's pyramid of human needs, beginning at the base with physiological needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs become active.
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meaning, purpose, and communion beyond the self
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the process by which people achieve their full potential
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needs at the fourth level of Maslow's hierarchy: liking and respecting yourself, feeling important and useful
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understanding and acceptance of others in giving and receiving love
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A person's needs for security and protection from physical and emotional harm
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the most basic human needs to be satisfied- water, food, shelter, and clothing
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a desire for significant accomplishment: for mastery of things, people, or ideas; for attaining a high standard
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the form of sugar that circulates in the blood and provides the major source of energy for body tissues. When its level is low, we feel hunger.
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the point at which an individual's "weight thermostat" is supposedly set. When the body falls below this weight, an increase in hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may act to restore the lost weight.
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The part of the hypothalamus that produces hunger signals
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The part of the hypothalamus that produces feelings of fullness as opposed to hunger, and causes one to stop eating.
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hormone that signals the hypothalamus and brain stem to reduce appetite and increase the amount of energy used
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A hunger-arousing hormone secreted by an empty stomach
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secreted by the hypothalamus; triggers hunger
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digestive hormone that suppresses appetite
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the body's resting rate of energy expenditure.
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regarded by some as the father of the scientific study of human sexuality. Published a series of reports which described common sexual behaviors in the US
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the four stages of sexual responding described by Masters and Johnson—excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution.
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(2) a resting period after orgasm, during which a man cannot achieve another.
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a problem that consistently impairs sexual arousal or functioning.
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a sexual disorder in which the person's preferred method of sexual arousal and fulfillment is through sexual behavior that is unusual or socially unacceptable
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sex hormones, such as estradiol, secreted in greater amounts by females than by males and contributing to female sex characteristics.
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the most important of the male sex hormones. Both males and females have it, but the additional testosterone in males stimulates the growth of the male sex organs in the fetus and the development of the male sex characteristics during puberty.
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a response of the whole organism, involving (1) physiological arousal, (2) expressive behaviors, and (3) conscious experience.
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the theory that our experience of emotion is our awareness of our physiological responses to emotion-arousing stimuli.
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the theory that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers (1) physiological responses and (2) the subjective experience of emotion.
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the Schachter-Singer theory that to experience emotion one must (1) be physically aroused and (2) cognitively label the arousal.
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arousal response to one event spills over into our response to the next event
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Emotions happen before interpretation of situation
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"High Road" and "Low Road"
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Cognitive appraisal sometimes without our awareness defines emotion
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a machine, commonly used in attempts to detect lies, that measures several of the physiological responses (such as perspiration and cardiovascular and breathing changes) accompanying emotion.
cultural rules specifying what emotions should and should not be expressed under what circumstances
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Interested in the universality of facial expressions: facial expressions carry same meaning regardless of culture, context, or language.
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the tendency of facial muscle states to trigger corresponding feelings such as fear, anger, or happiness.
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a subfield of psychology that provides psychology's contribution to behavioral medicine.
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the process by which we perceive and respond to certain events, called stressors, that we appraise as threatening or challenging.
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the events of our lives flow through a psychological filter. How we appraise an event influences how much stress we experience and how effectively we respond.
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Selye's concept of the body's adaptive response to stress in three phases—alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
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first phase of the GAS, during which body resources are mobilized to cope with the stressor
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Second phase of the GAS, during which the body adapts to and maintains resources to cope with the stressor.
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third phase of the GAS, during which the body's resources become depleted
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an event or situation that causes stress
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under stress, people (especially women) often provide support to others (tend) and bond with and seek support from others (befriend).
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literally, "mind-body" illness; any stress-related physical illness, such as hypertension and some headaches.
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the study of how psychological, neural, and endocrine processes together affect the immune system and resulting health.
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the two types of white blood cells that are part of the body's immune system:
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form in the bone marrow and release antibodies that fight bacterial infections
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form in the thymus and other lymphatic tissue and attack cancer cells, viruses, and foreign substances
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the clogging of the vessels that nourish the heart muscle; the leading cause of death in many developed countries.
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Friedman and Rosenman's term for competitive, hard-driving, impatient, verbally aggressive, and anger-prone people.
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Friedman and Rosenman's term for easygoing, relaxed people.
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actions that people can take to master, tolerate, reduce, or minimize the effects of stressors
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a type of coping in which people try to prevent having an emotional response to a stressor
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Attempting to alleviate stress directly by changing the stressor or the way we interact with that stressor.
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Aimed at changing one's interpretation of stressful events
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a choice must be made between two attractive goals
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conflict occurring when a person must choose between two undesirable goals
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conflict occurring when a person must choose or not choose a goal that has both positive and negative aspects
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A conflict in which one must choose between options that have both many attractive and many negative aspects.
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mental quality consisting of the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations
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a method for assessing an individual's mental aptitudes and comparing them with those of others, using numerical scores
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A factor that underlies specific mental aptitudes and is therefore measured by every task on an individual test
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a condition in which a person otherwise limited in mental ability has an exceptional specific skill, such as in computation or drawing
the know-how involved in comprehending social situations and managing oneself successfully
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the ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions for adaptive or creative thinking
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Yes, frontal and parietal lobes
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Smart people use less energy to solve problems
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Reaction time, sensory muscle, body proportions
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The level your mind is at compared to average for an age
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mental age/chronological age x 100
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Intellectual/ mental ability, IQ of <70 and difficulty in adapting to the demands of life (mental retardation)
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Measure of intelligence based on a scale of 100 being average or an level for your age
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measures how much a person has learned in a given subject or area (Ap exam)
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estimates the probability that a person will be successful in learning a specific new skill (PSAT AND SAT)
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the most widely used intelligence test; contains verbal and performance (nonverbal) subtests
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Standardized,reliable and valid
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The uniform procedures used in the administration and meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretest group
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Bell shaped curve, most scores fall near the average, and fewer scores lie near the extremes
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Overtime, our intelligence is increasing each generation
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(Consistency) Scores shouldn't change much between 1st and 2nd test scores correlate, retesting should reproduce similar scores
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(Relevance) the test measures what it's supposed to measure
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The extent to which a test samples the behavior that is of interest; ex: psychology tests test over psychology, not spanish
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The success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior. Examples: PSAT
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Older adults= less correct answers over time
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Intelligence Increase in age over time
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our accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase with age
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our ability to reason speedily and abstractly; tends to decrease during late adulthood
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Limited mental ability, IQ of 70 or lower
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An example of mental disability
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The proportion of variation among individuals that we can attribute to genes. The heritability of a trait may vary, depending on the range of populations and environments studied.
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a self-confirming concern that one will be evaluated based on a negative stereotype
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a branch of psychology that studies physical, cognitive, and social change throughout the life span.
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the fertilized egg; it enters a 2-week period of rapid cell division and develops into an embryo.
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the developing human organism from about 2 weeks after fertilization through the second month.
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the developing human organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth.
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(literally, "monster makers") agents, such as chemicals and viruses, that can reach the embryo or fetus during prenatal development and cause harm.
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physical and cognitive abnormalities in children caused by a pregnant woman's heavy drinking. In severe cases, signs include a small, out-of-proportion head and abnormal facial features.
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decreasing responsiveness with repeated stimulation. As infants gain familiarity with repeated exposure to a visual stimulus, their interest wanes and they look away sooner.
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biological growth processes that enable orderly changes in behavior, relatively uninfluenced by experience.
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all the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.
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a concept or framework that organizes and interprets information.
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interpreting our new experiences in terms of our existing schemas.
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in developmental psychology, adapting our current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information.
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in Piaget's theory, the stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities.
253
30 sec
Q.
the awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.
254
30 sec
Q.
in Piaget's theory, the stage (from about 2 to about 6 or 7 years of age) during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic.
255
30 sec
Q.
the principle (which Piaget believed to be a part of concrete operational reasoning) that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects.
256
30 sec
Q.
in Piaget's theory, the preoperational child's difficulty taking another's point of view.
257
30 sec
Q.
people's ideas about their own and others' mental states—about their feelings, perceptions, and thoughts, and the behaviors these might predict.
258
30 sec
Q.
a disorder that appears in childhood and is marked by significant deficiencies in communication and social interaction, and by rigidly fixated interests and repetitive behaviors.
259
30 sec
Q.
in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (from about 6 or 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events.
260
30 sec
Q.
in Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (normally beginning about age 12) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts.
261
30 sec
Q.
the fear of strangers that infants commonly display, beginning by about 8 months of age.
262
30 sec
Q.
an emotional tie with another person; shown in young children by their seeking closeness to the caregiver and showing distress on separation.
263
30 sec
Q.
an optimal period early in the life of an organism when exposure to certain stimuli or experiences produces normal development.
264
30 sec
Q.
the process by which certain animals form strong attachments during an early life critical period.
265
30 sec
Q.
a person's characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity.
266
30 sec
Q.
according to Erik Erikson, a sense that the world is predictable and trustworthy; said to be formed during infancy by appropriate experiences with responsive caregivers.
267
30 sec
Q.
all our thoughts and feelings about ourselves, in answer to the question, "Who am I?"
268
30 sec
Q.
the socially constructed roles and characteristics by which a culture defines male and female.
269
30 sec
Q.
a set of expected behaviors for males or for females.
270
30 sec
Q.
our sense of being male or female.
271
30 sec
Q.
the theory that we learn social behavior by observing and imitating and by being rewarded or punished.
272
30 sec
Q.
the acquisition of a traditional masculine or feminine role.
273
30 sec
Q.
an umbrella term describing people whose gender identity or expression differs from that associated with their birth sex.
274
30 sec
Q.
the transition period from childhood to adulthood, extending from puberty to independence.
275
30 sec
Q.
our sense of self; according to Erikson, the adolescent's task is to solidify a sense of self by testing and integrating various roles.
276
30 sec
Q.
the "we" aspect of our self-concept; the part of our answer to "Who am I?" that comes from our group memberships.
277
30 sec
Q.
in Erikson's theory, the ability to form close, loving relationships; a primary developmental task in late adolescence and early adulthood.
278
30 sec
Q.
for some people in modern cultures, a period from the late teens to mid-twenties, bridging the gap between adolescent dependence and full independence and responsible adulthood.
279
30 sec
Q.
the sex chromosome found in both men and women. Females have two X chromosomes; males have one. An X chromosome from each parent produces a female child.
280
30 sec
Q.
the sex chromosome found only in males. When paired with an X chromosome from the mother, it produces a male child.
281
30 sec
Q.
the most important of the male sex hormones. Both males and females have it, but the additional testosterone in males stimulates the growth of the male sex organs in the fetus and the development of the male sex characteristics during puberty.
282
30 sec
Q.
the period of sexual maturation, during which a person becomes capable of reproducing.
283
30 sec
Q.
the body structures (ovaries, testes, and external genitalia) that make sexual reproduction possible.
284
30 sec
Q.
nonreproductive sexual traits, such as female breasts and hips, male voice quality, and body hair.
285
30 sec
Q.
the first menstrual period.
286
30 sec
Q.
an enduring sexual attraction toward members of either one's own sex (homosexual orientation), the other sex (heterosexual orientation), or both sexes
287
30 sec
Q.
the time of natural cessation of menstruation; also refers to the biological changes a woman experiences as her ability to reproduce declines.
288
30 sec
Q.
a study in which people of different ages are compared with one another.
289
30 sec
Q.
research in which the same people are restudied and retested over a long period.
290
30 sec
Q.
the culturally preferred timing of social events such as marriage, parenthood, and retirement.
291
30 sec
Q.
Known for his theory of cognitive development in children
292
30 sec
Q.
developmental psychology; compared effects of maternal separation, devised patterns of attachment; "The Strange Situation": observation of parent/child attachment
293
30 sec
Q.
Studied attachment in monkeys with artificial mothers
294
30 sec
Q.
The difference in the child's ability to solve problems independently and their capacity to solve them with some help from others
295
30 sec
Q.
researcher who focused on critical attachment periods in baby birds, a concept he called imprinting
296
30 sec
Q.
her theory of parenting styles had three main types (permissive, authoritative, & authoritarian)
297
30 sec
Q.
style of parenting in which parent is rigid and overly strict, showing little warmth to the child
298
30 sec
Q.
parents who are firm, set clear limits, reason with their children, and explain things to them
299
30 sec
Q.
A parenting style characterized by the placement of few limits on the child's behavior.
300
30 sec
Q.
a baby's tendency, when touched on the cheek, to turn toward the touch, open the mouth, and search for the nipple
301
30 sec
Q.
Reflex that causes a newborn to make sucking motions when a finger or nipple if placed in the mouth
302
30 sec
Q.
an infant's clinging response to a touch on the palm of his or her hand
303
30 sec
Q.
response that one makes after a sudden, unexpected loud noise or similar sudden stimulus
304
30 sec
Q.
Reflex in which a newborn fans out the toes when the sole of the foot is touched
305
30 sec
Q.
Erikson's first stage during the first year of life, infants learn to trust when they are cared for in a consistent warm manner
306
30 sec
Q.
Erikson's stage in which a toddler learns to exercise will and to do things independently; failure to do so causes shame and doubt
307
30 sec
Q.
Erikson's third stage in which the child finds independence in planning, playing and other activities
308
30 sec
Q.
Erikson's stage between 6 and 11 years, when the child learns to be productive
309
30 sec
Q.
Erikson's stage during which teenagers and young adults search for and become their true selves
310
30 sec
Q.
One of Erikson's Psychosocial Stages of Development. Young Adulthood (19 to 40 years) Young adults need to form intimate, loving relationships with other people. Success leads to strong relationships, while failure results in loneliness and isolation. Being loved or alone
311
30 sec
Q.
Erikson's stage of social development in which middle-aged people begin to devote themselves more to fulfilling one's potential and doing public service
312
30 sec
Q.
Erikson's final stage in which those near the end of life look back and evaluate their lives
313
30 sec
Q.
neo-Freudian, humanistic; 8 psychosocial stages of development: theory shows how people evolve through the life span. Each stage is marked by a psychological crisis that involves confronting "Who am I?"
314
30 sec
Q.
created the most influential theory of moral development by expanding Piaget's theory
315
30 sec
Q.
before age 9; self interest; obey rules to avoid punishment or gain concrete rewards.
316
30 sec
Q.
second level of Kohlberg's stages of moral development in which the child's behavior is governed by conforming to the society's norms of behavior
317
30 sec
Q.
adolescence and beyond; actions reflect belief in basic rights and self-defined ethical principles
318
30 sec
Q.
The persistence of learning over time through the storage and retrieval of information.
319
30 sec
Q.
The processing of information into the memory system.
320
30 sec
Q.
The retention of encoded information over time.
321
30 sec
Q.
The process of getting information out of memory storage.
322
30 sec
Q.
The immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system.
323
30 sec
Q.
Activated memory that holds a few items briefly before the information is stored or forgotten.
324
30 sec
Q.
The relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system, including : knowledge, skills, and experiences.
325
30 sec
Q.
A newer understanding of short-term memory that focuses on conscious, active processing of incoming auditory and visual-spatial information, and of information retrieved from long-term memory.
326
30 sec
Q.
The processing of many aspects of a problem simultaneously; the brain's natural mode of information processing for many functions.
327
30 sec
Q.
Unconscious encoding of incidental information, such as space, time, and frequency, and of well-learned information.
328
30 sec
Q.
Encoding that requires attention and conscious effort.
329
30 sec
Q.
The conscious repetition of information, either to maintain it in consciousness or to encode it for storage.
330
30 sec
Q.
The tendency for distributed study or practice to yield better long-term retention than is achieved through massed study or practice.
331
30 sec
Q.
Our tendency to recall best the last and first items in a list.
332
30 sec
Q.
Memory aids, especially those techniques that use vivid imagery and organizational devices.
333
30 sec
Q.
Organizing items into familiar, manageable units; often occurs automatically.
334
30 sec
Q.
A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli; a photographic or picture-image memory lasting no more than a few tenths of a second.
335
30 sec
Q.
A momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli; if attention is elsewhere, sounds and words can still be recalled within 3 or 4 seconds.
336
30 sec
Q.
An increase in a synapse's firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation.
337
30 sec
Q.
Retention independent of conscious recollection (nondeclarartive or procedural memory).
338
30 sec
Q.
Memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and "declare" (declarative memory).
339
30 sec
Q.
A neural center that is located in the limbic system; helps process explicit memories for storage.
340
30 sec
Q.
A measure of memory in which the person must retrieve information learned earlier.
341
30 sec
Q.
A measure of memory in which the person need only identify items previously learned.
342
30 sec
Q.
A measure of memory that assesses the amount of time saved when learning material for a second time.
343
30 sec
Q.
The activation, often unconsciously, of particular associations in memory.
344
30 sec
Q.
That eerie sense that "I've experienced this before." Cues from the current situation may subconsciously trigger the retrieval of an earlier experience.
345
30 sec
Q.
The tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with one's current good or bad mood.
346
30 sec
Q.
The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information.
347
30 sec
Q.
The disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of old information.
348
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalytic theory, the basic defense mechanism that banishes from consciousness anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories.
349
30 sec
Q.
Incorporating misleading information into one's memory of an event.
350
30 sec
Q.
Attributing to the wrong source an event we have experienced, heard about, read about, or imagined (source misattribution).
351
30 sec
Q.
The mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.
352
30 sec
Q.
A mental grouping of similar objects, events, idea, or people.
353
30 sec
Q.
A mental image or best example of category. Matching new items to a prototype provides a quick and easy method for storing items into categories.
354
30 sec
Q.
A methodical, logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem.
355
30 sec
Q.
A simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgements and solve problems efficiently.
356
30 sec
Q.
A sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem.
357
30 sec
Q.
The ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.
358
30 sec
Q.
A tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore it distort contradictory evidence.
359
30 sec
Q.
The inability to see a problem from a new perspective, by employing a different mental set.
360
30 sec
Q.
A tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past.
361
30 sec
Q.
The tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions.
362
30 sec
Q.
Judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes; may lead us to ignore other relevant information.
363
30 sec
Q.
Estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind, we presume such events are common.
364
30 sec
Q.
The tendency to be more confident than correct-to over estimate the accuracy of our beliefs and judgments.
365
30 sec
Q.
Clinging to one's initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited.
366
30 sec
Q.
An effortless, immediate, automatic feeling or thought, as contrasted with explicit, conscious reasoning.
367
30 sec
Q.
The way and issue is posed; how an issue is framed can significantly affect decisions and judgments.
368
30 sec
Q.
Our spoken, written, or signed words and the ways we combine them to communicate meaning.
369
30 sec
Q.
In language, the smallest distinctive sound unit.
370
30 sec
Q.
In a language, the smallest unit that carries meaning; may be a word or part of a word.
371
30 sec
Q.
In a language, a system of rules that enables us to communicate with and understand others.
372
30 sec
Q.
The set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphed, words, and sentences in a given language; the study of meaning.
373
30 sec
Q.
The rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences in a given language.
374
30 sec
Q.
Beginning at about 4 months, the stage of Speech development in which the infant spontaneously utters various sounds at first unrelated to the household language.
375
30 sec
Q.
The stage in speech development, from about age 1 to 2, during which a child speaks mostly in single words.
376
30 sec
Q.
Beginning about age 2, the stage in speech development during which a child speaks mostly two-word statements.
377
30 sec
Q.
Early speech stage in which a child speaks like a telegram using mostly nouns and verbs.
378
30 sec
Q.
Whorf's hypothesis that language determines the way we think.
379
30 sec
Q.
the memory of autobiographical events that can be explicitly stated or conjured. It is the collection of past personal experiences that occurred at a particular time and place.
380
30 sec
Q.
a highly detailed, exceptionally vivid 'snapshot' of the moment and circumstances in which a piece of surprising and consequential (or emotionally arousing) news was heard.
381
30 sec
Q.
refers to improved recall of specific episodes or information when the context present at encoding and retrieval are the same.
382
30 sec
Q.
the phenomenon through which memory retrieval is most efficient when an individual is in the same state of consciousness as they were when the memory was formed
383
30 sec
Q.
an inability to retrieve information from one's past
384
30 sec
Q.
an inability to form new memories
385
30 sec
Q.
the course of forgetting is initially rapid, then levels off with time
386
30 sec
Q.
failure to process information into memory
387
30 sec
Q.
the inability to recall long-term memories because of inadequate or missing retrieval cues
388
30 sec
Q.
encoding on a basic level based on the structure or appearance of words
389
30 sec
Q.
encoding semantically, based on the meaning of the words; tends to yield the best retention
390
30 sec
Q.
narrows the available problem solutions to determine the single best solution
391
30 sec
Q.
expands the number of possible problem solutions
392
30 sec
Q.
humans have an inborn native ability to develop language
393
30 sec
Q.
the process of acquiring new and relatively enduring information or behaviors.
394
30 sec
Q.
decreasing responsiveness with repeated stimulation. As infants gain familiarity with repeated exposure to a visual stimulus, their interest wanes and they look away sooner.
395
30 sec
Q.
learning that certain events occur together. The events may be two stimuli (as in classical conditioning) or a response and its consequences (as in operant conditioning).
396
30 sec
Q.
any event or situation that evokes a response.
397
30 sec
Q.
the acquisition of mental information, whether by observing events, by watching others, or through language.
398
30 sec
Q.
a type of learning in which one learns to link two or more stimuli and anticipate events.
399
30 sec
Q.
the view that psychology (1) should be an objective science that (2) studies behavior without reference to mental processes. Most research psychologists today agree with (1) but not with (2).
400
30 sec
Q.
in classical conditioning, a stimulus that elicits no response before conditioning.
401
30 sec
Q.
in classical conditioning, an un-learned, naturally occurring response (such as salivation) to an unconditioned stimulus (US) (such as food in the mouth).
402
30 sec
Q.
in classical conditioning, a stimulus that unconditionally—naturally and automatically—triggers a response (UR).
403
30 sec
Q.
in classical conditioning, a learned response to a previously neutral (but now conditioned) stimulus (CS).
404
30 sec
Q.
in classical conditioning, an originally irrelevant stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus (US), comes to trigger a conditioned response (CR).
405
30 sec
Q.
in classical conditioning, the initial stage, when one links a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus begins triggering the conditioned response. In operant conditioning, the strengthening of a reinforced response.
406
30 sec
Q.
a procedure in which the conditioned stimulus in one conditioning experience is paired with a new neutral stimulus, creating a second (often weaker) conditioned stimulus. For example, an animal that has learned that a tone predicts food might then learn that a light predicts the tone and begin responding to the light alone. (Also called second-order conditioning.)
407
30 sec
Q.
the diminishing of a conditioned response; occurs in classical conditioning when an unconditioned stimulus (US) does not follow a conditioned stimulus (CS); occurs in operant conditioning when a response is no longer reinforced.
408
30 sec
Q.
the reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response.
409
30 sec
Q.
the tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus to elicit similar responses.
410
30 sec
Q.
(1) in classical conditioning, the learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus.
411
30 sec
Q.
a type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punisher.
412
30 sec
Q.
Thorndike's principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and that behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely.
413
30 sec
Q.
in operant conditioning research, a chamber (also known as a Skinner box) containing a bar or key that an animal can manipulate to obtain a food or water reinforcer; attached devices record the animal's rate of bar pressing or key pecking.
414
30 sec
Q.
in operant conditioning, any event that strengthens the behavior it follows.
415
30 sec
Q.
an operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior.
416
30 sec
Q.
in operant conditioning, a stimulus that elicits a response after association with reinforcement (in contrast to related stimuli not associated with reinforcement).
417
30 sec
Q.
increasing behaviors by presenting positive reinforcers. A positive reinforcer is any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response.
418
30 sec
Q.
increasing behaviors by stopping or reducing negative stimuli. A negative reinforcer is any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response.
419
30 sec
Q.
an innately reinforcing stimulus, such as one that satisfies a biological need.
420
30 sec
Q.
a stimulus that gains its reinforcing power through its association with a primary reinforcer; also known as a secondary reinforcer.
421
30 sec
Q.
a pattern that defines how often a desired response will be reinforced.
422
30 sec
Q.
reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs.
423
30 sec
Q.
reinforcing a response only part of the time; results in slower acquisition of a response but much greater resistance to extinction than does continuous reinforcement.
424
30 sec
Q.
in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified number of responses.
425
30 sec
Q.
in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses.
426
30 sec
Q.
in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified time has elapsed.
427
30 sec
Q.
in operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals.
428
30 sec
Q.
an event that tends to decrease the behavior that it follows.
429
30 sec
Q.
a system for electronically recording, amplifying, and feeding back information regarding a subtle physiological state, such as blood pressure or muscle tension.
430
30 sec
Q.
behavior that occurs as an automatic response to some stimulus.
431
30 sec
Q.
behavior that operates on the environment, producing consequences.
432
30 sec
Q.
a mental representation of the layout of one's environment. For example, after exploring a maze, rats act as if they have learned a cognitive map of it.
433
30 sec
Q.
learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it.
434
30 sec
Q.
a desire to perform a behavior effectively for its own sake.
435
30 sec
Q.
a desire to perform a behavior to receive promised rewards or avoid threatened punishment.
436
30 sec
Q.
the hopelessness and passive resignation an animal or human learns when unable to avoid repeated aversive events.
437
30 sec
Q.
the perception that chance or outside forces beyond our personal control determine our fate.
438
30 sec
Q.
the perception that you control your own fate.
439
30 sec
Q.
the ability to control impulses and delay short-term gratification for greater long-term rewards.
440
30 sec
Q.
learning by observing others. (Also called social learning.)
441
30 sec
Q.
frontal lobe neurons that some scientists believe fire when performing certain actions or when observing another doing so. The brain's mirroring of another's action may enable imitation and empathy.
442
30 sec
Q.
the process of observing and imitating a specific behavior.
443
30 sec
Q.
positive, constructive, helpful behavior. The opposite of antisocial behavior.
444
30 sec
Q.
researcher famous for work in observational or social learning including the famous Bobo doll experiment
445
30 sec
Q.
Early behaviorist; famous for the "Little Albert" experiments on fear conditioning
446
30 sec
Q.
Behaviorist that developed the theory of operant conditioning by training pigeons and rats
447
30 sec
Q.
researched classical conditioning; found subjects learn the predictability of an event through trials (cognitive element)
448
30 sec
Q.
cognitive psychologist; latent learning and cognitive map
449
30 sec
Q.
Researched taste aversion. Showed that when rats ate a novel substance before being nauseated by a drug or radiation, they developed a conditioned taste aversion for the substance.
450
30 sec
Q.
law of effect-the principle that behavior followed by favorable consequences becomes more likely and vice versa
451
30 sec
Q.
the process by which our sensory receptors and nervous system receive and represent stimulus energies from our environment
452
30 sec
Q.
the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events
453
30 sec
Q.
analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain's integration of sensory information
454
30 sec
Q.
information processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations
455
30 sec
Q.
the focusing of conscious awareness on a particular stimulus
456
30 sec
Q.
failing to see visible objects when our attention is directed elsewhere
457
30 sec
Q.
failing to notice changes in the environment
458
30 sec
Q.
conversion of one form of energy into another. In sensation, the transforming of stimulus energies, such as sights, sounds, and smells, into neural impulses our brains can interpret.
459
30 sec
Q.
the study of relationships between the physical characteristics of stimuli, such as their intensity, and our psychological experience of them
460
30 sec
Q.
the minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular stimulus 50 percent of the time
461
30 sec
Q.
a theory predicting how and when we detect the presence of a faint stimulus (signal) amid background stimulation (noise). Assumes there is no single absolute threshold and that detection depends partly on a person's experience, expectations, motivation, and alertness.
462
30 sec
Q.
below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness
463
30 sec
Q.
the activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations, thus predisposing one's perception, memory, or response
464
30 sec
Q.
the minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50 percent of the time
465
30 sec
Q.
the principle that, to be perceived as different, two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount)
466
30 sec
Q.
diminished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation
467
30 sec
Q.
a mental predisposition to perceive one thing and not another
468
30 sec
Q.
the controversial claim that perception can occur apart from sensory input; includes telepathy, clairvoyance, and precognition
469
30 sec
Q.
the study of paranormal phenomena, including ESP and psychokinesis
470
30 sec
Q.
mind to mind communication
471
30 sec
Q.
perceiving remote events
472
30 sec
Q.
perceiving future events
473
30 sec
Q.
Have not been replicated under controlled conditions
474
30 sec
Q.
the distance from the peak of one light or sound wave to the peak of the next. Electromagnetic wavelengths vary from the short blips of cosmic rays to the long pulses of radio transmission
475
30 sec
Q.
the dimension of color that is determined by the wavelength of light; what we know as the color names blue, green, and so forth
476
30 sec
Q.
the amount of energy in a light or sound wave, which we perceive as brightness or loudness, as determined by the wave's amplitude
477
30 sec
Q.
the adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters
478
30 sec
Q.
a ring of muscle tissue that forms the colored portion of the eye around the pupil and controls the size of the pupil opening
479
30 sec
Q.
the transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina
480
30 sec
Q.
the light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the receptor rods and cones plus layers of neurons that begin the processing of visual information
481
30 sec
Q.
the process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina
482
30 sec
Q.
retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision, when cones don't respond
483
30 sec
Q.
retinal receptor cells that are concentrated near the center of the retina and that function in daylight or in well-lit conditions. The cones detect fine detail and give rise to color sensations.
484
30 sec
Q.
the nerve that carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain
485
30 sec
Q.
the point at which the optic nerve leaves the eye, creating a "blind" spot because no receptor cells are located there
486
30 sec
Q.
the central focal point in the retina, around which the eye's cones cluster
487
30 sec
Q.
nerve cells in the brain that respond to specific features of the stimulus, such as shape, angle, or movement
488
30 sec
Q.
the processing of many aspects of a problem simultaneously
489
30 sec
Q.
the theory that the retina contains three different color receptors—one most sensitive to red, one to green, one to blue—which, when stimulated in combination, can produce the perception of any color.
490
30 sec
Q.
the theory that opposing retinal processes enable color vision
491
30 sec
Q.
an organized whole
492
30 sec
Q.
the organization of the visual field into objects that stand out from their surroundings
493
30 sec
Q.
the perceptual tendency to organize stimuli into coherent groups
494
30 sec
Q.
the ability to see objects in three dimensions although the images that strike the retina are two-dimensional; allows us to judge distance
495
30 sec
Q.
a laboratory device for testing depth perception in infants and young animals
496
30 sec
Q.
depth cues, such as retinal disparity, that depend on the use of two eyes
497
30 sec
Q.
a binocular cue for perceiving depth
498
30 sec
Q.
depth cues, such as interposition and linear perspective, available to either eye alone
499
30 sec
Q.
Illusion of movement created when two or more adjacent lights blink on and off in quick succession
500
30 sec
Q.
perceiving objects as unchanging even as illumination and retinal images change
501
30 sec
Q.
perceiving familiar objects as having consistent color, even if changing illumination alters the wavelengths reflected by the object
502
30 sec
Q.
the ability to adjust to an artificially displaced or even inverted visual field
503
30 sec
Q.
the sense or act of hearing
504
30 sec
Q.
the number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time
505
30 sec
Q.
a tone's experienced highness or lowness; depends on frequency
506
30 sec
Q.
the chamber between the eardrum and cochlea containing three tiny bones (hammer, anvil, and stirrup) that concentrate the vibrations of the eardrum on the cochlea's oval window
507
30 sec
Q.
a coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear through which sound waves trigger nerve impulses
508
30 sec
Q.
the innermost part of the ear, containing the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs
509
30 sec
Q.
hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea's receptor cells or to the auditory nerves; also called nerve deafness
510
30 sec
Q.
hearing loss caused by damage to the mechanical system that conducts sound waves to the cochlea
511
30 sec
Q.
a device for converting sounds into electrical signals and stimulating the auditory nerve through electrodes threaded into the cochlea
512
30 sec
Q.
the theory that links the pitch we hear with the place where the cochlea's membrane is stimulated
513
30 sec
Q.
the theory that the rate of nerve impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone, thus enabling us to sense its pitch
514
30 sec
Q.
the theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological "gate" that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on to the brain. The "gate" is opened by the activity of pain signals traveling up small nerve fibers and is closed by activity in larger fibers or by information coming from the brain.
515
30 sec
Q.
the system for sensing the position and movement of individual body parts
516
30 sec
Q.
the sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance
517
30 sec
Q.
the principle that one sense may influence another
518
30 sec
Q.
the tendency to interpret an object as always being the same actual size, regardless of its distance
519
30 sec
Q.
the tendency to interpret the shape of an object as being constant, even when its shape changes on the retina
520
30 sec
Q.
The illusion of movement is produced by showing the rapid progression of images or objects that are not moving at all
521
30 sec
Q.
an error in perception that occurs when we misperceive sounds because the audio and visual parts of the speech are mismatched.
522
30 sec
Q.
our awareness of ourselves and our environment.
523
30 sec
Q.
the biological clock; regular bodily rhythms (for example, of temperature and wakefulness) that occur on a 24-hour cycle. (
524
30 sec
Q.
rapid eye movement sleep; a recurring sleep stage during which vivid dreams commonly occur. Also known as paradoxical sleep, because the muscles are relaxed (except for minor twitches) but other body systems are active.
525
30 sec
Q.
the relatively slow brain waves of a relaxed, awake state.
526
30 sec
Q.
periodic, natural loss of consciousness—as distinct from unconsciousness resulting from a coma, general anesthesia, or hibernation.
527
30 sec
Q.
the large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep.
528
30 sec
Q.
nonrapid eye movement sleep; encompasses all sleep stages except for REM sleep.
529
30 sec
Q.
a pair of cell clusters in the hypothalamus that controls circadian rhythm. In response to light, the SCN causes the pineal gland to adjust melatonin production, thus modifying our feelings of sleepiness.
530
30 sec
Q.
recurring problems in falling or staying asleep.
531
30 sec
Q.
a sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks. The sufferer may lapse directly into REM sleep, often at inopportune times.
532
30 sec
Q.
a sleep disorder characterized by temporary cessations of breathing during sleep and repeated momentary awakenings.
533
30 sec
Q.
a sleep disorder characterized by high arousal and an appearance of being terrified; unlike nightmares, night terrors occur during NREM-3 sleep
534
30 sec
Q.
a sequence of images, emotions, and thoughts passing through a sleeping person's mind.
535
30 sec
Q.
according to Freud, the remembered story line of a dream
536
30 sec
Q.
according to Freud, the underlying meaning of a dream (as distinct from its manifest content).
537
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for REM sleep to increase following REM sleep deprivation
538
30 sec
Q.
continued substance craving and use despite significant life disruption and/or physical risk.
539
30 sec
Q.
a chemical substance that alters perceptions and moods.
540
30 sec
Q.
the diminishing effect with regular use of the same dose of a drug, requiring the user to take larger and larger doses before experiencing the drug's effect. (M
541
30 sec
Q.
compulsive craving of drugs or certain behaviors (such as gambling) despite known adverse consequences.
542
30 sec
Q.
the discomfort and distress that follow discontinuing an addictive drug or behavior.
543
30 sec
Q.
drugs (such as alcohol, barbiturates, and opiates) that reduce neural activity and slow body functions.
544
30 sec
Q.
(popularly known as alcoholism). Alcohol use marked by tolerance, withdrawal, and a drive to continue problematic use.
545
30 sec
Q.
drugs that depress central nervous system activity, reducing anxiety but impairing memory and judgment.
546
30 sec
Q.
opium and its derivatives, such as morphine and heroin; they depress neural activity, temporarily lessening pain and anxiety.
547
30 sec
Q.
drugs (such as caffeine, nicotine, and the more powerful amphetamines, cocaine, Ecstasy, and methamphetamine) that excite neural activity and speed up body functions.
548
30 sec
Q.
drugs that stimulate neural activity, causing speeded-up body functions and associated energy and mood changes.
549
30 sec
Q.
a stimulating and highly addictive psychoactive drug in tobacco.
550
30 sec
Q.
a powerful and addictive stimulant, derived from the coca plant, producing temporarily increased alertness and euphoria.
551
30 sec
Q.
a powerfully addictive drug that stimulates the central nervous system, with speeded-up body functions and associated energy and mood changes; over time, appears to reduce baseline dopamine levels.
552
30 sec
Q.
a synthetic stimulant and mild hallucinogen. Produces euphoria and social intimacy, but with short-term health risks and longer-term harm to serotonin-producing neurons and to mood and cognition.
553
30 sec
Q.
psychedelic ("mind -manifesting") drugs, such as LSD, that distort perceptions and evoke sensory images in the absence of sensory input.
554
30 sec
Q.
a powerful hallucinogenic drug; also known as acid (lysergic acid diethylamide). Can produce hallucinations
555
30 sec
Q.
an altered state of consciousness reported after a close brush with death (such as through cardiac arrest); often similar to drug-induced hallucinations.
556
30 sec
Q.
the major active ingredient in marijuana; triggers a variety of effects, including mild hallucinations.
557
30 sec
Q.
principle that info is often simultaneously processed on separate conscious and unconscious tracks
558
30 sec
Q.
Alpha+Theta waves. Breathing becomes irregular, decrease in heart rate, body temperature and muscles tension :possible hypnic jerk(muscle contraction)
559
30 sec
Q.
sleep spindles (short high-amplitude bursts); arousal is more difficult, sleep talking
560
30 sec
Q.
deep sleep, slow delta waves, most restorative sleep, shorter as night progresses
561
30 sec
Q.
nREMvivid sensory phenomena that occur during the onset of sleep
562
30 sec
Q.
a period of sleep lasting about 90 minutes and including one or more stages of NREM sleep, followed by REM sleep
563
30 sec
Q.
regulated by SCN, sensitive to light
564
30 sec
Q.
diminish immune system
565
30 sec
Q.
bad dreams occurring during REM sleep
566
30 sec
Q.
a theory of dreaming; this theory proposes that the brain tries to make sense of random brain activity that occurs during sleep by synthesizing the activity with stored memories
567
30 sec
Q.
Dreams provide "psychic safe value" - accepting otherwise unacceptable feelings, dreaming of secret desires (manifest content & latent content) - a hidden meaning.
568
30 sec
Q.
dream content reflects dreamers' cognitive development- their knowledge and understanding
569
30 sec
Q.
decreases REM sleep, leads to failure to process recent experience into long-term memory
570
30 sec
Q.
the inability of the voluntary muscles to move during REM sleep. brainstem blocks messages from motor cortex
571
30 sec
Q.
recurring problems in falling or staying asleep
572
30 sec
Q.
occurring during deep sleep, an episode of moving around or walking around in one's sleep
573
30 sec
Q.
speaking that occurs during NREM sleep
574
30 sec
Q.
dreams provide the sleeping brain with periodic stimulation that helps preserve neural networks
575
30 sec
Q.
the scientific study of behavior and mental processes
576
30 sec
Q.
Founder of Psychology
577
30 sec
Q.
opened first psychology lab in the US, and he founded and became the first president of the APA
578
30 sec
Q.
early school of psychology promoted by Wundt and Titchener; used introspection to study how a conscious experience can be broken down into its component parts
579
30 sec
Q.
Systematic self-observation of one's own conscious experience/sensations
580
30 sec
Q.
founder of functionalism; studied how humans use perception to function in our environment
581
30 sec
Q.
An early school of psychology that focused on how our mental and behavioral processes function - how they enable us to adapt, survive, and flourish.
582
30 sec
Q.
first female president of the APA (1905); a student of William James; denied the PhD
583
30 sec
Q.
Holds the distinction of being the first American woman to be awarded a Ph. D. in psychology. Best known for her experimental work in animal behavior.
584
30 sec
Q.
Reformer who advocated for the humane treatment of the mentally ill.
585
30 sec
Q.
an explanation using an integrated set of principles that organizes and predicts observations.
586
30 sec
Q.
a testable prediction, often implied by a theory.
587
30 sec
Q.
a carefully worded statement of the exact procedures (operations) used in a research study.
588
30 sec
Q.
repeating the essence of a research study, usually with different participants in different situations, to see whether the basic finding extends to other participants and circumstances.
589
30 sec
Q.
a "study of studies" that combines the findings of multiple studies to arrive at a conclusion
590
30 sec
Q.
Studies designed to observe and record behavior.
591
30 sec
Q.
an observation technique in which one person is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles
592
30 sec
Q.
a descriptive technique of observing and recording behavior in naturally occurring situations without trying to manipulate and control the situation
593
30 sec
Q.
when observations may be skewed to align with observer expectations
594
30 sec
Q.
behavior of study participants is altered because they recognize that they are being studied
595
30 sec
Q.
a technique for ascertaining the self-reported attitudes or behaviors of people, usually by questioning a representative, random sample of them.
596
30 sec
Q.
The effect that subtle changes in the words or order of words can have on a study participant
597
30 sec
Q.
A tendency to give socially approved answers to questions about oneself.
598
30 sec
Q.
a flawed sampling process that produces an unrepresentative sample.
599
30 sec
Q.
people who volunteer to participate in research studies often differ from those who do not volunteer
600
30 sec
Q.
A sample that reflects the characteristics of the population from which it is drawn
601
30 sec
Q.
All those in a group being studied, from which samples may be drawn
602
30 sec
Q.
a sample that fairly represents a population because each member has an equal chance of inclusion.
603
30 sec
Q.
A statistical measure of a relationship between two variables. Does not mean causation.
604
30 sec
Q.
a statistical index of the relationship between two variables., varies from -1 to +1.
605
30 sec
Q.
a relationship between two variables in which both variables either increase or decrease together
606
30 sec
Q.
the relationship between two variables in which one variable increases as the other variable decreases
607
30 sec
Q.
a graphed cluster of dots, each of which represents the values of two variables.
608
30 sec
Q.
Perceiving a relationship where none exists. Or perceiving a stronger-than-actual relationship
609
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for extreme or unusual scores to fall back (regress) toward their average.
610
30 sec
Q.
the concept that a correlation between two variables may stem from both being influenced by some third variable
611
30 sec
Q.
A research study conducted to determine the effect that one variable has upon another variable.
612
30 sec
Q.
In an experiment, the group that is exposed to the treatment, that is, to one version of the independent variable.
613
30 sec
Q.
In an experiment, the group that is not exposed to the treatment; contrasts with the experimental group and serves as a comparison for evaluating the effect of the treatment.
614
30 sec
Q.
assigning participants to experimental and control conditions by chance, thus minimizing preexisting differences between those assigned to the different groups
615
30 sec
Q.
The unconscious tendency for researchers to treat members of the experimental and control groups differently to increase the chance of confirming their hypothesis.
616
30 sec
Q.
a type of research design where a comparison is made, as in an experiment, but no random assignment of participants to groups occurs
617
30 sec
Q.
research design in which participants don't know whether they are in the experimental or control group
618
30 sec
Q.
an experimental procedure in which both the research participants and the research staff are ignorant (blind) about whether the research participants have received the treatment or a placebo. .
619
30 sec
Q.
A nonspecific improvement that occurs as a result of a person's expectations of change rather than as a direct result of any specific therapeutic treatment.
620
30 sec
Q.
The experimental factor that is manipulated; the variable whose effect is being studied.
621
30 sec
Q.
The measurable effect, outcome, or response in which the research is interested.
622
30 sec
Q.
anything that causes a difference between the IV and the DV other than the independent variable
623
30 sec
Q.
The extent to which a test measures or predicts what it is supposed to.
624
30 sec
Q.
Mathematical procedures for organizing collections of data, such as determining the mean, the median, the range, the variance, and the correlation coefficient
625
30 sec
Q.
a bar graph depicting a frequency distribution
626
30 sec
Q.
mean, median, mode
627
30 sec
Q.
the average of a distribution, obtained by adding the scores and then dividing by the number of scores
628
30 sec
Q.
The middle score in a distribution; half the scores are above it and half are below it.
629
30 sec
Q.
the most frequently occurring score(s) in a distribution
630
30 sec
Q.
When a distribution of scores is not distributed normally (and symmetrically).
631
30 sec
Q.
The mean will be higher than the median in a positively skewed distribution.
632
30 sec
Q.
The mean will be lower than the median in a negatively skewed distribution.
633
30 sec
Q.
Distance between highest and lowest scores in a set of data.
634
30 sec
Q.
Indicates both how much scores group together and how dispersed they are
635
30 sec
Q.
A computed measure of how much scores vary around the mean score.
636
30 sec
Q.
describes a symmetrical, bell shaped curve that shows the distribution of many types of data
637
30 sec
Q.
the percentage of scores below a certain point
638
30 sec
Q.
a measure of how many standard deviations you are away from the norm (average or mean)
639
30 sec
Q.
numerical data that allow one to generalize—to infer from sample data the probability of something being true of a population.
640
30 sec
Q.
a statistical statement of how likely it is that an obtained result occurred by chance
641
30 sec
Q.
the hypothesis that there is no significant difference between specified populations, any observed difference being due to sampling or experimental error.
642
30 sec
Q.
The probability of results of the experiment being attributed to chance.
643
30 sec
Q.
can't harm an animal unless it benefits human welfare
644
30 sec
Q.
1. informed consent
645
30 sec
Q.
A committee at each institution where research is conducted to review every experiment for ethics and methodology.
646
30 sec
Q.
a syndrome marked by a clinically significant disturbance in an individual's cognition, emotion regulation, or behavior.
647
30 sec
Q.
a psychological disorder marked by the appearance by age 7 of one or more of three key symptoms: extreme inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.
648
30 sec
Q.
the concept that diseases, in this case psychological disorders, have physical causes that can be diagnosed, treated, and, in most cases, cured, often through treatment in a hospital.
649
30 sec
Q.
suggests that a person may be predisposed for a mental disorder that remains unexpressed until triggered by stress
650
30 sec
Q.
the American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition; a widely used system for classifying psychological disorders.
651
30 sec
Q.
Famous study where 8 men admitted themselves to mental institutions for hearing voices; showed therapists' bias to blame illness on life experiences
652
30 sec
Q.
psychological disorders characterized by distressing, persistent anxiety or maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety.
653
30 sec
Q.
an anxiety disorder in which a person is continually tense, apprehensive, and in a state of autonomic nervous system arousal.
654
30 sec
Q.
an anxiety disorder marked by unpredictable, minutes-long episodes of intense dread in which a person experiences terror and accompanying chest pain, choking, or other frightening sensations. Often followed by worry over a possible next attack.
655
30 sec
Q.
an anxiety disorder marked by a persistent, irrational fear and avoidance of a specific object, activity, or situation.
656
30 sec
Q.
intense fear of social situations, leading to avoidance of such. (Formerly called social phobia.)
657
30 sec
Q.
a disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts (obsessions) and/or actions (compulsions).
658
30 sec
Q.
brain region that monitors our actions and checks for errors, plays a role in OCD
659
30 sec
Q.
fear or avoidance of situations, such as crowds or wide-open places, where one has felt loss of control and panic.
660
30 sec
Q.
a disorder characterized by haunting memories, nightmares, social withdrawal, jumpy anxiety, numbness of feeling, and/or insomnia that lingers for four weeks or more after a traumatic experience.
661
30 sec
Q.
positive psychological changes as a result of struggling with extremely challenging circumstances and life crises.
662
30 sec
Q.
psychological disorders characterized by emotional extremes. See major depressive disorder, mania, and bipolar disorder.
663
30 sec
Q.
a mood disorder in which a person experiences, in the absence of drugs or another medical condition, two or more weeks with five or more symptoms, at least one of which must be either (1) depressed mood or (2) loss of interest or pleasure.
664
30 sec
Q.
Problems regulating appetite
665
30 sec
Q.
Mood disorder involving persistently depressed mood, with low self-esteem, withdrawal, pessimism, or despair, present for at least 2 years, with no absence of symptoms for more than 2 months.
666
30 sec
Q.
a mood disorder marked by a hyperactive, wildly optimistic state.
667
30 sec
Q.
a mood disorder in which a person alternates between the hopelessness and lethargy of depression and the over-excited state of mania. (Formerly called manic-depressive disorder.)
668
30 sec
Q.
genetic component; scarce on serotonin and norepinephrine in depression; high serotonin and norepinephrine in mania
669
30 sec
Q.
compulsive fretting; overthinking about our problems and their causes.
670
30 sec
Q.
a psychological disorder characterized by delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and/or diminished or inappropriate emotional expression.
671
30 sec
Q.
a psychological disorder in which a person loses contact with reality, experiencing irrational ideas and distorted perceptions.
672
30 sec
Q.
false beliefs, often of persecution or grandeur, that may accompany psychotic disorders.
673
30 sec
Q.
false sensory experiences, such as seeing something in the absence of an external visual stimulus.
674
30 sec
Q.
a psychological disorder in which the symptoms take a somatic (bodily) form without apparent physical cause. (See conversion disorder and illness anxiety disorder.)
675
30 sec
Q.
a disorder in which a person experiences very specific genuine physical symptoms for which no physiological basis can be found. (Also called functional neurological symptom disorder.)
676
30 sec
Q.
a disorder in which a person interprets normal physical sensations as symptoms of a disease. (Formerly called hypochondriasis.)
677
30 sec
Q.
disorders in which conscious awareness becomes separated (dissociated) from previous memories, thoughts, and feelings.
678
30 sec
Q.
a rare dissociative disorder in which a person exhibits two or more distinct and alternating personalities. Formerly called multiple personality disorder.
679
30 sec
Q.
an eating disorder in which a person (usually an adolescent female) maintain a starvation diet despite being significantly (15 percent or more) underweight.
680
30 sec
Q.
an eating disorder in which a person alternates binge eating (usually of high-calorie foods) with purging (by vomit ing or laxative use) or fasting.
681
30 sec
Q.
significant binge-eating episodes, followed by distress, disgust, or guilt, but without the compensatory purging or fasting that marks bulimia nervosa.
682
30 sec
Q.
psychological disorders characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning.
683
30 sec
Q.
a personality disorder in which a person (usually a man) exhibits a lack of conscience for wrongdoing, even toward friends and family members. May be aggressive and ruthless or a clever con artist.
684
30 sec
Q.
views behavior as influenced by the interaction between people's traits (including their thinking) and their social context.
685
30 sec
Q.
A neurotransmitter that affects hunger, sleep, arousal, and mood.
686
30 sec
Q.
A neurotransmitter involved in arousal, as well as in learning and mood regulation
687
30 sec
Q.
Martin Seligman's theory that people become anxious and depressed when they make an attribution that they have no control over the stress in their lives (whether or not they actually have control).
688
30 sec
Q.
anxiety that is unrelated to any realistic, known source
689
30 sec
Q.
DSM provides labels for too many
690
30 sec
Q.
Coping strategy people use to relieve stress at the expense of developing frustration tolerance; build in other coping strategies to replace it
691
30 sec
Q.
The display of little or no emotion—a common negative symptom of schizophrenia.
692
30 sec
Q.
state of immobility and unresponsiveness lasting for long periods of time
693
30 sec
Q.
presence of inappropriate behaviors during schizophrenia
694
30 sec
Q.
absence of appropriate behaviors during schizophrenia
low activity in frontal lobes, out of sync neurons, increased activity in amygdala
697
30 sec
Q.
can begin at any age, frequently occurs in response to an emotionally traumatic event, recovery more likely
698
30 sec
Q.
a slow-developing process. Symptoms appear by late adolescence or early adulthood and as the people age, recovery doubtful
699
30 sec
Q.
(1) Mother whose schizophrenia was severe or long lasting
700
30 sec
Q.
The nearly 1-in-100 odds of a person being diagnosed with schizophrenia becomes 1-in-10 among those with a sibling or parent with the disorder.
701
30 sec
Q.
abruptly leave home/work, unable to recall past. Confusion about identity or assume a new one.
702
30 sec
Q.
A personality disorder characterized by consistent discomfort and restraint in social situations, overwhelming feelings of inadequacy, and extreme sensitivity to negative evaluation.
703
30 sec
Q.
condition marked by extreme instability in mood, identity, and impulse control
704
30 sec
Q.
characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, a preoccupation with fantasies of success or power, and a need for constant attention or admiration
705
30 sec
Q.
A person's characteristic way of explaining his experiences. Consistently attributing bad experiences to internal, global, and stable causes may increase vulnerability to depression.
706
30 sec
Q.
treatment involving psychological techniques; consists of interactions between a trained therapist and someone seeking to overcome psychological difficulties or achieve personal growth.
707
30 sec
Q.
prescribed medications or procedures that act directly on the person's physiology.
708
30 sec
Q.
an approach to psychotherapy that, depending on the client's problems, uses techniques from various forms of therapy.
709
30 sec
Q.
Freud's therapeutic technique. Freud believed the patient's free associations, resistances, dreams, and transferences—and the therapist's interpretations of them—released previously repressed feelings, allowing the patient to gain self-insight.
710
30 sec
Q.
in psychoanalysis, the blocking from consciousness of anxiety-laden material.
711
30 sec
Q.
in psychoanalysis, the analyst's noting supposed dream meanings, resistances, and other significant behaviors and events in order to promote insight.
712
30 sec
Q.
in psychoanalysis, the patient's transfer to the analyst of emotions linked with other relationships
713
30 sec
Q.
therapy deriving from the psychoanalytic tradition that views individuals as responding to unconscious forces and childhood experiences, and that seeks to enhance self-insight.
714
30 sec
Q.
a variety of therapies that aim to improve psychological functioning by increasing a person's awareness of underlying motives and defenses.
715
30 sec
Q.
a humanistic therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, in which the therapist uses techniques such as active listening within a genuine, accepting, empathic environment to facilitate clients' growth. (Also called person-centered therapy.)
716
30 sec
Q.
empathic listening in which the listener echoes, restates, and clarifies. A feature of Rogers' client-centered therapy.
717
30 sec
Q.
a caring, accepting, nonjudgmental attitude, which Carl Rogers believed would help clients to develop self-awareness and self-acceptance.
718
30 sec
Q.
therapy that applies learning principles to the elimination of unwanted behaviors.
719
30 sec
Q.
behavior therapy procedures that use classical conditioning to evoke new responses to stimuli that are triggering unwanted behaviors; include exposure therapies and aversive conditioning.
720
30 sec
Q.
behavioral techniques, such as systematic desensitization and virtual reality exposure therapy, that treat anxieties by exposing people (in imagination or actual situations) to the things they fear and avoid.
721
30 sec
Q.
a type of exposure therapy that associates a pleasant, relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli. Commonly used to treat phobias.
722
30 sec
Q.
an anxiety treatment that progressively exposes people to electronic simulations of their greatest fears, such as airplane flying, spiders, or public speaking.
723
30 sec
Q.
a type of counterconditioning that associates an unpleasant state (such as nausea) with an unwanted behavior (such as drinking alcohol).
724
30 sec
Q.
an operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token of some sort for exhibiting a desired behavior and can later exchange the tokens for various privileges or treats.
725
30 sec
Q.
therapy that teaches people new, more adaptive ways of thinking; based on the assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions.
726
30 sec
Q.
a confrontational cognitive therapy, developed by Albert Ellis, that vigorously challenges people's illogical, self-defeating attitudes and assumptions.
727
30 sec
Q.
a popular integrative therapy that combines cognitive therapy (changing self-defeating thinking) with behavior therapy (changing behavior).
728
30 sec
Q.
therapy conducted with groups rather than individuals, permitting therapeutic benefits from group interaction.
729
30 sec
Q.
therapy that treats the family as a system. Views an individual's unwanted behaviors as influenced by, or directed at, other family members.
730
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for extreme or unusual scores to fall back (regress) toward their average.
731
30 sec
Q.
a procedure for statistically combining the results of many different research studies.
732
30 sec
Q.
clinical decision making that integrates the best available research with clinical expertise and patient characteristics and preferences.
733
30 sec
Q.
a bond of trust and mutual understanding between a therapist and client, who work together constructively to overcome the client's problem.
734
30 sec
Q.
the personal strength that helps most people cope with stress and recover from adversity and even trauma.
735
30 sec
Q.
the study of the effects of drugs on mind and behavior.
736
30 sec
Q.
drugs used to treat schizophrenia and other forms of severe thought disorder.
737
30 sec
Q.
drugs used to control anxiety and agitation.
738
30 sec
Q.
drugs used to treat depression, anxiety disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and posttraumatic stress disorder. (Several widely used antidepressant drugs are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors—SSRIs.)
739
30 sec
Q.
a biomedical therapy for severely depressed patients in which a brief electric current is sent through the brain of an anesthetized patient.
740
30 sec
Q.
the application of repeated pulses of magnetic energy to the brain; used to stimulate or suppress brain activity.
741
30 sec
Q.
surgery that removes or destroys brain tissue in an effort to change behavior.
742
30 sec
Q.
a psychosurgical procedure once used to calm uncontrollably emotional or violent patients. The procedure cut the nerves connecting the frontal lobes to the emotion-controlling centers of the inner brain.
743
30 sec
Q.
behaviorism/learning; pioneer in systematic desensitization, maintained that fear could be unlearned
744
30 sec
Q.
described use of systematic desensitization to treat phobias
745
30 sec
Q.
pioneer in Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET), focuses on altering client's patterns of irrational thinking to reduce maladaptive behavior and emotions
746
30 sec
Q.
sought to reverse patient's catastrophizing beliefs about themselves, their situations and futures using cognitive therapy
747
30 sec
Q.
drawing on multiple theories and approaches to therapy to tailor treatment for a client
748
30 sec
Q.
the use of operant conditioning techniques to bring about desired changes in behavior
749
30 sec
Q.
Dramatically exaggerating the negative consequences of any minor event
750
30 sec
Q.
a therapy that helps people to cope with stressful situations by developing positive ways to think about the situation
751
30 sec
Q.
Treats seasonal affective disorder (SAD); scientifically proven to be effective, exposure to daily doses of intense light. Increases activity in the adrenal gland and the superchiasmatic nucleus.
752
30 sec
Q.
antidepressant drugs that achieve their agonistic effect on serotonin by selectively blocking its reuptake
753
30 sec
Q.
Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram.
754
30 sec
Q.
such as lithium, are used to treat mood instability and bipolar disorders
755
30 sec
Q.
set of alterations in one's activities and behaviors to promote healthy living, has potential to prevent and treat physical and psychological conditions
756
30 sec
Q.
the scientific study of how we think about, influence, and relate to one another
757
30 sec
Q.
We explain someone's behavior by crediting either the situation or the person's disposition
758
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for observers, when analyzing another's behavior, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition
759
30 sec
Q.
feelings, often influenced by our beliefs, that predispose us to respond in a particular way to objects, people, and events
760
30 sec
Q.
occurs when people are influenced by incidental cues, such as a speaker's attractiveness
761
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request
762
30 sec
Q.
a set of expectations (norms) about a social position, defining how those in the position ought to behave
763
30 sec
Q.
the theory that we act to reduce the discomfort we feel when two of our thoughts are inconsistent
764
30 sec
Q.
Adjusting one's behavior or thinking to coincide with a group standard.
765
30 sec
Q.
influence resulting from a person's desire to gain approval or avoid disapproval
766
30 sec
Q.
influence resulting from one's willingness to accept others' opinions about reality
767
30 sec
Q.
improved performance on simple or well-learned tasks in the presence of others
768
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for people in a group to exert less effort when pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal than when individually accountable
769
30 sec
Q.
the loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity
770
30 sec
Q.
the enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group
771
30 sec
Q.
the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives
772
30 sec
Q.
the enduring behaviors, ideas, attitudes, values, and traditions shared by a group of people and transmitted from one generation to the next
773
30 sec
Q.
an understood rule for accepted and expected behavior. Norms prescribe "proper" behavior.
774
30 sec
Q.
an unjustifiable (and usually negative) attitude toward a group and its members. generally involves stereotyped beliefs, negative feelings, and a predisposition to discriminatory action.
775
30 sec
Q.
A generalized belief about a group of people
776
30 sec
Q.
unjustifiable negative behavior toward a group and its members
777
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for people to believe the world is just and that people therefore get what they deserve and deserve what they get
778
30 sec
Q.
"Us"—people with whom we share a common identity.
779
30 sec
Q.
"them" - those perceived as different or apart from our ingroup
780
30 sec
Q.
the tendency to favor one's own group
781
30 sec
Q.
Theory that prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame
782
30 sec
Q.
the tendency to recall faces of one's own race more accurately than faces of other races
783
30 sec
Q.
any physical or verbal behavior intended to hurt or destroy
784
30 sec
Q.
the principle that frustration- the blocking of an attempt to achieve some goal- creates anger which can generate aggression
785
30 sec
Q.
culturally modeled guide for how to act in various situations
786
30 sec
Q.
the phenomenon that repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them
787
30 sec
Q.
an aroused state of intense positive absorption in another, usually present at the beginning of a love relationship
788
30 sec
Q.
the deep affectionate attachment we feel for those with whom our lives are intertwined
789
30 sec
Q.
a condition in which people receive from a relationship in proportion to what they give to it
790
30 sec
Q.
revealing intimate aspects of oneself to others
791
30 sec
Q.
the tendency for any given bystander to be less likely to give aid if other bystanders are present
792
30 sec
Q.
the theory that our social behavior is an exchange process, the aim of which is to maximize benefits and minimize costs
793
30 sec
Q.
an expectation that people will help, not hurt, those who have helped them
794
30 sec
Q.
an expectation that people will help those dependent upon them
795
30 sec
Q.
a perceived incompatibility of actions, goals, or ideas
796
30 sec
Q.
a situation in which the conflicting parties, by each rationally pursuing their self-interest, become caught in mutually destructive behavior
797
30 sec
Q.
mutual views often held by conflicting people, as when each side sees itself as ethical and peaceful and views the other side as evil and aggressive
798
30 sec
Q.
a belief that leads to its own fulfillment
799
30 sec
Q.
shared goals that override differences among people and require their cooperating
800
30 sec
Q.
Graduated and Reciprocated Initiatives in Tension-Reduction - a strategy designed to decrease international tensions
801
30 sec
Q.
1933-present; Field: social psychology; Contributions: proved that peoples behavior depends to a large extent on the roles they are asked to play; Studies: Stanford Prison Study-studied power of social roles to influence people's behavior
802
30 sec
Q.
Studied and demonstrated cognitive dissonance
803
30 sec
Q.
1907-1996; Field: social psychology; Contributions: studied conformity, found that individuals would conform even if they knew it was wrong; Studies: conformity, opinions and social pressures
804
30 sec
Q.
1933-1984; Field: social psychology; Contributions: wanted to see how the German soldiers in WWII fell to obedience, wanted to see how far individuals would go to be obedient; Studies: Shock Study
805
30 sec
Q.
unselfish regard for the welfare of others
806
30 sec
Q.
occurs when interested people focus on the arguments and respond with favorable thoughts
807
30 sec
Q.
1856-1939; Field: psychoanalytic, personality; Contributions: id/ego/superego, reality and pleasure principles, ego ideal, defense mechanisms (expanded by Anna Freud), psychoanalysis, transference
808
30 sec
Q.
1875-1961; Field: neo-Freudian, analytic psychology; Contributions: people had conscious and unconscious awareness; archetypes; collective unconscious; libido is all types of energy, not just sexual; Studies: dream studies/interpretation
809
30 sec
Q.
1902-1994; Field: neo-Freudian, humanistic; Contributions: created an 8-stage theory to show how people evolve through the life span. Each stage is marked by a psychological crisis that involves confronting "Who am I?"
810
30 sec
Q.
1927-1987; Field: cognition, moral development; Contributions: created a theory of moral development that has 3 levels; focuses on moral reasoning rather than overt behavior
811
30 sec
Q.
1936-pres; Field: cognition; Contributions: maintained that Köhlberg's work was developed by only observing boys and overlooked potential differences between the habitual moral judgments of boys and girls; girls focus more on relationships than laws and principles
812
30 sec
Q.
1842-1910; Field: functionalism; Contributions: studied how humans use perception to function in our environment; Studies: Pragmatism, The Meaning of Truth
813
30 sec
Q.
1832-1920; Field: structuralism, voluntarism; Contributions: introspection, basic units of experience; Studies: 1st psychological laboratory in world at University of Leipzig
814
30 sec
Q.
1904-1990; Field: behavioral; Contributions: created techniques to manipulate the consequences of an organism's behavior in order to observe the effects of subsequent behavior; Studies: Skinner box
815
30 sec
Q.
1878-1958; Field: behaviorism; Contributions: generalization-inductive reasoning, emphasis on external behaviors of people and their reactions on a given situation; Studies: Little Albert
816
30 sec
Q.
1896-1980; Field: cognition; Contributions: created a 4-stage theory of cognitive development, said that two basic processes work in tandem to achieve cognitive growth (assimilation and accommodation)
817
30 sec
Q.
1905-1981; Field: development; Contributions: realized that touch is preferred in development; Studies: Rhesus monkeys, studied attachment of infant monkeys (wire mothers v. cloth mothers)
818
30 sec
Q.
1902-1987; Field: humanistic; Contributions: founded person-centered therapy, theory that emphasizes the unique quality of humans especially their freedom and potential for personal growth, unconditional positive regard, fully functioning person
819
30 sec
Q.
1908-1970; Field: humanism; Contributions: hierarchy of needs-needs at a lower level dominate an individual's motivation as long as they are unsatisfied, self-actualization, transcendence
820
30 sec
Q.
1885-1952; Field: neo-Freudian, psychodynamic; Contributions: criticized Freud, stated that personality is molded by current fears and impulses, rather than being determined solely by childhood experiences and instincts, neurotic trends
821
30 sec
Q.
1870-1937; Field: neo-Freudian, psychodynamic; Contributions: basic mistakes, style of life, inferiority/superiority complexes, childhood influences personality formation; Studies: Birth Order
822
30 sec
Q.
1884-1922; Field: personality, psychoanalysis; Contributions: developed one of the first projective tests, the Inkblot test which consists of 10 standardized inkblots where the subject tells a story, the observer then derives aspects of the personality from the subject's commentary
823
30 sec
Q.
1907-1996; Field: social psychology; Contributions: studied conformity, found that individuals would conform even if they knew it was wrong; Studies: conformity, opinions and social pressures
824
30 sec
Q.
1922-present; Field: emotion; Contributions: stated that in order to experience emotions a person must be physically aroused and know the emotion before you experience it
825
30 sec
Q.
1933-1984; Field: social psychology; Contributions: wanted to see how the German soldiers in WWII fell to obedience, wanted to see how far individuals would go to be obedient; Studies: Shock Study
826
30 sec
Q.
1933-present; Field: social psychology; Contributions: proved that peoples behavior depends to a large extent on the roles they are asked to play; Studies: Stanford Prison Study-studied power of social roles to influence people's behavior
827
30 sec
Q.
1944-present; Field: memory; Contributions: expert in eyewitness testimony (false memories or misinformation effect); Studies: Reconstruction of Auto. Destruction, Jane Doe Case (repressed memories of Nicole Taus' sex abuse)
828
30 sec
Q.
1949-present; Field: intelligence; Contributions: devised the Triarchic Theory of Intelligence (academic problem-solving, practical, and creative)
829
30 sec
Q.
1925-present; Field: sociocultural; Contributions: pioneer in observational learning, stated that people profit from the mistakes/successes of others; Studies: Bobo Dolls-adults demonstrated 'appropriate' play with dolls, children mimicked play
830
30 sec
Q.
1921-present; Field: cognitive; Contributions: father of Cognitive Therapy, created Beck Scales-depression inventory, hopelessness scale, suicidal ideation, anxiety inventory, and youth inventories
831
30 sec
Q.
1928-present; Field: language; Contributions: disagreed with Skinner about language acquisition, stated there is an infinite # of sentences in a language, humans have an inborn native ability to develop language
832
30 sec
Q.
1874-1949; Field: behaviorism; Contributions: Law of Effect-relationship between behavior and consequence; Studies: Law of Effect with cats
833
30 sec
Q.
1913-1999; Field: development; Contributions: compared effects of maternal separation, devised patterns of attachment; Studies: The Strange Situation-observation of parent/child attachment
834
30 sec
Q.
1896-1934; Field: child development; Contributions: investigated how culture & interpersonal communication guide development, zone of proximal development; play research
1943-present; Field: intelligence; Contributions: devised the theory of multiple intelligences (logical-mathematic, spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, intrapersonal, linguistic, musical, interpersonal, naturalistic)
837
30 sec
Q.
1891-1951; Field: Gastroenterology; Contributions: developed foundation for classical conditioning, discovered that a UCS naturally elicits a reflexive behavior; Studies: dog salivation
838
30 sec
Q.
1850-1909; Field: memory; Contributions: 1st to conduct studies on forgetting: first, a rapid loss followed by a gradual declining rate of loss; Studies: memory-series of meaningless syllables/words
839
30 sec
Q.
1933-present; Field: social psychology; Contributions: focus on nonverbal communication, self-fulfilling prophecies; Studies: Pygmalion Effect-effect of teacher's expectations on students
840
30 sec
Q.
dates?; Field: social psychology; Contributions: proved that once you are diagnosed with a disorder, your care would not be very good in a mental health setting; Studies: Hospital experiment-checked into hospital to check diagnosis
841
30 sec
Q.
1863-1945; Field: intelligence; Contributions: found that specific mental talents were highly correlated, concluded that all cognitive abilities showed a common core which he labeled 'g' (general ability)
842
30 sec
Q.
1913-2007; Field: cognitive-behavioral; Contributions: Rational-Emotive Therapy (RET), focuses on altering client's patterns of irrational thinking to reduce maladaptive behavior and emotions
843
30 sec
Q.
187601956; Field: intelligence, comparative; Contributions: social behavior of gorillas/chimps, Yerkes-Dodson law-level of arousal as related to performance
844
30 sec
Q.
1857-1911; Field: testing; Contributions: general IQ tests, designed test to identify slow learners in need of remediation-not applicable in the U.S. because too culture-bound (French)
845
30 sec
Q.
1848-1905; Field: perception; Contributions: area of left temporal lobe involved language understanding; Studies: person damaged in this area uses correct words but they do not make sense
846
30 sec
Q.
1795-1878; Field: perception; Contributions: just-noticeable-difference (JND) that eventually becomes Weber's law; Studies: 1st study on JND
847
30 sec
Q.
1801-1887; Field: perception; Contributions: stated that the magnitude of a sensory experience is proportionate to the # of JND's that the stimulus causing the experiences above the absolute threshold
848
30 sec
Q.
1896-1987; Field: learning; Contributions: systematic desensitization, maintained that fear could be unlearned
849
30 sec
Q.
1822-1911; Field: differential psychology AKA "London School" of Experimental Psychology; Contributions: behavioral genetics, maintains that personality & ability depend almost entirely on genetic inheritance; Studies: Twin Studies-compare identical & fraternal twins, Hereditary Genius-used bell curve for normal distribution, & "Law of Errors"-differences in intellectual ability
850
30 sec
Q.
1809-1882; Field: geology, biology; Contributions: transmutation of species, natural selection, evolution by common descent; Studies: "The Origin of Species" catalogs his voyage on the Beagle
851
30 sec
Q.
1877-1956; Field: testing; Contributions: revised Binet's IQ test and established norms for American children
852
30 sec
Q.
1896-1981; Field: testing; Contributions: established an intelligence test especially for adults (WAIS)