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Q 1/204
Score 0
A ship steaming on a course of 246˚ T at 17 knots. At 2107 a lighthouse was observed bearing 207 deg T and at 2119 the same lighthouse bears 179˚ T. What is the ship's distance off at second bearing?
30
3.9 m
4.2 miles
4.6 miles
5.1 miles
Q 2/204
Score 0
A ship is on course 253˚ T at 14 knots. At 2329 a lighthouse was observed bearing 282˚ T At 2345 the same lighthouse bears 300 deg.True. Find the ship's distance off at second bearing?
30
3.7 miles
5.9 miles
4.2 miles
5.2 miles
204 questions
Q.
A ship steaming on a course of 246˚ T at 17 knots. At 2107 a lighthouse was observed bearing 207 deg T and at 2119 the same lighthouse bears 179˚ T. What is the ship's distance off at second bearing?
1
30 sec
Q.
A ship is on course 253˚ T at 14 knots. At 2329 a lighthouse was observed bearing 282˚ T At 2345 the same lighthouse bears 300 deg.True. Find the ship's distance off at second bearing?
2
30 sec
Q.
You are steering 173˚T and a light was picked up dead ahead at a distance of 13.9 miles at 0054. You change course to pass the light 4.5 miles off abeam to port. If you making 21 knots, what will be the time when abeam of the light?
3
30 sec
Q.
Course is the direction of movement of the observer while the direction of an object from the observer is called ______ .
4
30 sec
Q.
You are course 027˚T and took a relative bearing of a lighthouse and found to be 220˚. What is the True bearing of the lighthouse?
5
30 sec
Q.
You are on course 344˚ T and took a relative bearing of a lighthouse of 270˚. What is the True bearing of the lighthouse?
6
30 sec
Q.
What is the relative bearing of an object broad on port quarter?
7
30 sec
Q.
What is the relative bearing of an object that is broad on starboard bow?
8
30 sec
Q.
If you take a bearing of 264˚ to a lighthouse, what other bearing of another conspicuous object would give the best fix?
9
30 sec
Q.
If you take a bearing of 356˚ to a lighthouse, what other bearing of another prominent object would give the best fix?
10
30 sec
Q.
At 0000H you fix your position and plot a new DR trackline. At 0200H, you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 miles west of your DR position. Which statement is true?
11
30 sec
Q.
At 0000H you fix your position and plot a new DR trackline. At 0200H, you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 miles west of your DR position. Which statement is true?
12
30 sec
Q.
At 0000H you fix your position and change course to 090˚ T At 0030H, you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 miles west of your DR position. Which statement is true?
13
30 sec
Q.
At 1200H you fix your position and change course to 000˚ T At 1230H, you again fix your position, and it is 0.5 miles east of your DR position. Which statement is true?
14
30 sec
Q.
At lower transit, the body's altitude is at its minimum bearing North or South. What will be the LHA?
15
30 sec
Q.
Given equatorial radius of the Earth as 3444 nm, find radius of a parallel of latitude at 70˚N or S
16
30 sec
Q.
In latitude 50˚20' N, a vessel steams 270˚T from Long. 015˚ 46' W to Long. 031˚18' W. Find the distance made good.
17
30 sec
Q.
A vessel in Latitude 55˚12' N sails on course 270˚T and made a Dlo of 21˚36.6'. If the time taken was 3 days 2 hours, find the vessel's speed.
18
30 sec
Q.
Find the distance between initial position at Lat1. 50˚0' N; 178˚0' W and Lat2. 50˚00' N; Long. 179˚ 00'E.
19
30 sec
Q.
Your ship departs Yokohama, Japan from position Lat. 35˚27' N; Long. 139˚39' E bound for San Francisco, California,USA. At position Lat. 37˚48.5' N, Long. 122˚24' W. Determine the distance by Great Circle sailing.
20
30 sec
Q.
Your ship departs Yokohama, Japan from position Lat. 35˚27' N; Long. 139˚39' E bound for San Francisco, California,USA. At position Lat. 37˚48.5' N, Long. 122˚24' W. Determine the initial course by Great Circle sailing.
21
30 sec
Q.
Your ship departs Yokohama, Japan from position Lat. 5˚27' N; Long. 139˚39' E bound for San Francisco, California,USA. At position Lat. 37˚48.5' N, Long. 122˚24' W. Determine the Latitude of the Vertex (Lv) by Great Circle sailing.
22
30 sec
Q.
Your ship departs Yokohama, Japan from position Lat. 35˚27' N; Long. 139˚39' E bound for San Francisco, California,USA. At position Lat. 37˚48.5' N, Long. 122˚24' W. Determine the Longitude of the Vertex (Lv) by Great Circle sailing.
23
30 sec
Q.
Determine the great circle distance and intial course from Lat. 27˚51' N; Long.
071˚41' W to Lat. 49˚ 45' N; Long. 006˚14' W ?
24
30 sec
Q.
You are on a great circle track departing from LAT. 25˚50' N; LONG. 077˚00' W and
your initial course is 061.7˚T. The position of the vertex is LAT 37˚35.6' N; LONG.
025˚57.8' W. What is the distance along the great circle track between the point of departure?
25
30 sec
Q.
The great circle distance from Lat. 35˚08' S, Long. 019˚26' E to Lat. 33˚16' S; Long
115˚36' E is 4559 nautical miles and the initial course is 121˚T. Determine the latitude of the vertex?
26
30 sec
Q.
At 0915 zone time, on 06 March, you depart Sydney, Australia in LAT. 33˚ 51.5' S; LONG. 151˚ 13.0' E (ZD-10). You are bound for Kodiak, LAT. 57˚ 47' N; LONG. 152˚ 25.0'
W. If you estimate your speed of advance to be 21 knots and the distance is 6,222 miles. What is your ETA at Kodiak?
27
30 sec
Q.
At 0800 zone time, on 15 April, your vessel is heading west in position LAT.15˚ 10' N; LONG. 165˚15' W at a speed of 22 knots.
The distance to your destination at LAT. 15˚ 10' N; LONG. 135˚ 15' E is 3600 nautical miles. What is your ETA ?
28
30 sec
Q.
A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 003 deg. What action should be done to remove this error during compass adjustment?
29
30 sec
Q.
A vessel is heading magnetic north and its magnetic compass indicates a heading of 356 deg. What action should be done to remove this error during compass adjustment?
30
30 sec
Q.
A free gyroscope is said to have "three degrees of freedom". From those listed, which is NOT one of these?
31
30 sec
Q.
After all the adjustments have been made of the sextant, any remaining error is called:
32
30 sec
Q.
Apart from ensuring navigational safety at anchorage, what should the OOW do?
33
30 sec
Q.
At the summer solstice, the altitude of the sun at noon to an observer at the pole would be?
34
30 sec
Q.
At the winter solstice, the sun will not rise at all higher latitudes than:
35
30 sec
Q.
From those listed, which of the statement about the poles of a magnet is TRUE?
36
30 sec
Q.
From those listed, which would be the preferred method of position fixing for greatest accuracy and certainty of position?
37
30 sec
Q.
How are secondary port chosen to be linked with a particular standard port?
38
30 sec
Q.
How does a current flowing in the same direction as the wind affect the sea wave length and height?
39
30 sec
Q.
How is distance measured on a Mercator chart?
40
30 sec
Q.
How often are NTM chart correction published?
41
30 sec
Q.
How often should a position fix be taken during a sea voyage if the ship is in open coastal waters?
42
30 sec
Q.
How should tidal predictions be made for stretches of coastline between Secondary Ports?
43
30 sec
Q.
How often should the magnetic compass error be checked?
44
30 sec
Q.
How often should the auto pilot be tested in manual mode?
45
30 sec
Q.
When may positions marked on the navigation chart be erased?
46
30 sec
Q.
When at anchor, what should the OOW do if the vessel appears to be dragging her anchor?
47
30 sec
Q.
What is the duty of a pilot?
48
30 sec
Q.
When must a passage plan be prepared?
49
30 sec
Q.
An OOW, on duty in coastal waters, notices that he becomes too busy to be able to take a fix. What should he do?
50
30 sec
Q.
The OOW has, during the pre-departure check of the bridge equipment, found an error in the weather facsimile. What should he do?
51
30 sec
Q.
If reefer spaces are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargo, it will most likely cause _______________.
52
30 sec
Q.
What should be your action if you are loading fruits in reefer spaces and you notice that the fruit is beginning to mold?
53
30 sec
Q.
When fruit is carried as refrigerated cargo, the mostly frequent cause of it being infected at the discharge port is _____________.
54
30 sec
Q.
What is usually NOT required in preparing a hold for reception of a bulk grain cargo?
55
30 sec
Q.
Which cargoes requires strips of common building lathe as dunnage in order to carry away heat generated by the cargo?
56
30 sec
Q.
Dunnage may be used to protect a cargo from loss or damage by _________.
57
30 sec
Q.
What is the main purpose of dunnage?
58
30 sec
Q.
In preparing a cargo space for receipt of a shipment of bagged cargo, which instruction for laying dunnage should be followed.
59
30 sec
Q.
You are to load a bagged cargo in the lower hold of a shipped equipped with drain walls in the after end of the hold. The layer of dunnage should be laid down:
60
30 sec
Q.
You are to load a bagged cargo in the lower hold of a ship equipped with side bilges. The first layer of dunnage should be laid down ____________.
61
30 sec
Q.
“Cribbing ” is _____________.
62
30 sec
Q.
A shore is a piece of securing dunnage that _____________.
63
30 sec
Q.
A fore and aft strength member connecting the athwartships floors.
64
30 sec
Q.
All lashings and components used for securing should possess a breaking strength of not less than:
65
30 sec
Q.
Athwarships members in the forepart introduced to reduce the in and out tendency of the shell plating caused by varying, water pressure on the bow.
66
30 sec
Q.
Damage due to _______ results from poor stowage in placing the commodities in compartments.
67
30 sec
Q.
How often for inspection visually all cargo gears in normal condition?
68
30 sec
Q.
If you shift a weight vertically to a position above the vessel's center of gravity it will:
69
30 sec
Q.
In lieu of longitudinal, it provides longitudinal strength in ship construction.
70
30 sec
Q.
The metacentric height is equal to when the height of the metacenter has the same value as the height of the center of gravity.
71
30 sec
Q.
This is the amount of work necessary to heel the vessel through a given angle.
72
30 sec
Q.
Vessel displacement 1,500 tons a weight of 25 tons shifted from the starboard side to port side of the lower hold on deck through a distance of 15 meters.
73
30 sec
Q.
What do you call the effect of the "movement of liquid" in a slack tank?
74
30 sec
Q.
What will be the draft of your ship in dock water with relative density of 1009, if she enters a port with arrival sea water draft of 11.00 meters?
75
30 sec
Q.
When handling cargo, the majority of cargo gear breakdown is due to:
76
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following would have the greatest effect on a vessels longitudinal strength?
77
30 sec
Q.
Who carried out the test of cranes or hoist and accessory gears?
78
30 sec
Q.
You are in the process of loading 465,000 barrels of cargo oil. At 1030, on 5 November, you gauge the vessel and find that you have loaded 203,0000 barrels. At 1200, you find that you have loaded 219,000 barrels. If you continue loading at the same rate, you will finish at approximately:
79
30 sec
Q.
Your vessel displaces 28,500 tons and has a KG of 30 ft., 1,500 tons are discharges with a center of gravity of 12 feet above the keel. What is the height of the center of gravity?
80
30 sec
Q.
Before entering any space that has been sealed, its oxygen level should be tested. What level of oxygen in the space is equal to fresh air?
81
30 sec
Q.
Cargo pump relief valves must be tested as per United States Coast Guard Regulations every:
82
30 sec
Q.
If a compartment is partly filled with bulk grain, what is much greater than it would be if the compartment was filled?
83
30 sec
Q.
If you observe any situation which presents a safety or pollution hazard during fuel transfer operations, which of the following actions should be taken FIRST?
84
30 sec
Q.
What danger to personnel exists when a carbon dioxide fire extinguisher is discharged in a small enclosed space?
85
30 sec
Q.
When inert gas distribution piping is used for vapour collection piping, means to the inert gas supply from the vapour collection system should be provided.
86
30 sec
Q.
When testing the atmosphere of a compartment with a combustible gas indicator, the operator must remember that .
87
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following can result in an oxygen deficiency in a closed space?
88
30 sec
Q.
For vessels fitted cargo gear, an initial test of the units under the proof load shall be conducted. Subsequent tests and exams of the same nature shall be carried out at what time interval?
89
30 sec
Q.
A term applied to a fore and aft girder running along the side of the ship and also to the outboard strake of plating on any deck.
90
30 sec
Q.
Your ship of 12,000 tons displacement has a center of gravity 21.5 feet above the keel.
You run aground and estimate the weight aground is 2500 tons. The virtual rise in the center of gravity is:
91
30 sec
Q.
A cargo or 40 tons is to be lifted with a boom located 40 feet from the ship’s centerline. The ship’s displacement including the suspended cargo is 8,000 tons and the GM is 2 feet with cargo suspended. What will the list of the vessel be with the cargo suspended?
92
30 sec
Q.
Which factor is most important in preventing sweat damage within a cargo hold?
93
30 sec
Q.
If reefer space are not properly cleaned prior to loading cargoes, it will most likely cause:
94
30 sec
Q.
Your vessel is floating in water or density 1010. The water allowance is 8 inches.
How far below her marks may she be loaded so as to float at her mark in salt water of density 1025?
95
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following would have the GREATEST effect on a vessels longitudinal strength?
96
30 sec
Q.
A 500 tons have shifted 20 feet transversely. What is the shift in the center of gravity if your vessel is displacing 16,000 tons?
97
30 sec
Q.
How many board feet of dunnage would you estimate to be in a pile 5 feet wide, 1 foot high and 14 feet long?
98
30 sec
Q.
The approx. rolling period of a dry cargo vessel with GM 3.0 ft, beam 60 ft is:
99
30 sec
Q.
How many cubic feet of space is required to stow 775 tons of a
cargo with a stowage factor of 25? The estimated broken stowage is 15%.
100
30 sec
Q.
The displacement in salt water is 23,900 tons and the TPC is 31.44, permitted fresh water sinkage is 19 cm. What is the equivalent displacement in fresh water?
101
30 sec
Q.
Bales of wool with a stowage factor of 100 will be loaded in lower hold #3 which has a bale cubic capacity of 72,000. How many tons of the wool can be stowed in the compartment, assuming 10% broken stowage?
102
30 sec
Q.
Which vessel would NOT exhibit sidelights when underway and not making way?
103
30 sec
Q.
Which statement is TRUE of a 30-meter sailing vessel underway?
104
30 sec
Q.
Which statement is TRUE when you are towing more than one barge astern at night?
105
30 sec
Q.
You hear the fog signal of another vessel forward of your beam. Risk of collision may exist. You must:
106
30 sec
Q.
In fog, you observe your radar and determine that a risk of collision exist with a vessel 2 miles off your port bow. You should:
107
30 sec
Q.
You are underway in fog and hear a fog signal of two prolonged blasts on your starboard quarter. You should:
108
30 sec
Q.
You are underway in fog in thick fog. Which statement is TRUE?
109
30 sec
Q.
In restricted visibility, a vessel which detects by radar alone the presence of another vessel, shall determine if a close quarters situation is developing or risk of collision exists. If so, she shall:
110
30 sec
Q.
A vessel may exhibit lights other than those prescribed by the rules as long as the additional lights:
111
30 sec
Q.
As defined in the navigation rules, the arc of visibility for sidelights is from right ahead to:
112
30 sec
Q.
A continuous sounding of a fog whistle by a vessel indicates that a vessel is:
113
30 sec
Q.
How many meters vertically above the sidelights (if carried), shall the masthead light of a power-driven vessel of less 12 meters in length?
114
30 sec
Q.
For vessels 20 meters or more in length, the diameter of the mouth of the bell it carries shall be not less than:
115
30 sec
Q.
Under the rules, all of the following are distress signals EXCEPT:
116
30 sec
Q.
A vessel engaged in trawling, in addition to its identity lights, is exhibiting two white lights in a vertical line. What is she doing?
117
30 sec
Q.
On a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length, the sidelights shall be placed:
118
30 sec
Q.
A diamond shall consist of two cones:
119
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex III,Sec. 1, Whistles, what is the required audibility range in nautical miles for vessels 20 m but less than 75 meters in length?
120
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex III,Sec. 1, Whistles, what is the required audibility range in nautical miles for vessels 75 m but less than 200 meters in length?
121
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex III,Sec. 1, Whistles, what is the required audibility range in nautical miles for vessels 200 meters or more in length?
122
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex III,Sec. 1, Whistles, what is the required audibility range in nautical miles for vessels less than 20 meters in length?
123
30 sec
Q.
The lights and shapes on a vessel engaged in dredging or underwater operations to indicate the obstructed side on which it is safe to pass shall be placed:
124
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS Annex I, Sec. 1.what should be the height above the sidelights of the lower two all-round lights prescribed for a vessel when engaged in fishing?
125
30 sec
Q.
You saw a man aboard a vessel and he is raising and lowering his outstretched arms to each side. This means:
126
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex I, paragraph (g), at what height above the hull shall the sidelights of a power-driven vessel be placed?
127
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex II, the additional signals for fishing vessels, they shall be visible all around the horizon at a distance of at least:
128
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex IV, if you saw flames aboard a vessel but could see the vessel was not on fire, this would indicate that the_____ .
129
30 sec
Q.
When two masthead lights are carried for a power-driven vessel, the after one shall be vertically higher than the forward one by how many meters?
130
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS Annex III, the bell striker shall have a mass not less than ________ of the mass of the bell.
131
30 sec
Q.
The vertical separation of masthead lights of a power-driven vessel shall be such that in all conditions of trim, the after light, when viewed from sea level, shall be seen over and separate from the forward light, at a distance from the stem by:
132
30 sec
Q.
As prescribed in Annex III of the International Collision Regulations, the fundamental frequency of a whistle for a vessel less than 75 meters in length, shall be between:
133
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS Annex III, what is the length of the vessel if the fundamental frequency of whistle is between 250 - 700 Hz?
134
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS Annex III, what is the length of the vessel if the audibility range of a whistle is two miles?
135
30 sec
Q.
When a directional whistle is to be used as the only whistle on a vessel, it shall be installed with its maximum intensity directed:
136
30 sec
Q.
Under Annex III of the Collision Regulations, the sidelights of a vessel of 20 meters or more in length shall be fitted with inboard screens painted:
137
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS, Annex I, the forward anchor light, of a vessel of 50 meters or more in length shall be placed at a height above the hull by NOT less than:
138
30 sec
Q.
Under COLREGS Annex IV, what does the orange flag, showing a black circle and a square shape indicate?
139
30 sec
Q.
When two or three lights are to be carried in a vertical line on a power-driven vessel of 20 meters or more in length, the lowest of these lights shall, EXCEPT where towing light is required such lights shall be placed at a height above the hull by NOT less than:
140
30 sec
Q.
As prescribed to Annex III of the COLREGS, the fundamental frequency of a whistle for a vessel 75 meters but less than 200 meters in length, shall be between:
141
30 sec
Q.
The light indicating the direction of the outlying gear from a vessel engaged in fishing shall be placed at a horizontal distance from the two all round red and white lights of:
142
30 sec
Q.
The whistles of a combined whistle system are arranged to be sounded simultaneously and shall be located at a distance apart of not more than:
143
30 sec
Q.
When two or three lights are to be carried in a vertical line on a power-driven vessel of less than 20 meters in length, such lights, EXCEPT where a towing light is required, shall be placed at a height above the gunwale of NOT less than:
144
30 sec
Q.
Which of these vessels must exhibit three white masthead lights in a vertical line?
145
30 sec
Q.
An appropriate authority for roadsteads, harbors, rivers, lakes or inland waterways connected with the high seas and navigable by seagoing vessels, in making special rules, shall:
146
30 sec
Q.
Under the Collision Regulations, there is a requirement to practice "good seamanship". Which of the following would be considered "good seamanship"?
147
30 sec
Q.
Which of the following is NOT Under Command as defined under Rule 3 of the Regulations?
148
30 sec
Q.
A proper lookout is required at all times by Rule 5 of the Collision Regulations. A proper lookout is maintained by:
149
30 sec
Q.
Power-driven vessel "A" is approaching power-driven vessel "B". How can vessel "A" determine whether risk of collision exists?
150
30 sec
Q.
You have another vessel on your port bow in clear weather, but with moderate seas and swell. Having regard to Rule 7 of the Collision Regulations, which of the following would normally give the greatest accuracy in determining if risk of collision exists?
151
30 sec
Q.
In considering the proper use of radar equipment in determining if risk of collision exists, which of the these would be accepted as proper usage? I. Continuous observation by a competent person
II. Bearing and distances of other vessels taken at regular intervals and carefully evaluated
152
30 sec
Q.
In accordance with Rule 8 of the Collision Regulations, in any condition of visibility in order to avoid collision, which of the following is an error?
153
30 sec
Q.
After abandoning ship, how much water per day each person permitted after first 24 hours?
154
30 sec
Q.
An officer in charge of a watch or forming a part shall be provided a minimum of how many hours rest period in any 24 hour period pursuant to STCW regulations?
155
30 sec
Q.
You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest compressions and how many inflations should you do in one sequence?
156
30 sec
Q.
CO2 cylinders forming part of a fixed fire extinguishing system must be pressure tested at least every:
157
30 sec
Q.
At a speed of 6 knots, the fuel aboard a survival craft should last:
158
30 sec
Q.
Comminuted garbage shall pass through a screen with mesh size not larger than:
159
30 sec
Q.
Lifeboats should be launched and maneuvered in the water during abandoned ship drill once every:
160
30 sec
Q.
The falls used in launching devices shall be turned end for end at intervals of not more than:
161
30 sec
Q.
At what speed of a survival craft does the fuel aboard it would last for 24 hours?
162
30 sec
Q.
An accommodation ladder or other equally safe and convenient means must be provided for a pilot whenever the distance from the sea level is more than.
163
30 sec
Q.
A galley grease fire would be classified as which class of fire?
164
30 sec
Q.
A fire starts in a switchboard due to a short circuit. This is what class of fire?
165
30 sec
Q.
A magnesium fire is classified as class:
166
30 sec
Q.
A fire in a pile of dunnage would be classified as class:
167
30 sec
Q.
An aluminum powder fire is classified as class:
168
30 sec
Q.
When a ship’s crew chokes suddenly, cannot speak and starts to turn blue, what action should be taken?
169
30 sec
Q.
When should you first have any food or water after boarding a lifeboat or liferaft?
170
30 sec
Q.
The Master must provide a safety orientation to a newly joined crew who has not participated on any drills or who has not received any safety instructions:
171
30 sec
Q.
A CO2 fire extinguisher is determined that it is fully charged by :
172
30 sec
Q.
A crew member has just fallen overboard off your port beam. Which action should you take?
173
30 sec
Q.
A shipmate suffers a heart attack and stops breathing. You must _____ .
174
30 sec
Q.
A tourniquet should be used to control bleeding only:
175
30 sec
Q.
A useful means of moving a casualty if a ladder or stairway has to be climbed is:
176
30 sec
Q.
Administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an adult, you should breathe at the rate of how many breaths per minute?
177
30 sec
Q.
After abandoning vessel and more than one raft is manned, you should ________ :
178
30 sec
Q.
Due to the volume of traffic on the radio, you are unable to communicate with the vessel in distress. What action should you take?
179
30 sec
Q.
During a search, a RU would like to communicate by VHF radio telephone on channel indicated, she must signal what code group?
180
30 sec
Q.
During beaching operation, the approach should preferably be made at slow speed and at what angle to the beach?
181
30 sec
Q.
If you are fighting a fire below the main deck of your vessel, which action is most important concerning the stability of the vessel?
182
30 sec
Q.
My ship is infected with infectious disease, what international flag signal will I hoist?
183
30 sec
Q.
Man over-board situation maneuver depends on which of the following? I. Situation prevailing II. Type of ship involved III. Speed of the vessel
184
30 sec
Q.
PAN-PAN repeated three times over the radiotelephone indicates which type of message will follow?
185
30 sec
Q.
Provided every effort is made to preserve body moisture content by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without water?
186
30 sec
Q.
Several merchant vessels are arriving at the distress scene. One of them must assume the duties of Coordinator Surface Search (CSS). Which of the following statements is TRUE?
187
30 sec
Q.
The OOW should make regular checks on navigational equipment to ensure safety of navigation. Which of the following does NOT apply?
188
30 sec
Q.
The order of importance in addressing damage control:
189
30 sec
Q.
The part of a sea anchor that allows it to be easily brought back aboard a life raft is the:
190
30 sec
Q.
The proper stimulant for an unconscious person is:
191
30 sec
Q.
Upon receipt of a distress message, a merchant vessel is bound to proceed to the scene of the distress. Only on the following circumstances can he be excused. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
192
30 sec
Q.
Underway in dense fog you hear "man overboard". Which maneuver should you make?
193
30 sec
Q.
What is one of the most dangerous state of human being may suffer is in sea water awaiting rescue?
194
30 sec
Q.
What is NOT a treatment for traumatic shock?
195
30 sec
Q.
What do you call a rigid lifesaving device designed to support survivors particularly in the water?
196
30 sec
Q.
What is the international distress frequency for radiotelephones?
197
30 sec
Q.
What is the primary purpose of a splint applied in first aid?
198
30 sec
Q.
When a person suffers major injury, after the first aid, what other treatment should be considered?
199
30 sec
Q.
When administering chest compression during CPR, at what part of the victim's body should the pressure be applied?
200
30 sec
Q.
When administering mouth to mouth resuscitation to an adult, how many breaths per minute should you administer?
201
30 sec
Q.
When two people are administering CPR to a victim, how many times per minute should the chest be compressed?
202
30 sec
Q.
Which danger exists to people when CO2 is discharged into a small enclosed space?
203
30 sec
Q.
Where is it best to launch a lifeboat, when the ship is able to maneuver in rough weather?