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Q 1/566
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A branch of psychology concerned with the links between biology and behavior
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Biological Psychology
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A nerve cell; the basic building block of the nervous system.
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Neuron
566 questions
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A branch of psychology concerned with the links between biology and behavior
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A nerve cell; the basic building block of the nervous system.
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The bushy, branching extensions of a neuron that receive messages and conduct impulses toward the body cell
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The extension of a neuron, ending in branching terminal fibers, through which messages pass to other neurons or to muscles or glands
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A layer of fatty tissue segmentally encasing the fibers of many neurons; enables vastly greater transmission speed of neural impulses as the impulse hops from one node to the next.
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A neural impulse; a brief electrical charge that travels down an axon.
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The junction between the the axon tip of the sending neuron and the dendrite or cell body of the receiving neuron.
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Chemical messengers that cross the synaptic gaps between neurons. When released by the sending neuron, neurotransmitters travel across the synapse and bind to receptor sites on the receiving neuron, thereby influencing whether that neuron will generate a neural impulse.
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A neurotransmitter that enables learning and memory and also triggers muscle contraction
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"morphine within"--natural, opiate like neurotransmitters linked to pain control and to pleasure.
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The body's speedy, electrochemical communication network, consisting of all the nerve cells of the peripheral and central nervous systems.
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Brain and spinal cord
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The sensory and motor neurons that connect the central nervous system to the rest of the body
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Neural "cables" containing many axons. These bundled axons, which are part of the peripheral nervous system, connect to the central nervous system with muscles, glands, and sense organs.
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Neurons that carry incoming information from the sense receptors to the central nervous system.
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Neurons that carry outgoing information from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands.
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Central nervous system neurons that internally communicate and intervene between the sensory inputs and motor outputs
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Division of the peripheral nervous system that controls the body's skeletal muscles.
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The part of the nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs (such as the heart).
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The division of the autonomic nervous system that arouses the body, mobilizing its energy in stressful situations
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the division of the autonomic nervous system that calms the body, conserving its energy
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A simple, automatic, inborn response to a sensory stimulus, such as the knee-jerk response.
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Interconnected neural cells. With experience, networks can learn, as feedback strengthens or inhibits connections that produce certain results. Computer simulations of neural networks show analogous learning.
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The body's "slow" chemical communication system; a set of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream
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Chemical messengers, mostly those manufactured by the endocrine glands, that are produced in one tissue and affect another
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A pair of endocrine glands just above the kidneys. These glands secret the hormones epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline), which helps to arouse the body in times of stress.
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The endocrine system's most influential gland. Under the influence of the hypothalamus, the gland regulates growth and controls other endocrine glands.
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Tissue destruction. A brain _____ is a naturally or experimentally caused destruction to brain tissue.
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An amplified recording of the waves of electrical activity that sweep across the brain's surface. These waves are measured by electrodes placed on the scalp
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a visual display of brain activity that detects where a radioactive form of glucose goes while the brain performs a given task
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A technique that uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce computer-generated images that distinguish among different types of soft tissue; allows us to see structures within the brain
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A technique for revealing blood flow and, therefore, brain activity by comparing successive MRI scans.
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The oldest part and central core of the brain, beginning where the spinal cord swells as it enters the skull; this part of the brain is responsible for automatic survival functions.
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Base of brainstem; controls heartbeat and breathing
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A nerve network in the brainstem that plays an important role in controlling arousal
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The brain's sensory switchboard, located on top of the brainstem; it directs messages to the sensory receiving areas in the cortex and transmits replies to the cerebellum and medulla
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The "little brain" attached to the rear of the brainstem; its functions including processing sensory input and coordinating movement output and balance.
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A doughnut-shaped system of neural structures at the border of the brainstem and cerebral hemispheres; associated with emotions such as fear and aggression and drives such as those for food and sex. Includes the hippocampus, amygdala, and hypothalamus.
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Two lima bean sized neural clusters that are components of the limbic system and are linked to emotion.
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A neural structure lying below the thalamus; it directs several maintenance activities (eating, drinking, body temperature), helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion and reward.
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The intricate fabric of interconnected neural cells covering the cerebral hemispheres; the body's ultimate control and information-processing center.
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Cells in the nervous system that support, nourish, and protect neurons
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Portion of the cerebral cortex lying just behind the forehead; involved in speaking and muscle movements and in making plans and judgements.
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Portion of the cerebral cortex lying at the top of the head and toward the rear; receives sensory input for touch and body position.
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The portion of the cerebral cortex lying at the back of the head; includes the visual areas, which receive visual information from the opposite visual field
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Portion of the cerebral cortex lying roughly above the ears; includes the auditory areas, each receiving information primarily from the opposite ear.
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An area at the rear of the frontal lobes that controls voluntary movements
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Area at the front of the parietal lobes that registers and processes body touch and movement sensations
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Areas of the cerebral cortex that are not involved in primary motor or sensory functions; rather, they are involved in higher mental functions such as learning, remembering, thinking, and speaking
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Impairment of language, usually caused by left hemisphere damage either to Broca's area (impairing speaking) or to Wernicke's area (impairing understanding)
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Controls language expression - an area of the frontal lobe, usually in the left hemisphere, that directs the muscle movements involved in speech.
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Controls language reception - a brain area involved in language comprehension and expression; usually in the left temporal lobe
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The brain's capacity for modification, as evident in brain reorganization following damage (especially in children) and in experiments on the effects of experience on brain development
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The large band of neural fibers connecting the two brain hemispheres and carrying messages between them
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A condition in which the two hemispheres of the brain are isolated by cutting the connecting fibers (mainly those of the corpus callosum) between them
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Threadlike structures made of DNA molecules that contain the genes.
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A complex molecule containing the genetic information that makes up the chromosomes.
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Every non-genetic influence, from prenatal nutrition to the people and things around us.
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The study of the relative power and limits of genetic and environmental influences on behavior.
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The complete instructions for making an organism
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The biochemical units of heredity that make up the chromosome.
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A person's characteristic emotional reactivity and intensity.
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the proportion of variation among individual that we can attribute to genes. The ___ of a trait may vary, depending in the range of population and environment studied
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The principle that, among the range of inherited trait variations, those that lead to increased reproduction and survival will most likely be passed on to succeeding generations.
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A random error in gene replication that leads to a change.
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The sex chromosome found in both men and women. Females have two _ chromosomes; males have one. An _ chromosome from each parent produces a female child.
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The sex chromosome found only in males. When paired with an X chromosome from the mother, it produces a male child.
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The fertilized egg.
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The developing human organism from about two weeks after fertilization through the second month.
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The developing human organism from 9 weeks after conception to birth.
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Agents, such as chemicals and viruses, that can reach the embryo or fetus during prenatal development and cause harm.
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Physical and cognitive abnormalities in children caused by a pregnant woman's heavy drinking. In severe cases, symptoms include noticeable facial misproportions.
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A baby's tendency, when touched on the cheek, to turn toward the touch, open the mouth, and search for the nipple.
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Decreasing responsiveness with repeated stimulation. As infants gain familiarity with repeated exposure to a visual stimulus, their interest wanes and they look away sooner.
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Biological growth processes that enable orderly changes in behavior, relatively uninfluenced by experience.
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A concept or framework that organizes and interprets information.
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Interpreting one's new experience in terms of one's existing schemas.
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Adapting one's current understandings (schemas) to incorporate new information.
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All the mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.
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In Piaget's theory, the stage (from birth to about 2 years of age) during which infants know the world mostly in terms of their sensory impressions and motor activities.
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The awareness that things continue to exist even when not perceived.
81
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In Piaget's theory, the stage (from about 2 to 6 or 7 years of age) during which a child learns to use language but does not yet comprehend the mental operations of concrete logic.
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The principle (which Piaget believed to be part of concrete operational reasoning) that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects.
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In Piaget's theory, the preoperational child's difficulty taking another's point of view.
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People's ideas about their own and others' mental states - about their feelings, perceptions, and thoughts and the behavior these might predict.
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In Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (from about 6 or 7 to 11 years of age) during which children gain the mental operations that enable them to think logically about concrete events.
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In Piaget's theory, the stage of cognitive development (normally beginning about age 12) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts.
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The fear of strangers that infants commonly display, beginning by about 8 months of age.
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An emotional tie with another person; shown in young children by their seeking closeness to the caregiver and showing distress on separation.
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An optimal period shortly after birth when an organism's exposure to certain stimuli or experiences produces proper development.
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The process by which certain animals form attachments during a critical period very early in life.
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A sense of one's identity and personal worth.
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In Kohlberg's Moral Ladder, before age 9, children show morality to avoid punishment or gain reward.
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In Kohlberg's Moral Ladder, by early adolescence social rules and laws are upheld simply because they are the rules and laws.
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In Kohlberg's Moral Ladder, some of those who develop the abstract reasoning may follow what one perceives as ethical principles.
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One's sense of self; according to Erikson, the adolescent's task is to solidify a sense of self by testing and integrating various roles.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; If needs are dependably met, infants develop a sense of basic trust.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; Toddlers learn to exercise will and do things for themselves, or they doubt their abilities.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; Preschoolers learn yo initiate tasks and carry out plans, or they feel guilty about efforts to be independent.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; Children learn the pleasure of applying themselves to tasks, or they feel inferior.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; Teenagers work at refining a sense of self by testing roles and then integrating them to form a single identity, or they become confused about who they are.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; Young adults struggle to form close relationships and gain the capacity for intimate love, or they feel socially isolated.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; In middle age, people discover a sense of contributing to the world, usually though family and work, or they may feel a lack of purpose.
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Erikson's Stages of Psychological Development; When reflecting on his or her life, the older adult may feel a sense of satisfaction or failure.
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In Erikson's theory, the ability to form close, loving relationships; a primary developmental task in late adolescence and early adulthood.
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A progressive and irreversible brain disorder characterized by gradual deterioration of memory, reasoning, language, and, finally, physical functioning.
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A study in which people of different ages are compared with one another.
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Research in which the same people are restudied and retested over a long period.
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One's accumulated knowledge and verbal skills; tends to increase with age.
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One's ability to reason speedily and abstractly; tends to decrease during late adulthood.
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The first stage in the Kubler-Ross model, when people are unable to believe of accept the situation.
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The second stage in the Kubler-Ross model, when people begin to feel mad and blame themselves or others for the situation.
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The third stage in the Kubler-Ross model, when people usually beg or pray to a higher power to undo the situation, usually through promises to be a better person.
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The fourth stage in the Kubler-Ross model, when people become sad and feel helpless in the situation.
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The fifth and final stage in the Kubler-Ross model, when people begin to accept the situation they are in.
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The brain's capacity for modification, as evident in brain reorganization following damage.
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A parenting style characterized by the placement of few limits on the child's behavior.
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A parenting style in which the parents are demanding, expect unquestioned obedience, are not responsive to their children's desires, and communicate poorly with their children.
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A parenting style characterized by emotional warmth, high standards for behavior, explanation and consistent enforcement of rules, and inclusion of children in decision making.
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The process by which our sensory receptors and nervous system receive and represent stimulus energies from our environment.
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The process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events.
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Analysis that begins with the sensory receptors and works up to the brain's integration of sensory information.
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Information processing guided by higher-level mental processes, as when we construct perceptions drawing on our experience and expectations.
123
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The minimum stimulation needed to detect a particular stimulus 50 percent of the time.
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A theory predicting how and when we detect the presence of a faint stimulus ("signal") amid background stimulation ("noise"). Assumes there is no single absolute threshold and detection depends partly on a person's experience, expectations, motivation, and level of fatigue.
125
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Below one's absolute threshold for conscious awareness.
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The activation, often unconsciously, of certain associations, thus predisposing one's perception, memory, or response.
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The minimum difference between two stimuli required for detection 50 percent of the time. We experience the difference threshold as a just noticeable difference. (Also called just noticeable difference or JND.)
128
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The principle that, to be perceived as different; two stimuli must differ by a constant minimum percentage (rather than a constant amount).
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Diminished sensitivity as a consequence of constant stimulation.
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Conversion of one form of energy into another. In sensation, the transforming of stimulus energies, such as sights, sounds, and smells, into neural impulses our brains can interpret.
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The distance from the peak of one light or sound wave to the peak of the next.
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The dimension of color that is determined by the wavelength of light; what we know as the color names blue, green, and so forth.
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The amount of energy in a light wave, which we perceive as brightness or loudness, as determined by the waves amplitude.
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The adjustable opening in the center of the eye through which light enters.
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A ring of muscle tissue that forms the colored portion of the eye around the pupil and controls the size of the pupil opening.
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The transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina.
137
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The process by which the eye's lens changes shape to focus near or far objects on the retina.
138
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The light-sensitive inner surface of the eye, containing the receptor rods and cones plus layers of neurons that begin the processing of visual information.
139
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The sharpness of vision.
140
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Retinal receptors that detect black, white, and gray; necessary for peripheral and twilight vision, when cones do not respond. (About 120,000,000 of them)
141
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Retinal receptor cells that are concentrated in the center of the retina that function in daylight or in well-lit conditions. They detect fine details and give rise to color sensations. (About 6,000,000 of them)
142
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The transparent layer that protects the eye.
143
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The nerve that carries neural impulses from the eye to the brain.
144
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Cells that send signals out of the eye to the brain
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Nerve cells that combine impulses from many receptors and send results to Ganglion cells.
146
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The point at which the optic nerve leaves the eye, creating a "blind" spot because no receptor cells are located there.
147
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The central focal point in retina, around which the eye's cones cluster.
148
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Nerve cells in the brain that respond to specific features of the stimulus, such as shape, angle, or movement. (Hubel and Weisel)
149
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The processing of several aspects of a problem simultaneously; the brain's natural mode of information processing for many functions, including vision. Contrasts with the step-by-step (serial) processing of most computers and of conscious problem solving.
150
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the theory that retina contains three different color receptors; one most sensitive to red, one to green, one to blue-which when stimulated in combination can produce the perception of any color.
151
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The theory that opposing retinal processes (red-green, yellow-blue, white-black) enable color vision. For example, some cells are stimulated by green and inhibited by red; others are stimulated by red and inhibited by green.
152
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Perceiving familiar objects as having consistent color, even if changing illumination alters the wavelengths reflected by the object.
153
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The sense or act of hearing.
154
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The number of complete wavelengths that pass a point in a given time.
155
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A tone's experienced highness or lowness; depends on frequency.
156
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The chamber between the eardrum and cochlea containing three tiny bones (hammer, anvil, and stirrup) that concentrate the vibrations of the eardrum on the cochlea's oval window.
157
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A coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear through which sound waves trigger nerve impulses.
158
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The innermost part of the ear, containing the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs.
159
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In hearing, the theory that links the pitch we hear with the place where the cochlea's membrane is stimulated.
160
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In hearing, the theory that the rate of nerve impulses traveling up the auditory nerve matches the frequency of a tone, thus enabling us to sense its pitch.
161
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Hearing loss caused by damage to the mechanical system that conducts sound waves to the cochlea.
162
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Hearing loss caused by damage to the cochlea's receptor cells or to the auditory nerves; also called nerve deafness.
163
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The theory that the spinal cord contains a neurological "gate" that blocks pain signals or allows them to pass on to the brain. The "gate" is opened by the activity of pain signals traveling up small nerve fibers and is closed by activity in larger fibers or by information coming from the brain.
164
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The principle that one sense may influence another, as when the smell of food influences its taste.
165
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the system for sensing the position and movement of individual body parts.
166
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The sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance.
167
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The focusing of conscious awareness on a particular stimulus, as in the cocktail party effect.
168
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Failing to see visible objects when our attention is directed elsewhere.
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The tendency for vision to dominate the other senses.
170
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An organized whole. Gestalt psychologists emphasized our tendency to integrate pieces of information into meaningful wholes.
171
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The organization of the visual field into objects (the figures) that stand out from their surroundings (the ground).
172
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The perceptual tendency to organize stimuli into coherent groups.
173
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Depth cues, such as retinal disparity and convergence, that depend on the use of two eyes.
174
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a binocular cue for perceiving depth; by comparing images from the two eyeballs, the brain computes distance - the greater the disparity (difference) between the two images, the closer the object.
175
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A binocular cue for perceiving depth; the extent to which the eyes converge inward when looking at an object.
176
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Depth cues, such as interposition and linear perspective, available to either eye alone.
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a monocular cue for perceiving depth; the smaller retinal image is farther away.
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if one object partially blocks our view of another, we perceive it as being closer.
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a monocular cue for perceiving depth; hazy objects are farther away than sharp, clear objects.
180
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A monocular cue for perceiving depth; a gradual change from a coarse distinct texture to a fine, indistinct texture signals increasing distance. objects far away appear smaller and more densely packed.
181
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A monocular cue for perceiving depth; objects higher in our field of vision are perceived as farther away.
182
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Monocular distance cue based on the fact that moving objects appear to move a greater distance when they are close to the viewer than when they are far away.
183
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A monocular cue for perceiving depth; the more parallel lines converge, the greater their perceived distance.
184
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An illusion of movement created when two or more adjacent lights blink on and off in quick succession.
185
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Perceiving objects as unchanging (having consistent lightness, color, shape, and size) even as illumination and retinal images change.
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The controversial claim that perception can occur apart from sensory input. Said to include telepathy, clairvoyance, and precognition.
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The study of paranormal phenomena, including ESP and psychokinesis.
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Communication from one mind to another without speech, writing, or other sensory means.
189
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The apparent power to perceive things that are not present to the senses.
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Perceiving future events.
191
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Our awareness of ourselves and our environment.
192
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Periodic physiological fluctuations in the body, such as the rise and fall of hormones and accelerated or decelerated cycles of the brain activity, that can influence behavior.
193
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the biological clock; regular bodily rythms (for example, of tempeture and wakefulness) that occur on a 24 hour cycle.
194
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Rapid eye movement sleep, a recurring sleep stage during which vivid dreams commonly occur. Also known as paradoxical sleep, because the muscles are relaxed (except for minor twitches) but other body systems are active.
195
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The relatively slow brain waves of a relaxed, awake state.
196
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Periodic, natural, reversible loss of consciousness.
197
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False sensory experiences, such as seeing something in the absence of an external visual stimulus.
198
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The large, slow brain waves associated with deep sleep.
199
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Recurring problems in falling or staying asleep.
200
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A sleep disorder characterized by uncontrollable sleep attacks. The sufferer may lapse directly into REM sleep, often at inopportune times.
201
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A sleep disorder characterized by temporary cessations of breathing during sleep and repeated momentary awakenings.
202
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A sleep disorder characterized by high arousal and an appearance of being terrified; unlike nightmares, night terrors occur during Stage 4 sleep, within two or three hours of falling asleep, and are seldom remembered.
203
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A sequence of images, emotions, and thoughts passing through a sleeping person's mind. Dreams are notable for their hallucinatory imagery, discontinuities, and incongruities, and for the dreamer's delusional acceptance of the content and later difficulties remembering it.
204
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According to Freud, the remembered story line of a dream.
205
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According to Freud, the underlying meaning of a dream.
206
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Dreams provide "psychic safe value" - accepting otherwise unacceptable feelings, dreaming of secret desires (manifest content & latent content) - a hidden meaning.
207
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Dreams help us sort out the day's events and consolidate our memories.
208
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REM sleep triggers neural activity that evokes random visual memories, which our sleeping brain weaves into stories.
209
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A social interaction in which one person suggests to another that certain perceptions, feelings, thoughts, or behaviors will spontaneously occur.
210
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A suggestion, made during a hypnosis session, to be carried out after the subject is no longer hypnotized; used by some clinicians to help control undesired symptoms and behaviors.
211
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A split in consciousness, which allows some thoughts and behaviors to occur simultaneously with others.
212
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A chemical substance that alters perceptions and moods.
213
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The diminishing effect with regular use of the same dose of a drug.
214
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The discomfort and distress that follow discontinuing the use of an addictive drug.
215
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A physiological need for a drug, marked by unpleasant withdrawal symptoms when the drug is discontinued.
216
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A psychological need to use a drug, such as to relieve negative emotions.
217
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Compulsive drug craving and use.
218
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Drugs (such as alcohol, barbiturates, and opiates) that reduce neural activity and slow body functions.
219
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Drugs that depress the activity of the central nervous system, reducing anxiety but impairing memory and judgment.
220
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Opium and its derivatives, such as morphine and heroin; they depress neural activity, temporarily lessening pain and anxiety.
221
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Drugs (such as caffeine, nicotine, and the more powerful amphetamines, cocaine, and Ecstasy) that excite neural activity and speed up body functions.
222
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Drugs that stimulate neural activity, causing speeded-up body functions and associated energy and mood changes.
223
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A powerfully addictive drug that stimulates the central nervous system, with speeded-up body functions and associated energy and mood changes; over time, appears to reduce baseline dopamine levels.
224
30 sec
Q.
A synthetic stimulant and mild hallucinogen. Produces euphoria and social intimacy, but with short term health risks and longer-term harm to serotonin-producing neurons and to mood and cognition.
225
30 sec
Q.
Psychedelic (mind-manifesting) drugs, such as LSD, that distort perceptions and evoke sensory images in the absence of sensory input.
226
30 sec
Q.
A powerful hallucinogenic drug; also known as acid.
227
30 sec
Q.
The major active ingredient in marijuana; triggers a variety of effects, including mild hallucinations.
228
30 sec
Q.
The presumption that mind and body are two distinct entities that interact.
229
30 sec
Q.
The presumption that mind and body are different aspects of the same thing.
230
30 sec
Q.
An individual's characteristic pattern of thinking, feeling, and acting.
231
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalysis, a method of exploring the unconscious in which the person relaxes and says whatever comes to mind, no matter how trivial or embarrassing.
232
30 sec
Q.
Freud's theory of personality that attributes thoughts and actions to unconscious motives and conflicts; the techniques used in treating psychological disorders by seeking to expose and interpret unconscious tensions.
233
30 sec
Q.
According to Freud, a reservoir of mostly unacceptable thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories. According to contemporary psychologists, information processing of which we are unaware.
234
30 sec
Q.
Contains a reservoir of unconscious psychic energy that, according to Freud, strives to satisfy basic sexual and aggressive drives. Operates on the pleasure principle, demanding immediate gratification.
235
30 sec
Q.
Freud's theory regarding the id's desire to maximize pleasure and minimize pain in order to achieve immediate gratification.
236
30 sec
Q.
The largely conscious, "executive" part of personality that, according to Freud, mediates among the demands of the id, superego, and reality. Operates on the reality principle, satisfying the id's desires in ways that will realistically bring pleasure rather than pain.
237
30 sec
Q.
According the Freud, the attempt by the ego to satisfy both the id and the superego while still considering the reality of the situation.
238
30 sec
Q.
The part of personality that, according to Freud, represents internalized ideals and provides standards for judgement (the conscience) and for future aspirations
239
30 sec
Q.
The childhood stages of development (oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital) during which, according to Freud, the id's pleasure-seeking energies focus on distinct erogenous zones.
240
30 sec
Q.
According to Freud, a boy's sexual desires toward his mother and feelings of jealousy and hatred for the rival father.
241
30 sec
Q.
The process by which, according to Freud, children incorporate their parent's values into their developing superegos.
242
30 sec
Q.
According to Freud, a lingering focus of pleasure-seeking energies at an earlier psychosexual stage, in which conflicts were unresolved.
243
30 sec
Q.
(0 - 18 Months) Pleasure centers on the mouth - sucking, biting, chewing.
244
30 sec
Q.
(18 - 36 Months) Pleasure focuses on bowel and bladder elimination, coping with demands for control.
245
30 sec
Q.
(3 - 6 Years) Pleasure zone is the genitals; coping with incestuous sexual feelings.
246
30 sec
Q.
(8 to Puberty) Dormant sexual feelings.
247
30 sec
Q.
(Puberty on) Maturation of sexual interests.
248
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalytic theory, the ego's protective methods of reducing anxiety by unconsciously distorting reality.
249
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalytic theory, the basic defense mechanism that banishes anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories from consciousness.
250
30 sec
Q.
Psychoanalytic defense mechanism in which an individual faced with anxiety retreats to a more infantile psychosexual stage, where some energy remains fixated.
251
30 sec
Q.
Psychoanalytic defense mechanism by which the ego unconsciously switches unacceptable impulses into their opposites. Thus, people may express feelings that are the opposite of their anxiety-arousing unconscious feelings.
252
30 sec
Q.
Psychoanalytic defense mechanism by which people disguise their own threatening impulses by attributing them to others.
253
30 sec
Q.
Defense mechanism that offers self-justifying explanations in place of the real, more threatening, unconscious reasons for one's actions.
254
30 sec
Q.
Defense mechanism by which people redirect socially unacceptable impulses toward acceptable goals.
255
30 sec
Q.
Psychoanalytic defense mechanism that shifts sexual or aggressive impulses toward a more acceptable or less threatening object or person, as when redirecting anger toward a safer outlet.
256
30 sec
Q.
Carl Jung's concept of a shared, inherited reservoir of memory traces from our species' history.
257
30 sec
Q.
A personality test, such as the Rorschach or TAT, that provides ambiguous stimuli designed to trigger projection of one's inner dynamics.
258
30 sec
Q.
A projective test in which people express their inner feelings and interests through the stories they make up about ambiguous scenes.
259
30 sec
Q.
The most widely used projective test, a set of 10 inkblots, designed by Hermann Rorschach; seeks to identify people's inner feelings by analyzing their interpretations of the blots.
260
30 sec
Q.
According to Maslow, one of the ultimate psychological needs that arises after basic physical and psychological needs are met and self-esteem is achieved; the motivation to fulfill one's potential.
261
30 sec
Q.
According to Rogers, an attitude of total acceptance toward another person.
262
30 sec
Q.
All our thoughts and feelings about ourselves, in answer to the question, "Who am I?"
263
30 sec
Q.
A characteristic pattern of behavior or a disposition to feel and act, as assessed by self-report inventories and peer reports.
264
30 sec
Q.
A questionnaire (often with true-false or agree-disagree items) on which people respond to items designed to gauge a wide range of feelings and behaviors; used to assess selected personality traits.
265
30 sec
Q.
The most widely researched and clinically used of all personality tests - originally designed to identify emotional disorders, this test is now used for many other screening purposes.
266
30 sec
Q.
a test (such as the MMPI) developed by testing a pool of items and then selecting those that discriminate between groups.
267
30 sec
Q.
A personality dimension that describes someone who is responsible, dependable, persistent, and organized.
268
30 sec
Q.
A personality dimension that describes someone who is good natured, cooperative, and trusting.
269
30 sec
Q.
A personality dimension that describes someone who is calm, secure, and self-satisfied.
270
30 sec
Q.
A personality dimension that describes someone who is imaginative, independent, and has a preference for variety.
271
30 sec
Q.
A personality dimension describing someone who is sociable, gregarious, and assertive.
272
30 sec
Q.
The interacting influences between personality and environmental factors.
273
30 sec
Q.
Our sense of controlling our environment rather than feeling helpless.
274
30 sec
Q.
The perception that chance or outside forces beyond your personal control determine your fate.
275
30 sec
Q.
The perception that one controls one's own fate.
276
30 sec
Q.
The hopelessness and passive resignation an animal or human learns when unable to avoid repeated aversive events.
277
30 sec
Q.
Overestimating others' noticing and evaluating our appearance, performance, and blunders.
278
30 sec
Q.
One's feelings of high or low self-worth.
279
30 sec
Q.
A readiness to perceive oneself favorably.
280
30 sec
Q.
A personality test that taps four characteristics and classifies people into 1 of 16 personality types.
281
30 sec
Q.
Maslow's pyramid of human needs, beginning at the base with physiological needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs become active.
282
30 sec
Q.
Transition between wakefulness and real sleep. Lasts 5 - 10 minutes.
283
30 sec
Q.
Sleep spindles occur. Muscles less tense, eyes relax. Lasts about 10 minutes.
284
30 sec
Q.
Delta waves appear.
285
30 sec
Q.
Delta waves, most difficult stage to awaken from. Deepest sleep.
286
30 sec
Q.
Short bursts of brain waves detected in stage 2 sleep.
287
30 sec
Q.
A relatively permanent change in an organism's behavior due to experience.
288
30 sec
Q.
Learning that certain events occur together. The events may be two stimuli (as in classical conditioning) or a response and its consequences (as in operant conditioning).
289
30 sec
Q.
A type of learning in which an organism comes to associate stimuli.
290
30 sec
Q.
The view that psychology (1) should be an objective science that (2) studies behavior without reference to mental processes. Most research psychologists agree with one, but not two.
291
30 sec
Q.
In classical conditioning, the unlearned, naturally occurring response to the unconditioned stimulus (US), such as salivation when food is in the mouth.
292
30 sec
Q.
In classical conditioning, a stimulus that unconditionally triggers a response.
293
30 sec
Q.
In classical conditioning, the learned response to a previously neutral (but now conditioned) stimulus (CS).
294
30 sec
Q.
In classical conditioning, an originally irrelevant stimulus that, after association with an unconditioned stimulus, comes to trigger a conditioned response.
295
30 sec
Q.
In classical conditioning, the initial stage, when one links a neutral stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus begins triggering the conditioned response. In operant conditioning, the strengthening of a reinforced response.
296
30 sec
Q.
the diminishing of a conditioned response; occurs in classical conditioning when an unconditioned stimulus does not follow an conditioned response; occurs in operant conditioning when a response is no longer reinforced.
297
30 sec
Q.
The reappearance, after a pause, of an extinguished conditioned response.
298
30 sec
Q.
The tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for similar stimuli to elicit similar responses
299
30 sec
Q.
In classical conditioning, the learned ability to distinguish between a conditioned stimulus and stimuli that do not signal an unconditioned stimulus.
300
30 sec
Q.
A type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punisher.
301
30 sec
Q.
Behavior that operates on the environment, producing consequences.
302
30 sec
Q.
Thorndike's principle that behaviors followed by favorable consequences become more likely, and that behaviors followed by unfavorable consequences become less likely.
303
30 sec
Q.
A chamber also known as a Skinner box, containing a bar or key that an animal can manipulate to obtain a food or water reinforcer, with attached devices to record the animal's rate of bar pressing or key pecking. Used in operant conditioning research.
304
30 sec
Q.
An operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior.
305
30 sec
Q.
In operant conditioning, any event that strengthens the behavior it follows.
306
30 sec
Q.
Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli, such as food.
307
30 sec
Q.
Increasing behaviors by stopping or reducing negative stimuli, such as shock.
308
30 sec
Q.
An innately reinforcing stimulus, such as one that satisfies a biological need.
309
30 sec
Q.
A stimulus that gains its reinforcing power through its association with a primary reinforcer.
310
30 sec
Q.
Reinforcing the desired response every time it occurs.
311
30 sec
Q.
Reinforcing a response only part of the time; results in slower acquisition of a response but much greater resistance to extinction than does continuous reinforcement.
312
30 sec
Q.
In operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified number of responses.
313
30 sec
Q.
In operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response after an unpredictable number of responses.
314
30 sec
Q.
In operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response only after a specified time has elapsed.
315
30 sec
Q.
In operant conditioning, a reinforcement schedule that reinforces a response at unpredictable time intervals.
316
30 sec
Q.
An event that decreases the behavior that it follows.
317
30 sec
Q.
A mental representation of the layout of one's environment. For example, after exploring a maze, rats act as if they have learned a ___ of it.
318
30 sec
Q.
Learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it.
319
30 sec
Q.
A desire to perform a behavior effectively for its own sake.
320
30 sec
Q.
A desire to perform a behavior due to promised rewards or threats of punishment.
321
30 sec
Q.
Learning by observing others.
322
30 sec
Q.
The process of observing and imitating a specific behavior.
323
30 sec
Q.
Frontal lobe neurons that fire when performing certain actions or when observing another doing so. The brain's mirroring of another's action may enable imitation, language learning, and empathy.
324
30 sec
Q.
Positive, constructive, helpful behavior. The opposite of antisocial behavior.
325
30 sec
Q.
Negative, destructive, unhelpful behavior.
326
30 sec
Q.
The persistence of learning over time through the storage and retrieval of information.
327
30 sec
Q.
A clear memory of an emotionally significant moment or event.
328
30 sec
Q.
The processing of information into the memory system.
329
30 sec
Q.
The retention of encoded information.
330
30 sec
Q.
The process of getting information out of memory storage.
331
30 sec
Q.
The immediate, very brief recording of sensory information in the memory system.
332
30 sec
Q.
Activated memory that holds a few items briefly, such as the seven digits of a phone number while dialing, before the information is stored or forgotten.
333
30 sec
Q.
The relatively permanent and limitless storehouse of the memory system. Includes knowledge, skills, and experiences.
334
30 sec
Q.
A newer understanding of short-term memory that involves conscious, active processing of incoming auditory and visual-spatial information, and of information retrieved from long-term memory.
335
30 sec
Q.
Unconscious encoding of incidental information, such as space, time, and frequency, and of well-learned information, such as word meanings.
336
30 sec
Q.
Encoding that requires attention and conscious effort.
337
30 sec
Q.
The conscious repetition of information, either to maintain it in consciousness or to encode it for storage.
338
30 sec
Q.
The tendency for distributed study or practice to yield better long-term retention than is achieved through massed study or practice.
339
30 sec
Q.
Our tendency to recall best the last and first items in a list.
340
30 sec
Q.
The encoding of picture images.
341
30 sec
Q.
The encoding of sound, especially the sound of words.
342
30 sec
Q.
The encoding of meaning, including the meaning of words.
343
30 sec
Q.
Mental pictures; a powerful aid to effortful processing, especially when combined with semantic encoding.
344
30 sec
Q.
Memory aids, especially those techniques that use vivid imagery and organizational devices.
345
30 sec
Q.
organizing items into familiar, manageable units; often occurs automatically.
346
30 sec
Q.
A momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli; a photographic or picture-image memory lasting no more than a few tenths of a second.
347
30 sec
Q.
A momentary sensory memory of auditory stimuli; if attention is elsewhere, sounds and words can still be recalled within 3 or 4 seconds.
348
30 sec
Q.
An increase in a synapse's firing potential after brief, rapid stimulation. Believed to be a neural basis for learning and memory.
349
30 sec
Q.
The loss of memory.
350
30 sec
Q.
Retention independent of conscious recollection.
351
30 sec
Q.
Memory of facts and experiences that one can consciously know and "declare."
352
30 sec
Q.
A neural center located in the limbic system that helps process explicit memories for storage.
353
30 sec
Q.
A measure of memory in which the person must retrieve information learned earlier, as on a fill-in-the-blank test.
354
30 sec
Q.
A measure of memory in which the person need only identify items previously learned, as on a multiple-choice test.
355
30 sec
Q.
A measure of memory that assesses the amount of time saved when learning material for a second time.
356
30 sec
Q.
The activation, often unconsciously, of particular associations in memory.
357
30 sec
Q.
That eerie sense that "I've experienced this before." Cues from the current situation may subconsciously trigger retrieval of an earlier experience.
358
30 sec
Q.
The tendency to recall experiences that are consistent with one's current good or bad mood.
359
30 sec
Q.
The disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information.
360
30 sec
Q.
The disruptive effect of new learning on the recall of old information.
361
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalytic theory, the basic defense mechanism that banishes anxiety-arousing thoughts, feelings, and memories from consciousness.
362
30 sec
Q.
Incorporating misleading information into one's memory of an event.
363
30 sec
Q.
Attributing to the wrong source an event we have experienced, heard about, read about, or imagined.
364
30 sec
Q.
Shows that humans tend to halve their memory of newly learned knowledge unless consciously rehearse it.
365
30 sec
Q.
This is how many items we can keep in short-term memory at a time (±2)
366
30 sec
Q.
People unknowingly revise their memories.
367
30 sec
Q.
The mental activities associated with thinking, knowing, remembering, and communicating.
368
30 sec
Q.
A mental grouping of similar objects, events, ideas, or people.
369
30 sec
Q.
A mental image or best example of a category. Matching new items to the prototype provides a quick and easy method for including items in a category (as when comparing feathered creatures to a prototypical bird, such as a robin).
370
30 sec
Q.
A methodical logical rule or procedure that guarantees solving a particular problem. Contrasts with the usually speedier, also more error-prone, use of heuristics.
371
30 sec
Q.
A simple thinking strategy that often allows us to make judgments and solve problems efficiently; usually speedier but also more error-prone than algorithms.
372
30 sec
Q.
A sudden and often novel realization of the solution to a problem; it contrasts with strategy-based solutions.
373
30 sec
Q.
A tendency to search for information that confirms one's preconceptions.
374
30 sec
Q.
The inability to approach a problem in a new perspective; an impediment to problem solving.
375
30 sec
Q.
A tendency to approach a problem in one particular way, often a way that has been successful in the past.
376
30 sec
Q.
The tendency to think of things only in terms of their usual functions; an impediment to problem solving.
377
30 sec
Q.
Judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they seem to represent, or match, particular prototypes; may lead one to ignore other relevant information.
378
30 sec
Q.
Estimating the likelihood of events based on their availability in memory; if instances come readily to mind (perhaps because of their vividness), we presume such events are common.
379
30 sec
Q.
The tendency to be more confident than correct; to overestimate the accuracy of one's beliefs and judgments.
380
30 sec
Q.
The way an issue is posed; how an issue is framed can significantly affect decisions and judgments.
381
30 sec
Q.
The tendency for one's preexisting beliefs to distort logical reasoning, sometimes by making invalid conclusions seem valid, or valid conclusions seem invalid.
382
30 sec
Q.
Clinging to one's initial conceptions after the basis on which they were formed has been discredited.
383
30 sec
Q.
Our spoken, written, or signed words and the ways we combine them to communicate meaning.
384
30 sec
Q.
In language, the smallest distinctive sound unit.
385
30 sec
Q.
In a language, the smallest unit that carries meaning; may be a word or a part of a word (such as a prefix).
386
30 sec
Q.
In a language, a system of rules that enables us to communicate with and understand others.
387
30 sec
Q.
The set of rules by which we derive meaning from morphemes, words, and sentences in a given language; also, the study of meaning.
388
30 sec
Q.
The rules for combining words into grammatically sensible sentences in a given language.
389
30 sec
Q.
Beginning at about 4 months, the stage of speech development in which the infant spontaneously utters various sounds at first unrelated to the household language.
390
30 sec
Q.
The stage in speech development, from about age 1 to 2, during which a child speaks mostly in single words.
391
30 sec
Q.
Beginning about age 2, the stage in speech development during which a child speaks mostly two-word statements.
392
30 sec
Q.
Early speech stage in which a child speaks like a telegram; 'go car'; using mostly nouns and verbs and omitting 'auxiliary' words.
393
30 sec
Q.
Whorf's hypothesis that language determines the way we think.
394
30 sec
Q.
Mental quality consisting of the ability to learn from experience, solve problems, and use knowledge to adapt to new situations.
395
30 sec
Q.
A statistical procedure that identifies clusters of related items (called factors) on a test; used to identify different dimensions of performance that underlie one's total score.
396
30 sec
Q.
A general intelligence factor that according to Spearman and others underlies specific mental abilities and is therefore measured by every task on an intelligence test.
397
30 sec
Q.
A condition in which a person otherwise limited in mental ability has an exceptional specific skill, such as in computation or drawing.
398
30 sec
Q.
The ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions.
399
30 sec
Q.
The ability to produce novel and valuable ideas.
400
30 sec
Q.
A method for assessing an individual's mental aptitudes and comparing them with those of others, using numerical scores
401
30 sec
Q.
A measure of intelligence test performance devised by Binet; the chronological age that most typically corresponds to a given level of performance. Thus, a child who does as well as the average 8-year-old is said to have a mental age of 8.
402
30 sec
Q.
The widely used American revision (by Terman at Stanford University) of Binet's original intelligence test.
403
30 sec
Q.
Defined originally as the ratio of mental age (ma) to chronological age (ca) multiplied by 100 (thus, IQ = ma/ca Ă— 100). On contemporary intelligence tests, the average performance for a given age is assigned a score of 100.
404
30 sec
Q.
A test designed to predict a person's future performance.
405
30 sec
Q.
A test designed to assess what a person has learned.
406
30 sec
Q.
The ___ is the most widely used intelligence test; contains verbal and performance (nonverbal) subtests.
407
30 sec
Q.
Defining meaningful scores by comparison with the performance of a pretested group.
408
30 sec
Q.
The symmetrical bell-shaped curve that describes the distribution of many physical and psychological attributes. Most scores fall near the average, and fewer and fewer scores lie near the extremes.
409
30 sec
Q.
The extent to which a test yields consistent results.
410
30 sec
Q.
The extent to which a test measures or predicts what it's supposed to.
411
30 sec
Q.
the extent to which a test samples the behavior that is of interest (such as a driving test that samples driving tasks).
412
30 sec
Q.
The behavior that a test is designed to predict.
413
30 sec
Q.
The success with which a test predicts the behavior it is designed to predict; it is assessed by computing the correlation between test scores and the criterion behavior.
414
30 sec
Q.
A condition of limited mental ability, indicated by an intelligence score of 70 or below and difficulty in adapting to the demands of life; varies from mild to profound.
415
30 sec
Q.
A condition of retardation and associated physical disorders caused by an extra chromosome in one's genetic makeup.
416
30 sec
Q.
A self-confirming concern that one will be evaluated based on a negative stereotype.
417
30 sec
Q.
A need or desire that energizes and directs behavior.
418
30 sec
Q.
A complex behavior that is rigidly patterned throughout a species and is unlearned.
419
30 sec
Q.
The idea that a physiological need creates an aroused tension state (a drive) that motivates an organism to satisfy the need.
420
30 sec
Q.
A tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state; the regulation of any aspect of body chemistry, such as blood glucose, around a particular level.
421
30 sec
Q.
A positive or negative environmental stimulus that motivates behavior.
422
30 sec
Q.
Maslow's pyramid of human needs, beginning at the base with physiological needs that must first be satisfied before higher-level safety needs and then psychological needs become active.
423
30 sec
Q.
The form of sugar that circulates in the blood and provides the major source of energy for body tissues. When its level is low, we feel hunger.
424
30 sec
Q.
The point at which an individual's "weight thermostat" is supposedly set. When the body falls below this weight, an increase in hunger and a lowered metabolic rate may act to restore the lost weight.
425
30 sec
Q.
The body's resting rate of energy expenditure.
426
30 sec
Q.
An eating disorder in which a normal-weight person diets and becomes significantly underweight, yet, still feeling fat, continues to starve.
427
30 sec
Q.
An eating disorder characterized by episodes of overeating, usually of high-calorie foods, followed by vomiting, laxative use, fasting, or excessive exercise.
428
30 sec
Q.
The four stages of sexual responding described by Masters and Johnson - excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution.
429
30 sec
Q.
A resting period after orgasm, during which a man cannot achieve another orgasm.
430
30 sec
Q.
A problem that consistently impairs sexual arousal or functioning.
431
30 sec
Q.
A sex hormone, secreted in greater amounts by females than by males. In nonhuman female mammals, ___ levels peak during ovulation, promoting sexual receptivity.
432
30 sec
Q.
The most important of the male sex hormones. Both males and females have it, but the additional this hormone in males stimulates the growth of the male sex organs in the fetus and the development of the male sex characteristics during puberty.
433
30 sec
Q.
An enduring sexual attraction toward members of either one's own sex (homosexual orientation) or the other sex (heterosexual orientation).
434
30 sec
Q.
A completely involved, focused state of consciousness, with diminished awareness of self and time, resulting from optimal engagement of one's skills.
435
30 sec
Q.
The application of psychological concepts and methods to optimizing human behavior in workplaces.
436
30 sec
Q.
A subfield of I/O psychology that focuses on employee recruitment, selection, placement, training, appraisal, and development.
437
30 sec
Q.
A subfield of I/O psychology that examines organizational influences on worker satisfaction and productivity and facilitates organizational change.
438
30 sec
Q.
Interview process that asks the same job-relevant questions of all applicants, each of whom is rated on established scales.
439
30 sec
Q.
A desire for significant accomplishment: for mastery of things, people, or ideas; for attaining a high standard.
440
30 sec
Q.
Goal-oriented leadership that sets standards, organizes work, and focuses attention on goals.
441
30 sec
Q.
Group-oriented leadership that builds teamwork, mediates conflict, and offers support.
442
30 sec
Q.
A response of the whole organism, involving (1) physiological arousal, (2) expressive behaviors, and (3) conscious experience.
443
30 sec
Q.
The theory that our experience of emotion is our awareness of our physiological responses to emotion-arousing stimuli.
444
30 sec
Q.
The theory that an emotion-arousing stimulus simultaneously triggers (1) physiological responses and (2) the subjective experience of emotion.
445
30 sec
Q.
Schachter's theory that to experience emotion one must (1) be physically aroused and (2) cognitively label the arousal.
446
30 sec
Q.
A machine, commonly used in attempts to detect lies, that measures several of the physiological responses accompanying emotion (such as perspiration and cardiovascular and breathing changes).
447
30 sec
Q.
Emotional release.
448
30 sec
Q.
People's tendency to be helpful when already in a good mood.
449
30 sec
Q.
Self-perceived happiness or satisfaction with life. Used along with measures of objective well-being (for example, physical and economic indicators) to evaluate people's quality of life.
450
30 sec
Q.
Our tendency to form judgments (of sounds, of lights, of income) relative to a neutral level defined by our prior experience.
451
30 sec
Q.
The perception that one is worse off relative to those with whom one compares oneself.
452
30 sec
Q.
The part of the hypothalamus that produces feelings of fullness as opposed to hunger, and causes one to stop eating.
453
30 sec
Q.
The part of the hypothalamus that produces hunger signals.
454
30 sec
Q.
Theory stating that we are motivated by our innate desire to maintain an personally preferred level of arousal. Sometimes called the Yerkes-Dodson Law
455
30 sec
Q.
Our tendency to form judgements relative to a "neutral" level defined by our prior experience.
456
30 sec
Q.
An interdisciplinary field that integrates behavioral and medical knowledge and applies that knowledge to health and disease.
457
30 sec
Q.
A subfield of psychology that provides psychology's contribution to behavioral medicine.
458
30 sec
Q.
The process by which we perceive and respond to certain events, called stressors, that we appraise as threatening or challenging.
459
30 sec
Q.
Selye's concept of the body's adaptive response to stress in three stages - alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
460
30 sec
Q.
The clogging of the vessels that nourish the heart muscle; the leading cause of death in many developed countries.
461
30 sec
Q.
Friedman and Rosenman's term for competitive, hard-driving, impatient, verbally aggressive, and anger-prone people.
462
30 sec
Q.
Friedman and Rosenman's term for easygoing, relaxed people.
463
30 sec
Q.
Literally, "mind-body" illness; any stress-related physical illness, such as hypertension and some headaches.
464
30 sec
Q.
The two types of white blood cells that are part of the body's immune system.
465
30 sec
Q.
Form in the bone marrow and release antibodies that fight bacterial infections.
466
30 sec
Q.
Form in the thymus and other lymphatic tissue and attack cancer cells, viruses, and foreign substances.
467
30 sec
Q.
Alleviating stress using emotional, cognitive, or behavioral methods.
468
30 sec
Q.
Attempting to alleviate stress directly by changing the stressor or the way we interact with that stressor.
469
30 sec
Q.
Attempting to alleviate stress by avoiding or ignoring a stressor and attending to emotional needs related to one's stress reaction.
470
30 sec
Q.
Sustained exercise that increases heart and lung fitness; may also alleviate depression and anxiety.
471
30 sec
Q.
A system for electronically recording, amplifying, and feeding back information regarding a subtle physiological state, such as blood pressure or muscle tension.
472
30 sec
Q.
Unproven health care treatments not taught widely in medical schools, not used in hospitals, and not usually reimbursed by insurance companies.
473
30 sec
Q.
An emotionally charged, confiding interaction between a trained therapist and someone who suffers from psychological difficulties.
474
30 sec
Q.
Prescribed medications or medical procedures that act directly on the patient's nervous system.
475
30 sec
Q.
An approach to psychotherapy that, depending on the client's problems, uses techniques from various forms of therapy.
476
30 sec
Q.
A Freudian therapy that emphasizes the use of free association, dream interpretation, resistances, and transference to uncover unconscious conflicts.
477
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalysis, the blocking from consciousness of anxiety-laden material.
478
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalysis, the analyst's noting supposed dream meanings, resistances, and other significant behaviors and events in order to promote insight.
479
30 sec
Q.
In psychoanalysis, the patient's transfer to the analyst of emotions linked with other relationships (such as love or hatred for a parent).
480
30 sec
Q.
A humanistic therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, in which the therapist uses techniques such as active listening within a genuine, accepting, empathic environment to facilitate clients' growth.
481
30 sec
Q.
Empathic listening in which the listener echoes, restates, and clarifies. A feature of Rogers' client-centered therapy.
482
30 sec
Q.
Therapy that applies learning principles to the elimination of unwanted behaviors.
483
30 sec
Q.
A behavior therapy procedure that conditions new responses to stimuli that trigger unwanted behaviors; based on classical conditioning. Includes exposure therapies and aversive conditioning.
484
30 sec
Q.
Behavioral techniques, such as systematic desensitization, that treat anxieties by exposing people (in imagination or actuality) to the things they fear and avoid.
485
30 sec
Q.
A type of exposure therapy that associates a pleasant relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli. Commonly used to treat phobias.
486
30 sec
Q.
A type of counterconditioning that associates an unpleasant state (such as nausea) with an unwanted behavior (such as drinking alcohol).
487
30 sec
Q.
An operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token of some sort for exhibiting a desired behavior and can later exchange the tokens for various privileges or treats.
488
30 sec
Q.
Therapy that teaches people new, more adaptive ways of thinking and acting; based on the assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions.
489
30 sec
Q.
A popular integrated therapy that combines cognitive therapy (changing self-defeating thinking) with behavior therapy (changing behavior).
490
30 sec
Q.
Therapy that treats the family as a system. views an individual's unwanted behaviors as influenced by or directed at other family members; attempts to guide family members toward positive relationships and improved communication.
491
30 sec
Q.
A procedure for statistically combining the results of many different research studies.
492
30 sec
Q.
The study of the effects of drugs on mind and behavior.
493
30 sec
Q.
A biomedical therapy for severely depressed patients in which a brief electric current is sent through the brain of an anesthetized patient.
494
30 sec
Q.
The application of repeated pulses of magnetic energy to the brain; used to stimulate or suppress brain activity.
495
30 sec
Q.
Surgery that removes or destroys brain tissue in an effort to change behavior.
496
30 sec
Q.
A now-rare psychosurgical procedure once used to calm uncontrollably emotional or violent patients. The procedure cut the nerves that connect the frontal lobes to the emotion-controlling centers of the inner brain.
497
30 sec
Q.
The scientific study of how we think about, influence, and relate to one another.
498
30 sec
Q.
Suggests how we explain someone's behavior by crediting either the situation or the persons disposition.
499
30 sec
Q.
The tendency for observers, when analyzing another's behavior, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition.
500
30 sec
Q.
Feelings, often based on our beliefs, that predispose us to respond in a particular way to objects, people, and events.
501
30 sec
Q.
The tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request.
502
30 sec
Q.
The theory that we act to reduce the discomfort (dissonance) we feel when two of our thoughts (cognitions) are inconsistent. For example, when our awareness of our attitudes and of our actions clash, we can reduce the resulting dissonance by changing our attitudes.
503
30 sec
Q.
Adjusting one's behavior or thinking to coincide with a group standard.
504
30 sec
Q.
Influence resulting from a person's desire to gain approval or avoid disapproval.
505
30 sec
Q.
Influence resulting from one's willingness to accept others' opinions about reality.
506
30 sec
Q.
Change in behavior that occurs when people believe they are in the presence of other people.
507
30 sec
Q.
The tendency for people in a group to exert less effort when pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal than when individually accountable.
508
30 sec
Q.
The loss of self-awareness and self-restraint occurring in group situations that foster arousal and anonymity.
509
30 sec
Q.
The enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group.
510
30 sec
Q.
The mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives.
511
30 sec
Q.
An unjustifiable (and usually negative) attitude toward a group and its members. Prejudice generally involves stereotyped beliefs, negative feelings, and a predisposition to discriminatory action.
512
30 sec
Q.
A generalized (sometimes accurate but often overgeneralized) belief about a group of people.
513
30 sec
Q.
Unjustifiable negative behavior toward a group and its members.
514
30 sec
Q.
"Us" - people with whom one shares a common identity.
515
30 sec
Q.
"them"—those perceived as different or apart from one's ingroup.
516
30 sec
Q.
The tendency to favor one's own group.
517
30 sec
Q.
The theory that prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame.
518
30 sec
Q.
The tendency of people to believe the world is just and that people therefore get what they deserve and deserve what they get.
519
30 sec
Q.
Any physical or verbal behavior intended to hurt or destroy.
520
30 sec
Q.
The principle that frustration—the blocking of an attempt to achieve some goal—creates anger, which can generate aggression.
521
30 sec
Q.
A perceived incompatibility of actions, goals, or ideas.
522
30 sec
Q.
A situation in which the conflicting parties, by each rationally pursuing their self-interest, become caught in mutually destructive behavior.
523
30 sec
Q.
The phenomenon that repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them.
524
30 sec
Q.
An aroused state of intense positive absorption in another, usually present at the beginning of a love relationship.
525
30 sec
Q.
The deep affectionate attachment we feel for those with whom our lives are intertwined.
526
30 sec
Q.
A condition in which people receive from a relationship in proportion to what they give to it.
527
30 sec
Q.
Revealing intimate aspects of oneself to others.
528
30 sec
Q.
Unselfish concern for the welfare of others.
529
30 sec
Q.
The tendency for any given bystander to be less likely to give aid if other bystanders are present.
530
30 sec
Q.
The theory that our social behavior is an exchange process, the aim of which is to maximize benefits and minimize costs.
531
30 sec
Q.
An expectation that people will help, not hurt, those who have helped them.
532
30 sec
Q.
An expectation that people will help those dependent upon them.
533
30 sec
Q.
Shared goals that override differences among people and require their cooperation.
534
30 sec
Q.
Graduated and Reciprocated Initiatives in Tension-Reduction, strategy designed to decrease international tensions.
535
30 sec
Q.
A psychological disorder marked by the appearance by age 7 of one or more of three key symptoms: extreme inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity.
536
30 sec
Q.
The American Psychiatric Association's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, a widely used system for classifying psychological disorders.
537
30 sec
Q.
Psychological disorders characterized by distressing, persistent anxiety or maladaptive behaviors that reduce anxiety.
538
30 sec
Q.
An anxiety disorder in which a person is continually tense, apprehensive, and in a state of autonomic nervous system arousal.
539
30 sec
Q.
An anxiety disorder marked by unpredictable minutes-long episodes of intense dread in which a person experiences terror and accompanying chest pain, choking, or other frightening sensations.
540
30 sec
Q.
An anxiety disorder marked by a persistent, irrational fear and avoidance of a specific object or situation.
541
30 sec
Q.
An anxiety disorder characterized by unwanted repetitive thoughts and/or actions.
542
30 sec
Q.
An anxiety disorder characterized by haunting memories, nightmares, social withdrawal, jumpy anxiety, and/or insomnia that lingers for four weeks or more after a traumatic experience.
543
30 sec
Q.
Psychological disorders characterized by emotional extremes.
544
30 sec
Q.
A mood disorder in which a person experiences, in the absence of drugs or a medical condition, two or more weeks of significantly depressed moods, feelings of worthlessness, and diminished interest or pleasure in most activities.
545
30 sec
Q.
A mood disorder involving a pattern of comparatively mild depression that lasts for at least two years.
546
30 sec
Q.
A mood disorder marked by a hyperactive, wildly optimistic state.
547
30 sec
Q.
A mood disorder in which the person alternates between the hopelessness and lethargy of depression and the overexcited state of mania.
548
30 sec
Q.
A group of severe disorders characterized by disorganized and delusional thinking, disturbed perceptions, and inappropriate emotions and actions.
549
30 sec
Q.
False beliefs, often of persecution or grandeur, that may accompany psychotic disorders.
550
30 sec
Q.
A type of schizophrenia that is dominated by delusions of persecution along with delusions of grandeur.
551
30 sec
Q.
A type of schizophrenia marked by striking motor disturbances, ranging from muscular rigidity to random motor activity.
552
30 sec
Q.
Disorganized speech or behavior, or flat or inappropriate emotion.
553
30 sec
Q.
Psychological disorders characterized by inflexible and enduring behavior patterns that impair social functioning.
554
30 sec
Q.
A personality disorder in which the person (usually a man) exhibits a lack of conscience for wrongdoing, even toward friends and family members. May be aggressive and ruthless or a clever con artist.
555
30 sec
Q.
A personality disorder characterized by excessive emotionality and preoccupation with being the center of attention; emotional shallowness; overly dramatic behavior.
556
30 sec
Q.
A personality disturbance characterized by an exaggerated sense of self-importance.
557
30 sec
Q.
A personality disorder characterized by lack of stability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and emotion; impulsivity; angry outbursts; intense fear of abandonment; recurring suicidal gestures.
558
30 sec
Q.
An anxiety disorder that involves an intense fear of being in unfamiliar situations or places that may be difficult to leave or in which help may not be available in the event of having an unexpected panic attack or panic-like symptoms.
559
30 sec
Q.
A class of psychological disorders involving physical ailments with no authentic organic basis that are due to psychological factors.
560
30 sec
Q.
A rare somatoform disorder in which a person experiences very specific genuine physical symptoms for which no physiological basis can be found.
561
30 sec
Q.
A somatoform disorder characterized by excessive preoccupation with health concerns and incessant worry about developing physical illnesses.
562
30 sec
Q.
Disorders in which conscious awareness becomes separated (dissociated) from previous memories, thoughts, and feelings.
563
30 sec
Q.
The loss of memory.
564
30 sec
Q.
A dissociative disorder in which a person forgets who who they are and leaves home to creates a new life.
565
30 sec
Q.
Psychological disorder that occurs when a person has two or more distinct, well-developed personalities. Typically the personalities are dramatically different from each other, and there is a distinct unawareness of the other personalities. Currently known as dissociative identity disorder.