Tag the questions with any skills you have. Your dashboard will track each student's mastery of each skill.
Give this quiz to my class
Q 1/199
Score 0
Which of the following is the study of microscopic organisms such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, and protozoa?
30
Zoology
Botany
Immunology
Microbiology
Q 2/199
Score 0
What is the study of microorganisms living in a variety of environments and their pathogenic relationship to other organisms?
30
Industrial Microbiology
Environmental Microbiology
Marine Microbiology
Medical Microbiology
199 questions
Q.
Which of the following is the study of microscopic organisms such as bacteria, fungi, viruses, and protozoa?
1
30 sec
Q.
What is the study of microorganisms living in a variety of environments and their pathogenic relationship to other organisms?
2
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is an example of a microscopic organism?
3
30 sec
Q.
Is the study of microorganisms found in water
4
30 sec
Q.
invisible to the naked eye that can only be seen in a microscope.
5
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is not under the Eukaryotes division of microorganism?
6
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is under the Prokaryotes division of microorganism?
7
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following statements about fungi is true?
8
30 sec
Q.
What is the cell type of bacteria?
9
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is a key characteristic of bacteria?
10
30 sec
Q.
They do not have chloroplasts, so they cannot photosynthesize.
11
30 sec
Q.
Typically a few micrometres in length, has a wide shape ranging from spheres to rods and spiral.
12
30 sec
Q.
is defined as photosynthetic, eukaryotic organisms that, together with protozoa, are classified in the second kingdom (Protista)
13
30 sec
Q.
are a diverse group of unicellular eukaryotic organisms, many of which are motile.
14
30 sec
Q.
Originally, ________ had been defined as unicellular protist with animal-like behavior. Inhabit freshwater and marine environments, and terrestrial species inhabit decaying organic matter.
15
30 sec
Q.
are strands of nucleic acid encased within a protein coat. It cannot reproduce independently and can only replicated themselves by gaining entry into a cell and using that cell's machinery.
16
30 sec
Q.
What are Helminths?
17
30 sec
Q.
How do helminths typically enter the human body?
18
30 sec
Q.
What is the function of flagella in a cell?
19
30 sec
Q.
What is the function of glycocalyx in a cell?
20
30 sec
Q.
Is a gelatinous, sticky substance that surround the outside of the cell and protect cells from desiccation
21
30 sec
Q.
What is the main component of Pili tubules?
22
30 sec
Q.
Which component of the bacteria helps to determine its shape?
23
30 sec
Q.
Which part of the bacteria functions as the boundary layer?
24
30 sec
Q.
What is the name of the thick viscus outer layer of the cell wall that is 0.2µm thick?
25
30 sec
Q.
What are the 2 types of Capsule?
26
30 sec
Q.
Which organelle controls and directs all the cellular activities and stores hereditary information of the cell?
27
30 sec
Q.
Where are ribosomes found in a cell?
28
30 sec
Q.
Which organelle serves as the site for respiration in a bacterial cell?
29
30 sec
Q.
What is cytoplasm in a cell?
30
30 sec
Q.
Which organelle is responsible for protein synthesis in a cell?
31
30 sec
Q.
Which organelle is responsible for detoxifying harmful substances in a cell?
32
30 sec
Q.
What is the function of the cell membrane?
33
30 sec
Q.
What is the function of the nucleus in a cell?
34
30 sec
Q.
Which organelle is responsible for converting sunlight into chemical energy through photosynthesis?
35
30 sec
Q.
Which organelle is responsible for breaking down waste materials, cellular debris, and foreign substances in a cell?
36
30 sec
Q.
Which structure is formed by the excretory product of bacteria?
37
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is a metabolically dormant structure produced during unfavorable conditions by the process called Sporulation?
38
30 sec
Q.
What is the shape of Cocci bacteria?
39
30 sec
Q.
What is the shape of Bacilli bacteria?
40
30 sec
Q.
What is the shape of Spiral Bacteria?
41
30 sec
Q.
The following are forms of bacteria, except:
42
30 sec
Q.
The following are kinds of viruses, except:
43
30 sec
Q.
What is the shape of isometric viruses?
44
30 sec
Q.
Which type of viruses have a rod-like or thread-like appearance?
45
30 sec
Q.
What are bacteriophages?
46
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary characteristic of helical viruses?
47
30 sec
Q.
What happens to the bacteriophage in the lytic cycle?
48
30 sec
Q.
It is the cycle where the bacteriophage exists as viral DNA free in the bacterial host cell’s cytoplasm; the viral particles by the host cell until the virus kills the cell by lysis.
49
30 sec
Q.
It is the cycle where the bacteriophage DNA is integrated into the large, circular DNA molecule of the host bacterium and reproduces. It may continue to replicate and produce lysogenic bacteria or enter the lytic cycle and kill the cell.
50
30 sec
Q.
The following are examples of human viral diseases, except:
51
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following structures can catalyze excision events that destroy the integrity of the nuclear DNA?
52
30 sec
Q.
Are protein that can infect cells and transmit its shape differences to the prion proteins in these cells without the involvement of protein synthesis or DNA.
53
30 sec
Q.
Are small naked fragments of RNA that infect plant cells, sometimes to devastating effect. With nucleotide sequences similar to introns, they may catalyze excision events that destroy the integrity of the nuclear DNA.
54
30 sec
Q.
the protozoa lodge at the hosts’ body and do not create disease, with the host then becoming a carrier and potential transmitter of the protozoa to another host.
55
30 sec
Q.
during this stage, the protozoa causes infection in the host they actively feed and multiply.
56
30 sec
Q.
Which group of protozoa is characterized by the presence of pseudopodia?
57
30 sec
Q.
Which group of protozoa moves by means of flagella?
58
30 sec
Q.
Which group of protozoa uses cilia for movement?
59
30 sec
Q.
Which protozoa group has one or more flagella?
60
30 sec
Q.
Members of the group Apicomplexa are also known as?
61
30 sec
Q.
Members of the group _____________ form spores at one stage in their life cycle. For this reason, the group is also known as SPOROZOA.
62
30 sec
Q.
Which organisms are commonly associated with Parasitic Protozoa?
63
30 sec
Q.
Where are free-living protozoa commonly found?
64
30 sec
Q.
What are hyphae?
65
30 sec
Q.
What is the function of hyphae in fungi?
66
30 sec
Q.
How do hyphae increase the surface area for nutrient absorption?
67
30 sec
Q.
Are threadlike filaments. Stretch into food sources and absorb nutrients from the environment.
are able to reach very far, a fungus can increase its surface area for absorption of more nutrients.
68
30 sec
Q.
Which phylum does the Chytrids belong to?
69
30 sec
Q.
Where do Chytrids primarily live?
70
30 sec
Q.
Which kingdom do Chytrids belong to?
71
30 sec
Q.
Which group of fungi live in the roots of plants?
72
30 sec
Q.
are terrestrial, which means they live only on land, usually on soil or decaying plants.
73
30 sec
Q.
Which division of fungi is known as sac fungi?
74
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Ascomycota?
75
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary method of reproduction in Ascomycota?
76
30 sec
Q.
What are basidium also known as?
77
30 sec
Q.
What do basidium decompose?
78
30 sec
Q.
What is one way basidium attract flies?
79
30 sec
Q.
What is the source of sexual spores in basidium?
80
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following best describes saprophytic organisms?
81
30 sec
Q.
Where can fungi usually be found?
82
30 sec
Q.
Which type of fungi live on or inside other living things without causing harm?
83
30 sec
Q.
Which type of fungi may establish a mutually beneficial relationship with the organism it lives on?
84
30 sec
Q.
Which type of fungi may grow large fruiting bodies or have many hyphae strands matted together?
85
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following fungi may cause athlete's foot or ringworm?
86
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of sanitization?
87
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of degerming?
88
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of sterilization?
89
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of antisepsis?
90
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of a disinfectant?
91
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of disinfection?
92
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of a sterile object?
93
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of disinfection?
94
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of sanitization?
95
30 sec
Q.
The following are microbial controls, except:
96
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following best describes microbial death?
97
30 sec
Q.
Methods of Physical Control, except:
98
30 sec
Q.
Methods of Physical Control, except:
99
30 sec
Q.
What is the Thermal Death Time (TDT)?
100
30 sec
Q.
What is the Thermal Death Point (TDP)?
101
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of Thermal Death Time (TDT) and Thermal Death Point (TDP) studies?
102
30 sec
Q.
What is the significance of Thermal Death Time (TDT) and Thermal Death Point (TDP) in food safety?
103
30 sec
Q.
Which method slows the growth of microbes?
104
30 sec
Q.
What is the term used to describe the gradual removal of water from cells?
105
30 sec
Q.
Which method has the ability to break DNA due to its deep penetrating power?
106
30 sec
Q.
Which method is used to sterilize air, water, and solid surfaces?
107
30 sec
Q.
Which antiseptic is commonly used as a surgical scrub and an oral mouthwash?
108
30 sec
Q.
able to kill or slow growth of microbes
109
30 sec
Q.
What is triclosan?
110
30 sec
Q.
Which element is used in making detergents and is also found in fluoride in toothpaste?
111
30 sec
Q.
Which element is commonly used for the purification of drinking water and in swimming pools?
112
30 sec
Q.
Which element is used to disinfect water and can also be used as a pesticide?
113
30 sec
Q.
Which element is commonly used as a water purifying agent?
114
30 sec
Q.
Which element is used to treat waste water and sewage water?
115
30 sec
Q.
Which element is used as a radioactive tracer and in the treatment of cancer?
116
30 sec
Q.
unknown; newly discovered element
117
30 sec
Q.
What is the type of alcohol found in alcohol beverages?
118
30 sec
Q.
What is the main purpose of soaps?
119
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following substances is used to destroy some bacteria and viruses?
120
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following substances is commonly used as a disinfectant for wounds?
121
30 sec
Q.
What is Epidemiology?
122
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary goal of Epidemiology?
123
30 sec
Q.
Disease characteristics, except:
124
30 sec
Q.
Disease Descriptors, except:
125
30 sec
Q.
What is Epidemiology?
126
30 sec
Q.
What is a sporadic disease?
127
30 sec
Q.
What are endemic diseases?
128
30 sec
Q.
What is the role of a pathologist?
129
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary goal of epidemiology?
130
30 sec
Q.
What is the term used for diseases that occur in a greater than usual number of cases in a particular region, and usually occur within a relatively short period of time?
131
30 sec
Q.
What term is used for a disease that is occurring in epidemic proportions in many countries simultaneously, sometimes worldwide?
132
30 sec
Q.
What is the term used to describe a disease that spreads within a specific population or region and is consistently present at a relatively constant level?
133
30 sec
Q.
Which term describes a disease that persists over a long period of time?
134
30 sec
Q.
What is a reservoir?
135
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is an example of a nonliving reservoir?
136
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is a living reservoir?
137
30 sec
Q.
What is a carrier?
138
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is a nonliving reservoir?
139
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is an example of a living reservoir?
140
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is a carrier?
141
30 sec
Q.
Which type of carrier carries the pathogen without ever having had the disease?
142
30 sec
Q.
Which type of carrier transmits a pathogen during the incubation period of a particular infectious disease?
143
30 sec
Q.
What are fomites?
144
30 sec
Q.
Which type of carrier can harbor and transmit a particular pathogen while recovering from an infectious disease?
145
30 sec
Q.
Which type of carrier has completely recovered from the disease but continues to harbor the pathogen indefinitely?
146
30 sec
Q.
Which type of carrier is capable of transmitting a pathogen to others even though they have no symptoms?
147
30 sec
Q.
Which type of contact transmission happens when pathogens are transferred from one infected person to another person without a contaminated intermediate object or person?
148
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary mode of transmission for pathogens in direct contact transmission?
149
30 sec
Q.
Which type of contact transmission involves the transfer of pathogens via a contaminated intermediate object or person?
150
30 sec
Q.
What is airborne transmission?
151
30 sec
Q.
What is vehicular transmission?
152
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is an example of vehicular transmission?
153
30 sec
Q.
How does airborne transmission occur?
154
30 sec
Q.
What are the potential vehicles in vehicular transmission?
155
30 sec
Q.
What is the goal of Medical Asepsis?
156
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary goal of Surgical Asepsis?
157
30 sec
Q.
What does the term 'Medical Asepsis' refer to?
158
30 sec
Q.
science that studies the poisonous, or toxic, properties of substances.
159
30 sec
Q.
What is toxicity assessment?
160
30 sec
Q.
What is the purpose of hazard identification in toxicity assessment?
161
30 sec
Q.
What is dose-response evaluation in toxicity assessment?
162
30 sec
Q.
What are toxic chemicals known to induce?
163
30 sec
Q.
What does dose-response evaluation use to assess the incidence of adverse health effects?
164
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary function of a hazard identification?
165
30 sec
Q.
Are toxic chemicals, except:
166
30 sec
Q.
Are toxic chemicals, except:
167
30 sec
Q.
Which route of entry is common for substances in gas phase and very fine solid or liquid particles?
168
30 sec
Q.
Which route of entry is typically associated with the ingestion of contaminated food?
169
30 sec
Q.
Which route of entry is usually common for liquids, solutes in solution, and semisolids?
170
30 sec
Q.
Which route of entry is an infrequent route of worker chemical exposure?
171
30 sec
Q.
Which term describes a situation where the total effect is greater than the sum of the effects of each separately?
172
30 sec
Q.
Which term describes the situation where an inactive substance enhances the action of an active one?
173
30 sec
Q.
Which term describes the situation where an active substance decreases the effect of another active one?
174
30 sec
Q.
What is the term used to describe the lasting effect of a substance on an organism?
175
30 sec
Q.
Which term refers to the lethal effect of a substance on an organism?
176
30 sec
Q.
What is the term used to describe the effect of a toxin that has no lasting impact on an organism?
177
30 sec
Q.
What is the term used to describe the effect of a toxin that is permanent?
178
30 sec
Q.
What is hypersensitivity?
179
30 sec
Q.
What is hyposensitivity?
180
30 sec
Q.
What is acute toxicity?
181
30 sec
Q.
What is a carcinogen?
182
30 sec
Q.
What is genotoxicity?
183
30 sec
Q.
What is chronic toxicity?
184
30 sec
Q.
What are carcinomas?
185
30 sec
Q.
What is the main characteristic of acute toxicity?
186
30 sec
Q.
What is the main feature of cancer?
187
30 sec
Q.
What is the definition of genotoxicity?
188
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following substances is considered a carcinogen?
189
30 sec
Q.
What is an initiator?
190
30 sec
Q.
What is metastasis?
191
30 sec
Q.
What are leukemias?
192
30 sec
Q.
cancers of the lymphatic system.
193
30 sec
Q.
What is the term for a new abnormal growth of tissue?
194
30 sec
Q.
What is the term used to describe a chemical that increases the incidence to a previous exposure to a carcinogen?
195
30 sec
Q.
What is the process called when mutagens cause changes in the genetic material of cells?
196
30 sec
Q.
What term is used to describe substances or agents that cause the formation of cancers?
197
30 sec
Q.
What is teratogenesis?
198
30 sec
Q.
cancer of mesodermal tissue such as fat and muscle