ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: The human ears hear below what frequency?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: What mechanisms of action are used to disrupt tooth surface deposits during ultrasonic instrumentation?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Ultrasonic tip is selected by type of deposit and anatomy of the tooth. True or False?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Converting electrical current into high-frequency mechanical vibrations that are directed to the tip of the ultrasonic instrument briefly describes the method of action in ultrasonic scaling. True or False?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: With a tip vertically adapted to a proximal root surface, the direction of the working stroke is______? Fill in the blank

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Each of the following is a characteristic of an ultrasonic working stroke EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Horizontal adaptation is indicated for the debridement of interproximal surfaces and vertical adaptation is indicated for the proximal root surfaces. True or False?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: The working strokes are implemented in a channeling pattern to_______? Fill in the blank.

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Each of the following is an objective of ultrasonic root surface debridement EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: The formation of imploding microbubbles around the oscillating tips is a biophysical occurrence known as_______? Fill in the Blank

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Each of the following components of ultrasonic scaling devices is common to both magneto-restrictive and piezoelectric devices EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Modifying the power level control of an ultrasonic scaling unit increases/decreases the number of oscillations/second. True or False?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: A common operating frequency of ultrasonic scaling units is 30 kHz, which means that the tip oscillates at a rate of 30,000 strokes/second. True or False?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Your patient presents for initial periodontal therapy with moderate-heavy calculus deposits in the mandibular anterior lingual sextant. Keeping he power level at the recommended medium-high setting, which tip design will fracture the calculus most efficiently?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: To have an adequate variety of tips available for every appointment, you determine that you need at least 4 setups to get through a typical morning schedule. In an attempt to control costs, the owner/dentist asks you to keep the number of tips per setup to a minimum. Which of the following combinations will allow you to complete both stages of debridement in any area of the dentition with the fewest tip designs?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: CHOOSE THE ANSWER THAT BEST FINISHES THE STATMENT A slightly greater amount of lateral pressure is applied to a slim diameter tip during debridement stage to_____________?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Each of the following is a principle of ultrasonic instrumentation EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Because the removal of calculus and biofilm requires different degrees of contact and force, periodontal debridement therapy should be implemented in two stages to minimize alterations to the root surface. Which statement is true regarding this staged approach?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Direct access to the base of the pocket is accomplished by vertical orientation of the instrument tip.

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Which of the following statements is not a true statement about implant-specific ultrasonic tips?

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Preprocedural rinsing with an essential oil antiseptic or 0.2% chlorhexidine gluconate reduces the amount of bacteria in the aerosol generated by the ultrasonic scalers.

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Preprocedural rinsing by the patient eliminates the need for high-volume evacuation during ultrasonic instrumentation.

ULTRASONIC INSTRUMENTATION: Regardless of the diameter of the tip, less force is exerted from which of the following surfaces of a tip?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE STATEMENT THAT BEST DESCRIBES CAREER DEVELOPMENT.

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES THE ORGANIZATION THEORY: TAYLORISM

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES THE ORGANIZATION THEORY: BEHAVIORALISM

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES THE ORGANIZATION THEORY: FAYOLISM

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES THE ORGANIZATION THEORY: WEBER

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES THE ORGANIZATION THEORY: SYSTEMS APPROACH

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES THE ORGANIZATION THEORY: INTERACTIVE MANAGEMENT

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: THE FOLLOWING CHARACTERISTICS BEST DESCRIBES WHICH ORGANIZATION THEORY? *Viewed as spontaneous AND eases the restrictions of formal structures*

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE STATEMENT THAT BEST DESCRIBES A: FORMAL ORGANIZATION THEORY

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE STATEMENT THAT BEST DESCRIBES: MANAGEMENT

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: ALL ARE MAIN ACTIVITIES OF THE MANAGEMENT PROCESS EXCEPT ONE. WHICH ONE IS THE EXCEPTION?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: The planning activity in the management process applies to decision-making, budgeting, forecasting, and policy development in the dental practice. True or False?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE STATEMENT THAT BEST DESCRIBES: CONTROLLING

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: WHO IS THE PERSON WHO ACCOMPLISHES GOALS AND OBJECTIVES THROUGH OTHER PEOPLE?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: FILL IN THE BLANK: __________________ is defined as the systematic use of resources to attain organizational objectives and is associated with three key concepts: 1.Power 2.Influence 3.Authority

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES: POWER

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: FILL IN THE BLANK: _____________: is defined as a legitimate status in a hierarchy; the right to issue orders; the responsibility to act

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES: INFLUENCE

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: The Consent Theory for formal authority involves subordinate's acceptance of authority. TRUE OR FALSE?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: The following are acceptable uses of Formal Authority EXCEPT one. Which one is NOT an acceptable use of Formal Authority?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES: LEADERSHIP

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: TRUE OR FALSE - ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE CONSIDERED STYLES OF LEADERSHIP STYLES? Autocratic Democratic/Participative Laissez-faire Bureaucratic Paternalistic

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES: AUTOCRATIC

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: FILL IN THE BLANK: ___________________ is defined as a leader assumes that workers are self-motivated; employees receive little or no supervision; leader allows employees to lead themselves

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES: PARTICIPATIVE

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: THE FOLLOWING THEORIES APPLY TO WHICH STEP OF THE MANAGEMENT PROCESS? Trait Behavioral Situational

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: ACCORDING TO THE MANAGEMENT PROCESS, THE BEHAVIORAL THEORY IS BEST DEFINED AS:

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: FILL IN THE BLANK: An effective leader whose traits match the characteristics of the situation are considered a__________?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: TRUE OR FALSE Motivation is the process that initiates, guides, and maintains goal-oriented behaviors. It is what causes you to act, whether it is getting a glass of water to reduce thirst or reading a book to gain knowledge. The drive to fulfill unmet needs.

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE DESCRIPTION THAT BEST DEFINES: EXTRINSIC MOTIVATION

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE TERM THAT BEST CORRESPONDS WITH THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: A mechanism to motivate that arises within an individual, such as a completing a complicated crossword puzzle purely for the personal gratification of solving a problem.

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: READ THE DESCRIPTION BELOW AND CHOOSE THE BEST THEORY IT RELATES TO: According to this Theory, the average worker, under the right conditions, seeks to accept responsibility of work that is assumed to be as natural as play and rest.

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: FILL IN THE BLANKS The ______ Theory is based on the hierarchy of _____.

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: READ THE DESCRIPTION BELOW AND CHOOSE THE BEST THEORY IT RELATES TO. According to this theory: Employees want security above all else, but will avoid work if possible as they have an inherent dislike for work with little ambition.

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: FILL IN THE BLANKS The ______ Theory recognizes two separate categories:__________ and ______________.

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: CHOOSE THE APPROPRIATE SOURCES OF CONFLICT

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: TRUE OR FALSE? Affective Conflict involves: subjective personality issues; a mismatch of goals and objectives levels of commitment and work relations requires structured approach for resolution

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: All of the following are methods of dealing with conflict EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: FILL IN THE BLANK When dealing with conflict finding a middle ground between divergent interests where the resolution does not meet the complete needs of either party is referred to as a __________?

MANAGEMENT SKILLS AND THEORY: TRUE OR FALSE? During an office meeting, your office manager informs all hygienists are expected to see 1 patient every hour on the hour and stay on time. Because she is still familiarizing herself with the office protocols, she is a bit slower and concerned she may not be able to stay on time as expected of her. This presents a _________ conflict to the newly hired dental hygienist because there is a mismatch of ____________.

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: READ THE DESCRIPTION BELOW AND CHOOSE THE TERM THAT BEST CORRESPONDS WITH THE DESCRIPTION: Knowledge and understanding of another person’s culture allowing one to better adapt interventions and approaches to healthcare to the specific culture of the patient, family, and social group IS DEFINED AS?

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: FILL IN THE BLANKS: ________ IS A SET OF GUIDELINES THAT ONE CAN INHERIT AS A MEMEBER OF A PARTICULAR GROUP OR SOCIETY.

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: FILL IN THE BLANKS: A group of people who have developed interests or goals different from primary culture is referred as a ______?

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: TRUE OR FALSE? Cultural norms contribute to how members of a specific group determine explanations for health expectations and illness.

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: FILL IN THE BLANK: ________________________________ guides healthcare provider through process of delivering culturally competent care.

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: FILL IN THE BLANK: There are ___ models to consider when developing cultural competence.

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: READ THE STATEMENT BELOW AND CHOOSE THE TERM THAT BEST CORRESPONDS WITH THE DESCRIPTION: The process of self-examination and self-assessment of one’s own culture and its potential influence on one’s ways of thinking and behaving is referred to as_________?

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: TRUE OR FALSE? Cultural knowledge is the information one knows about cultures

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: TRUE OR FALSE The ability to conduct a cultural/physical assessment to collect data is known as Cultural Encounters.

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: All of the following are Cultural Competence Development Models EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: TRUE OR FALSE? Cultural awareness helps avoid ethnocentrism and stereotypes.

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: FILL IN THE BLANK _____________ are differences in health status or distribution of health determinants between different population groups

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: All of the following are Health Inequalities EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: TRUE OR FALSE? Social Determinants of Health include some of the following: • Quality of housing • Access to healthcare • Incarceration •High school graduation • Employment

CULTURAL COMPETENCY: CHOOSE THE TERM THAT BEST CORRESPONDS WITH THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: The degree to which a patient has the capacity to obtain, process, and understand health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions in a particular language

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: TRUE OR FALSE? There is a female predominance for orofacial clefts involving both lip and palate.

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: Development of lip and palate occurs during early to middle portion of first _______of pregnancy?

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: CHOOSE THE TERM THAT BEST CORRESPONDS WITH THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: The cleft of upper lip is called _________.

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: TRUE OR FALSE? Palatoschisis is a cleft of the palate

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: _____ is a cleft of the upper lip and occurs during the fifth week of fetal development, while ____________ is a cleft of the palate that occurs at any time during development of palate.

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: During pregnancy, what week does the palate begin to form in the fetus?

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: The palate is complete by the ___________ week of fetal development.

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: All of the following are types of facial clefts EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: When considering the goal of oral cleft treatment, the two important functional requirements that need to be rehabilitated are _______________ AND _______________.

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: CHOOSE THE TERM THAT BEST CORRESPONDS WITH THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: A complication of oral cleft is _______________. If palatal closure does not occur, air escapes into the nasal cavity and causes the patient to have hypernasal speech.

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: CHOOSE THE TERM THAT BEST CORRESPONDS WITH THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: The type of prosthetic appliance that eliminates Velopharyngeal Dysfunction by occluding the cleft palate to reduce nasal regurgitation and aid in speech therapy is called a ______________.

OROFACIAL CLEFTS: TRUE OR FALSE High risk for caries and periodontal disease are common in individuals with orofacial clefts, thus risk assessment and preventive interventions are essential.

Greenstick Jaw Fracture

Multiple Jaw Fracture

Comminuted Jaw Fracture

Simple (closed) Jaw Fracture

Compound (open) Jaw Fracture

Complex (complicated) Jaw Fracture

Pathologic Jaw Fracture

Impacted Jaw Fracture

Atrophic Jaw Fracture

Indirect Jaw Fracture

JAW FRACTURES: TRUE OR FALSE Intraoral/Extraoral Examination is the only helpful diagnosis of mandibular fractures.

JAW FRACTURES: ALL OF THE FOLLOWING ARE METHODS OF PREVENTING MANDIBULAR FRACTIONS EXCEPT ONE WHICH ONE IS THE EXCEPTION?

MRONJ previously known as Bisphosphonate-Related Osteonecrosis of the Jaw [B.R.O.N.J.]) is a condition characterized by exposure of bone in the maxilla or mandible presenting for more than 8 weeks in a patient who has taken or currently is taking bisphosphonates and who has no history of radiation therapy to the jaws.

What are bisphophonates?

MATCH THE ORDER OF THE MECHANISM OF ACTION FOR BISPHOSPHONATES THAT BEST CORRESTPONDS TO THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: #1

MATCH THE ORDER OF THE MECHANISM OF ACTION FOR BISPHOSPHONATES THAT BEST CORRESTPONDS TO THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: #2

MATCH THE ORDER OF THE MECHANISM OF ACTION FOR BISPHOSPHONATES THAT BEST CORRESTPONDS TO THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTION: #3

All of the following are true facts of Bisphosphonates and Osteonecrosis EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

Osteonecrosis of the Jaw may resemble an osteoradionecrosis lesion caused by radiation treatment.

Bisphosphonate medication is used to treat all of the following EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?

While on bisphosphonates medication, examining the oral cavity for signs of osteonecrosis demonstrates the hygienist is fulfilling the role in Dental ________ and _________Education.

The two origins of malocclusion are: _________________ and ________________.

ALL ARE EFFECTS OF MALOCCLUSION EXCEPT ONE. WHICH ONE IS NOT THE EXCEPTION?

ASSESSING AND EVALUATING FOR REFERRAL FOR OTHODONTIC CARE INCLUDE ALL OF THE FOLLOWING EXCEPT ONE. WHICH ONE IS THE EXCEPTION ?

The development of the skeletal system is known as:

What age is in years and months?

Dental age refers to the maturation of the what?

CHOOSE ALL THE PHASES REQURIED TO COMPLETE ORTHODONTIC TREATMENT.

Two common orthodontic appliances are Activated _______ and Plastic ________

Bacterial biofilm is the primary etiologic factor of gingival inflammation gingival hyperplasia during orthodontic treatment.

Regular twice-daily topical application of stannous or sodium fluoride over-the-counter dentifrice and rinse is recommended for patients in orthodontic treatment.

Fluoride varnish for high caries risk

Acidulated phosphate fluoride gel for high caries risk

Home-use fluoride gel or toothpaste for high caries risk

Sodium fluoride mouthrinse for high caries risk

What is held in place by brackets that are bonded to the teeth and held in place by a ligature?

It is essential to have a baseline probing depth to assess peri-implant health. A healthy implant may have a probing depth of greater than 3 mm due to prosthesis design.

EACH OF THE FOLLOWING IS A RISK FACTOR FOR A SUCCESSFUL IMPLANT EXCEPT ONE. WHICH ONE IS THE EXCEPTION? A patient presents with hypertension, stage II, grade B periodontitis, smokes one pack of cigarettes per day and is missing several teeth.

EACH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE STAGES OF IMPLANT TREATMENT THE DENTAL HYGIENIST IS INVOLVED IN EXCEPT ONE. WHICH ONE IS THE EXCEPTION?

Natural teeth have a biologic width. A biologic width is___?

Periodic radiographs are necessary for assessment of dental implant bone levels Radiographs should be taken: At time of implant fixture placement At time of pre-restorative check After final prosthesis is inserted Annually for first several years Periodically after that time

When assessing for periodontal pocketing, a metal or plastic probe can be used.

Each of the following should be evaluated by the dental hygienist on an implant at EVERY professional maintenance appointment EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

Each of the following is needed to make a diagnosis of peri-implantitis EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A patient with 3 mm of radiographic bone loss around a functioning implant and bleeding on probing should be referred to which of the following for further assessment and treatment?

Each of the following is an acceptable aid for implant homecare EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

Microscopically, even with the most intimate fit, a gap is present. This is referred to as a “micro-gap,” which is large enough to allow for bacterial colonization.